UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 13 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the most significant economic argument presented in the context of the need for enhanced Childcare in India? (a) Childcare is primarily a social welfare function to ensure gender equity. (b) Investment in childcare acts as a "soft infrastructure" essential for achieving 8–10% annual economic growth. (c) The Palna Scheme, providing crèche support for working mothers, has achieved universal coverage, boosting women's labour force participation. (d) Addressing the demographic transition through early childhood investment is sufficient to ensure future workforce quality. Correct Solution: B Explanation: Investment in childcare acts as a “soft infrastructure” essential for achieving 8–10% annual economic growth. Contemporary economic arguments emphasise that childcare is not just a welfare measure but a critical economic infrastructure that enables higher female labour force participation (FLFP), boosts productivity, and supports sustained high economic growth. Studies and policy discussions in India highlight that without expanding childcare, reaching 8–10% annual GDP growth is unlikely because a large share of potential women workers remain out of the workforce due to unpaid care responsibilities. Other options are incorrect: (a) is a valid social argument but not the most significant economic argument. (c) is factually incorrect—Palna Scheme does not have universal coverage. (d) captures a benefit of early childhood investment but does not represent the main economic argument related to childcare infrastructure and labour participation. Thus, option (b) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Investment in childcare acts as a “soft infrastructure” essential for achieving 8–10% annual economic growth. Contemporary economic arguments emphasise that childcare is not just a welfare measure but a critical economic infrastructure that enables higher female labour force participation (FLFP), boosts productivity, and supports sustained high economic growth. Studies and policy discussions in India highlight that without expanding childcare, reaching 8–10% annual GDP growth is unlikely because a large share of potential women workers remain out of the workforce due to unpaid care responsibilities. Other options are incorrect: (a) is a valid social argument but not the most significant economic argument. (c) is factually incorrect—Palna Scheme does not have universal coverage. (d) captures a benefit of early childhood investment but does not represent the main economic argument related to childcare infrastructure and labour participation. Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

#### 1. Question

Which one of the following is the most significant economic argument presented in the context of the need for enhanced Childcare in India?

• (a) Childcare is primarily a social welfare function to ensure gender equity.

• (b) Investment in childcare acts as a "soft infrastructure" essential for achieving 8–10% annual economic growth.

• (c) The Palna Scheme, providing crèche support for working mothers, has achieved universal coverage, boosting women's labour force participation.

• (d) Addressing the demographic transition through early childhood investment is sufficient to ensure future workforce quality.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Investment in childcare acts as a “soft infrastructure” essential for achieving 8–10% annual economic growth.

• Contemporary economic arguments emphasise that childcare is not just a welfare measure but a critical economic infrastructure that enables higher female labour force participation (FLFP), boosts productivity, and supports sustained high economic growth.

• Studies and policy discussions in India highlight that without expanding childcare, reaching 8–10% annual GDP growth is unlikely because a large share of potential women workers remain out of the workforce due to unpaid care responsibilities.

• Other options are incorrect: (a) is a valid social argument but not the most significant economic argument. (c) is factually incorrect—Palna Scheme does not have universal coverage. (d) captures a benefit of early childhood investment but does not represent the main economic argument related to childcare infrastructure and labour participation.

• (a) is a valid social argument but not the most significant economic argument.

• (c) is factually incorrect—Palna Scheme does not have universal coverage.

• (d) captures a benefit of early childhood investment but does not represent the main economic argument related to childcare infrastructure and labour participation.

Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Investment in childcare acts as a “soft infrastructure” essential for achieving 8–10% annual economic growth.

• (a) is a valid social argument but not the most significant economic argument.

• (c) is factually incorrect—Palna Scheme does not have universal coverage.

• (d) captures a benefit of early childhood investment but does not represent the main economic argument related to childcare infrastructure and labour participation.

Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Involuntary administration of a Narco-analysis test is violative of Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India. Statement-II: The results of a voluntarily administered Narco-analysis test are treated as conclusive proof of guilt by the courts. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Explanation: Statement-I: Correct. Article 20(3) of the Constitution guarantees the fundamental right against self-incrimination: “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.” The Supreme Court in Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010), explicitly ruled that the involuntary administration of psychological tests, including Narco-analysis, polygraph tests, and brain-mapping, constitutes “compulsion” and thus violates the right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3). It also infringes upon the right to privacy and mental liberty. Therefore, consent is mandatory. Statement-II: Incorrect. The results of any Narco-analysis test (even if administered voluntarily with consent) are not treated as conclusive proof of guilt by the courts. The Selvi judgment mandates that the results of these tests are to be treated as “information” or “material evidence” only. They are admissible under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (for facts discovered as a result of the test) and are similar to confessions made to a police officer, but they are not a substitute for substantive evidence. The courts require independent, corroborating evidence to prove guilt. The Narco-analysis report itself has limited evidentiary value and is not conclusive. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Statement-I: Correct. Article 20(3) of the Constitution guarantees the fundamental right against self-incrimination: “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.” The Supreme Court in Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010), explicitly ruled that the involuntary administration of psychological tests, including Narco-analysis, polygraph tests, and brain-mapping, constitutes “compulsion” and thus violates the right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3). It also infringes upon the right to privacy and mental liberty. Therefore, consent is mandatory. Statement-II: Incorrect. The results of any Narco-analysis test (even if administered voluntarily with consent) are not treated as conclusive proof of guilt by the courts. The Selvi judgment mandates that the results of these tests are to be treated as “information” or “material evidence” only. They are admissible under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (for facts discovered as a result of the test) and are similar to confessions made to a police officer, but they are not a substitute for substantive evidence. The courts require independent, corroborating evidence to prove guilt. The Narco-analysis report itself has limited evidentiary value and is not conclusive.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Involuntary administration of a Narco-analysis test is violative of Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India.

Statement-II: The results of a voluntarily administered Narco-analysis test are treated as conclusive proof of guilt by the courts.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Explanation:

Statement-I: Correct.

• Article 20(3) of the Constitution guarantees the fundamental right against self-incrimination: “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.” The Supreme Court in Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010), explicitly ruled that the involuntary administration of psychological tests, including Narco-analysis, polygraph tests, and brain-mapping, constitutes “compulsion” and thus violates the right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3). It also infringes upon the right to privacy and mental liberty. Therefore, consent is mandatory.

• Article 20(3) of the Constitution guarantees the fundamental right against self-incrimination: “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.”

• The Supreme Court in Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010), explicitly ruled that the involuntary administration of psychological tests, including Narco-analysis, polygraph tests, and brain-mapping, constitutes “compulsion” and thus violates the right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3). It also infringes upon the right to privacy and mental liberty. Therefore, consent is mandatory.

Statement-II: Incorrect.

• The results of any Narco-analysis test (even if administered voluntarily with consent) are not treated as conclusive proof of guilt by the courts. The Selvi judgment mandates that the results of these tests are to be treated as “information” or “material evidence” only. They are admissible under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (for facts discovered as a result of the test) and are similar to confessions made to a police officer, but they are not a substitute for substantive evidence. The courts require independent, corroborating evidence to prove guilt. The Narco-analysis report itself has limited evidentiary value and is not conclusive.

• The results of any Narco-analysis test (even if administered voluntarily with consent) are not treated as conclusive proof of guilt by the courts.

• The Selvi judgment mandates that the results of these tests are to be treated as “information” or “material evidence” only. They are admissible under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (for facts discovered as a result of the test) and are similar to confessions made to a police officer, but they are not a substitute for substantive evidence.

• The courts require independent, corroborating evidence to prove guilt. The Narco-analysis report itself has limited evidentiary value and is not conclusive.

Solution: C

Explanation:

Statement-I: Correct.

• Article 20(3) of the Constitution guarantees the fundamental right against self-incrimination: “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.”

Statement-II: Incorrect.

• The results of any Narco-analysis test (even if administered voluntarily with consent) are not treated as conclusive proof of guilt by the courts.

• The courts require independent, corroborating evidence to prove guilt. The Narco-analysis report itself has limited evidentiary value and is not conclusive.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to India’s First Indigenous Hydrogen Fuel Cell Passenger Vessel, consider the following statements: It is a 24-metre hydrogen fuel cell-powered AC catamaran launched for commercial service on the Yamuna river. The vessel’s propulsion system utilizes Low-Temperature PEM fuel cell technology. The only emission from the vessel during operation is water, making it completely pollution-free. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: About India’s First Indigenous Hydrogen Fuel Cell Passenger Vessel: A 24-metre hydrogen fuel cell-powered AC catamaran crafted for zero-emission passenger movement, ensuring clean mobility on inland waterways. Location: Namo Ghat, Varanasi — the vessel’s maiden commercial run began here along the Ganga. Developed by: Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL), showcasing indigenous excellence in clean marine engineering. Statement 1 is incorrect. The vessel is a 24-metre hydrogen fuel cell-powered AC catamaran, but its maiden commercial run was launched at Namo Ghat, Varanasi, along the Ganga river, not the Yamuna. Statement 2 is correct. The propulsion utilizes Low-Temperature PEM fuel cell technology. Statement 3 is correct. The vessel emits only water, ensuring completely pollution-free navigation. This aligns with the feature of a Hydrogen Fuel Cell, which converts hydrogen and oxygen into electricity, yielding only water and heat. Since only two statements (2 and 3) are correct, option (b) is the answer. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: About India’s First Indigenous Hydrogen Fuel Cell Passenger Vessel: A 24-metre hydrogen fuel cell-powered AC catamaran crafted for zero-emission passenger movement, ensuring clean mobility on inland waterways. Location: Namo Ghat, Varanasi — the vessel’s maiden commercial run began here along the Ganga. Developed by: Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL), showcasing indigenous excellence in clean marine engineering. Statement 1 is incorrect. The vessel is a 24-metre hydrogen fuel cell-powered AC catamaran, but its maiden commercial run was launched at Namo Ghat, Varanasi, along the Ganga river, not the Yamuna. Statement 2 is correct. The propulsion utilizes Low-Temperature PEM fuel cell technology. Statement 3 is correct. The vessel emits only water, ensuring completely pollution-free navigation. This aligns with the feature of a Hydrogen Fuel Cell, which converts hydrogen and oxygen into electricity, yielding only water and heat. Since only two statements (2 and 3) are correct, option (b) is the answer.

#### 3. Question

With reference to India’s First Indigenous Hydrogen Fuel Cell Passenger Vessel, consider the following statements:

• It is a 24-metre hydrogen fuel cell-powered AC catamaran launched for commercial service on the Yamuna river.

• The vessel’s propulsion system utilizes Low-Temperature PEM fuel cell technology.

• The only emission from the vessel during operation is water, making it completely pollution-free.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation:

About India’s First Indigenous Hydrogen Fuel Cell Passenger Vessel:

A 24-metre hydrogen fuel cell-powered AC catamaran crafted for zero-emission passenger movement, ensuring clean mobility on inland waterways.

Location: Namo Ghat, Varanasi — the vessel’s maiden commercial run began here along the Ganga.

Developed by: Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL), showcasing indigenous excellence in clean marine engineering.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The vessel is a 24-metre hydrogen fuel cell-powered AC catamaran, but its maiden commercial run was launched at Namo Ghat, Varanasi, along the Ganga river, not the Yamuna.

• Statement 2 is correct. The propulsion utilizes Low-Temperature PEM fuel cell technology.

• Statement 3 is correct. The vessel emits only water, ensuring completely pollution-free navigation. This aligns with the feature of a Hydrogen Fuel Cell, which converts hydrogen and oxygen into electricity, yielding only water and heat.

Since only two statements (2 and 3) are correct, option (b) is the answer.

Solution: B

Explanation:

About India’s First Indigenous Hydrogen Fuel Cell Passenger Vessel:

A 24-metre hydrogen fuel cell-powered AC catamaran crafted for zero-emission passenger movement, ensuring clean mobility on inland waterways.

Location: Namo Ghat, Varanasi — the vessel’s maiden commercial run began here along the Ganga.

Developed by: Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL), showcasing indigenous excellence in clean marine engineering.

• Statement 2 is correct. The propulsion utilizes Low-Temperature PEM fuel cell technology.

Since only two statements (2 and 3) are correct, option (b) is the answer.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Hard Corals (Stony Corals): Hard corals form the foundation of coral reef ecosystems by secreting calcium carbonate skeletons. They host zooxanthellae algae, which are responsible for mass bleaching events when they leave the coral polyps under stress. Stony Coral Tissue Loss Disease (SCTLD) is a fast-spreading disease currently devastating coral species in the Indo-Pacific region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Hard corals secrete calcium carbonate skeletons, which form the rigid structures of coral reefs. They form the foundation of these ecosystems. Statement 2 is incorrect. Hard corals do host zooxanthellae algae, which provide food through photosynthesis. However, it is the extreme heat waves and subsequent stress that cause the algae to leave the polyps, leading to coral starvation and mortality—this is the phenomenon of mass bleaching. The algae are the victims of the stress, not the cause of the bleaching events. Statement 3 is incorrect. Stony Coral Tissue Loss Disease (SCTLD) is a devastating, fast-spreading disease affecting many species, but it is currently reported as being prevalent across 30 Caribbean countries, not the Indo-Pacific. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the answer is (a). Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Hard corals secrete calcium carbonate skeletons, which form the rigid structures of coral reefs. They form the foundation of these ecosystems. Statement 2 is incorrect. Hard corals do host zooxanthellae algae, which provide food through photosynthesis. However, it is the extreme heat waves and subsequent stress that cause the algae to leave the polyps, leading to coral starvation and mortality—this is the phenomenon of mass bleaching. The algae are the victims of the stress, not the cause of the bleaching events. Statement 3 is incorrect. Stony Coral Tissue Loss Disease (SCTLD) is a devastating, fast-spreading disease affecting many species, but it is currently reported as being prevalent across 30 Caribbean countries, not the Indo-Pacific. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the answer is (a).

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Hard Corals (Stony Corals):

• Hard corals form the foundation of coral reef ecosystems by secreting calcium carbonate skeletons.

• They host zooxanthellae algae, which are responsible for mass bleaching events when they leave the coral polyps under stress.

• Stony Coral Tissue Loss Disease (SCTLD) is a fast-spreading disease currently devastating coral species in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. Hard corals secrete calcium carbonate skeletons, which form the rigid structures of coral reefs. They form the foundation of these ecosystems.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Hard corals do host zooxanthellae algae, which provide food through photosynthesis. However, it is the extreme heat waves and subsequent stress that cause the algae to leave the polyps, leading to coral starvation and mortality—this is the phenomenon of mass bleaching. The algae are the victims of the stress, not the cause of the bleaching events.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Stony Coral Tissue Loss Disease (SCTLD) is a devastating, fast-spreading disease affecting many species, but it is currently reported as being prevalent across 30 Caribbean countries, not the Indo-Pacific.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the answer is (a).

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. Hard corals secrete calcium carbonate skeletons, which form the rigid structures of coral reefs. They form the foundation of these ecosystems.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the answer is (a).

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The ‘fair dealing’ exception under India’s Copyright Act is unlikely to legally cover Generative AI training at an industrial scale. Statement-II: Fair dealing is narrowly defined for purposes like private research, criticism, or reporting, and commercial Large Language Model (LLM) developers cannot invoke it as training is revenue-driven. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement-I is Correct. India’s Copyright Act (Section 52) uses a narrower ‘fair dealing’ doctrine, unlike the broader ‘fair use’ in the US, which strictly limits exceptions to specific, non-commercial purposes. Statement-II: is also Correct. Fair dealing is defined for limited purposes like private research, criticism, or news reporting. Training a Commercial Large Language Model (LLM) involves systematic, mass copying of works to create a core, revenue-driven product. Because this activity is commercial and falls outside the narrow, specified list of allowable uses, LLM developers cannot legally invoke the fair dealing defense. The commercial, industrial nature of the training directly contradicts the public-interest and non-commercial spirit of the exception. Therefore, Statement-II correctly explains why the ‘fair dealing’ exception is generally not applicable to commercial GenAI training, supporting Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement-I is Correct. India’s Copyright Act (Section 52) uses a narrower ‘fair dealing’ doctrine, unlike the broader ‘fair use’ in the US, which strictly limits exceptions to specific, non-commercial purposes. Statement-II: is also Correct. Fair dealing is defined for limited purposes like private research, criticism, or news reporting. Training a Commercial Large Language Model (LLM) involves systematic, mass copying of works to create a core, revenue-driven product. Because this activity is commercial and falls outside the narrow, specified list of allowable uses, LLM developers cannot legally invoke the fair dealing defense. The commercial, industrial nature of the training directly contradicts the public-interest and non-commercial spirit of the exception. Therefore, Statement-II correctly explains why the ‘fair dealing’ exception is generally not applicable to commercial GenAI training, supporting Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The ‘fair dealing’ exception under India’s Copyright Act is unlikely to legally cover Generative AI training at an industrial scale.

Statement-II: Fair dealing is narrowly defined for purposes like private research, criticism, or reporting, and commercial Large Language Model (LLM) developers cannot invoke it as training is revenue-driven.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement-I is Correct. India’s Copyright Act (Section 52) uses a narrower ‘fair dealing’ doctrine, unlike the broader ‘fair use’ in the US, which strictly limits exceptions to specific, non-commercial purposes.

Statement-II: is also Correct. Fair dealing is defined for limited purposes like private research, criticism, or news reporting. Training a Commercial Large Language Model (LLM) involves systematic, mass copying of works to create a core, revenue-driven product. Because this activity is commercial and falls outside the narrow, specified list of allowable uses, LLM developers cannot legally invoke the fair dealing defense. The commercial, industrial nature of the training directly contradicts the public-interest and non-commercial spirit of the exception.

Therefore, Statement-II correctly explains why the ‘fair dealing’ exception is generally not applicable to commercial GenAI training, supporting Statement-I.

Solution: A

Explanation:

Therefore, Statement-II correctly explains why the ‘fair dealing’ exception is generally not applicable to commercial GenAI training, supporting Statement-I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) targets a 40% reduction in PM10 concentrations in non-attainment cities. Statement-II: Air pollution is now considered a perennial national health crisis affecting rural and urban regions, rather than just a seasonal winter issue. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) specifically targets a 40% reduction in PM10 in 131 non-attainment cities. Statement-II is correct. The current assessment highlights that air pollution is no longer a seasonal winter issue but a perennial national health crisis affecting both rural and urban regions. However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I is a policy target (NCAP goal), while Statement-II describes the nature of the problem (perennial crisis). NCAP’s target (I) is a response to the problem described in part by (II), but (II) does not explain why the reduction target is 40% or why PM10 was chosen. Both statements are individually correct, hence (b) is the answer. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) specifically targets a 40% reduction in PM10 in 131 non-attainment cities. Statement-II is correct. The current assessment highlights that air pollution is no longer a seasonal winter issue but a perennial national health crisis affecting both rural and urban regions. However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I is a policy target (NCAP goal), while Statement-II describes the nature of the problem (perennial crisis). NCAP’s target (I) is a response to the problem described in part by (II), but (II) does not explain why the reduction target is 40% or why PM10 was chosen. Both statements are individually correct, hence (b) is the answer.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) targets a 40% reduction in PM10 concentrations in non-attainment cities.

Statement-II: Air pollution is now considered a perennial national health crisis affecting rural and urban regions, rather than just a seasonal winter issue.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement-I is correct. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) specifically targets a 40% reduction in PM10 in 131 non-attainment cities.

• Statement-II is correct. The current assessment highlights that air pollution is no longer a seasonal winter issue but a perennial national health crisis affecting both rural and urban regions.

• However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I is a policy target (NCAP goal), while Statement-II describes the nature of the problem (perennial crisis). NCAP’s target (I) is a response to the problem described in part by (II), but (II) does not explain why the reduction target is 40% or why PM10 was chosen.

Both statements are individually correct, hence (b) is the answer.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement-I is correct. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) specifically targets a 40% reduction in PM10 in 131 non-attainment cities.

Both statements are individually correct, hence (b) is the answer.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the July National Charter of Bangladesh, consider the following statements: It is a reform blueprint proposing changes to the 1972 Constitution and governance structure. The Charter was prepared exclusively by the interim government under Muhammad Yunus. Its significance lies in its attempt to institutionalise democratic reforms after the July Revolution of 2024. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Charter is a political declaration and reform blueprint proposing changes to the 1972 Constitution and governance structure. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Charter was prepared through a national consensus involving the interim government under Muhammad Yunus and 30 political parties. It is a 28-point reform document produced through multi-party consultations. Statement 3 is correct. The aim of the Charter is precisely to institutionalise democratic reforms and protect the gains of the pro-democracy movement following the July Revolution (2024). Since only two statements (1 and 3) are correct, option (b) is the answer. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Charter is a political declaration and reform blueprint proposing changes to the 1972 Constitution and governance structure. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Charter was prepared through a national consensus involving the interim government under Muhammad Yunus and 30 political parties. It is a 28-point reform document produced through multi-party consultations. Statement 3 is correct. The aim of the Charter is precisely to institutionalise democratic reforms and protect the gains of the pro-democracy movement following the July Revolution (2024). Since only two statements (1 and 3) are correct, option (b) is the answer.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the July National Charter of Bangladesh, consider the following statements:

• It is a reform blueprint proposing changes to the 1972 Constitution and governance structure.

• The Charter was prepared exclusively by the interim government under Muhammad Yunus.

• Its significance lies in its attempt to institutionalise democratic reforms after the July Revolution of 2024.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Charter is a political declaration and reform blueprint proposing changes to the 1972 Constitution and governance structure.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Charter was prepared through a national consensus involving the interim government under Muhammad Yunus and 30 political parties. It is a 28-point reform document produced through multi-party consultations.

• Statement 3 is correct. The aim of the Charter is precisely to institutionalise democratic reforms and protect the gains of the pro-democracy movement following the July Revolution (2024).

Since only two statements (1 and 3) are correct, option (b) is the answer.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Charter is a political declaration and reform blueprint proposing changes to the 1972 Constitution and governance structure.

Since only two statements (1 and 3) are correct, option (b) is the answer.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding BlueBird-6: BlueBird-6 is the heaviest American commercial communication satellite, designed for Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). The launch vehicle LVM3 is India’s heaviest-lift launch vehicle, capable of placing 8,000 kg into GTO. The LVM3 uses a fully indigenous C50 cryogenic upper stage powered by the CE-20 engine. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Explanation: ISRO’s LVM3 selected to launch BlueBird-6, a US commercial satellite: A 6.5-tonne Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) communication satellite, part of AST SpaceMobile’s next-generation constellation designed for direct-to-device mobile broadband globally. Key Features: Largest commercial phased array antenna in LEO: ~2,400 sq ft once deployed Block-2 series: 3.5× larger than BlueBirds 1–5 and 10× higher data capacity Provides up to 10,000 MHz bandwidth per satellite Enables non-continuous direct-to-device connectivity in areas without terrestrial networks Statement 1 is incorrect. BlueBird-6 is the heaviest American commercial communication satellite (6.5 tonnes), but it is a Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) communication satellite, not a GTO satellite. Statement 2 is incorrect. LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3), or the ‘Bahubali’ rocket, is India’s heaviest-lift operational launch vehicle. Its stated capacity is 8,000 kg to Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) and 4,000 kg to Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). Statement 3 is incorrect. The LVM3 uses a C25 cryogenic upper stage, not C50. It is powered by the indigenous CE-20 engine, which is correct, but the stage name is incorrect. Since none of the statements are correct, option (d) is the answer. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: ISRO’s LVM3 selected to launch BlueBird-6, a US commercial satellite: A 6.5-tonne Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) communication satellite, part of AST SpaceMobile’s next-generation constellation designed for direct-to-device mobile broadband globally. Key Features: Largest commercial phased array antenna in LEO: ~2,400 sq ft once deployed Block-2 series: 3.5× larger than BlueBirds 1–5 and 10× higher data capacity Provides up to 10,000 MHz bandwidth per satellite Enables non-continuous direct-to-device connectivity in areas without terrestrial networks Statement 1 is incorrect. BlueBird-6 is the heaviest American commercial communication satellite (6.5 tonnes), but it is a Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) communication satellite, not a GTO satellite. Statement 2 is incorrect. LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3), or the ‘Bahubali’ rocket, is India’s heaviest-lift operational launch vehicle. Its stated capacity is 8,000 kg to Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) and 4,000 kg to Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). Statement 3 is incorrect. The LVM3 uses a C25 cryogenic upper stage, not C50. It is powered by the indigenous CE-20 engine, which is correct, but the stage name is incorrect. Since none of the statements are correct, option (d) is the answer.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding BlueBird-6:

• BlueBird-6 is the heaviest American commercial communication satellite, designed for Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO).

• The launch vehicle LVM3 is India’s heaviest-lift launch vehicle, capable of placing 8,000 kg into GTO.

• The LVM3 uses a fully indigenous C50 cryogenic upper stage powered by the CE-20 engine.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

Explanation:

ISRO’s LVM3 selected to launch BlueBird-6, a US commercial satellite:

• A 6.5-tonne Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) communication satellite, part of AST SpaceMobile’s next-generation constellation designed for direct-to-device mobile broadband globally.

• Key Features: Largest commercial phased array antenna in LEO: ~2,400 sq ft once deployed Block-2 series: 3.5× larger than BlueBirds 1–5 and 10× higher data capacity Provides up to 10,000 MHz bandwidth per satellite Enables non-continuous direct-to-device connectivity in areas without terrestrial networks

• Largest commercial phased array antenna in LEO: ~2,400 sq ft once deployed

• Block-2 series: 3.5× larger than BlueBirds 1–5 and 10× higher data capacity

• Provides up to 10,000 MHz bandwidth per satellite

• Enables non-continuous direct-to-device connectivity in areas without terrestrial networks

• Statement 1 is incorrect. BlueBird-6 is the heaviest American commercial communication satellite (6.5 tonnes), but it is a Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) communication satellite, not a GTO satellite.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3), or the ‘Bahubali’ rocket, is India’s heaviest-lift operational launch vehicle. Its stated capacity is 8,000 kg to Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) and 4,000 kg to Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The LVM3 uses a C25 cryogenic upper stage, not C50. It is powered by the indigenous CE-20 engine, which is correct, but the stage name is incorrect.

Since none of the statements are correct, option (d) is the answer.

Solution: D

Explanation:

ISRO’s LVM3 selected to launch BlueBird-6, a US commercial satellite:

• A 6.5-tonne Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) communication satellite, part of AST SpaceMobile’s next-generation constellation designed for direct-to-device mobile broadband globally.

• Largest commercial phased array antenna in LEO: ~2,400 sq ft once deployed

• Block-2 series: 3.5× larger than BlueBirds 1–5 and 10× higher data capacity

• Provides up to 10,000 MHz bandwidth per satellite

• Enables non-continuous direct-to-device connectivity in areas without terrestrial networks

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The LVM3 uses a C25 cryogenic upper stage, not C50. It is powered by the indigenous CE-20 engine, which is correct, but the stage name is incorrect.

Since none of the statements are correct, option (d) is the answer.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is the key characteristic that made UNESCO grant the Intangible Cultural Heritage recognition for “Italian cooking”? (a) The widespread global popularity of specific Italian dishes like Pizza and Pasta. (b) The strong political lobbying by the Italian government to use cuisine as a tool for national pride. (c) Its description as a cultural and social blend of culinary traditions rooted in artisanal techniques, conviviality, and an anti-waste philosophy. (d) The recognition granted was for the Mediterranean Diet, of which Italian cooking forms a substantial part. Correct Solution: C Explanation: UNESCO inscribed Italian cooking (traditional Italian cuisine) on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity not because of the global popularity of dishes like pizza or pasta, nor as part of the Mediterranean Diet (which is a separate UNESCO inscription), nor simply due to political lobbying. Instead, UNESCO recognised it for its cultural essence — specifically: the artisanal techniques and food preparation knowledge passed down through generations, the social and communal practices around meals, the deep traditions of conviviality (sharing food and community), and culinary values such as minimising waste and using local, seasonal ingredients. UNESCO emphasised that Italian food culture embodies not just recipes but a living tradition of food-related social customs and craftsmanship, which is the key characteristic behind the recognition. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: UNESCO inscribed Italian cooking (traditional Italian cuisine) on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity not because of the global popularity of dishes like pizza or pasta, nor as part of the Mediterranean Diet (which is a separate UNESCO inscription), nor simply due to political lobbying. Instead, UNESCO recognised it for its cultural essence — specifically: the artisanal techniques and food preparation knowledge passed down through generations, the social and communal practices around meals, the deep traditions of conviviality (sharing food and community), and culinary values such as minimising waste and using local, seasonal ingredients. UNESCO emphasised that Italian food culture embodies not just recipes but a living tradition of food-related social customs and craftsmanship, which is the key characteristic behind the recognition.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is the key characteristic that made UNESCO grant the Intangible Cultural Heritage recognition for “Italian cooking”?

• (a) The widespread global popularity of specific Italian dishes like Pizza and Pasta.

• (b) The strong political lobbying by the Italian government to use cuisine as a tool for national pride.

• (c) Its description as a cultural and social blend of culinary traditions rooted in artisanal techniques, conviviality, and an anti-waste philosophy.

• (d) The recognition granted was for the Mediterranean Diet, of which Italian cooking forms a substantial part.

Solution: C

Explanation:

UNESCO inscribed Italian cooking (traditional Italian cuisine) on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity not because of the global popularity of dishes like pizza or pasta, nor as part of the Mediterranean Diet (which is a separate UNESCO inscription), nor simply due to political lobbying.

Instead, UNESCO recognised it for its cultural essence — specifically:

• the artisanal techniques and food preparation knowledge passed down through generations,

• the social and communal practices around meals,

• the deep traditions of conviviality (sharing food and community), and

• culinary values such as minimising waste and using local, seasonal ingredients.

UNESCO emphasised that Italian food culture embodies not just recipes but a living tradition of food-related social customs and craftsmanship, which is the key characteristic behind the recognition.

Solution: C

Explanation:

Instead, UNESCO recognised it for its cultural essence — specifically:

• the artisanal techniques and food preparation knowledge passed down through generations,

• the social and communal practices around meals,

• the deep traditions of conviviality (sharing food and community), and

• culinary values such as minimising waste and using local, seasonal ingredients.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Match List-I (Indian Space Initiative) with List-II (Primary Function/Objective): List-I (Indian Space Initiative) List-II (Primary Function/Objective) A. NavIC 1. Augmentation of GPS signals for precision in aviation and defense B. GAGAN 2. Coordination of space-based assets for military use C. Defence Space Agency (DSA) 3. Indigenous regional navigation services D. Samvad Project 4. Securing military satellite communication E. Netra Project 5. Tracking space threats and enhancing space situational awareness Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2, E-5 b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4 c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5 d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5 Correct Solution: C Explanation: NavIC offers indigenous regional navigation services for India and surrounding areas. So, A matches with 3. GAGAN is a system that augments GPS signals for high-precision use, especially in aviation and defense sectors. So, B matches with 1. Defence Space Agency (DSA) is responsible for coordinating space-based assets for military use, enhancing surveillance, navigation, and secure communications. So, C matches with 2. Samvad Project is aimed at securing military satellite communication. So, D matches with 4. Netra Project focuses on tracking space threats and enemy satellites, thereby strengthening space situational awareness. So, E matches with 5. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: NavIC offers indigenous regional navigation services for India and surrounding areas. So, A matches with 3. GAGAN is a system that augments GPS signals for high-precision use, especially in aviation and defense sectors. So, B matches with 1. Defence Space Agency (DSA) is responsible for coordinating space-based assets for military use, enhancing surveillance, navigation, and secure communications. So, C matches with 2. Samvad Project is aimed at securing military satellite communication. So, D matches with 4. Netra Project focuses on tracking space threats and enemy satellites, thereby strengthening space situational awareness. So, E matches with 5.

#### 10. Question

Match List-I (Indian Space Initiative) with List-II (Primary Function/Objective):

List-I (Indian Space Initiative) | List-II (Primary Function/Objective)

A. NavIC | 1. Augmentation of GPS signals for precision in aviation and defense

B. GAGAN | 2. Coordination of space-based assets for military use

C. Defence Space Agency (DSA) | 3. Indigenous regional navigation services

D. Samvad Project | 4. Securing military satellite communication

E. Netra Project | 5. Tracking space threats and enhancing space situational awareness

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2, E-5

• b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4

• c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5

• d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5

Solution: C

Explanation:

• NavIC offers indigenous regional navigation services for India and surrounding areas. So, A matches with 3.

• GAGAN is a system that augments GPS signals for high-precision use, especially in aviation and defense sectors. So, B matches with 1.

• Defence Space Agency (DSA) is responsible for coordinating space-based assets for military use, enhancing surveillance, navigation, and secure communications. So, C matches with 2.

• Samvad Project is aimed at securing military satellite communication. So, D matches with 4.

• Netra Project focuses on tracking space threats and enemy satellites, thereby strengthening space situational awareness. So, E matches with 5.

Solution: C

Explanation:

• NavIC offers indigenous regional navigation services for India and surrounding areas. So, A matches with 3.

• GAGAN is a system that augments GPS signals for high-precision use, especially in aviation and defense sectors. So, B matches with 1.

• Defence Space Agency (DSA) is responsible for coordinating space-based assets for military use, enhancing surveillance, navigation, and secure communications. So, C matches with 2.

• Samvad Project is aimed at securing military satellite communication. So, D matches with 4.

• Netra Project focuses on tracking space threats and enemy satellites, thereby strengthening space situational awareness. So, E matches with 5.

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