UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 13 December 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following rivers contributes the highest inflow to the Caspian Sea? a) Ural River b) Terek River c) Volga River d) Don River Correct Solution: c) The Volga River contributes about 80% of the Caspian Sea’s inflow, making it the most significant river feeding the sea. The Ural and Terek rivers contribute smaller inflows, while the Don River does not flow into the Caspian Sea. About Caspian Sea: Location: The Caspian Sea is situated between Asia and Europe. Neighbouring Nations: Russia Azerbaijan Kazakhstan Turkmenistan Iran Major Rivers: The Caspian Sea receives water primarily from three major rivers: Volga River:Contributes about 80% of inflow. Ural River Terek River Formation: A landlocked remnant of the ancient Paratethys Sea, isolated due to tectonic uplift and sea-level changes. Features oceanic basalt on its seafloor, unlike continental granite. Water Characteristics: Varies from fresh (north) to salty (south). Mean salinity: ~one-third of ocean salinity. Incorrect Solution: c) The Volga River contributes about 80% of the Caspian Sea’s inflow, making it the most significant river feeding the sea. The Ural and Terek rivers contribute smaller inflows, while the Don River does not flow into the Caspian Sea. About Caspian Sea: Location: The Caspian Sea is situated between Asia and Europe. Neighbouring Nations: Russia Azerbaijan Kazakhstan Turkmenistan Iran Major Rivers: The Caspian Sea receives water primarily from three major rivers: Volga River:Contributes about 80% of inflow. Ural River Terek River Formation: A landlocked remnant of the ancient Paratethys Sea, isolated due to tectonic uplift and sea-level changes. Features oceanic basalt on its seafloor, unlike continental granite. Water Characteristics: Varies from fresh (north) to salty (south). Mean salinity: ~one-third of ocean salinity.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following rivers contributes the highest inflow to the Caspian Sea?

• a) Ural River

• b) Terek River

• c) Volga River

• d) Don River

Solution: c)

The Volga River contributes about 80% of the Caspian Sea’s inflow, making it the most significant river feeding the sea. The Ural and Terek rivers contribute smaller inflows, while the Don River does not flow into the Caspian Sea.

About Caspian Sea:

Location: The Caspian Sea is situated between Asia and Europe.

Neighbouring Nations:

• Azerbaijan

• Kazakhstan

• Turkmenistan

Major Rivers:

The Caspian Sea receives water primarily from three major rivers:

• Volga River:Contributes about 80% of inflow.

• Ural River

• Terek River

Formation:

A landlocked remnant of the ancient Paratethys Sea, isolated due to tectonic uplift and sea-level changes.

Features oceanic basalt on its seafloor, unlike continental granite.

Water Characteristics:

Varies from fresh (north) to salty (south).

Mean salinity: ~one-third of ocean salinity.

Solution: c)

About Caspian Sea:

Location: The Caspian Sea is situated between Asia and Europe.

Neighbouring Nations:

• Azerbaijan

• Kazakhstan

• Turkmenistan

Major Rivers:

The Caspian Sea receives water primarily from three major rivers:

• Volga River:Contributes about 80% of inflow.

• Ural River

• Terek River

Formation:

A landlocked remnant of the ancient Paratethys Sea, isolated due to tectonic uplift and sea-level changes.

Features oceanic basalt on its seafloor, unlike continental granite.

Water Characteristics:

Varies from fresh (north) to salty (south).

Mean salinity: ~one-third of ocean salinity.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about malaria: Malaria is caused by a bacterial infection. The primary vector for malaria transmission is the Aedes mosquito. Malaria is untreatable in the absence of vaccines. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites, not bacteria. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary vector for malaria transmission is the female Anopheles mosquito, not Aedes mosquitoes. Statement 3 is incorrect. Malaria is preventable and curable through early diagnosis and prompt treatment, even though vaccines are not widely available. About Malaria: What is Malaria? A life-threatening disease caused by Plasmodiumparasites, primarily falciparum and vivax, transmitted through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites. How it Spreads:Non-contagious; transmitted via mosquito bites. Vectors:Female Anopheles Symptoms: Begin 10–15 days after a mosquito bite. Common symptoms: fever, chills, and headache; can be mild in partially immune individuals. Prevention and Cure: Prevention: Vector control (e.g., insecticide-treated bed nets, indoor residual spraying). Treatment: Preventable and curable with early diagnosis and prompt treatment to reduce disease transmission and fatalities. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites, not bacteria. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary vector for malaria transmission is the female Anopheles mosquito, not Aedes mosquitoes. Statement 3 is incorrect. Malaria is preventable and curable through early diagnosis and prompt treatment, even though vaccines are not widely available. About Malaria: What is Malaria? A life-threatening disease caused by Plasmodiumparasites, primarily falciparum and vivax, transmitted through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites. How it Spreads:Non-contagious; transmitted via mosquito bites. Vectors:Female Anopheles Symptoms: Begin 10–15 days after a mosquito bite. Common symptoms: fever, chills, and headache; can be mild in partially immune individuals. Prevention and Cure: Prevention: Vector control (e.g., insecticide-treated bed nets, indoor residual spraying). Treatment: Preventable and curable with early diagnosis and prompt treatment to reduce disease transmission and fatalities.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about malaria:

• Malaria is caused by a bacterial infection.

• The primary vector for malaria transmission is the Aedes mosquito.

• Malaria is untreatable in the absence of vaccines.

Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites, not bacteria.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary vector for malaria transmission is the female Anopheles mosquito, not Aedes mosquitoes.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Malaria is preventable and curable through early diagnosis and prompt treatment, even though vaccines are not widely available.

About Malaria:

• What is Malaria? A life-threatening disease caused by Plasmodiumparasites, primarily falciparum and vivax, transmitted through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites.

• A life-threatening disease caused by Plasmodiumparasites, primarily falciparum and vivax, transmitted through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites.

• How it Spreads:Non-contagious; transmitted via mosquito bites.

• Vectors:Female Anopheles

• Symptoms: Begin 10–15 days after a mosquito bite. Common symptoms: fever, chills, and headache; can be mild in partially immune individuals.

• Begin 10–15 days after a mosquito bite.

• Common symptoms: fever, chills, and headache; can be mild in partially immune individuals.

Prevention and Cure:

• Prevention: Vector control (e.g., insecticide-treated bed nets, indoor residual spraying).

• Vector control (e.g., insecticide-treated bed nets, indoor residual spraying).

• Treatment: Preventable and curable with early diagnosis and prompt treatment to reduce disease transmission and fatalities.

• Preventable and curable with early diagnosis and prompt treatment to reduce disease transmission and fatalities.

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites, not bacteria.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary vector for malaria transmission is the female Anopheles mosquito, not Aedes mosquitoes.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Malaria is preventable and curable through early diagnosis and prompt treatment, even though vaccines are not widely available.

About Malaria:

• What is Malaria? A life-threatening disease caused by Plasmodiumparasites, primarily falciparum and vivax, transmitted through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites.

• A life-threatening disease caused by Plasmodiumparasites, primarily falciparum and vivax, transmitted through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites.

• How it Spreads:Non-contagious; transmitted via mosquito bites.

• Vectors:Female Anopheles

• Symptoms: Begin 10–15 days after a mosquito bite. Common symptoms: fever, chills, and headache; can be mild in partially immune individuals.

• Begin 10–15 days after a mosquito bite.

• Common symptoms: fever, chills, and headache; can be mild in partially immune individuals.

Prevention and Cure:

• Prevention: Vector control (e.g., insecticide-treated bed nets, indoor residual spraying).

• Vector control (e.g., insecticide-treated bed nets, indoor residual spraying).

• Treatment: Preventable and curable with early diagnosis and prompt treatment to reduce disease transmission and fatalities.

• Preventable and curable with early diagnosis and prompt treatment to reduce disease transmission and fatalities.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following regions is referred to as the “Death Crescent” in the context of drug smuggling? a) Myanmar, Laos, Thailand b) Malaysia, Indonesia, Philippines c) India, Nepal, Bhutan d) Afghanistan, Iran, Pakistan Correct Solution: d) About Smuggling in India Report 2023-24: Major Narcotics Hubs: The *Death Crescent(Afghanistan, Iran, Pakistan) as a primary heroin source. The Death Triangle*(Myanmar, Laos, Thailand) for synthetic drugs and heroin, affecting northeastern states like Manipur and Mizoram. Trafficking Routes: Maritime Routes:Drugs concealed in shipping containers and fishing vessels due to India’s vast coastline. Land Routes:Porous borders and difficult terrain along the Indo-Myanmar region facilitate drug entry. Key vulnerable sectors include Moreh and Churachandpur (Manipur) and Zokhawthar (Mizoram). Air Routes:Increasing use of international air traffic for smuggling via luggage, courier packages, or drug mules. Incorrect Solution: d) About Smuggling in India Report 2023-24: Major Narcotics Hubs: The Death Crescent(Afghanistan, Iran, Pakistan) as a primary heroin source. The Death Triangle(Myanmar, Laos, Thailand) for synthetic drugs and heroin, affecting northeastern states like Manipur and Mizoram. Trafficking Routes: Maritime Routes:Drugs concealed in shipping containers and fishing vessels due to India’s vast coastline. Land Routes:Porous borders and difficult terrain along the Indo-Myanmar region facilitate drug entry. Key vulnerable sectors include Moreh and Churachandpur (Manipur) and Zokhawthar (Mizoram). Air Routes**:Increasing use of international air traffic for smuggling via luggage, courier packages, or drug mules.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following regions is referred to as the “Death Crescent” in the context of drug smuggling?

• a) Myanmar, Laos, Thailand

• b) Malaysia, Indonesia, Philippines

• c) India, Nepal, Bhutan

• d) Afghanistan, Iran, Pakistan

Solution: d)

About Smuggling in India Report 2023-24:

• Major Narcotics Hubs: The *Death Crescent(Afghanistan, Iran, Pakistan) as a primary heroin source. The Death Triangle*(Myanmar, Laos, Thailand) for synthetic drugs and heroin, affecting northeastern states like Manipur and Mizoram.

• The *Death Crescent*(Afghanistan, Iran, Pakistan) as a primary heroin source.

• The *Death Triangle*(Myanmar, Laos, Thailand) for synthetic drugs and heroin, affecting northeastern states like Manipur and Mizoram.

• Trafficking Routes: Maritime Routes:Drugs concealed in shipping containers and fishing vessels due to India’s vast coastline. Land Routes:Porous borders and difficult terrain along the Indo-Myanmar region facilitate drug entry. Key vulnerable sectors include Moreh and Churachandpur (Manipur) and Zokhawthar (Mizoram). Air Routes:Increasing use of international air traffic for smuggling via luggage, courier packages, or drug mules.

• Maritime Routes:Drugs concealed in shipping containers and fishing vessels due to India’s vast coastline.

• Land Routes:Porous borders and difficult terrain along the Indo-Myanmar region facilitate drug entry. Key vulnerable sectors include Moreh and Churachandpur (Manipur) and Zokhawthar (Mizoram).

• Key vulnerable sectors include Moreh and Churachandpur (Manipur) and Zokhawthar (Mizoram).

• Air Routes:Increasing use of international air traffic for smuggling via luggage, courier packages, or drug mules.

Solution: d)

About Smuggling in India Report 2023-24:

• The *Death Crescent*(Afghanistan, Iran, Pakistan) as a primary heroin source.

• The *Death Triangle*(Myanmar, Laos, Thailand) for synthetic drugs and heroin, affecting northeastern states like Manipur and Mizoram.

• Maritime Routes:Drugs concealed in shipping containers and fishing vessels due to India’s vast coastline.

• Key vulnerable sectors include Moreh and Churachandpur (Manipur) and Zokhawthar (Mizoram).

• Air Routes:Increasing use of international air traffic for smuggling via luggage, courier packages, or drug mules.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Hyperloop technology: Statement-I: Hyperloop technology eliminates the need for traditional tracks through the use of magnetic levitation. Statement-II: Magnetic levitation reduces friction, enabling pods to achieve high speeds in low-pressure vacuum tubes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Magnetic levitation, a key component of Hyperloop technology, eliminates friction by suspending pods above the surface. This, combined with low-pressure vacuum tubes, allows the pods to achieve extremely high speeds, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I. What is Hyperloop? A high-speed transport system where pods travel inside low-pressure vacuum tubes, achieving speeds comparable to aircraft. Operates using magnetic levitation and propulsion, eliminating the need for traditional tracks. Developed by: Concept proposed by Elon Musk in 2013. India’s test track is developed by Indian Railways, IIT-Madras’ Avishkar Hyperloop team, and TuTr Hyperloop. India’s Status in Hyperloop: India’s first 410-meter-long test track launched in Chennai, tested successfully at 100 km/h. Plans underway to achieve speeds of 600 km/h in the next phase. Feasibility studies for Hyperloop projects between Chennai Airport and Parandur, Mumbai-Pune, and Amritsar-Chandigarh. Incorrect Solution: a) Magnetic levitation, a key component of Hyperloop technology, eliminates friction by suspending pods above the surface. This, combined with low-pressure vacuum tubes, allows the pods to achieve extremely high speeds, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I. What is Hyperloop? A high-speed transport system where pods travel inside low-pressure vacuum tubes, achieving speeds comparable to aircraft. Operates using magnetic levitation and propulsion, eliminating the need for traditional tracks. Developed by: Concept proposed by Elon Musk in 2013. India’s test track is developed by Indian Railways, IIT-Madras’ Avishkar Hyperloop team, and TuTr Hyperloop. India’s Status in Hyperloop: India’s first 410-meter-long test track launched in Chennai, tested successfully at 100 km/h. Plans underway to achieve speeds of 600 km/h in the next phase. Feasibility studies for Hyperloop projects between Chennai Airport and Parandur, Mumbai-Pune, and Amritsar-Chandigarh.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Hyperloop technology:

Statement-I: Hyperloop technology eliminates the need for traditional tracks through the use of magnetic levitation. Statement-II: Magnetic levitation reduces friction, enabling pods to achieve high speeds in low-pressure vacuum tubes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

Magnetic levitation, a key component of Hyperloop technology, eliminates friction by suspending pods above the surface. This, combined with low-pressure vacuum tubes, allows the pods to achieve extremely high speeds, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.

What is Hyperloop?

• A high-speed transport system where pods travel inside low-pressure vacuum tubes, achieving speeds comparable to aircraft.

• Operates using magnetic levitation and propulsion, eliminating the need for traditional tracks.

Developed by:

• Concept proposed by Elon Musk in 2013.

• India’s test track is developed by Indian Railways, IIT-Madras’ Avishkar Hyperloop team, and TuTr Hyperloop.

India’s Status in Hyperloop:

• India’s first 410-meter-long test track launched in Chennai, tested successfully at 100 km/h.

• Plans underway to achieve speeds of 600 km/h in the next phase.

• Feasibility studies for Hyperloop projects between Chennai Airport and Parandur, Mumbai-Pune, and Amritsar-Chandigarh.

Solution: a)

What is Hyperloop?

• A high-speed transport system where pods travel inside low-pressure vacuum tubes, achieving speeds comparable to aircraft.

• Operates using magnetic levitation and propulsion, eliminating the need for traditional tracks.

Developed by:

• Concept proposed by Elon Musk in 2013.

• India’s test track is developed by Indian Railways, IIT-Madras’ Avishkar Hyperloop team, and TuTr Hyperloop.

India’s Status in Hyperloop:

• India’s first 410-meter-long test track launched in Chennai, tested successfully at 100 km/h.

• Plans underway to achieve speeds of 600 km/h in the next phase.

• Feasibility studies for Hyperloop projects between Chennai Airport and Parandur, Mumbai-Pune, and Amritsar-Chandigarh.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Subramania Bharati: He revolutionized Tamil literature by incorporating social and political themes. He was the first Tamil poet to translate the Ramayana into Tamil. Bharati’s vision for equality included strong advocacy for women’s rights and education. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Bharati revolutionized Tamil literature by infusing social and political themes into his works. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bharati translated the Bhagavad Gita, not the Ramayana. Statement 4 is correct. He was a strong advocate for women’s rights and education. Literary Contributions: Revolutionized Tamil literature with his innovative style and social themes. Translated the Bhagavad Gita into Promoted themes of equality, women’s empowerment, and freedom through his poetry. Major Works: Kuyil Pattu:A poem celebrating the simplicity of nature. Kannan Pattu:Depicts divine love and spirituality. Panchali Sabatham:A poetic re-telling of the Mahabharata’s Draupadi episode with a focus on justice and valor. India Weekly (1906):First Tamil newspaper to include political cartoons. Significance: Infused patriotism and culturalpride among Indians during the freedom struggle. Advocated for women’s rights and education, breaking societal barriers. His vision for a united and progressive India continues to inspire generations. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Bharati revolutionized Tamil literature by infusing social and political themes into his works. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bharati translated the Bhagavad Gita, not the Ramayana. Statement 4 is correct. He was a strong advocate for women’s rights and education. Literary Contributions: Revolutionized Tamil literature with his innovative style and social themes. Translated the Bhagavad Gita into Promoted themes of equality, women’s empowerment, and freedom through his poetry. Major Works: Kuyil Pattu:A poem celebrating the simplicity of nature. Kannan Pattu:Depicts divine love and spirituality. Panchali Sabatham:A poetic re-telling of the Mahabharata’s Draupadi episode with a focus on justice and valor. India Weekly (1906):First Tamil newspaper to include political cartoons. Significance: Infused patriotism and culturalpride among Indians during the freedom struggle. Advocated for women’s rights and education, breaking societal barriers. His vision for a united and progressive India continues to inspire generations.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about Subramania Bharati:

• He revolutionized Tamil literature by incorporating social and political themes.

• He was the first Tamil poet to translate the Ramayana into Tamil.

• Bharati’s vision for equality included strong advocacy for women’s rights and education.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. Bharati revolutionized Tamil literature by infusing social and political themes into his works.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Bharati translated the Bhagavad Gita, not the Ramayana.

Statement 4 is correct. He was a strong advocate for women’s rights and education.

Literary Contributions:

• Revolutionized Tamil literature with his innovative style and social themes.

• Translated the Bhagavad Gita into

• Promoted themes of equality, women’s empowerment, and freedom through his poetry.

Major Works:

• Kuyil Pattu:A poem celebrating the simplicity of nature.

• Kannan Pattu:Depicts divine love and spirituality.

• Panchali Sabatham:A poetic re-telling of the Mahabharata’s Draupadi episode with a focus on justice and valor.

• India Weekly (1906):First Tamil newspaper to include political cartoons.

Significance:

• Infused patriotism and culturalpride among Indians during the freedom struggle.

• Advocated for women’s rights and education, breaking societal barriers.

• His vision for a united and progressive India continues to inspire generations.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. Bharati revolutionized Tamil literature by infusing social and political themes into his works.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Bharati translated the Bhagavad Gita, not the Ramayana.

Statement 4 is correct. He was a strong advocate for women’s rights and education.

Literary Contributions:

• Revolutionized Tamil literature with his innovative style and social themes.

• Translated the Bhagavad Gita into

• Promoted themes of equality, women’s empowerment, and freedom through his poetry.

Major Works:

• Kuyil Pattu:A poem celebrating the simplicity of nature.

• Kannan Pattu:Depicts divine love and spirituality.

• Panchali Sabatham:A poetic re-telling of the Mahabharata’s Draupadi episode with a focus on justice and valor.

• India Weekly (1906):First Tamil newspaper to include political cartoons.

Significance:

• Infused patriotism and culturalpride among Indians during the freedom struggle.

• Advocated for women’s rights and education, breaking societal barriers.

• His vision for a united and progressive India continues to inspire generations.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Procedure for Removal of Judges: The Speaker or Chairman has the discretion to admit or reject an impeachment motion. The three-member investigative committee is composed of the Chief Justice of India, a High Court judge, and a distinguished jurist. A motion admitted by the Speaker or Chairman is automatically passed to Parliament for voting. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct as the Speaker or Chairman has the discretion to admit or reject the motion. Statement 2 is incorrect because the committee comprises a Supreme Court judge (not necessarily the Chief Justice of India), the Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist. Statement 3 is incorrect as the motion must first go through investigation and reporting before being considered for voting in Parliament. Judges Inquiry Act, 1968: The procedure for removal is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, which outlines the following steps: Initiation of Motion: A motion for impeachment can originate in either house of Parliament. Requires: At least 100 membersfrom the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker. At least 50 membersfrom the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman. Admission of Motion: The Speaker or Chairman may consult relevant individuals and materials before deciding whether to admit or reject the motion Investigation Committee Formation: If admitted, a three-member committeeis constituted: A Supreme Court judge. The Chief Justice of a High Court. A distinguished jurist. The committee investigates the charges and frames them accordingly Report Submission: After investigation, the committee submits its report to the Speaker or Chairman. If misbehaviour or incapacity is found, the motion is taken up for consideration in Parliament. Parliamentary Approval: The motion must be adopted by both houses: Requires a majority of total membershipand a two-thirds majority of those present and voting in each house Presidential Order: Once both houses pass the motion, it is sent to the President, who issues an order for removal History: No Supreme Court judge has been successfully impeached so far; notable attempts include those against Justice V. Ramaswami and Justice Dipak Misra, both of which did not succeed in Parliament Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct as the Speaker or Chairman has the discretion to admit or reject the motion. Statement 2 is incorrect because the committee comprises a Supreme Court judge (not necessarily the Chief Justice of India), the Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist. Statement 3 is incorrect as the motion must first go through investigation and reporting before being considered for voting in Parliament. Judges Inquiry Act, 1968: The procedure for removal is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, which outlines the following steps: Initiation of Motion: A motion for impeachment can originate in either house of Parliament. Requires: At least 100 membersfrom the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker. At least 50 membersfrom the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman. Admission of Motion: The Speaker or Chairman may consult relevant individuals and materials before deciding whether to admit or reject the motion Investigation Committee Formation: If admitted, a three-member committeeis constituted: A Supreme Court judge. The Chief Justice of a High Court. A distinguished jurist. The committee investigates the charges and frames them accordingly Report Submission: After investigation, the committee submits its report to the Speaker or Chairman. If misbehaviour or incapacity is found, the motion is taken up for consideration in Parliament. Parliamentary Approval: The motion must be adopted by both houses: Requires a majority of total membershipand a two-thirds majority of those present and voting in each house Presidential Order: Once both houses pass the motion, it is sent to the President, who issues an order for removal History: No Supreme Court judge has been successfully impeached so far; notable attempts include those against Justice V. Ramaswami and Justice Dipak Misra, both of which did not succeed in Parliament

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Procedure for Removal of Judges:

• The Speaker or Chairman has the discretion to admit or reject an impeachment motion.

• The three-member investigative committee is composed of the Chief Justice of India, a High Court judge, and a distinguished jurist.

• A motion admitted by the Speaker or Chairman is automatically passed to Parliament for voting.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is correct as the Speaker or Chairman has the discretion to admit or reject the motion.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the committee comprises a Supreme Court judge (not necessarily the Chief Justice of India), the Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist.

• Statement 3 is incorrect as the motion must first go through investigation and reporting before being considered for voting in Parliament.

Judges Inquiry Act, 1968:

• The procedure for removal is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, which outlines the following steps:

Initiation of Motion:

• A motion for impeachment can originate in either house of Parliament.

• At least 100 membersfrom the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker.

• At least 50 membersfrom the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman.

Admission of Motion:

• The Speaker or Chairman may consult relevant individuals and materials before deciding whether to admit or reject the motion

Investigation Committee Formation:

• If admitted, a three-member committeeis constituted:

• A Supreme Court judge.

• The Chief Justice of a High Court.

• A distinguished jurist.

The committee investigates the charges and frames them accordingly

Report Submission:

• After investigation, the committee submits its report to the Speaker or Chairman.

• If misbehaviour or incapacity is found, the motion is taken up for consideration in Parliament.

Parliamentary Approval:

• The motion must be adopted by both houses:

• Requires a majority of total membershipand a two-thirds majority of those present and voting in each house

Presidential Order:

• Once both houses pass the motion, it is sent to the President, who issues an order for removal

History:

• No Supreme Court judge has been successfully impeached so far; notable attempts include those against Justice V. Ramaswami and Justice Dipak Misra, both of which did not succeed in Parliament

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is correct as the Speaker or Chairman has the discretion to admit or reject the motion.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the committee comprises a Supreme Court judge (not necessarily the Chief Justice of India), the Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist.

• Statement 3 is incorrect as the motion must first go through investigation and reporting before being considered for voting in Parliament.

Judges Inquiry Act, 1968:

• The procedure for removal is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, which outlines the following steps:

Initiation of Motion:

• A motion for impeachment can originate in either house of Parliament.

• At least 100 membersfrom the Lok Sabha to sign a notice to the Speaker.

• At least 50 membersfrom the Rajya Sabha to sign a notice to the Chairman.

Admission of Motion:

• The Speaker or Chairman may consult relevant individuals and materials before deciding whether to admit or reject the motion

Investigation Committee Formation:

• If admitted, a three-member committeeis constituted:

• A Supreme Court judge.

• The Chief Justice of a High Court.

• A distinguished jurist.

The committee investigates the charges and frames them accordingly

Report Submission:

• After investigation, the committee submits its report to the Speaker or Chairman.

• If misbehaviour or incapacity is found, the motion is taken up for consideration in Parliament.

Parliamentary Approval:

• The motion must be adopted by both houses:

• Requires a majority of total membershipand a two-thirds majority of those present and voting in each house

Presidential Order:

• Once both houses pass the motion, it is sent to the President, who issues an order for removal

History:

• No Supreme Court judge has been successfully impeached so far; notable attempts include those against Justice V. Ramaswami and Justice Dipak Misra, both of which did not succeed in Parliament

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI): The DRI is responsible for enforcing the Customs Act. It collaborates with international agencies to combat transnational crimes. The DRI operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 and 2 Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is correct. The DRI enforces the Customs Act and other related laws. Statement 2 is correct. The DRI collaborates with global agencies to tackle smuggling and transnational crimes. Statement 3 is incorrect. The DRI operates under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. About Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI): Origin:Established in 1957. Headquarters:New Delhi, India. Ministry:Operates under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Functions: Preventing and investigating smuggling of narcotics, gold, counterfeit currency, and wildlife. Collaborating with international agencies to combat transnational crimes. Enforcement of the Customs Act and related laws. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is correct. The DRI enforces the Customs Act and other related laws. Statement 2 is correct. The DRI collaborates with global agencies to tackle smuggling and transnational crimes. Statement 3 is incorrect. The DRI operates under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. About Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI): Origin:Established in 1957. Headquarters:New Delhi, India. Ministry:Operates under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Functions: Preventing and investigating smuggling of narcotics, gold, counterfeit currency, and wildlife. Collaborating with international agencies to combat transnational crimes. Enforcement of the Customs Act and related laws.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI):

• The DRI is responsible for enforcing the Customs Act.

• It collaborates with international agencies to combat transnational crimes.

• The DRI operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Which of the above statements is correct?

• d) Both 1 and 2

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is correct. The DRI enforces the Customs Act and other related laws.

Statement 2 is correct. The DRI collaborates with global agencies to tackle smuggling and transnational crimes.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The DRI operates under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

About Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI):

• Origin:Established in 1957.

• Headquarters:New Delhi, India.

• Ministry:Operates under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

Functions:

• Preventing and investigating smuggling of narcotics, gold, counterfeit currency, and wildlife.

• Collaborating with international agencies to combat transnational crimes.

• Enforcement of the Customs Act and related laws.

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is correct. The DRI enforces the Customs Act and other related laws.

Statement 2 is correct. The DRI collaborates with global agencies to tackle smuggling and transnational crimes.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The DRI operates under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

About Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI):

• Origin:Established in 1957.

• Headquarters:New Delhi, India.

• Ministry:Operates under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

Functions:

• Preventing and investigating smuggling of narcotics, gold, counterfeit currency, and wildlife.

• Collaborating with international agencies to combat transnational crimes.

• Enforcement of the Customs Act and related laws.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Caspian Sea: The Caspian Sea is completely freshwater. It is a remnant of the ancient Paratethys Sea. Its seafloor features continental granite, unlike most oceans. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 only b) 3 only c) 2 only d) None Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Caspian Sea’s salinity varies, with some parts fresh and others salty. Statement 2 is correct. The Caspian Sea is a landlocked remnant of the Paratethys Sea, isolated due to tectonic uplift and sea-level changes. Statement 3 is incorrect. The seafloor of the Caspian Sea features oceanic basalt, not continental granite. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Caspian Sea’s salinity varies, with some parts fresh and others salty. Statement 2 is correct. The Caspian Sea is a landlocked remnant of the Paratethys Sea, isolated due to tectonic uplift and sea-level changes. Statement 3 is incorrect. The seafloor of the Caspian Sea features oceanic basalt, not continental granite.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the Caspian Sea:

• The Caspian Sea is completely freshwater.

• It is a remnant of the ancient Paratethys Sea.

• Its seafloor features continental granite, unlike most oceans.

Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Caspian Sea’s salinity varies, with some parts fresh and others salty.

Statement 2 is correct. The Caspian Sea is a landlocked remnant of the Paratethys Sea, isolated due to tectonic uplift and sea-level changes.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The seafloor of the Caspian Sea features oceanic basalt, not continental granite.

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Caspian Sea’s salinity varies, with some parts fresh and others salty.

Statement 2 is correct. The Caspian Sea is a landlocked remnant of the Paratethys Sea, isolated due to tectonic uplift and sea-level changes.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The seafloor of the Caspian Sea features oceanic basalt, not continental granite.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the RBI Act, 1934: It grants the central government the power to dissolve the RBI Board. It provides the central government the authority to issue directions to the RBI in public interest. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Laws Governing RBI-Centre Relations: RBI Act, 1934: Establishes the RBI’s role and functions. Section 7: Empowers the central government to issue directions to the RBI in matters of public interest. Banking Regulation Act, 1949: Governs banking sector regulation, providing the RBI authority over banking operations. Public Debt Act, 1944: Empowers the RBI to manage public debt on behalf of the government. Monetary Policy Framework Agreement (2016): Introduced inflation targeting, mandating coordination between the RBI and the government. Incorrect Solution: b) Laws Governing RBI-Centre Relations: RBI Act, 1934: Establishes the RBI’s role and functions. Section 7: Empowers the central government to issue directions to the RBI in matters of public interest. Banking Regulation Act, 1949: Governs banking sector regulation, providing the RBI authority over banking operations. Public Debt Act, 1944: Empowers the RBI to manage public debt on behalf of the government. Monetary Policy Framework Agreement (2016): Introduced inflation targeting, mandating coordination between the RBI and the government.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the RBI Act, 1934:

• It grants the central government the power to dissolve the RBI Board.

• It provides the central government the authority to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Laws Governing RBI-Centre Relations:

RBI Act, 1934:

• Establishes the RBI’s role and functions.

• Section 7: Empowers the central government to issue directions to the RBI in matters of public interest.

Banking Regulation Act, 1949:

• Governs banking sector regulation, providing the RBI authority over banking operations.

Public Debt Act, 1944:

• Empowers the RBI to manage public debt on behalf of the government.

Monetary Policy Framework Agreement (2016):

• Introduced inflation targeting, mandating coordination between the RBI and the government.

Solution: b)

Laws Governing RBI-Centre Relations:

RBI Act, 1934:

• Establishes the RBI’s role and functions.

• Section 7: Empowers the central government to issue directions to the RBI in matters of public interest.

Banking Regulation Act, 1949:

• Governs banking sector regulation, providing the RBI authority over banking operations.

Public Debt Act, 1944:

• Empowers the RBI to manage public debt on behalf of the government.

Monetary Policy Framework Agreement (2016):

• Introduced inflation targeting, mandating coordination between the RBI and the government.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA): It promotes organic farming as a key strategy for soil conservation. It encourages efficient irrigation practices to reduce water-induced soil erosion. It supports afforestation efforts to restore degraded soils. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct as organic farming is a key strategy under NMSA to improve soil health, reduce dependency on chemical fertilizers, and promote sustainable farming. It aligns with the mission’s goal of improving soil conservation through environmentally friendly practices. Statement 2 is correct because NMSA encourages the adoption of efficient irrigation techniques, such as micro-irrigation (drip and sprinkler systems), to minimize water wastage and reduce soil erosion caused by excessive water use. Statement 3 is incorrect since afforestation and reforestation activities are outside the scope of NMSA. Such initiatives are handled under forestry and watershed development programs managed by other government schemes. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct as organic farming is a key strategy under NMSA to improve soil health, reduce dependency on chemical fertilizers, and promote sustainable farming. It aligns with the mission’s goal of improving soil conservation through environmentally friendly practices. Statement 2 is correct because NMSA encourages the adoption of efficient irrigation techniques, such as micro-irrigation (drip and sprinkler systems), to minimize water wastage and reduce soil erosion caused by excessive water use. Statement 3 is incorrect since afforestation and reforestation activities are outside the scope of NMSA. Such initiatives are handled under forestry and watershed development programs managed by other government schemes.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA):

• It promotes organic farming as a key strategy for soil conservation.

• It encourages efficient irrigation practices to reduce water-induced soil erosion.

• It supports afforestation efforts to restore degraded soils.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct as organic farming is a key strategy under NMSA to improve soil health, reduce dependency on chemical fertilizers, and promote sustainable farming. It aligns with the mission’s goal of improving soil conservation through environmentally friendly practices.

Statement 2 is correct because NMSA encourages the adoption of efficient irrigation techniques, such as micro-irrigation (drip and sprinkler systems), to minimize water wastage and reduce soil erosion caused by excessive water use.

Statement 3 is incorrect since afforestation and reforestation activities are outside the scope of NMSA. Such initiatives are handled under forestry and watershed development programs managed by other government schemes.

Solution: b)

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