UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 13 August 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025, which of the following statements is correct? a) The Bill introduces a new, higher tax slab for super-rich individuals. b) The Bill disallows refunds for Income Tax Returns (ITR) filed after the due date. c) The Bill replaces the concepts of "Previous Year" and "Assessment Year" with a single "Tax Year". d) The Bill proposes a new tax on agricultural income. Correct Solution: C The Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025, aims to simplify the direct tax framework. A key feature of this bill is the introduction of a single ‘Tax Year’ concept, which replaces the often confusing dual concepts of “Previous Year” and “Assessment Year.” This change is intended to streamline the tax filing process and make it more understandable for the average taxpayer. The bill also includes taxpayer-friendly provisions such as allowing refunds even if the ITR is filed after the due date. The focus is on simplification and modernization of the existing structure. Incorrect Solution: C The Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025, aims to simplify the direct tax framework. A key feature of this bill is the introduction of a single ‘Tax Year’ concept, which replaces the often confusing dual concepts of “Previous Year” and “Assessment Year.” This change is intended to streamline the tax filing process and make it more understandable for the average taxpayer. The bill also includes taxpayer-friendly provisions such as allowing refunds even if the ITR is filed after the due date. The focus is on simplification and modernization of the existing structure.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025, which of the following statements is correct?

• a) The Bill introduces a new, higher tax slab for super-rich individuals.

• b) The Bill disallows refunds for Income Tax Returns (ITR) filed after the due date.

• c) The Bill replaces the concepts of "Previous Year" and "Assessment Year" with a single "Tax Year".

• d) The Bill proposes a new tax on agricultural income.

Solution: C

The Revised Income Tax Bill, 2025, aims to simplify the direct tax framework. A key feature of this bill is the introduction of a single ‘Tax Year’ concept, which replaces the often confusing dual concepts of “Previous Year” and “Assessment Year.” This change is intended to streamline the tax filing process and make it more understandable for the average taxpayer. The bill also includes taxpayer-friendly provisions such as allowing refunds even if the ITR is filed after the due date. The focus is on simplification and modernization of the existing structure.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Operation Falcon: It is a joint initiative of the Indian Army and the Border Security Force. The operation focuses on eliminating rhino poaching networks in Assam. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Operation Falcon is a targeted anti-poaching initiative. Statement 2 is correct as the operation’s primary objective is to dismantle rhino poaching gangs and curb the illegal wildlife trade in Assam. However, Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Falcon is a joint effort between the Assam Police and the Assam Forest Department, not the Indian Army and BSF. The success of this operation highlights the effectiveness of coordinated actions between state law enforcement and forest officials in wildlife conservation. Incorrect Solution: B Operation Falcon is a targeted anti-poaching initiative. Statement 2 is correct as the operation’s primary objective is to dismantle rhino poaching gangs and curb the illegal wildlife trade in Assam. However, Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Falcon is a joint effort between the Assam Police and the Assam Forest Department, not the Indian Army and BSF. The success of this operation highlights the effectiveness of coordinated actions between state law enforcement and forest officials in wildlife conservation.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Operation Falcon:

• It is a joint initiative of the Indian Army and the Border Security Force.

• The operation focuses on eliminating rhino poaching networks in Assam.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Operation Falcon is a targeted anti-poaching initiative.

• Statement 2 is correct as the operation’s primary objective is to dismantle rhino poaching gangs and curb the illegal wildlife trade in Assam.

• However, Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Falcon is a joint effort between the Assam Police and the Assam Forest Department, not the Indian Army and BSF.

• The success of this operation highlights the effectiveness of coordinated actions between state law enforcement and forest officials in wildlife conservation.

Solution: B

• Operation Falcon is a targeted anti-poaching initiative.

• Statement 2 is correct as the operation’s primary objective is to dismantle rhino poaching gangs and curb the illegal wildlife trade in Assam.

• However, Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Falcon is a joint effort between the Assam Police and the Assam Forest Department, not the Indian Army and BSF.

• The success of this operation highlights the effectiveness of coordinated actions between state law enforcement and forest officials in wildlife conservation.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following are eligible to be considered for the National Anubhav Awards? Retired employees of Central Government ministries. Serving employees of Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs) with more than 10 years of service. Retired employees of Public Sector Banks. Central Government Employees who have retired more than 5 years ago. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C The National Anubhav Awards recognize the contributions of government employees by documenting their experiences. Statement 1 is correct as the awards are for retired Central Government employees. Statement 3 is also correct because the eligibility for the awards was expanded in 2024 to include employees from Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs). Statement 2 is incorrect because the awards are for retiring or recently retired employees, not all serving employees. Statement 4 is incorrect as the eligibility is for employees who are retiring within 8 months or have retired within the last 3 years, not 5 years. This initiative aims to preserve institutional memory and promote good governance. Incorrect Solution: C The National Anubhav Awards recognize the contributions of government employees by documenting their experiences. Statement 1 is correct as the awards are for retired Central Government employees. Statement 3 is also correct because the eligibility for the awards was expanded in 2024 to include employees from Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs). Statement 2 is incorrect because the awards are for retiring or recently retired employees, not all serving employees. Statement 4 is incorrect as the eligibility is for employees who are retiring within 8 months or have retired within the last 3 years, not 5 years. This initiative aims to preserve institutional memory and promote good governance.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following are eligible to be considered for the National Anubhav Awards?

• Retired employees of Central Government ministries.

• Serving employees of Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs) with more than 10 years of service.

• Retired employees of Public Sector Banks.

• Central Government Employees who have retired more than 5 years ago.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 4 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

• The National Anubhav Awards recognize the contributions of government employees by documenting their experiences.

• Statement 1 is correct as the awards are for retired Central Government employees.

• Statement 3 is also correct because the eligibility for the awards was expanded in 2024 to include employees from Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs).

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the awards are for retiring or recently retired employees, not all serving employees.

• Statement 4 is incorrect as the eligibility is for employees who are retiring within 8 months or have retired within the last 3 years, not 5 years. This initiative aims to preserve institutional memory and promote good governance.

Solution: C

• The National Anubhav Awards recognize the contributions of government employees by documenting their experiences.

• Statement 1 is correct as the awards are for retired Central Government employees.

• Statement 3 is also correct because the eligibility for the awards was expanded in 2024 to include employees from Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs).

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the awards are for retiring or recently retired employees, not all serving employees.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the demand for the inclusion of Ladakh in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution: The Sixth Schedule is applicable to all Union Territories in India. The primary rationale for this demand is to safeguard the cultural and environmental heritage of the region. The Governor has no role in the administration of areas under the Sixth Schedule. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The demand for Ladakh’s inclusion in the Sixth Schedule is a significant issue with constitutional implications. Statement 2 is correct, as the core reason for this demand is to ensure local representation, control over resources, and the protection of Ladakh’s unique cultural and fragile environmental heritage. Statement 1 is incorrect; the Sixth Schedule currently applies only to certain tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, not all Union Territories. Statement 3 is also incorrect; the Governor has a significant role in the administration of Sixth Schedule areas, including the power to include or exclude areas, alter boundaries, and approve laws made by the Autonomous Councils. Incorrect Solution: A The demand for Ladakh’s inclusion in the Sixth Schedule is a significant issue with constitutional implications. Statement 2 is correct, as the core reason for this demand is to ensure local representation, control over resources, and the protection of Ladakh’s unique cultural and fragile environmental heritage. Statement 1 is incorrect; the Sixth Schedule currently applies only to certain tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, not all Union Territories. Statement 3 is also incorrect; the Governor has a significant role in the administration of Sixth Schedule areas, including the power to include or exclude areas, alter boundaries, and approve laws made by the Autonomous Councils.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the demand for the inclusion of Ladakh in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution:

• The Sixth Schedule is applicable to all Union Territories in India.

• The primary rationale for this demand is to safeguard the cultural and environmental heritage of the region.

• The Governor has no role in the administration of areas under the Sixth Schedule.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The demand for Ladakh’s inclusion in the Sixth Schedule is a significant issue with constitutional implications.

• Statement 2 is correct, as the core reason for this demand is to ensure local representation, control over resources, and the protection of Ladakh’s unique cultural and fragile environmental heritage.

• Statement 1 is incorrect; the Sixth Schedule currently applies only to certain tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, not all Union Territories.

• Statement 3 is also incorrect; the Governor has a significant role in the administration of Sixth Schedule areas, including the power to include or exclude areas, alter boundaries, and approve laws made by the Autonomous Councils.

Solution: A

• The demand for Ladakh’s inclusion in the Sixth Schedule is a significant issue with constitutional implications.

• Statement 1 is incorrect; the Sixth Schedule currently applies only to certain tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, not all Union Territories.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding elephants: Statement I: The population of Asian elephants is larger than that of African elephants. Statement II: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has classified the Asian Elephant as ‘Endangered’. Statement III: In Asian elephants, both males and females have tusks. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) I only b) II only c) I and III only d) II and III only Correct Solution: B Statement II is correct. The IUCN Red List categorizes the Asian Elephant (Elephas maximus) as Endangered due to threats like habitat loss and poaching. Statement I is incorrect. The total population of African elephants (both savanna and forest species) is significantly larger than the Asian elephant population. Statement III is incorrect. While both male and female African elephants have tusks, in Asian elephants, only some males possess tusks. Female Asian elephants have rudimentary tusks or no tusks at all. Incorrect Solution: B Statement II is correct. The IUCN Red List categorizes the Asian Elephant (Elephas maximus) as Endangered due to threats like habitat loss and poaching. Statement I is incorrect. The total population of African elephants (both savanna and forest species) is significantly larger than the Asian elephant population. Statement III is incorrect. While both male and female African elephants have tusks, in Asian elephants, only some males possess tusks. Female Asian elephants have rudimentary tusks or no tusks at all.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding elephants:

Statement I: The population of Asian elephants is larger than that of African elephants.

Statement II: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has classified the Asian Elephant as ‘Endangered’.

Statement III: In Asian elephants, both males and females have tusks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) II only

• c) I and III only

• d) II and III only

Solution: B

• Statement II is correct. The IUCN Red List categorizes the Asian Elephant (Elephas maximus) as Endangered due to threats like habitat loss and poaching.

• Statement I is incorrect. The total population of African elephants (both savanna and forest species) is significantly larger than the Asian elephant population.

• Statement III is incorrect. While both male and female African elephants have tusks, in Asian elephants, only some males possess tusks. Female Asian elephants have rudimentary tusks or no tusks at all.

Solution: B

• Statement II is correct. The IUCN Red List categorizes the Asian Elephant (Elephas maximus) as Endangered due to threats like habitat loss and poaching.

• Statement I is incorrect. The total population of African elephants (both savanna and forest species) is significantly larger than the Asian elephant population.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Match the following straits with the seas they connect: Strait Seas Connected A. Dardanelles Strait 1. Red Sea and Gulf of Aden B. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait 2. Aegean Sea and Sea of Marmara C. Strait of Hormuz 3. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) A-3, B-1, C-2 b) A-1, B-2, C-3 c) A-2, B-3, C-1 d) A-2, B-1, C-3 Correct Solution: D Dardanelles Strait (A) connects the Aegean Sea and the Sea of Marmara (2). It is a crucial waterway in northwestern Turkey. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait (B) connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (1) via the Suez Canal. It is a vital shipping lane for global trade. Strait of Hormuz (C) connects the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman (3) and is the world’s most important oil chokepoint. Incorrect Solution: D Dardanelles Strait (A) connects the Aegean Sea and the Sea of Marmara (2). It is a crucial waterway in northwestern Turkey. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait (B) connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (1) via the Suez Canal. It is a vital shipping lane for global trade. Strait of Hormuz (C) connects the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman (3) and is the world’s most important oil chokepoint.

#### 6. Question

Match the following straits with the seas they connect:

| Strait | | Seas Connected

A. | Dardanelles Strait | 1. | Red Sea and Gulf of Aden

B. | Bab-el-Mandeb Strait | 2. | Aegean Sea and Sea of Marmara

C. | Strait of Hormuz | 3. | Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) A-3, B-1, C-2

• b) A-1, B-2, C-3

• c) A-2, B-3, C-1

• d) A-2, B-1, C-3

Solution: D

• Dardanelles Strait (A) connects the Aegean Sea and the Sea of Marmara (2). It is a crucial waterway in northwestern Turkey.

• Bab-el-Mandeb Strait (B) connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (1) via the Suez Canal. It is a vital shipping lane for global trade.

• Strait of Hormuz (C) connects the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman (3) and is the world’s most important oil chokepoint.

Solution: D

• Dardanelles Strait (A) connects the Aegean Sea and the Sea of Marmara (2). It is a crucial waterway in northwestern Turkey.

• Bab-el-Mandeb Strait (B) connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (1) via the Suez Canal. It is a vital shipping lane for global trade.

• Strait of Hormuz (C) connects the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman (3) and is the world’s most important oil chokepoint.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Anubhav Awards: Statement I: The awards were launched to preserve the institutional memory of retiring Central Government employees. Statement II: The “Anubhav Awardees’ Speak” webinar series is a platform for awardees to share their experiences with their peers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement I accurately describes the primary aim of the National Anubhav Awards – to document and preserve the experiences of retiring officials for better governance. Statement II correctly identifies a feature of the initiative, the “Anubhav Awardees’ Speak” webinar series, which facilitates knowledge sharing. However, the webinar series is a result or an activity under the broader initiative, not the explanation for its launch. The reason for launching the awards was the vision to preserve institutional memory, as stated in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I accurately describes the primary aim of the National Anubhav Awards – to document and preserve the experiences of retiring officials for better governance. Statement II correctly identifies a feature of the initiative, the “Anubhav Awardees’ Speak” webinar series, which facilitates knowledge sharing. However, the webinar series is a result or an activity under the broader initiative, not the explanation for its launch. The reason for launching the awards was the vision to preserve institutional memory, as stated in Statement I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Anubhav Awards:

Statement I: The awards were launched to preserve the institutional memory of retiring Central Government employees.

Statement II: The “Anubhav Awardees’ Speak” webinar series is a platform for awardees to share their experiences with their peers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement I accurately describes the primary aim of the National Anubhav Awards – to document and preserve the experiences of retiring officials for better governance.

• Statement II correctly identifies a feature of the initiative, the “Anubhav Awardees’ Speak” webinar series, which facilitates knowledge sharing.

• However, the webinar series is a result or an activity under the broader initiative, not the explanation for its launch. The reason for launching the awards was the vision to preserve institutional memory, as stated in Statement I.

Solution: B

• Statement I accurately describes the primary aim of the National Anubhav Awards – to document and preserve the experiences of retiring officials for better governance.

• Statement II correctly identifies a feature of the initiative, the “Anubhav Awardees’ Speak” webinar series, which facilitates knowledge sharing.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the Falepili Union Treaty, consider the following statements: It is a bilateral agreement between Tuvalu and New Zealand for climate-related migration. The treaty provides a pathway for the entire population of Tuvalu to migrate to Australia immediately. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Falepili Union Treaty is a bilateral agreement between Tuvalu and Australia, not New Zealand. This treaty is a landmark agreement that addresses the issue of climate-induced migration. Statement 2 is incorrect. The treaty does not provide for the immediate migration of Tuvalu’s entire population. It establishes a gradual and planned migration pathway, allowing up to 280 Tuvaluans to migrate to Australia annually. The selection is based on a ballot system. While the long-term prospect is the migration of a significant portion of the population, it is not an immediate, mass relocation. The aim is to provide “mobility with dignity.” Beyond the climate mobility component, the Falepili Union Treaty also includes a significant security and defense dimension. Under the treaty, Australia has committed to assisting Tuvalu in response to major natural disasters, health pandemics, and military aggression. In return, Tuvalu has agreed to mutually decide with Australia on any security or defense-related arrangements it may have with other countries. This security guarantee is a crucial aspect of the treaty. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Falepili Union Treaty is a bilateral agreement between Tuvalu and Australia, not New Zealand. This treaty is a landmark agreement that addresses the issue of climate-induced migration. Statement 2 is incorrect. The treaty does not provide for the immediate migration of Tuvalu’s entire population. It establishes a gradual and planned migration pathway, allowing up to 280 Tuvaluans to migrate to Australia annually. The selection is based on a ballot system. While the long-term prospect is the migration of a significant portion of the population, it is not an immediate, mass relocation. The aim is to provide “mobility with dignity.” Beyond the climate mobility component, the Falepili Union Treaty also includes a significant security and defense dimension. Under the treaty, Australia has committed to assisting Tuvalu in response to major natural disasters, health pandemics, and military aggression. In return, Tuvalu has agreed to mutually decide with Australia on any security or defense-related arrangements it may have with other countries. This security guarantee is a crucial aspect of the treaty.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the Falepili Union Treaty, consider the following statements:

• It is a bilateral agreement between Tuvalu and New Zealand for climate-related migration.

• The treaty provides a pathway for the entire population of Tuvalu to migrate to Australia immediately.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Falepili Union Treaty is a bilateral agreement between Tuvalu and Australia, not New Zealand. This treaty is a landmark agreement that addresses the issue of climate-induced migration.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The treaty does not provide for the immediate migration of Tuvalu’s entire population. It establishes a gradual and planned migration pathway, allowing up to 280 Tuvaluans to migrate to Australia annually. The selection is based on a ballot system. While the long-term prospect is the migration of a significant portion of the population, it is not an immediate, mass relocation. The aim is to provide “mobility with dignity.”

Beyond the climate mobility component, the Falepili Union Treaty also includes a significant security and defense dimension. Under the treaty, Australia has committed to assisting Tuvalu in response to major natural disasters, health pandemics, and military aggression. In return, Tuvalu has agreed to mutually decide with Australia on any security or defense-related arrangements it may have with other countries. This security guarantee is a crucial aspect of the treaty.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the conservation of elephants, consider the following statements: The gestation period of an elephant is approximately 22 months. Human-elephant conflict is primarily caused by poaching for ivory. Project Elephant is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; the gestation period of an elephant is the longest among all mammals, lasting about 22 months. Statement 3 is also correct; Project Elephant is a key centrally sponsored scheme launched by the MoEF&CC to provide financial and technical support to states for elephant conservation. Statement 2 is incorrect. While poaching is a major threat to elephants, human-elephant conflict is primarily driven by habitat loss, fragmentation, and the encroachment of human settlements into elephant corridors. Poaching is a direct threat of a different nature. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; the gestation period of an elephant is the longest among all mammals, lasting about 22 months. Statement 3 is also correct; Project Elephant is a key centrally sponsored scheme launched by the MoEF&CC to provide financial and technical support to states for elephant conservation. Statement 2 is incorrect. While poaching is a major threat to elephants, human-elephant conflict is primarily driven by habitat loss, fragmentation, and the encroachment of human settlements into elephant corridors. Poaching is a direct threat of a different nature.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the conservation of elephants, consider the following statements:

• The gestation period of an elephant is approximately 22 months.

• Human-elephant conflict is primarily caused by poaching for ivory.

• Project Elephant is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct; the gestation period of an elephant is the longest among all mammals, lasting about 22 months.

• Statement 3 is also correct; Project Elephant is a key centrally sponsored scheme launched by the MoEF&CC to provide financial and technical support to states for elephant conservation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While poaching is a major threat to elephants, human-elephant conflict is primarily driven by habitat loss, fragmentation, and the encroachment of human settlements into elephant corridors. Poaching is a direct threat of a different nature.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct; the gestation period of an elephant is the longest among all mammals, lasting about 22 months.

• Statement 3 is also correct; Project Elephant is a key centrally sponsored scheme launched by the MoEF&CC to provide financial and technical support to states for elephant conservation.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding TRISO (TRi-structural ISOtropic) fuel: It is a type of nuclear fuel designed for use in conventional pressurized water reactors (PWRs). Each TRISO particle has a kernel of uranium, carbon, and oxygen, encased in a single protective layer of ceramic. The primary advantage of TRISO fuel is its ability to operate at much higher temperatures than traditional nuclear fuels, enhancing safety and efficiency. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. TRISO (TRi-structural ISOtropic) particle fuel is designed for advanced reactors, such as high-temperature gas-cooled reactors (HTGRs) and molten salt reactors, not conventional pressurized water reactors (PWRs). Its unique structure and properties make it suitable for these next-generation reactor designs. Statement 2 is incorrect. The name TRISO itself refers to its tri-structural nature. Each particle consists of a fuel kernel (uranium, carbon, and oxygen) encased in three protective layers of carbon-ceramic materials. These layers act as a robust containment system, preventing the release of radioactive fission products even at very high temperatures. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of TRISO fuel is its extreme durability and resistance to high temperatures. It can withstand temperatures far exceeding those in traditional reactors without melting, which significantly enhances the safety profile of the reactor. This “meltdown-proof” characteristic is a major advantage. The higher operating temperatures also allow for more efficient electricity generation. The recent push for the development and commercialization of TRISO fuel in the United States is partly driven by geopolitical considerations. By developing a domestic supply chain for TRISO fuel, the U.S. aims to reduce its dependence on Russian uranium and other nuclear fuel services. This move is part of a broader strategy to enhance energy security and promote nuclear innovation. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. TRISO (TRi-structural ISOtropic) particle fuel is designed for advanced reactors, such as high-temperature gas-cooled reactors (HTGRs) and molten salt reactors, not conventional pressurized water reactors (PWRs). Its unique structure and properties make it suitable for these next-generation reactor designs. Statement 2 is incorrect. The name TRISO itself refers to its tri-structural nature. Each particle consists of a fuel kernel (uranium, carbon, and oxygen) encased in three protective layers of carbon-ceramic materials. These layers act as a robust containment system, preventing the release of radioactive fission products even at very high temperatures. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of TRISO fuel is its extreme durability and resistance to high temperatures. It can withstand temperatures far exceeding those in traditional reactors without melting, which significantly enhances the safety profile of the reactor. This “meltdown-proof” characteristic is a major advantage. The higher operating temperatures also allow for more efficient electricity generation. The recent push for the development and commercialization of TRISO fuel in the United States is partly driven by geopolitical considerations. By developing a domestic supply chain for TRISO fuel, the U.S. aims to reduce its dependence on Russian uranium and other nuclear fuel services. This move is part of a broader strategy to enhance energy security and promote nuclear innovation.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding TRISO (TRi-structural ISOtropic) fuel:

• It is a type of nuclear fuel designed for use in conventional pressurized water reactors (PWRs).

• Each TRISO particle has a kernel of uranium, carbon, and oxygen, encased in a single protective layer of ceramic.

• The primary advantage of TRISO fuel is its ability to operate at much higher temperatures than traditional nuclear fuels, enhancing safety and efficiency.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. TRISO (TRi-structural ISOtropic) particle fuel is designed for advanced reactors, such as high-temperature gas-cooled reactors (HTGRs) and molten salt reactors, not conventional pressurized water reactors (PWRs). Its unique structure and properties make it suitable for these next-generation reactor designs.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The name TRISO itself refers to its tri-structural nature. Each particle consists of a fuel kernel (uranium, carbon, and oxygen) encased in three protective layers of carbon-ceramic materials. These layers act as a robust containment system, preventing the release of radioactive fission products even at very high temperatures.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of TRISO fuel is its extreme durability and resistance to high temperatures. It can withstand temperatures far exceeding those in traditional reactors without melting, which significantly enhances the safety profile of the reactor. This “meltdown-proof” characteristic is a major advantage. The higher operating temperatures also allow for more efficient electricity generation.

• The recent push for the development and commercialization of TRISO fuel in the United States is partly driven by geopolitical considerations. By developing a domestic supply chain for TRISO fuel, the U.S. aims to reduce its dependence on Russian uranium and other nuclear fuel services. This move is part of a broader strategy to enhance energy security and promote nuclear innovation.

Solution: A

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