UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 13 April 2024
Kartavya Desk Staff
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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding the right to privacy is true? (a) The right to privacy is explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. (b) The right to privacy only applies to individuals' interactions with government entities. (c) The right to privacy encompasses various aspects of personal autonomy and informational self-determination. (d) The right to privacy is limited to certain privileged groups within society. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Supreme Court ruled that candidates have a right to privacy from voters and are not required to disclose every aspect of their personal life and possessions. The judgment came in a case where an MLA’s election was challenged for not declaring vehicles as assets. The Court ruled in favour of the MLA, stating that once sold, vehicles cannot be considered assets. The Supreme Court ruled that Right to Privacy is “intrinsic to life and personal liberty” and is inherently protected under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. Privacy can also extend to other aspects, including bodily integrity, personal autonomy, informational self-determination, protection from state surveillance, dignity, confidentiality, compelled speech and freedom to dissent or move or think. In short, the right to privacy has to be determined on a case-by-case basis. Why did the framers of the Indian Constitution not explicitly include the right to privacy? read here Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/candidates-right-to-privacy-from-voters/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Supreme Court ruled that candidates have a right to privacy from voters and are not required to disclose every aspect of their personal life and possessions. The judgment came in a case where an MLA’s election was challenged for not declaring vehicles as assets. The Court ruled in favour of the MLA, stating that once sold, vehicles cannot be considered assets. The Supreme Court ruled that Right to Privacy is “intrinsic to life and personal liberty” and is inherently protected under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. Privacy can also extend to other aspects, including bodily integrity, personal autonomy, informational self-determination, protection from state surveillance, dignity, confidentiality, compelled speech and freedom to dissent or move or think. In short, the right to privacy has to be determined on a case-by-case basis. Why did the framers of the Indian Constitution not explicitly include the right to privacy? read here Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/candidates-right-to-privacy-from-voters/
#### 1. Question
Which of the following statements regarding the right to privacy is true?
• (a) The right to privacy is explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
• (b) The right to privacy only applies to individuals' interactions with government entities.
• (c) The right to privacy encompasses various aspects of personal autonomy and informational self-determination.
• (d) The right to privacy is limited to certain privileged groups within society.
Explanation:
• Context: The Supreme Court ruled that candidates have a right to privacy from voters and are not required to disclose every aspect of their personal life and possessions. The judgment came in a case where an MLA’s election was challenged for not declaring vehicles as assets. The Court ruled in favour of the MLA, stating that once sold, vehicles cannot be considered assets.
• The judgment came in a case where an MLA’s election was challenged for not declaring vehicles as assets. The Court ruled in favour of the MLA, stating that once sold, vehicles cannot be considered assets.
• The Supreme Court ruled that Right to Privacy is “intrinsic to life and personal liberty” and is inherently protected under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. Privacy can also extend to other aspects, including bodily integrity, personal autonomy, informational self-determination, protection from state surveillance, dignity, confidentiality, compelled speech and freedom to dissent or move or think. In short, the right to privacy has to be determined on a case-by-case basis.
• Privacy can also extend to other aspects, including bodily integrity, personal autonomy, informational self-determination, protection from state surveillance, dignity, confidentiality, compelled speech and freedom to dissent or move or think. In short, the right to privacy has to be determined on a case-by-case basis.
• Why did the framers of the Indian Constitution not explicitly include the right to privacy? read here
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/candidates-right-to-privacy-from-voters/
Explanation:
• Context: The Supreme Court ruled that candidates have a right to privacy from voters and are not required to disclose every aspect of their personal life and possessions. The judgment came in a case where an MLA’s election was challenged for not declaring vehicles as assets. The Court ruled in favour of the MLA, stating that once sold, vehicles cannot be considered assets.
• The judgment came in a case where an MLA’s election was challenged for not declaring vehicles as assets. The Court ruled in favour of the MLA, stating that once sold, vehicles cannot be considered assets.
• The Supreme Court ruled that Right to Privacy is “intrinsic to life and personal liberty” and is inherently protected under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. Privacy can also extend to other aspects, including bodily integrity, personal autonomy, informational self-determination, protection from state surveillance, dignity, confidentiality, compelled speech and freedom to dissent or move or think. In short, the right to privacy has to be determined on a case-by-case basis.
• Privacy can also extend to other aspects, including bodily integrity, personal autonomy, informational self-determination, protection from state surveillance, dignity, confidentiality, compelled speech and freedom to dissent or move or think. In short, the right to privacy has to be determined on a case-by-case basis.
• Why did the framers of the Indian Constitution not explicitly include the right to privacy? read here
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/candidates-right-to-privacy-from-voters/
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Curative petition. The concept of Curative petition was evolved by the Supreme Court of India. A curative petition can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice. The Review petition is filed after the Curative petition to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Context: The Supreme Court’s decision to allow a curative writ petition in the DMRC case signifies an expansion of its powers beyond constitutionally prescribed processes. A curative petition may be filed after a review plea against the final conviction is dismissed. It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice, and to prevent abuse of process. A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chambers, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed. Every curative petition is decided on the basis of principles laid down by the Supreme Court in Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs Ashok Hurra & another, 2002. The court ruled that a curative petition can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order. It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias. The SC has held that curative petitions must be rare rather than regular, and be entertained with circumspection. A curative petition must be accompanied by certification by a senior advocate, pointing out substantial grounds for entertaining it. It must be first circulated to a bench of the three senior-most judges, and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available. Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed — as far as possible, before the same Bench. “It shall be open to the Bench at any stage of consideration of the curative petition to ask a senior counsel to assist it as amicus curiae. In the event of the Bench holding at any stage that the petition is without any merit and vexatious, it may impose exemplary costs on the petitioner,” the court had held. Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/curative-petition-3/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Context: The Supreme Court’s decision to allow a curative writ petition in the DMRC case signifies an expansion of its powers beyond constitutionally prescribed processes. A curative petition may be filed after a review plea against the final conviction is dismissed. It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice, and to prevent abuse of process. A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chambers, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed. Every curative petition is decided on the basis of principles laid down by the Supreme Court in Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs Ashok Hurra & another, 2002. The court ruled that a curative petition can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order. It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias. The SC has held that curative petitions must be rare rather than regular, and be entertained with circumspection. A curative petition must be accompanied by certification by a senior advocate, pointing out substantial grounds for entertaining it. It must be first circulated to a bench of the three senior-most judges, and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available. Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed — as far as possible, before the same Bench. “It shall be open to the Bench at any stage of consideration of the curative petition to ask a senior counsel to assist it as amicus curiae. In the event of the Bench holding at any stage that the petition is without any merit and vexatious, it may impose exemplary costs on the petitioner,” the court had held. Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/curative-petition-3/
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Curative petition.
• The concept of Curative petition was evolved by the Supreme Court of India. A curative petition can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice. The Review petition is filed after the Curative petition to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice.
• The concept of Curative petition was evolved by the Supreme Court of India.
• A curative petition can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice.
• The Review petition is filed after the Curative petition to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Context: The Supreme Court’s decision to allow a curative writ petition in the DMRC case signifies an expansion of its powers beyond constitutionally prescribed processes.
• A curative petition may be filed after a review plea against the final conviction is dismissed. It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice, and to prevent abuse of process. A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chambers, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed.
• Every curative petition is decided on the basis of principles laid down by the Supreme Court in Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs Ashok Hurra & another, 2002.
• The court ruled that a curative petition can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order. It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias.
• The SC has held that curative petitions must be rare rather than regular, and be entertained with circumspection.
• A curative petition must be accompanied by certification by a senior advocate, pointing out substantial grounds for entertaining it. It must be first circulated to a bench of the three senior-most judges, and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available. Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed — as far as possible, before the same Bench.
• “It shall be open to the Bench at any stage of consideration of the curative petition to ask a senior counsel to assist it as amicus curiae. In the event of the Bench holding at any stage that the petition is without any merit and vexatious, it may impose exemplary costs on the petitioner,” the court had held.
Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/curative-petition-3/
Explanation
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Context: The Supreme Court’s decision to allow a curative writ petition in the DMRC case signifies an expansion of its powers beyond constitutionally prescribed processes.
• A curative petition may be filed after a review plea against the final conviction is dismissed. It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice, and to prevent abuse of process. A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chambers, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed.
• Every curative petition is decided on the basis of principles laid down by the Supreme Court in Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs Ashok Hurra & another, 2002.
• The court ruled that a curative petition can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order. It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias.
• The SC has held that curative petitions must be rare rather than regular, and be entertained with circumspection.
• A curative petition must be accompanied by certification by a senior advocate, pointing out substantial grounds for entertaining it. It must be first circulated to a bench of the three senior-most judges, and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available. Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed — as far as possible, before the same Bench.
• “It shall be open to the Bench at any stage of consideration of the curative petition to ask a senior counsel to assist it as amicus curiae. In the event of the Bench holding at any stage that the petition is without any merit and vexatious, it may impose exemplary costs on the petitioner,” the court had held.
Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/curative-petition-3/
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about CDP-SURAKSHA platform: It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts. It uses e-RUPI vouchers from the National Payments Corporation of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The CDP-SURAKSHA is a digital platform was launched recently to disburse subsidies to horticulture farmers under the Cluster Development Programme (CDP). It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts using e-RUPI vouchers. The platform integrates various features such as database integration, cloud-based server space, UIDAI validation, and e-RUPI integration. Farmers can access the platform to order planting material, contribute their share of the cost, and receive government subsidies upfront. The system ensures transparency and accountability by requiring farmers to verify the delivery of planting material through geo-tagged photos and videos. Unlike the old system, where farmers had to purchase materials themselves and then seek subsidy release, CDP-SURAKSHA provides subsidies upfront at the time of purchase. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/cdp-suraksha/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The CDP-SURAKSHA is a digital platform was launched recently to disburse subsidies to horticulture farmers under the Cluster Development Programme (CDP). It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts using e-RUPI vouchers. The platform integrates various features such as database integration, cloud-based server space, UIDAI validation, and e-RUPI integration. Farmers can access the platform to order planting material, contribute their share of the cost, and receive government subsidies upfront. The system ensures transparency and accountability by requiring farmers to verify the delivery of planting material through geo-tagged photos and videos. Unlike the old system, where farmers had to purchase materials themselves and then seek subsidy release, CDP-SURAKSHA provides subsidies upfront at the time of purchase. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/cdp-suraksha/
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements about CDP-SURAKSHA platform:
• It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts. It uses e-RUPI vouchers from the National Payments Corporation of India.
• It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts.
• It uses e-RUPI vouchers from the National Payments Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Context: The CDP-SURAKSHA is a digital platform was launched recently to disburse subsidies to horticulture farmers under the Cluster Development Programme (CDP).
• It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts using e-RUPI vouchers.
• The platform integrates various features such as database integration, cloud-based server space, UIDAI validation, and e-RUPI integration.
• Farmers can access the platform to order planting material, contribute their share of the cost, and receive government subsidies upfront.
• The system ensures transparency and accountability by requiring farmers to verify the delivery of planting material through geo-tagged photos and videos.
• Unlike the old system, where farmers had to purchase materials themselves and then seek subsidy release, CDP-SURAKSHA provides subsidies upfront at the time of purchase.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/cdp-suraksha/
Explanation:
• Context: The CDP-SURAKSHA is a digital platform was launched recently to disburse subsidies to horticulture farmers under the Cluster Development Programme (CDP).
• It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts using e-RUPI vouchers.
• The platform integrates various features such as database integration, cloud-based server space, UIDAI validation, and e-RUPI integration.
• Farmers can access the platform to order planting material, contribute their share of the cost, and receive government subsidies upfront.
• The system ensures transparency and accountability by requiring farmers to verify the delivery of planting material through geo-tagged photos and videos.
• Unlike the old system, where farmers had to purchase materials themselves and then seek subsidy release, CDP-SURAKSHA provides subsidies upfront at the time of purchase.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/cdp-suraksha/
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Why is gypsum commonly used in agriculture? (a) To improve soil structure (b) To increase soil pH (c) To enhance water retention in soil (d) To provide essential nutrients for plant growth Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Gypsum is utilized in agriculture primarily to enhance soil structure. It helps to break up compacted soil, allowing better root penetration and aeration. Additionally, gypsum aids in the prevention of soil erosion and runoff by promoting the aggregation of soil particles. While gypsum does contain calcium and sulfur, which are beneficial for plant growth, its primary function in agriculture is to improve soil physical properties rather than provide essential nutrients. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/microbial-formulations-to-improve-agricultural-productivity/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Gypsum is utilized in agriculture primarily to enhance soil structure. It helps to break up compacted soil, allowing better root penetration and aeration. Additionally, gypsum aids in the prevention of soil erosion and runoff by promoting the aggregation of soil particles. While gypsum does contain calcium and sulfur, which are beneficial for plant growth, its primary function in agriculture is to improve soil physical properties rather than provide essential nutrients. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/microbial-formulations-to-improve-agricultural-productivity/
#### 4. Question
Why is gypsum commonly used in agriculture?
• (a) To improve soil structure
• (b) To increase soil pH
• (c) To enhance water retention in soil
• (d) To provide essential nutrients for plant growth
Explanation:
• Gypsum is utilized in agriculture primarily to enhance soil structure. It helps to break up compacted soil, allowing better root penetration and aeration. Additionally, gypsum aids in the prevention of soil erosion and runoff by promoting the aggregation of soil particles. While gypsum does contain calcium and sulfur, which are beneficial for plant growth, its primary function in agriculture is to improve soil physical properties rather than provide essential nutrients. Therefore, option A is the correct choice.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/microbial-formulations-to-improve-agricultural-productivity/
Explanation:
• Gypsum is utilized in agriculture primarily to enhance soil structure. It helps to break up compacted soil, allowing better root penetration and aeration. Additionally, gypsum aids in the prevention of soil erosion and runoff by promoting the aggregation of soil particles. While gypsum does contain calcium and sulfur, which are beneficial for plant growth, its primary function in agriculture is to improve soil physical properties rather than provide essential nutrients. Therefore, option A is the correct choice.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/microbial-formulations-to-improve-agricultural-productivity/
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about methanol is true? (a) It is primarily used as a fuel additive in gasoline. (b) It is a saturated hydrocarbon with the chemical formula CH4. (c) It is commonly known as wood alcohol. (d) It is a greenhouse gas primarily emitted from agricultural activities. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Health officials in the United States have recalled several lots of hand sanitizers and aloe gels due to the risk of methanol exposure. Methanol, also known as methyl alcohol and wood alcohol, is a colorless, flammable, and poisonous liquid with a strong odor. It has a chemical formula of CH₃OH. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/methanol-in-hand-sanitizers/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Health officials in the United States have recalled several lots of hand sanitizers and aloe gels due to the risk of methanol exposure. Methanol, also known as methyl alcohol and wood alcohol, is a colorless, flammable, and poisonous liquid with a strong odor. It has a chemical formula of CH₃OH. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/methanol-in-hand-sanitizers/
#### 5. Question
Which of the following statements about methanol is true?
• (a) It is primarily used as a fuel additive in gasoline.
• (b) It is a saturated hydrocarbon with the chemical formula CH4.
• (c) It is commonly known as wood alcohol.
• (d) It is a greenhouse gas primarily emitted from agricultural activities.
Explanation:
• Context: Health officials in the United States have recalled several lots of hand sanitizers and aloe gels due to the risk of methanol exposure.
• Methanol, also known as methyl alcohol and wood alcohol, is a colorless, flammable, and poisonous liquid with a strong odor. It has a chemical formula of CH₃OH.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/methanol-in-hand-sanitizers/
Explanation:
• Context: Health officials in the United States have recalled several lots of hand sanitizers and aloe gels due to the risk of methanol exposure.
• Methanol, also known as methyl alcohol and wood alcohol, is a colorless, flammable, and poisonous liquid with a strong odor. It has a chemical formula of CH₃OH.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/methanol-in-hand-sanitizers/
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Piezoelectric materials generate an electric charge when subjected to mechanical stress. Piezoelectric effect is reversible, meaning these materials can also produce mechanical strain when an electric field is applied. Quartz, Rochelle salt, and lead zirconate titanate (PZT) are examples of piezoelectric materials. Piezoelectricity is a phenomenon observed only in crystalline materials. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The ENT department at Command Hospital in Pune successfully conducted two piezoelectric Bone Conduction Hearing Implants (BCI), making it the first government hospital in India to achieve this milestone. S1: Piezoelectric materials exhibit the property of generating electric charge in response to applied mechanical stress. This phenomenon is known as the direct piezoelectric effect. S2: The piezoelectric effect is indeed reversible, meaning these materials can also produce mechanical strain when an electric field is applied to them. This phenomenon is referred to as the inverse piezoelectric effect. S3: Quartz, Rochelle salt, and lead zirconate titanate (PZT) are among the commonly known examples of piezoelectric materials, each exhibiting unique properties and applications. S4: Piezoelectricity is observed not only in crystalline materials but also in certain ceramics, polymers, and composites. While many piezoelectric materials are indeed crystalline, the phenomenon is not limited solely to this class of materials. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The ENT department at Command Hospital in Pune successfully conducted two piezoelectric Bone Conduction Hearing Implants (BCI), making it the first government hospital in India to achieve this milestone. S1: Piezoelectric materials exhibit the property of generating electric charge in response to applied mechanical stress. This phenomenon is known as the direct piezoelectric effect. S2: The piezoelectric effect is indeed reversible, meaning these materials can also produce mechanical strain when an electric field is applied to them. This phenomenon is referred to as the inverse piezoelectric effect. S3: Quartz, Rochelle salt, and lead zirconate titanate (PZT) are among the commonly known examples of piezoelectric materials, each exhibiting unique properties and applications. S4: Piezoelectricity is observed not only in crystalline materials but also in certain ceramics, polymers, and composites. While many piezoelectric materials are indeed crystalline, the phenomenon is not limited solely to this class of materials. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Piezoelectric materials generate an electric charge when subjected to mechanical stress. Piezoelectric effect is reversible, meaning these materials can also produce mechanical strain when an electric field is applied. Quartz, Rochelle salt, and lead zirconate titanate (PZT) are examples of piezoelectric materials. Piezoelectricity is a phenomenon observed only in crystalline materials.
• Piezoelectric materials generate an electric charge when subjected to mechanical stress.
• Piezoelectric effect is reversible, meaning these materials can also produce mechanical strain when an electric field is applied.
• Quartz, Rochelle salt, and lead zirconate titanate (PZT) are examples of piezoelectric materials.
• Piezoelectricity is a phenomenon observed only in crystalline materials.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Explanation:
• Context: The ENT department at Command Hospital in Pune successfully conducted two piezoelectric Bone Conduction Hearing Implants (BCI), making it the first government hospital in India to achieve this milestone.
• S1: Piezoelectric materials exhibit the property of generating electric charge in response to applied mechanical stress. This phenomenon is known as the direct piezoelectric effect.
• S2: The piezoelectric effect is indeed reversible, meaning these materials can also produce mechanical strain when an electric field is applied to them. This phenomenon is referred to as the inverse piezoelectric effect.
• S3: Quartz, Rochelle salt, and lead zirconate titanate (PZT) are among the commonly known examples of piezoelectric materials, each exhibiting unique properties and applications.
• S4: Piezoelectricity is observed not only in crystalline materials but also in certain ceramics, polymers, and composites. While many piezoelectric materials are indeed crystalline, the phenomenon is not limited solely to this class of materials.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
Explanation:
• Context: The ENT department at Command Hospital in Pune successfully conducted two piezoelectric Bone Conduction Hearing Implants (BCI), making it the first government hospital in India to achieve this milestone.
• S1: Piezoelectric materials exhibit the property of generating electric charge in response to applied mechanical stress. This phenomenon is known as the direct piezoelectric effect.
• S2: The piezoelectric effect is indeed reversible, meaning these materials can also produce mechanical strain when an electric field is applied to them. This phenomenon is referred to as the inverse piezoelectric effect.
• S3: Quartz, Rochelle salt, and lead zirconate titanate (PZT) are among the commonly known examples of piezoelectric materials, each exhibiting unique properties and applications.
• S4: Piezoelectricity is observed not only in crystalline materials but also in certain ceramics, polymers, and composites. While many piezoelectric materials are indeed crystalline, the phenomenon is not limited solely to this class of materials.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which bone is responsible for protecting the brain? (a) Scapula (b) Mandible (c) Cranium (d) Sternum Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The cranium, or skull, is a protective structure that encases the brain and provides support and protection for this vital organ. The other options listed are not directly associated with protecting the brain. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The cranium, or skull, is a protective structure that encases the brain and provides support and protection for this vital organ. The other options listed are not directly associated with protecting the brain. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
#### 7. Question
Which bone is responsible for protecting the brain?
• (a) Scapula
• (b) Mandible
• (c) Cranium
• (d) Sternum
Explanation:
• The cranium, or skull, is a protective structure that encases the brain and provides support and protection for this vital organ. The other options listed are not directly associated with protecting the brain.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
Explanation:
• The cranium, or skull, is a protective structure that encases the brain and provides support and protection for this vital organ. The other options listed are not directly associated with protecting the brain.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points What is the function of the rib cage in the human body? (a) Support of the arms and shoulders (b) Flexibility of the spinal column (c) Regulation of body temperature (d) Protection of the heart and lungs Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: The rib cage, consisting of the ribs and sternum, forms a protective enclosure around the heart and lungs, shielding them from external trauma. It also assists in the mechanics of breathing. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: The rib cage, consisting of the ribs and sternum, forms a protective enclosure around the heart and lungs, shielding them from external trauma. It also assists in the mechanics of breathing. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
#### 8. Question
What is the function of the rib cage in the human body?
• (a) Support of the arms and shoulders
• (b) Flexibility of the spinal column
• (c) Regulation of body temperature
• (d) Protection of the heart and lungs
Explanation:
• The rib cage, consisting of the ribs and sternum, forms a protective enclosure around the heart and lungs, shielding them from external trauma. It also assists in the mechanics of breathing.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
Explanation:
• The rib cage, consisting of the ribs and sternum, forms a protective enclosure around the heart and lungs, shielding them from external trauma. It also assists in the mechanics of breathing.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about International Narcotics Control Board (INCB): It is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for drug enforcement. It has the authority to enforce drug laws within individual countries. It is one of the four treaty-mandated bodies under international drug control law. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct. Context: India’s nominee, Jagjit Pavadia, has been re-elected for a third term to the International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) after securing the highest number of votes. Additionally, India was elected to several key bodies at the United Nations, including the Commission on the Status of Women, the Executive Board of the United Nations Children’s Fund, and the Executive Board of the United Nations Development Programme. The International Narcotics Control Board, established in 1968, monitors the implementation of international drug control conventions and aims to ensure adequate drug supplies for medical and scientific uses while preventing diversion to illicit channels. It is one of the four treaty-mandated bodies under international drug control law (alongside the Commission on Narcotic Drugs, UNODC on behalf of the Secretary-General, and the WHO). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/international-narcotics-control-board/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct. Context: India’s nominee, Jagjit Pavadia, has been re-elected for a third term to the International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) after securing the highest number of votes. Additionally, India was elected to several key bodies at the United Nations, including the Commission on the Status of Women, the Executive Board of the United Nations Children’s Fund, and the Executive Board of the United Nations Development Programme. The International Narcotics Control Board, established in 1968, monitors the implementation of international drug control conventions and aims to ensure adequate drug supplies for medical and scientific uses while preventing diversion to illicit channels. It is one of the four treaty-mandated bodies under international drug control law (alongside the Commission on Narcotic Drugs, UNODC on behalf of the Secretary-General, and the WHO). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/international-narcotics-control-board/
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements about International Narcotics Control Board (INCB):
• It is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for drug enforcement. It has the authority to enforce drug laws within individual countries. It is one of the four treaty-mandated bodies under international drug control law.
• It is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for drug enforcement.
• It has the authority to enforce drug laws within individual countries.
• It is one of the four treaty-mandated bodies under international drug control law.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• Only statement 3 is correct.
• Context: India’s nominee, Jagjit Pavadia, has been re-elected for a third term to the International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) after securing the highest number of votes. Additionally, India was elected to several key bodies at the United Nations, including the Commission on the Status of Women, the Executive Board of the United Nations Children’s Fund, and the Executive Board of the United Nations Development Programme.
• Additionally, India was elected to several key bodies at the United Nations, including the Commission on the Status of Women, the Executive Board of the United Nations Children’s Fund, and the Executive Board of the United Nations Development Programme.
• The International Narcotics Control Board, established in 1968, monitors the implementation of international drug control conventions and aims to ensure adequate drug supplies for medical and scientific uses while preventing diversion to illicit channels. It is one of the four treaty-mandated bodies under international drug control law (alongside the Commission on Narcotic Drugs, UNODC on behalf of the Secretary-General, and the WHO).
• It is one of the four treaty-mandated bodies under international drug control law (alongside the Commission on Narcotic Drugs, UNODC on behalf of the Secretary-General, and the WHO).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/international-narcotics-control-board/
Explanation:
• Only statement 3 is correct.
• Context: India’s nominee, Jagjit Pavadia, has been re-elected for a third term to the International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) after securing the highest number of votes. Additionally, India was elected to several key bodies at the United Nations, including the Commission on the Status of Women, the Executive Board of the United Nations Children’s Fund, and the Executive Board of the United Nations Development Programme.
• Additionally, India was elected to several key bodies at the United Nations, including the Commission on the Status of Women, the Executive Board of the United Nations Children’s Fund, and the Executive Board of the United Nations Development Programme.
• The International Narcotics Control Board, established in 1968, monitors the implementation of international drug control conventions and aims to ensure adequate drug supplies for medical and scientific uses while preventing diversion to illicit channels. It is one of the four treaty-mandated bodies under international drug control law (alongside the Commission on Narcotic Drugs, UNODC on behalf of the Secretary-General, and the WHO).
• It is one of the four treaty-mandated bodies under international drug control law (alongside the Commission on Narcotic Drugs, UNODC on behalf of the Secretary-General, and the WHO).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/international-narcotics-control-board/
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which phenomenon describes the ability of certain materials to generate an electric charge in response to applied mechanical stress? (a) Electromagnetic induction (b) Piezoelectric effect (c) Photoelectric effect (d) Thermoelectric effect Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Piezoelectricity is the electric charge that builds up in certain materials when mechanical stress is applied to them. Piezoelectric materials can be found in nature and in synthetic materials. Quartz is a well-known natural piezoelectric material, while ferroelectric ceramics are the most widely used synthetic piezoelectric materials. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Piezoelectricity is the electric charge that builds up in certain materials when mechanical stress is applied to them. Piezoelectric materials can be found in nature and in synthetic materials. Quartz is a well-known natural piezoelectric material, while ferroelectric ceramics are the most widely used synthetic piezoelectric materials. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
#### 10. Question
Which phenomenon describes the ability of certain materials to generate an electric charge in response to applied mechanical stress?
• (a) Electromagnetic induction
• (b) Piezoelectric effect
• (c) Photoelectric effect
• (d) Thermoelectric effect
Explanation:
• Piezoelectricity is the electric charge that builds up in certain materials when mechanical stress is applied to them.
• Piezoelectric materials can be found in nature and in synthetic materials.
• Quartz is a well-known natural piezoelectric material, while ferroelectric ceramics are the most widely used synthetic piezoelectric materials.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
Explanation:
• Piezoelectricity is the electric charge that builds up in certain materials when mechanical stress is applied to them.
• Piezoelectric materials can be found in nature and in synthetic materials.
• Quartz is a well-known natural piezoelectric material, while ferroelectric ceramics are the most widely used synthetic piezoelectric materials.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/12/piezoelectric-bone-conduction-hearing-implants/
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