UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 12 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the second-leading cause of blindness among Indians over 50 years of age, a burden that the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues (Amendment) Rules, 2025, seeks to reduce by easing infrastructural norms? (a) Cataracts (b) Glaucoma (c) Corneal blindness (d) Diabetic retinopathy Correct Solution: C The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues (Amendment) Rules, 2025, specifically focus on simplifying norms for corneal transplantation services in India. The underlying context for this amendment is the need to boost cornea donation and transplantation services. The cornea is the transparent outer layer of the eye essential for clear vision. The amendment aims to reduce the burden of corneal blindness, which is stated to be the second-leading cause of blindness among Indians over 50 years of age. By removing the mandatory requirement for a clinical specular microscope, the government seeks to ease compliance and infrastructural barriers, especially for smaller eye centres in semi-urban and rural regions, thus promoting equitable access to sight-restoring services under the National Organ Transplant Programme (NOTP). Incorrect Solution: C The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues (Amendment) Rules, 2025, specifically focus on simplifying norms for corneal transplantation services in India. The underlying context for this amendment is the need to boost cornea donation and transplantation services. The cornea is the transparent outer layer of the eye essential for clear vision. The amendment aims to reduce the burden of corneal blindness, which is stated to be the second-leading cause of blindness among Indians over 50 years of age. By removing the mandatory requirement for a clinical specular microscope, the government seeks to ease compliance and infrastructural barriers, especially for smaller eye centres in semi-urban and rural regions, thus promoting equitable access to sight-restoring services under the National Organ Transplant Programme (NOTP).

#### 1. Question

Which one of the following is the second-leading cause of blindness among Indians over 50 years of age, a burden that the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues (Amendment) Rules, 2025, seeks to reduce by easing infrastructural norms?

• (a) Cataracts

• (b) Glaucoma

• (c) Corneal blindness

• (d) Diabetic retinopathy

Solution: C

• The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues (Amendment) Rules, 2025, specifically focus on simplifying norms for corneal transplantation services in India. The underlying context for this amendment is the need to boost cornea donation and transplantation services. The cornea is the transparent outer layer of the eye essential for clear vision.

• The amendment aims to reduce the burden of corneal blindness, which is stated to be the second-leading cause of blindness among Indians over 50 years of age. By removing the mandatory requirement for a clinical specular microscope, the government seeks to ease compliance and infrastructural barriers, especially for smaller eye centres in semi-urban and rural regions, thus promoting equitable access to sight-restoring services under the National Organ Transplant Programme (NOTP).

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Red Fort (Lal Qila): The fort was constructed primarily from granite and marble, reflecting the zenith of Mughal architecture. The layout of the fort complex strictly adheres to the pure Islamic Garden aesthetic, the Charbagh concept, without incorporating any Hindu design motifs. The fort’s design was conceptualised by Ustad Ahmad Lahori, who is also known to be the architect of the Taj Mahal. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Red Fort is primarily constructed from red sandstone, which gives it its name, symbolizing power and grandeur, not granite and marble. While marble was used in specific interior pavilions like the Diwan-i-Khas, the main structure is red sandstone. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the layout does reflect the Islamic Garden aesthetic (Charbagh concept), the architecture is renowned for its blending of Persian, Timurid, and Indian styles. Critically, the structure’s design includes the incorporation of distinct Hindu design motifs, particularly in certain decorative elements and structural planning. Statement 3 is correct. The Red Fort was commissioned by Emperor Shah Jahan in 1639. The design and layout were prepared by Ustad Ahmad Lahori, who is universally credited as the principal architect of the iconic Taj Mahal in Agra, connecting these two masterpieces of Mughal architecture. The fort served as the main residence of the Mughal emperors for nearly 200 years. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Red Fort is primarily constructed from red sandstone, which gives it its name, symbolizing power and grandeur, not granite and marble. While marble was used in specific interior pavilions like the Diwan-i-Khas, the main structure is red sandstone. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the layout does reflect the Islamic Garden aesthetic (Charbagh concept), the architecture is renowned for its blending of Persian, Timurid, and Indian styles. Critically, the structure’s design includes the incorporation of distinct Hindu design motifs, particularly in certain decorative elements and structural planning. Statement 3 is correct. The Red Fort was commissioned by Emperor Shah Jahan in 1639. The design and layout were prepared by Ustad Ahmad Lahori, who is universally credited as the principal architect of the iconic Taj Mahal in Agra, connecting these two masterpieces of Mughal architecture. The fort served as the main residence of the Mughal emperors for nearly 200 years.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Red Fort (Lal Qila):

• The fort was constructed primarily from granite and marble, reflecting the zenith of Mughal architecture.

• The layout of the fort complex strictly adheres to the pure Islamic Garden aesthetic, the Charbagh concept, without incorporating any Hindu design motifs.

• The fort’s design was conceptualised by Ustad Ahmad Lahori, who is also known to be the architect of the Taj Mahal.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Red Fort is primarily constructed from red sandstone, which gives it its name, symbolizing power and grandeur, not granite and marble. While marble was used in specific interior pavilions like the Diwan-i-Khas, the main structure is red sandstone.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the layout does reflect the Islamic Garden aesthetic (Charbagh concept), the architecture is renowned for its blending of Persian, Timurid, and Indian styles. Critically, the structure’s design includes the incorporation of distinct Hindu design motifs, particularly in certain decorative elements and structural planning.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Red Fort was commissioned by Emperor Shah Jahan in 1639. The design and layout were prepared by Ustad Ahmad Lahori, who is universally credited as the principal architect of the iconic Taj Mahal in Agra, connecting these two masterpieces of Mughal architecture. The fort served as the main residence of the Mughal emperors for nearly 200 years.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to Altermagnetism, recently confirmed as a new class of magnetic order, consider the following characteristics: Altermagnetic materials exhibit zero net magnetisation, similar to antiferromagnets. These materials feature a unique property of spin-split electronic bands, similar to ferromagnets. Altermagnets hold potential for applications in spintronics due to their high-speed spin dynamics, operating in the terahertz range. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Altermagnetism is a third form of magnetic order, distinct from ferromagnetism and antiferromagnetism. Like antiferromagnets, the alternating direction of atomic spins in altermagnets cancels out, resulting in zero net magnetisation or a negligible external magnetic field. Statement 2 is correct. Unlike antiferromagnets, but similar to ferromagnets, altermagnetic materials possess spin-split electronic bands. This means electrons with opposite spins occupy slightly different energy states inside the material, a feature that makes them highly useful for next-generation electronics. Statement 3 is correct. The confirmation of altermagnetism opens new avenues for spintronics, which utilises the spin of electrons rather than their charge. Their high-speed spin dynamics—switching on picosecond or sub-picosecond timescales—allows them to operate in the terahertz range, making them suitable for ultrafast, energy-efficient electronic devices. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Altermagnetism is a third form of magnetic order, distinct from ferromagnetism and antiferromagnetism. Like antiferromagnets, the alternating direction of atomic spins in altermagnets cancels out, resulting in zero net magnetisation or a negligible external magnetic field. Statement 2 is correct. Unlike antiferromagnets, but similar to ferromagnets, altermagnetic materials possess spin-split electronic bands. This means electrons with opposite spins occupy slightly different energy states inside the material, a feature that makes them highly useful for next-generation electronics. Statement 3 is correct. The confirmation of altermagnetism opens new avenues for spintronics, which utilises the spin of electrons rather than their charge. Their high-speed spin dynamics—switching on picosecond or sub-picosecond timescales—allows them to operate in the terahertz range, making them suitable for ultrafast, energy-efficient electronic devices.

#### 3. Question

With reference to Altermagnetism, recently confirmed as a new class of magnetic order, consider the following characteristics:

• Altermagnetic materials exhibit zero net magnetisation, similar to antiferromagnets.

• These materials feature a unique property of spin-split electronic bands, similar to ferromagnets.

• Altermagnets hold potential for applications in spintronics due to their high-speed spin dynamics, operating in the terahertz range.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Altermagnetism is a third form of magnetic order, distinct from ferromagnetism and antiferromagnetism. Like antiferromagnets, the alternating direction of atomic spins in altermagnets cancels out, resulting in zero net magnetisation or a negligible external magnetic field.

• Statement 2 is correct. Unlike antiferromagnets, but similar to ferromagnets, altermagnetic materials possess spin-split electronic bands. This means electrons with opposite spins occupy slightly different energy states inside the material, a feature that makes them highly useful for next-generation electronics.

• Statement 3 is correct. The confirmation of altermagnetism opens new avenues for spintronics, which utilises the spin of electrons rather than their charge. Their high-speed spin dynamics—switching on picosecond or sub-picosecond timescales—allows them to operate in the terahertz range, making them suitable for ultrafast, energy-efficient electronic devices.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) Statement I: The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is invoked only when the Air Quality Index (AQI) is expected to persist in the ‘Severe’ or ‘Severe+’ category for three or more consecutive days. Statement II: GRAP is implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in coordination with various state and central bodies, following the directions of the Supreme Court of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. GRAP’s activation mechanism is based on a proactive approach. The CAQM Sub-Committee reviews daily AQI data and forecasts. The rule for invoking a higher GRAP stage (e.g., moving from Stage II to Stage III/IV) is when the AQI level is expected to persist for three or more days. However, any stage can be invoked, or relaxed, as soon as the prescribed AQI threshold is breached or forecast to be breached, not only for Severe/Severe+. For example, Stage I (Poor) or Stage II (Very Poor) are invoked as soon as their respective AQI levels are reached, to begin implementing preventive and corrective actions. Statement II is correct. GRAP was established in 2017 following the directions of the Supreme Court of India, based on the recommendations of the then-Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). It is currently implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), which coordinates its execution with the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the pollution control boards of the NCR states. This mechanism ensures a timely, coordinated, and graded intervention across the region. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. GRAP’s activation mechanism is based on a proactive approach. The CAQM Sub-Committee reviews daily AQI data and forecasts. The rule for invoking a higher GRAP stage (e.g., moving from Stage II to Stage III/IV) is when the AQI level is expected to persist for three or more days. However, any stage can be invoked, or relaxed, as soon as the prescribed AQI threshold is breached or forecast to be breached, not only for Severe/Severe+. For example, Stage I (Poor) or Stage II (Very Poor) are invoked as soon as their respective AQI levels are reached, to begin implementing preventive and corrective actions. Statement II is correct. GRAP was established in 2017 following the directions of the Supreme Court of India, based on the recommendations of the then-Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). It is currently implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), which coordinates its execution with the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the pollution control boards of the NCR states. This mechanism ensures a timely, coordinated, and graded intervention across the region.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)

Statement I: The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is invoked only when the Air Quality Index (AQI) is expected to persist in the ‘Severe’ or ‘Severe+’ category for three or more consecutive days.

Statement II: GRAP is implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in coordination with various state and central bodies, following the directions of the Supreme Court of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement I is incorrect. GRAP’s activation mechanism is based on a proactive approach. The CAQM Sub-Committee reviews daily AQI data and forecasts. The rule for invoking a higher GRAP stage (e.g., moving from Stage II to Stage III/IV) is when the AQI level is expected to persist for three or more days. However, any stage can be invoked, or relaxed, as soon as the prescribed AQI threshold is breached or forecast to be breached, not only for Severe/Severe+. For example, Stage I (Poor) or Stage II (Very Poor) are invoked as soon as their respective AQI levels are reached, to begin implementing preventive and corrective actions.

• Statement II is correct. GRAP was established in 2017 following the directions of the Supreme Court of India, based on the recommendations of the then-Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). It is currently implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), which coordinates its execution with the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the pollution control boards of the NCR states. This mechanism ensures a timely, coordinated, and graded intervention across the region.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Global Reporting Initiative (GRI): GRI was initially launched by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) to focus exclusively on environmental transparency. The GRI framework mandates all listed companies globally to report their sustainability impacts. The core aim of GRI is to help organisations measure and communicate their Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) impacts in a standardised and comparable way. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. GRI was launched by Ceres and the Tellus Institute with support from UNEP, not by UNEP alone. Furthermore, its aim has always been broader than exclusively environmental transparency, encompassing environmental, social, and governance (ESG) impacts. Statement 2 is incorrect. GRI provides the world’s most widely used framework for sustainability reporting, but it is an independent standards organisation. It does not mandate reporting for all listed companies globally; rather, the adoption of its standards is voluntary, although many jurisdictions now use GRI as a basis for their regulatory reporting requirements. Statement 3 is correct. The central mission of the Global Reporting Initiative is to promote transparency and accountability. It achieves this by providing a framework that helps businesses, governments, and NGOs measure and communicate their environmental, social, and governance (ESG) impacts in a way that is standardised and comparable across different organisations and time periods. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. GRI was launched by Ceres and the Tellus Institute with support from UNEP, not by UNEP alone. Furthermore, its aim has always been broader than exclusively environmental transparency, encompassing environmental, social, and governance (ESG) impacts. Statement 2 is incorrect. GRI provides the world’s most widely used framework for sustainability reporting, but it is an independent standards organisation. It does not mandate reporting for all listed companies globally; rather, the adoption of its standards is voluntary, although many jurisdictions now use GRI as a basis for their regulatory reporting requirements. Statement 3 is correct. The central mission of the Global Reporting Initiative is to promote transparency and accountability. It achieves this by providing a framework that helps businesses, governments, and NGOs measure and communicate their environmental, social, and governance (ESG) impacts in a way that is standardised and comparable across different organisations and time periods.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Reporting Initiative (GRI):

• GRI was initially launched by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) to focus exclusively on environmental transparency.

• The GRI framework mandates all listed companies globally to report their sustainability impacts.

• The core aim of GRI is to help organisations measure and communicate their Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) impacts in a standardised and comparable way.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. GRI was launched by Ceres and the Tellus Institute with support from UNEP, not by UNEP alone. Furthermore, its aim has always been broader than exclusively environmental transparency, encompassing environmental, social, and governance (ESG) impacts.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. GRI provides the world’s most widely used framework for sustainability reporting, but it is an independent standards organisation. It does not mandate reporting for all listed companies globally; rather, the adoption of its standards is voluntary, although many jurisdictions now use GRI as a basis for their regulatory reporting requirements.

• Statement 3 is correct. The central mission of the Global Reporting Initiative is to promote transparency and accountability. It achieves this by providing a framework that helps businesses, governments, and NGOs measure and communicate their environmental, social, and governance (ESG) impacts in a way that is standardised and comparable across different organisations and time periods.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Regarding the Exercise Mitra Shakti XI – 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is a bilateral joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh focusing on high-altitude warfare. A key feature of the exercise is the rehearsal of counter-terrorism and peacekeeping operations under the mandate of the UN Charter. Select the correct answer code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘Mitra Shakti’ is a joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army, not Bangladesh. Its focus is on sub-conventional operations and counter-terrorism in an international context, not primarily on high-altitude warfare, which is typical for specific Himalayan exercises. Statement 2 is correct. The core objective (Aim) of the exercise is to jointly rehearse sub-conventional operations under Chapter VII of the UN Charter. This involves joint tactical drills focusing on counter-terrorism, peacekeeping, and humanitarian operations, making it a key element of the bilateral defence cooperation and training for UN mandates. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘Mitra Shakti’ is a joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army, not Bangladesh. Its focus is on sub-conventional operations and counter-terrorism in an international context, not primarily on high-altitude warfare, which is typical for specific Himalayan exercises. Statement 2 is correct. The core objective (Aim) of the exercise is to jointly rehearse sub-conventional operations under Chapter VII of the UN Charter. This involves joint tactical drills focusing on counter-terrorism, peacekeeping, and humanitarian operations, making it a key element of the bilateral defence cooperation and training for UN mandates.

#### 6. Question

Regarding the Exercise Mitra Shakti XI – 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It is a bilateral joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh focusing on high-altitude warfare.

• A key feature of the exercise is the rehearsal of counter-terrorism and peacekeeping operations under the mandate of the UN Charter.

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. ‘Mitra Shakti’ is a joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army, not Bangladesh. Its focus is on sub-conventional operations and counter-terrorism in an international context, not primarily on high-altitude warfare, which is typical for specific Himalayan exercises.

• Statement 2 is correct. The core objective (Aim) of the exercise is to jointly rehearse sub-conventional operations under Chapter VII of the UN Charter. This involves joint tactical drills focusing on counter-terrorism, peacekeeping, and humanitarian operations, making it a key element of the bilateral defence cooperation and training for UN mandates.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With respect to Ethiopia and its geographical features, consider the following statements: Ethiopia is the largest and most populous nation in the Horn of Africa and hosts the headquarters of the African Union. The country’s topography is dominated by highlands and plateaus, which are separated by the Great Rift Valley. Mount Ras Dejen (Dashen) is the highest peak in Ethiopia. The Blue Nile (Abay) river originates from Lake Tana within the Ethiopian Highlands. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Ethiopia is geopolitically significant, being the largest and most populous nation in the Horn of Africa. Its capital, Addis Ababa, is the host city for the African Union (AU) and the UN Economic Commission for Africa, cementing its role as a regional diplomatic hub. Statement 2 is correct. Ethiopia is known for its rugged and distinct terrain. It is dominated by the Western and Eastern Highlands and plateaus, which are divided by the massive continental fracture known as the Great Rift Valley, running north to south through the country. Statement 3 is correct. Mount Ras Dejen (Dashen), with an elevation of 4,533 metres, is the tallest peak in Ethiopia, located in the Simien Mountains. Statement 4 is correct. The Blue Nile (Abay) is one of the most important rivers originating in the Ethiopian Highlands. Its source is Lake Tana, the largest lake in Ethiopia, from where it flows into Sudan to eventually merge with the White Nile. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Ethiopia is geopolitically significant, being the largest and most populous nation in the Horn of Africa. Its capital, Addis Ababa, is the host city for the African Union (AU) and the UN Economic Commission for Africa, cementing its role as a regional diplomatic hub. Statement 2 is correct. Ethiopia is known for its rugged and distinct terrain. It is dominated by the Western and Eastern Highlands and plateaus, which are divided by the massive continental fracture known as the Great Rift Valley, running north to south through the country. Statement 3 is correct. Mount Ras Dejen (Dashen), with an elevation of 4,533 metres, is the tallest peak in Ethiopia, located in the Simien Mountains. Statement 4 is correct. The Blue Nile (Abay) is one of the most important rivers originating in the Ethiopian Highlands. Its source is Lake Tana, the largest lake in Ethiopia, from where it flows into Sudan to eventually merge with the White Nile.

#### 7. Question

With respect to Ethiopia and its geographical features, consider the following statements:

• Ethiopia is the largest and most populous nation in the Horn of Africa and hosts the headquarters of the African Union.

• The country’s topography is dominated by highlands and plateaus, which are separated by the Great Rift Valley.

• Mount Ras Dejen (Dashen) is the highest peak in Ethiopia.

• The Blue Nile (Abay) river originates from Lake Tana within the Ethiopian Highlands.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. Ethiopia is geopolitically significant, being the largest and most populous nation in the Horn of Africa. Its capital, Addis Ababa, is the host city for the African Union (AU) and the UN Economic Commission for Africa, cementing its role as a regional diplomatic hub.

• Statement 2 is correct. Ethiopia is known for its rugged and distinct terrain. It is dominated by the Western and Eastern Highlands and plateaus, which are divided by the massive continental fracture known as the Great Rift Valley, running north to south through the country.

• Statement 3 is correct. Mount Ras Dejen (Dashen), with an elevation of 4,533 metres, is the tallest peak in Ethiopia, located in the Simien Mountains.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Blue Nile (Abay) is one of the most important rivers originating in the Ethiopian Highlands. Its source is Lake Tana, the largest lake in Ethiopia, from where it flows into Sudan to eventually merge with the White Nile.

Solution: D

• Statement 3 is correct. Mount Ras Dejen (Dashen), with an elevation of 4,533 metres, is the tallest peak in Ethiopia, located in the Simien Mountains.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme: The AEO Programme is mandated by World Trade Organization’s (WTO) Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) for all member countries. The programme aims to encourage MSME participation in international trade by offering simplified procedures and reduced documentation. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The AEO Programme aligns with Article 7.7 of the WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), which encourages the use of an AEO-like system; however, it is a voluntary trade facilitation initiative, not a mandatory requirement for all member countries. The programme itself is under the WCO SAFE Framework. Statement 2 is correct. The AEO programme has been specifically recognised for its success in boosting MSME participation in international trade by offering benefits like simplified customs procedures, reduced documentation, and faster clearance. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The AEO Programme aligns with Article 7.7 of the WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), which encourages the use of an AEO-like system; however, it is a voluntary trade facilitation initiative, not a mandatory requirement for all member countries. The programme itself is under the WCO SAFE Framework. Statement 2 is correct. The AEO programme has been specifically recognised for its success in boosting MSME participation in international trade by offering benefits like simplified customs procedures, reduced documentation, and faster clearance.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme:

• The AEO Programme is mandated by World Trade Organization’s (WTO) Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) for all member countries.

• The programme aims to encourage MSME participation in international trade by offering simplified procedures and reduced documentation.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The AEO Programme aligns with Article 7.7 of the WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), which encourages the use of an AEO-like system; however, it is a voluntary trade facilitation initiative, not a mandatory requirement for all member countries. The programme itself is under the WCO SAFE Framework.

• Statement 2 is correct. The AEO programme has been specifically recognised for its success in boosting MSME participation in international trade by offering benefits like simplified customs procedures, reduced documentation, and faster clearance.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the duties and audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: The CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, but not from the Public Account of India. The CAG audits government companies and corporations only when they are fully funded by the Union or State government. The Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts checks the expenditure against the original sanction. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because the CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund, and the Public Account of India and States, as per the 1971 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect. The CAG audits government companies and corporations under their respective statutes, regardless of whether they are fully funded by the government. The key function is the audit of bodies that are government-funded. Statement 3 is correct. The Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts is specifically designed to check if the money spent (expenditure) for a particular purpose is within the amount sanctioned (appropriated) by the legislature, thus ensuring accountability. Audit Report on Finance Accounts deals with annual receipts and disbursements. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because the CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund, and the Public Account of India and States, as per the 1971 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect. The CAG audits government companies and corporations under their respective statutes, regardless of whether they are fully funded by the government. The key function is the audit of bodies that are government-funded. Statement 3 is correct. The Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts is specifically designed to check if the money spent (expenditure) for a particular purpose is within the amount sanctioned (appropriated) by the legislature, thus ensuring accountability. Audit Report on Finance Accounts deals with annual receipts and disbursements.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the duties and audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

• The CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, but not from the Public Account of India.

• The CAG audits government companies and corporations only when they are fully funded by the Union or State government.

• The Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts checks the expenditure against the original sanction.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund, and the Public Account of India and States, as per the 1971 Act.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The CAG audits government companies and corporations under their respective statutes, regardless of whether they are fully funded by the government. The key function is the audit of bodies that are government-funded.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts is specifically designed to check if the money spent (expenditure) for a particular purpose is within the amount sanctioned (appropriated) by the legislature, thus ensuring accountability. Audit Report on Finance Accounts deals with annual receipts and disbursements.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund, and the Public Account of India and States, as per the 1971 Act.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Doha Political Declaration (2025): The Declaration was adopted at the First World Summit for Social Development, hosted by the United Nations headquarters in New York. Its key feature is the call for a global tax on financial transactions to fund poverty eradication initiatives. The Declaration represents a shift in global policy by treating economic growth and environmental sustainability as secondary to social development. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the Doha Political Declaration (2025) was adopted at the Second World Summit for Social Development, and it was hosted by Qatar (in Doha), not the UN headquarters. Statement 2 is incorrect; the document reaffirms commitment to poverty eradication and calls for global cooperation and financial investment but does not specifically mention a “global tax on financial transactions”. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Declaration emphasizes a holistic approach, stating that social progress, economic growth, and environmental sustainability are *inseparable pillars of human development, aligning social goals closely with the 2030 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It is an integrated approach, not a prioritization of social development over the other two pillars. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the Doha Political Declaration (2025) was adopted at the Second World Summit for Social Development, and it was hosted by Qatar (in Doha), not the UN headquarters. Statement 2 is incorrect; the document reaffirms commitment to poverty eradication and calls for global cooperation and financial investment but does not specifically mention a “global tax on financial transactions”. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Declaration emphasizes a holistic approach, stating that social progress, economic growth, and environmental sustainability are inseparable pillars* of human development, aligning social goals closely with the 2030 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It is an integrated approach**, not a prioritization of social development over the other two pillars.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Doha Political Declaration (2025):

• The Declaration was adopted at the First World Summit for Social Development, hosted by the United Nations headquarters in New York.

• Its key feature is the call for a global tax on financial transactions to fund poverty eradication initiatives.

• The Declaration represents a shift in global policy by treating economic growth and environmental sustainability as secondary to social development.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Doha Political Declaration (2025) was adopted at the Second World Summit for Social Development, and it was hosted by Qatar (in Doha), not the UN headquarters.

• Statement 2 is incorrect; the document reaffirms commitment to poverty eradication and calls for global cooperation and financial investment but does not specifically mention a “global tax on financial transactions”.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Declaration emphasizes a holistic approach, stating that social progress, economic growth, and environmental sustainability are *inseparable pillars of human development, aligning social goals closely with the 2030 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It is an integrated approach*, not a prioritization of social development over the other two pillars.

Solution: D

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