UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 12 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the newly developed non-contact wearable device for health monitoring: The device primarily measures internal physiological parameters like heart rate and blood oxygen saturation without skin contact. It employs a sealed chamber creating a microclimate adjacent to the skin to measure molecular flux. One of its significant applications includes monitoring wound healing, particularly in diabetic patients. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The non-contact wearable device is designed to track molecular flux through the skin, measuring outward vapour (like water vapour, CO2, VOCs) and inward chemical entry. It does not primarily measure internal physiological parameters like heart rate or blood oxygen saturation in the conventional sense of oximeters or heart rate monitors. Statement 2 is correct. The device works by creating a sealed chamber adjacent to the skin, which forms a microclimate. This controlled environment allows its miniature sensors to accurately measure the flux of molecules like water vapour, carbon dioxide (CO2), and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emanating from or entering the skin. A remote-controlled valve regulates the chamber’s openness for comparative measurements. Statement 3 is correct. A key application of this technology is in monitoring wound healing, especially for conditions like diabetes where healing can be compromised, and for chronic skin conditions. Its non-invasive nature is particularly beneficial as it avoids damage to fragile or healing skin, while providing crucial data on skin barrier function and hydration. Other applications include dermatological diagnostics and tracking hazardous chemical exposure. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The non-contact wearable device is designed to track molecular flux through the skin, measuring outward vapour (like water vapour, CO2, VOCs) and inward chemical entry. It does not primarily measure internal physiological parameters like heart rate or blood oxygen saturation in the conventional sense of oximeters or heart rate monitors. Statement 2 is correct. The device works by creating a sealed chamber adjacent to the skin, which forms a microclimate. This controlled environment allows its miniature sensors to accurately measure the flux of molecules like water vapour, carbon dioxide (CO2), and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emanating from or entering the skin. A remote-controlled valve regulates the chamber’s openness for comparative measurements. Statement 3 is correct. A key application of this technology is in monitoring wound healing, especially for conditions like diabetes where healing can be compromised, and for chronic skin conditions. Its non-invasive nature is particularly beneficial as it avoids damage to fragile or healing skin, while providing crucial data on skin barrier function and hydration. Other applications include dermatological diagnostics and tracking hazardous chemical exposure.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the newly developed non-contact wearable device for health monitoring:

• The device primarily measures internal physiological parameters like heart rate and blood oxygen saturation without skin contact.

• It employs a sealed chamber creating a microclimate adjacent to the skin to measure molecular flux.

• One of its significant applications includes monitoring wound healing, particularly in diabetic patients.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The non-contact wearable device is designed to track molecular flux through the skin, measuring outward vapour (like water vapour, CO2, VOCs) and inward chemical entry. It does not primarily measure internal physiological parameters like heart rate or blood oxygen saturation in the conventional sense of oximeters or heart rate monitors.

• Statement 2 is correct. The device works by creating a sealed chamber adjacent to the skin, which forms a microclimate. This controlled environment allows its miniature sensors to accurately measure the flux of molecules like water vapour, carbon dioxide (CO2), and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emanating from or entering the skin. A remote-controlled valve regulates the chamber’s openness for comparative measurements.

Statement 3 is correct. A key application of this technology is in monitoring wound healing, especially for conditions like diabetes where healing can be compromised, and for chronic skin conditions. Its non-invasive nature is particularly beneficial as it avoids damage to fragile or healing skin, while providing crucial data on skin barrier function and hydration. Other applications include dermatological diagnostics and tracking hazardous chemical exposure.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), consider the following statements: The ASI was founded during the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon, who was known for his keen interest in preserving India’s ancient monuments. The ASI operates as an autonomous body directly under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) to ensure its independence in archaeological research. The logo of the ASI is inspired by the Lion Capital of Ashoka, symbolizing India’s sovereign authority and ancient heritage. One of the core functions of the ASI is the conservation of ancient monuments notified under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. The ASI was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham under a statute passed during the viceroyalty of Lord Canning. Lord Curzon, while indeed instrumental in passing the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904 and significantly contributing to heritage preservation, was not the Viceroy at the time of ASI’s founding. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ASI operates under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It is a government agency, not an autonomous body directly under the PMO. Statement 3 is incorrect. The logo of the ASI is inspired by the Sanchi Stupa, particularly its gateways (toranas) and railings, symbolizing India’s ancient architectural and archaeological legacy, not the Lion Capital of Ashoka. Statement 4 is correct. A core function of the ASI is the maintenance and restoration of ancient monuments and archaeological sites of national importance. It is responsible for over 3,600+ monuments notified under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. The ASI was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham under a statute passed during the viceroyalty of Lord Canning. Lord Curzon, while indeed instrumental in passing the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904 and significantly contributing to heritage preservation, was not the Viceroy at the time of ASI’s founding. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ASI operates under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It is a government agency, not an autonomous body directly under the PMO. Statement 3 is incorrect. The logo of the ASI is inspired by the Sanchi Stupa, particularly its gateways (toranas) and railings, symbolizing India’s ancient architectural and archaeological legacy, not the Lion Capital of Ashoka. Statement 4 is correct. A core function of the ASI is the maintenance and restoration of ancient monuments and archaeological sites of national importance. It is responsible for over 3,600+ monuments notified under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), consider the following statements:

• The ASI was founded during the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon, who was known for his keen interest in preserving India’s ancient monuments.

• The ASI operates as an autonomous body directly under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) to ensure its independence in archaeological research.

• The logo of the ASI is inspired by the Lion Capital of Ashoka, symbolizing India’s sovereign authority and ancient heritage.

• One of the core functions of the ASI is the conservation of ancient monuments notified under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The ASI was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham under a statute passed during the viceroyalty of Lord Canning. Lord Curzon, while indeed instrumental in passing the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904 and significantly contributing to heritage preservation, was not the Viceroy at the time of ASI’s founding.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The ASI operates under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It is a government agency, not an autonomous body directly under the PMO.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The logo of the ASI is inspired by the Sanchi Stupa, particularly its gateways (toranas) and railings, symbolizing India’s ancient architectural and archaeological legacy, not the Lion Capital of Ashoka.

Statement 4 is correct. A core function of the ASI is the maintenance and restoration of ancient monuments and archaeological sites of national importance. It is responsible for over 3,600+ monuments notified under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.

Solution: c)

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The ASI operates under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It is a government agency, not an autonomous body directly under the PMO.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Sacred Relics of Lord Buddha: Paribhogika relics refer exclusively to the physical bodily remains of Gautama Buddha, such as bones and teeth. The National Museum of India is the sole custodian and curator of all authenticated Sacred Relics of Lord Buddha found globally. The sharing of these relics with other nations is primarily managed by the International Buddhist Confederation (IBC) without the involvement of the Indian government. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Paribhogika relics are objects used by Buddha, such as his robe, bowl, or walking stick. Physical bodily remains like bones, teeth, and ashes are classified as Saririka relics. Uddesika relics are symbols representing Buddha, like stupas or images. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the National Museum of India plays a crucial role in preserving and curating many Sacred Relics of Lord Buddha, it is not the sole custodian of all authenticated relics found globally. Major relics are housed in various locations worldwide, such as the Tooth Relic in Sri Lanka. Statement 3 is incorrect. The sharing of relics for international exposition is a collaborative effort. It is supported by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, and the International Buddhist Confederation (IBC). The government’s involvement is crucial for such diplomatic and cultural exchanges, as seen in the recent sharing of relics with Vietnam. Therefore, none of the statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Paribhogika relics are objects used by Buddha, such as his robe, bowl, or walking stick. Physical bodily remains like bones, teeth, and ashes are classified as Saririka relics. Uddesika relics are symbols representing Buddha, like stupas or images. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the National Museum of India plays a crucial role in preserving and curating many Sacred Relics of Lord Buddha, it is not the sole custodian of all authenticated relics found globally. Major relics are housed in various locations worldwide, such as the Tooth Relic in Sri Lanka. Statement 3 is incorrect. The sharing of relics for international exposition is a collaborative effort. It is supported by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, and the International Buddhist Confederation (IBC). The government’s involvement is crucial for such diplomatic and cultural exchanges, as seen in the recent sharing of relics with Vietnam. Therefore, none of the statements are correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Sacred Relics of Lord Buddha:

• Paribhogika relics refer exclusively to the physical bodily remains of Gautama Buddha, such as bones and teeth.

• The National Museum of India is the sole custodian and curator of all authenticated Sacred Relics of Lord Buddha found globally.

• The sharing of these relics with other nations is primarily managed by the International Buddhist Confederation (IBC) without the involvement of the Indian government.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Paribhogika relics are objects used by Buddha, such as his robe, bowl, or walking stick. Physical bodily remains like bones, teeth, and ashes are classified as Saririka relics. Uddesika relics are symbols representing Buddha, like stupas or images.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the National Museum of India plays a crucial role in preserving and curating many Sacred Relics of Lord Buddha, it is not the sole custodian of all authenticated relics found globally. Major relics are housed in various locations worldwide, such as the Tooth Relic in Sri Lanka.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The sharing of relics for international exposition is a collaborative effort. It is supported by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, and the International Buddhist Confederation (IBC). The government’s involvement is crucial for such diplomatic and cultural exchanges, as seen in the recent sharing of relics with Vietnam. Therefore, none of the statements are correct.

Solution: d)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the report “Enhancing MSMEs Competitiveness in India” by NITI Aayog, consider the following statements: The report indicates that despite improvements, the vast majority of MSMEs in India still lack access to formal credit channels. The report was prepared solely by NITI Aayog without collaboration from any external research institutions. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. The report highlights that while the share of micro and small enterprises accessing formal credit rose from 14% in 2020 to 20% in 2024, and for medium enterprises from 4% to 9% in the same period, only 19% of the total MSME credit demand was met. This leaves a substantial credit gap of ₹80 lakh crore, indicating that the vast majority still struggle with formal credit access. Statement 3 is incorrect. The report “Enhancing MSMEs Competitiveness in India” was released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute for Competitiveness (IFC). This collaboration aimed to provide a comprehensive blueprint for MSME growth. Therefore, only one statement is correct. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. The report highlights that while the share of micro and small enterprises accessing formal credit rose from 14% in 2020 to 20% in 2024, and for medium enterprises from 4% to 9% in the same period, only 19% of the total MSME credit demand was met. This leaves a substantial credit gap of ₹80 lakh crore, indicating that the vast majority still struggle with formal credit access. Statement 3 is incorrect. The report “Enhancing MSMEs Competitiveness in India” was released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute for Competitiveness (IFC). This collaboration aimed to provide a comprehensive blueprint for MSME growth. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the report “Enhancing MSMEs Competitiveness in India” by NITI Aayog, consider the following statements:

• The report indicates that despite improvements, the vast majority of MSMEs in India still lack access to formal credit channels.

• The report was prepared solely by NITI Aayog without collaboration from any external research institutions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is correct. The report highlights that while the share of micro and small enterprises accessing formal credit rose from 14% in 2020 to 20% in 2024, and for medium enterprises from 4% to 9% in the same period, only 19% of the total MSME credit demand was met. This leaves a substantial credit gap of ₹80 lakh crore, indicating that the vast majority still struggle with formal credit access.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The report “Enhancing MSMEs Competitiveness in India” was released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute for Competitiveness (IFC). This collaboration aimed to provide a comprehensive blueprint for MSME growth. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Solution: a)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Vizhinjam International Seaport Statement-I: The Vizhinjam International Seaport is strategically positioned to become a major transshipment hub, potentially reducing India’s dependence on foreign ports like Colombo and Singapore. Statement-II: The port boasts a significant natural depth, thus allowing it to handle next-generation ultra-large container vessels (ULCVs). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. The Vizhinjam International Seaport is indeed strategically positioned to become a major transshipment hub. Its location just 10 nautical miles from key global shipping routes and its capacity to handle large vessels make it a direct competitor to established hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali. This capability is expected to reduce India’s reliance on these foreign ports for transshipment, thereby saving costs (estimated at over $200 million annually) and transit time for Indian cargo. Statement-II is correct. A key feature of Vizhinjam Port is its natural depth of 24 meters. This significant natural advantage means that extensive and costly capital dredging (deepening of the seabed) was not required to accommodate large vessels. This depth allows it to handle next-generation Ultra-Large Container Vessels (ULCVs) with capacities exceeding 24,000 TEUs. Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. The Vizhinjam International Seaport is indeed strategically positioned to become a major transshipment hub. Its location just 10 nautical miles from key global shipping routes and its capacity to handle large vessels make it a direct competitor to established hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali. This capability is expected to reduce India’s reliance on these foreign ports for transshipment, thereby saving costs (estimated at over $200 million annually) and transit time for Indian cargo. Statement-II is correct. A key feature of Vizhinjam Port is its natural depth of 24 meters. This significant natural advantage means that extensive and costly capital dredging (deepening of the seabed) was not required to accommodate large vessels. This depth allows it to handle next-generation Ultra-Large Container Vessels (ULCVs) with capacities exceeding 24,000 TEUs. Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Vizhinjam International Seaport

Statement-I: The Vizhinjam International Seaport is strategically positioned to become a major transshipment hub, potentially reducing India’s dependence on foreign ports like Colombo and Singapore.

Statement-II: The port boasts a significant natural depth, thus allowing it to handle next-generation ultra-large container vessels (ULCVs).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

• Statement-I is correct. The Vizhinjam International Seaport is indeed strategically positioned to become a major transshipment hub. Its location just 10 nautical miles from key global shipping routes and its capacity to handle large vessels make it a direct competitor to established hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali. This capability is expected to reduce India’s reliance on these foreign ports for transshipment, thereby saving costs (estimated at over $200 million annually) and transit time for Indian cargo.

• Statement-II is correct. A key feature of Vizhinjam Port is its natural depth of 24 meters. This significant natural advantage means that extensive and costly capital dredging (deepening of the seabed) was not required to accommodate large vessels. This depth allows it to handle next-generation Ultra-Large Container Vessels (ULCVs) with capacities exceeding 24,000 TEUs.

• Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: a)

• Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The Satavahana rulers issued coins with ship motifs, reflecting their engagement in maritime trade and navigation. Statement-II: The Krishna-Godavari delta, a core region of the Satavahana empire, was a highly fertile rice-producing zone, which provided a strong agrarian base supporting their economic activities, including trade. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. Certain Satavahana rulers, notably Yajna Sri Satakarni, issued coins featuring ship motifs. This numismatic evidence is widely interpreted by historians as indicative of the dynasty’s active involvement in and promotion of maritime trade and navigation. Such imagery would symbolize their naval power or commercial interests across the seas. Statement-II is correct. The Krishna-Godavari delta region was a vital part of the Satavahana territory and was renowned for its fertility, particularly for rice cultivation. This strong agrarian base was fundamental to the empire’s economy, providing sustenance for the population and generating surplus that could support other economic activities, including extensive inland and maritime trade. Furthermore, Statement-II provides a correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. Certain Satavahana rulers, notably Yajna Sri Satakarni, issued coins featuring ship motifs. This numismatic evidence is widely interpreted by historians as indicative of the dynasty’s active involvement in and promotion of maritime trade and navigation. Such imagery would symbolize their naval power or commercial interests across the seas. Statement-II is correct. The Krishna-Godavari delta region was a vital part of the Satavahana territory and was renowned for its fertility, particularly for rice cultivation. This strong agrarian base was fundamental to the empire’s economy, providing sustenance for the population and generating surplus that could support other economic activities, including extensive inland and maritime trade. Furthermore, Statement-II provides a correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The Satavahana rulers issued coins with ship motifs, reflecting their engagement in maritime trade and navigation.

Statement-II: The Krishna-Godavari delta, a core region of the Satavahana empire, was a highly fertile rice-producing zone, which provided a strong agrarian base supporting their economic activities, including trade.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

• Statement-I is correct. Certain Satavahana rulers, notably Yajna Sri Satakarni, issued coins featuring ship motifs. This numismatic evidence is widely interpreted by historians as indicative of the dynasty’s active involvement in and promotion of maritime trade and navigation. Such imagery would symbolize their naval power or commercial interests across the seas.

• Statement-II is correct. The Krishna-Godavari delta region was a vital part of the Satavahana territory and was renowned for its fertility, particularly for rice cultivation. This strong agrarian base was fundamental to the empire’s economy, providing sustenance for the population and generating surplus that could support other economic activities, including extensive inland and maritime trade.

Furthermore, Statement-II provides a correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: a)

Furthermore, Statement-II provides a correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR): The reserve is primarily characterized by Himalayan moist temperate forests and alpine meadows. The Burha river, one of the major rivers draining the reserve, is an ephemeral river that flows only during the monsoon season. The geological formations in PTR are composed of Gondwana formations and other rock types such as Gneiss and Quartzite. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. Palamu Tiger Reserve is located in the Chhotanagpur Plateau in Jharkhand. Its flora is dominated by Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous forests, with Sal (Shorea robusta) being a prominent species. Himalayan moist temperate forests and alpine meadows are characteristic of high-altitude Himalayan regions, not the Chhotanagpur Plateau. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Burha river, which drains the Palamu Tiger Reserve, is described as a perennial river, meaning it flows throughout the year. The North Koel and Auranga are other rivers in the area. Ephemeral rivers are those that flow only for short periods, typically after rainfall, which is not the case for the Burha as per the information. Statement 3 is correct. Gondwana formations (sandstone, shale, haematite) are present in the Palamu Tiger Reserve. The reserve also contains other rock types such as Gneiss, Quartzite, Amphibolite, and Laterite. This indicates a more diverse geological composition than stated. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. Palamu Tiger Reserve is located in the Chhotanagpur Plateau in Jharkhand. Its flora is dominated by Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous forests, with Sal (Shorea robusta) being a prominent species. Himalayan moist temperate forests and alpine meadows are characteristic of high-altitude Himalayan regions, not the Chhotanagpur Plateau. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Burha river, which drains the Palamu Tiger Reserve, is described as a perennial river, meaning it flows throughout the year. The North Koel and Auranga are other rivers in the area. Ephemeral rivers are those that flow only for short periods, typically after rainfall, which is not the case for the Burha as per the information. Statement 3 is correct. Gondwana formations (sandstone, shale, haematite) are present in the Palamu Tiger Reserve. The reserve also contains other rock types such as Gneiss, Quartzite, Amphibolite, and Laterite. This indicates a more diverse geological composition than stated.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR):

• The reserve is primarily characterized by Himalayan moist temperate forests and alpine meadows.

• The Burha river, one of the major rivers draining the reserve, is an ephemeral river that flows only during the monsoon season.

• The geological formations in PTR are composed of Gondwana formations and other rock types such as Gneiss and Quartzite.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Palamu Tiger Reserve is located in the Chhotanagpur Plateau in Jharkhand. Its flora is dominated by Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous forests, with Sal (Shorea robusta) being a prominent species. Himalayan moist temperate forests and alpine meadows are characteristic of high-altitude Himalayan regions, not the Chhotanagpur Plateau.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Burha river, which drains the Palamu Tiger Reserve, is described as a perennial river, meaning it flows throughout the year. The North Koel and Auranga are other rivers in the area. Ephemeral rivers are those that flow only for short periods, typically after rainfall, which is not the case for the Burha as per the information.

Statement 3 is correct. Gondwana formations (sandstone, shale, haematite) are present in the Palamu Tiger Reserve. The reserve also contains other rock types such as Gneiss, Quartzite, Amphibolite, and Laterite. This indicates a more diverse geological composition than stated.

Solution: c)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India, consider the following statements: The Chairperson of the NHRC must be a retired Chief Justice of India, and no other retired Supreme Court Judge is eligible for this position. The recommendations made by the NHRC regarding human rights violations are binding on the concerned government or authority. The NHRC can investigate an alleged human rights violation if the complaint is made within two years of the incident. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (as amended), the Chairperson of the NHRC can be a retired Chief Justice of India OR a retired Judge of the Supreme Court. The eligibility is not restricted solely to retired Chief Justices of India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The recommendations made by the NHRC are advisory and non-binding in nature. While they carry significant moral weight and public scrutiny often compels action, the concerned government or authority is not legally obligated to implement them. The NHRC can recommend compensation, legal action, or interim relief, but it cannot enforce these recommendations directly. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NHRC has a limitation regarding the timeframe for complaints. It cannot investigate cases of alleged human rights violations if the complaint is made after one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed. The limit is one year, not two years. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (as amended), the Chairperson of the NHRC can be a retired Chief Justice of India OR a retired Judge of the Supreme Court. The eligibility is not restricted solely to retired Chief Justices of India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The recommendations made by the NHRC are advisory and non-binding in nature. While they carry significant moral weight and public scrutiny often compels action, the concerned government or authority is not legally obligated to implement them. The NHRC can recommend compensation, legal action, or interim relief, but it cannot enforce these recommendations directly. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NHRC has a limitation regarding the timeframe for complaints. It cannot investigate cases of alleged human rights violations if the complaint is made after one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed. The limit is one year, not two years.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India, consider the following statements:

• The Chairperson of the NHRC must be a retired Chief Justice of India, and no other retired Supreme Court Judge is eligible for this position.

• The recommendations made by the NHRC regarding human rights violations are binding on the concerned government or authority.

• The NHRC can investigate an alleged human rights violation if the complaint is made within two years of the incident.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (as amended), the Chairperson of the NHRC can be a retired Chief Justice of India OR a retired Judge of the Supreme Court. The eligibility is not restricted solely to retired Chief Justices of India.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The recommendations made by the NHRC are advisory and non-binding in nature. While they carry significant moral weight and public scrutiny often compels action, the concerned government or authority is not legally obligated to implement them. The NHRC can recommend compensation, legal action, or interim relief, but it cannot enforce these recommendations directly.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The NHRC has a limitation regarding the timeframe for complaints. It cannot investigate cases of alleged human rights violations if the complaint is made after one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed. The limit is one year, not two years.

Solution: d)

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Bhakra Dam. Statement-I: The Bhakra Dam was primarily conceived to address the recurrent flood menace in the Sutlej valley. Statement-II: The Sutlej River is a trans-Himalayan river that maintains a consistent flow due to its origin in glacier-fed lakes, making it suitable for large-scale multi-purpose river valley projects. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. While flood control is one of the benefits of the Bhakra Dam, it was conceived as a multi-purpose project with primary objectives including irrigation and hydroelectric power generation for several states like Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, in addition to flood control and providing drinking water. Statement-II is correct. The Sutlej River is indeed a trans-Himalayan river, originating in Tibet from Lake Rakshastal near Mount Kailash, at a high elevation. Such rivers, fed by glaciers and snowmelt from high-altitude lakes and mountain ranges, tend to have a more consistent and perennial flow compared to rain-fed rivers. This characteristic makes them highly suitable for the development of large-scale multi-purpose river valley projects like the Bhakra-Nangal Project, as they provide a reliable water source throughout the year for power generation, irrigation, and other uses. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. While flood control is one of the benefits of the Bhakra Dam, it was conceived as a multi-purpose project with primary objectives including irrigation and hydroelectric power generation for several states like Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, in addition to flood control and providing drinking water. Statement-II is correct. The Sutlej River is indeed a trans-Himalayan river, originating in Tibet from Lake Rakshastal near Mount Kailash, at a high elevation. Such rivers, fed by glaciers and snowmelt from high-altitude lakes and mountain ranges, tend to have a more consistent and perennial flow compared to rain-fed rivers. This characteristic makes them highly suitable for the development of large-scale multi-purpose river valley projects like the Bhakra-Nangal Project, as they provide a reliable water source throughout the year for power generation, irrigation, and other uses.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Bhakra Dam.

Statement-I: The Bhakra Dam was primarily conceived to address the recurrent flood menace in the Sutlej valley.

Statement-II: The Sutlej River is a trans-Himalayan river that maintains a consistent flow due to its origin in glacier-fed lakes, making it suitable for large-scale multi-purpose river valley projects.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

• Statement-I is incorrect. While flood control is one of the benefits of the Bhakra Dam, it was conceived as a multi-purpose project with primary objectives including irrigation and hydroelectric power generation for several states like Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, in addition to flood control and providing drinking water.

Statement-II is correct. The Sutlej River is indeed a trans-Himalayan river, originating in Tibet from Lake Rakshastal near Mount Kailash, at a high elevation. Such rivers, fed by glaciers and snowmelt from high-altitude lakes and mountain ranges, tend to have a more consistent and perennial flow compared to rain-fed rivers. This characteristic makes them highly suitable for the development of large-scale multi-purpose river valley projects like the Bhakra-Nangal Project, as they provide a reliable water source throughout the year for power generation, irrigation, and other uses.

Solution: d)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit (WAVES), consider the following statements: WAVES is an initiative exclusively focused on promoting Indian classical music and dance forms on a global platform. A primary objective of the summit is to facilitate B2B transactions and content deals within the broader media and entertainment sector. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. WAVES (World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit) is an initiative by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting that covers a broad spectrum of the audio-visual entertainment sector. This includes film, OTT platforms, VFX, animation, and music, not exclusively Indian classical music and dance. Its scope is much wider, aiming to connect global players across various media. Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of WAVES is to enable structured B2B transactions and content deals. It connects content creators with investors, buyers, and collaborators from around the world, aiming to facilitate cross-border collaboration in the media and entertainment industry. The report of WAVES 2025 facilitating significant deals underscores this objective. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. WAVES (World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit) is an initiative by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting that covers a broad spectrum of the audio-visual entertainment sector. This includes film, OTT platforms, VFX, animation, and music, not exclusively Indian classical music and dance. Its scope is much wider, aiming to connect global players across various media. Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of WAVES is to enable structured B2B transactions and content deals. It connects content creators with investors, buyers, and collaborators from around the world, aiming to facilitate cross-border collaboration in the media and entertainment industry. The report of WAVES 2025 facilitating significant deals underscores this objective.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit (WAVES), consider the following statements:

• WAVES is an initiative exclusively focused on promoting Indian classical music and dance forms on a global platform.

• A primary objective of the summit is to facilitate B2B transactions and content deals within the broader media and entertainment sector.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. WAVES (World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit) is an initiative by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting that covers a broad spectrum of the audio-visual entertainment sector. This includes film, OTT platforms, VFX, animation, and music, not exclusively Indian classical music and dance. Its scope is much wider, aiming to connect global players across various media.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of WAVES is to enable structured B2B transactions and content deals. It connects content creators with investors, buyers, and collaborators from around the world, aiming to facilitate cross-border collaboration in the media and entertainment industry. The report of WAVES 2025 facilitating significant deals underscores this objective.

Solution: b)

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