UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 12 March 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the challenges associated with biotechnology: Biotechnology can threaten the survival of certain species by interfering with their natural breeding processes. The development of biotechnology has completely eliminated the risk of creating biological weapons. There is a lack of public awareness about modern biotechnological tools, which poses a challenge to its acceptance and regulation. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct because biotechnology, particularly in the form of genetic modification, can interfere with natural breeding processes and ecosystems, potentially leading to the extinction of certain species if not managed properly. Statement 2 is incorrect; biotechnology does not eliminate the risk of biological weapons—in fact, it can exacerbate this risk by providing tools to create more sophisticated biological weapons, raising concerns about biosecurity. Statement 3 is correct as there is often a significant gap in public awareness and understanding of modern biotechnology, which can lead to resistance, fear, and challenges in the proper regulation and ethical use of these technologies. Public education and transparent regulatory frameworks are essential to address these concerns. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct because biotechnology, particularly in the form of genetic modification, can interfere with natural breeding processes and ecosystems, potentially leading to the extinction of certain species if not managed properly. Statement 2 is incorrect; biotechnology does not eliminate the risk of biological weapons—in fact, it can exacerbate this risk by providing tools to create more sophisticated biological weapons, raising concerns about biosecurity. Statement 3 is correct as there is often a significant gap in public awareness and understanding of modern biotechnology, which can lead to resistance, fear, and challenges in the proper regulation and ethical use of these technologies. Public education and transparent regulatory frameworks are essential to address these concerns.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the challenges associated with biotechnology:

• Biotechnology can threaten the survival of certain species by interfering with their natural breeding processes.

• The development of biotechnology has completely eliminated the risk of creating biological weapons.

• There is a lack of public awareness about modern biotechnological tools, which poses a challenge to its acceptance and regulation.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct because biotechnology, particularly in the form of genetic modification, can interfere with natural breeding processes and ecosystems, potentially leading to the extinction of certain species if not managed properly.

Statement 2 is incorrect; biotechnology does not eliminate the risk of biological weapons—in fact, it can exacerbate this risk by providing tools to create more sophisticated biological weapons, raising concerns about biosecurity.

Statement 3 is correct as there is often a significant gap in public awareness and understanding of modern biotechnology, which can lead to resistance, fear, and challenges in the proper regulation and ethical use of these technologies. Public education and transparent regulatory frameworks are essential to address these concerns.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following facilities is NOT provided under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)? a) Accidental insurance cover of ₹2 lakhs under PMSBY b) Life insurance cover of ₹2 lakhs under PMJJBY c) Overdraft facility of up to ₹10,000 d) Mandatory minimum balance requirement Correct Solution: D The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) does not require any mandatory minimum balance in the accounts. This scheme aims to ensure access to financial services, including savings accounts, credit, insurance, and pensions, without imposing the burden of maintaining a minimum balance. Additionally, interest is earned on deposits, and account holders are eligible for both life and accidental insurance covers. Incorrect Solution: D The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) does not require any mandatory minimum balance in the accounts. This scheme aims to ensure access to financial services, including savings accounts, credit, insurance, and pensions, without imposing the burden of maintaining a minimum balance. Additionally, interest is earned on deposits, and account holders are eligible for both life and accidental insurance covers.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following facilities is NOT provided under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)?

• a) Accidental insurance cover of ₹2 lakhs under PMSBY

• b) Life insurance cover of ₹2 lakhs under PMJJBY

• c) Overdraft facility of up to ₹10,000

• d) Mandatory minimum balance requirement

Solution: D

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) does not require any mandatory minimum balance in the accounts. This scheme aims to ensure access to financial services, including savings accounts, credit, insurance, and pensions, without imposing the burden of maintaining a minimum balance. Additionally, interest is earned on deposits, and account holders are eligible for both life and accidental insurance covers.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the PM Mudra Yojana: The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development. MUDRA directly lends to micro-entrepreneurs and individuals. The PM Mudra Yojana offers loans for income-generating activities in sectors such as manufacturing, trading, and agriculture. The udyamimitra portal has been introduced to facilitate online loan applications. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Feature of the scheme Features Description Full name Mudra – Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd Launch Year 2015 Ministry Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance Aim Providing loans up to Rs. 10 lakh to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises Three pillars of the scheme 1. Banking the Unbanked 2. Securing the Unsecured 3. Funding the Unfunded Funding Provision MUDRA, a financial institution set up by the government, provides funding to the small business sector through institutions like Scheduled commercial banks, NBFCs, and MFIs. MUDRA is a refinancing Institution. MUDRA does not lend directly to micro-entrepreneurs / individuals. Loan Products 1. Shishu (up to Rs. 50,000) 2. Kishore (above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5 lakh) 3. Tarun (above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh) Collateral Loans under this scheme are collateral-free loans Target Beneficiaries Disadvantaged sections of society such as women entrepreneurs, SC/ST/OBC borrowers, minority community borrowers, and new entrepreneurs Products and Services Loans can be used for income-generating activities in the manufacturing, trading, services sector, and agriculture Expansion PMMY has been expanded over time to cover activities related to agriculture, such as fishing, dairy, and food processing, and loans for tractors and power tillers, and two-wheelers for commercial use were included in PMMY Steps taken to improve the scheme udyamimitra portal (for online applications); End-to-end digital lending for automated sanctions under PMMY (by some banks); Nomination of Mudra Nodal Officers in PSBs; Interest Subvention of 2% on prompt repayment of Shishu loans Incorrect Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Feature of the scheme Features Description Full name Mudra – Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd Launch Year 2015 Ministry Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance Aim Providing loans up to Rs. 10 lakh to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises Three pillars of the scheme 1. Banking the Unbanked 2. Securing the Unsecured 3. Funding the Unfunded Funding Provision MUDRA, a financial institution set up by the government, provides funding to the small business sector through institutions like Scheduled commercial banks, NBFCs, and MFIs. MUDRA is a refinancing Institution. MUDRA does not lend directly to micro-entrepreneurs / individuals. Loan Products 1. Shishu (up to Rs. 50,000) 2. Kishore (above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5 lakh) 3. Tarun (above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh) Collateral Loans under this scheme are collateral-free loans Target Beneficiaries Disadvantaged sections of society such as women entrepreneurs, SC/ST/OBC borrowers, minority community borrowers, and new entrepreneurs Products and Services Loans can be used for income-generating activities in the manufacturing, trading, services sector, and agriculture Expansion PMMY has been expanded over time to cover activities related to agriculture, such as fishing, dairy, and food processing, and loans for tractors and power tillers, and two-wheelers for commercial use were included in PMMY Steps taken to improve the scheme udyamimitra portal (for online applications); End-to-end digital lending for automated sanctions under PMMY (by some banks); Nomination of Mudra Nodal Officers in PSBs; Interest Subvention of 2% on prompt repayment of Shishu loans

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the PM Mudra Yojana:

• The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development.

• MUDRA directly lends to micro-entrepreneurs and individuals.

• The PM Mudra Yojana offers loans for income-generating activities in sectors such as manufacturing, trading, and agriculture.

• The udyamimitra portal has been introduced to facilitate online loan applications.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: B

Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Feature of the scheme

Features | Description

Full name | Mudra – Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd

Launch Year | 2015

Ministry | Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance

Aim | Providing loans up to Rs. 10 lakh to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises

Three pillars of the scheme | 1. Banking the Unbanked 2. Securing the Unsecured 3. Funding the Unfunded

Funding Provision | MUDRA, a financial institution set up by the government, provides funding to the small business sector through institutions like Scheduled commercial banks, NBFCs, and MFIs. MUDRA is a refinancing Institution. MUDRA does not lend directly to micro-entrepreneurs / individuals.

Loan Products | 1. Shishu (up to Rs. 50,000) 2. Kishore (above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5 lakh) 3. Tarun (above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh)

Collateral | Loans under this scheme are collateral-free loans

Target Beneficiaries | Disadvantaged sections of society such as women entrepreneurs, SC/ST/OBC borrowers, minority community borrowers, and new entrepreneurs

Products and Services | Loans can be used for income-generating activities in the manufacturing, trading, services sector, and agriculture

Expansion | PMMY has been expanded over time to cover activities related to agriculture, such as fishing, dairy, and food processing, and loans for tractors and power tillers, and two-wheelers for commercial use were included in PMMY

Steps taken to improve the scheme | udyamimitra portal (for online applications); End-to-end digital lending for automated sanctions under PMMY (by some banks); Nomination of Mudra Nodal Officers in PSBs; Interest Subvention of 2% on prompt repayment of Shishu loans

2. Securing the Unsecured

1.Funding the Unfunded

MUDRA is a refinancing Institution. MUDRA does not lend directly to micro-entrepreneurs / individuals.

1.Kishore (above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5 lakh)

1.Tarun (above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh)

Solution: B

Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Feature of the scheme

Features | Description

Full name | Mudra – Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd

Launch Year | 2015

Ministry | Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance

Aim | Providing loans up to Rs. 10 lakh to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises

Three pillars of the scheme | 1. Banking the Unbanked 2. Securing the Unsecured 3. Funding the Unfunded

Loan Products | 1. Shishu (up to Rs. 50,000) 2. Kishore (above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5 lakh) 3. Tarun (above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh)

Collateral | Loans under this scheme are collateral-free loans

Target Beneficiaries | Disadvantaged sections of society such as women entrepreneurs, SC/ST/OBC borrowers, minority community borrowers, and new entrepreneurs

Products and Services | Loans can be used for income-generating activities in the manufacturing, trading, services sector, and agriculture

2. Securing the Unsecured

1.Funding the Unfunded

MUDRA is a refinancing Institution. MUDRA does not lend directly to micro-entrepreneurs / individuals.

1.Kishore (above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5 lakh)

1.Tarun (above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the primary cause of mass wasting? (a) The erosion of coastal areas by tidal forces (b) The influence of gravity on weakened slope materials (c) The formation of glaciers at high altitudes (d) The accumulation of sediment in river beds Correct Solution: B Mass wasting, also known as mass movement, primarily occurs when the gravitational force acting on the materials on a slope exceeds their strength, causing them to move downhill. This process is influenced by various factors such as weathering, which weakens the materials; water saturation, which reduces cohesion; and seismic activity, which shakes and destabilizes the slope. While sediment accumulation, glacier formation, and coastal erosion are significant geological processes, they do not directly cause mass wasting. Therefore, option (b) correctly identifies the influence of gravity on weakened slope materials as the primary cause of mass wasting. Incorrect Solution: B Mass wasting, also known as mass movement, primarily occurs when the gravitational force acting on the materials on a slope exceeds their strength, causing them to move downhill. This process is influenced by various factors such as weathering, which weakens the materials; water saturation, which reduces cohesion; and seismic activity, which shakes and destabilizes the slope. While sediment accumulation, glacier formation, and coastal erosion are significant geological processes, they do not directly cause mass wasting. Therefore, option (b) correctly identifies the influence of gravity on weakened slope materials as the primary cause of mass wasting.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following best describes the primary cause of mass wasting?

• (a) The erosion of coastal areas by tidal forces

• (b) The influence of gravity on weakened slope materials

• (c) The formation of glaciers at high altitudes

• (d) The accumulation of sediment in river beds

Solution: B

• Mass wasting, also known as mass movement, primarily occurs when the gravitational force acting on the materials on a slope exceeds their strength, causing them to move downhill.

• This process is influenced by various factors such as weathering, which weakens the materials; water saturation, which reduces cohesion; and seismic activity, which shakes and destabilizes the slope.

• While sediment accumulation, glacier formation, and coastal erosion are significant geological processes, they do not directly cause mass wasting.

• Therefore, option (b) correctly identifies the influence of gravity on weakened slope materials as the primary cause of mass wasting.

Solution: B

• Mass wasting, also known as mass movement, primarily occurs when the gravitational force acting on the materials on a slope exceeds their strength, causing them to move downhill.

• While sediment accumulation, glacier formation, and coastal erosion are significant geological processes, they do not directly cause mass wasting.

• Therefore, option (b) correctly identifies the influence of gravity on weakened slope materials as the primary cause of mass wasting.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the nature and characteristics of quasars: Quasars are primarily powered by the accretion of matter onto a supermassive black hole. The energy output of a quasar can outshine its entire host galaxy. Quasars are relatively common and can be found in many nearby galaxies. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Quasars are primarily powered by the accretion of matter onto a supermassive black hole, where the gravitational energy released as matter spirals into the black hole generates intense radiation, making statement 1 correct. The energy output of a quasar can indeed outshine its entire host galaxy, making statement 2 correct as well. However, quasars are not common in nearby galaxies; they are typically found in distant galaxies and are considered to be active galactic nuclei from the early universe, making statement 3 incorrect. Quasars serve as important tools for understanding the early stages of galaxy formation and the growth of supermassive black holes. Incorrect Solution: B Quasars are primarily powered by the accretion of matter onto a supermassive black hole, where the gravitational energy released as matter spirals into the black hole generates intense radiation, making statement 1 correct. The energy output of a quasar can indeed outshine its entire host galaxy, making statement 2 correct as well. However, quasars are not common in nearby galaxies; they are typically found in distant galaxies and are considered to be active galactic nuclei from the early universe, making statement 3 incorrect. Quasars serve as important tools for understanding the early stages of galaxy formation and the growth of supermassive black holes.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the nature and characteristics of quasars:

• Quasars are primarily powered by the accretion of matter onto a supermassive black hole.

• The energy output of a quasar can outshine its entire host galaxy.

• Quasars are relatively common and can be found in many nearby galaxies.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Quasars are primarily powered by the accretion of matter onto a supermassive black hole, where the gravitational energy released as matter spirals into the black hole generates intense radiation, making statement 1 correct.

• The energy output of a quasar can indeed outshine its entire host galaxy, making statement 2 correct as well.

• However, quasars are not common in nearby galaxies; they are typically found in distant galaxies and are considered to be active galactic nuclei from the early universe, making statement 3 incorrect.

• Quasars serve as important tools for understanding the early stages of galaxy formation and the growth of supermassive black holes.

Solution: B

• The energy output of a quasar can indeed outshine its entire host galaxy, making statement 2 correct as well.

• Quasars serve as important tools for understanding the early stages of galaxy formation and the growth of supermassive black holes.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points What does “PDS leakage” refer to in the context of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013? a) The over-allocation of food grains to non-eligible households b) The amount of food grains released by the FCI that fail to reach the consumers c) The amount of money lost in maintaining the PDS system d) The wastage of food grains during transportation Correct Solution: B “PDS leakage” refers to the proportion of food grains, such as rice and wheat, released by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) that fail to reach consumers, usually due to inefficiencies or corruption in the distribution process. This issue was one of the major concerns addressed by the NFSA 2013, and reforms have significantly reduced leakages across many states. Incorrect Solution: B “PDS leakage” refers to the proportion of food grains, such as rice and wheat, released by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) that fail to reach consumers, usually due to inefficiencies or corruption in the distribution process. This issue was one of the major concerns addressed by the NFSA 2013, and reforms have significantly reduced leakages across many states.

#### 6. Question

What does “PDS leakage” refer to in the context of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013?

• a) The over-allocation of food grains to non-eligible households

• b) The amount of food grains released by the FCI that fail to reach the consumers

• c) The amount of money lost in maintaining the PDS system

• d) The wastage of food grains during transportation

Solution: B

“PDS leakage” refers to the proportion of food grains, such as rice and wheat, released by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) that fail to reach consumers, usually due to inefficiencies or corruption in the distribution process. This issue was one of the major concerns addressed by the NFSA 2013, and reforms have significantly reduced leakages across many states.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding food irradiation: Food irradiation prevents spoilage by slowing down decay and delaying premature ripening. Irradiation processing usually requires multiple treatments to achieve food safety. It reduces the need for chemical preservatives, contributing to a more sustainable food supply chain. The Codex Alimentarius Commission played a key role in setting global standards for food irradiation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct because food irradiation prevents spoilage by slowing down the process of decay and delaying ripening, sprouting, or germination. Statement 3 is also correct, as irradiation reduces the need for chemical preservatives, promoting a more sustainable food supply chain. Statement 2 is incorrect because irradiation typically requires just one exposure treatment to achieve the desired food safety effects, simplifying food safety practices. Statement 4 is also correct, as the Codex Alimentarius Commission established global standards for food irradiation. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct because food irradiation prevents spoilage by slowing down the process of decay and delaying ripening, sprouting, or germination. Statement 3 is also correct, as irradiation reduces the need for chemical preservatives, promoting a more sustainable food supply chain. Statement 2 is incorrect because irradiation typically requires just one exposure treatment to achieve the desired food safety effects, simplifying food safety practices. Statement 4 is also correct, as the Codex Alimentarius Commission established global standards for food irradiation.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding food irradiation:

• Food irradiation prevents spoilage by slowing down decay and delaying premature ripening.

• Irradiation processing usually requires multiple treatments to achieve food safety.

• It reduces the need for chemical preservatives, contributing to a more sustainable food supply chain.

• The Codex Alimentarius Commission played a key role in setting global standards for food irradiation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct because food irradiation prevents spoilage by slowing down the process of decay and delaying ripening, sprouting, or germination.

Statement 3 is also correct, as irradiation reduces the need for chemical preservatives, promoting a more sustainable food supply chain.

Statement 2 is incorrect because irradiation typically requires just one exposure treatment to achieve the desired food safety effects, simplifying food safety practices.

Statement 4 is also correct, as the Codex Alimentarius Commission established global standards for food irradiation.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct because food irradiation prevents spoilage by slowing down the process of decay and delaying ripening, sprouting, or germination.

Statement 3 is also correct, as irradiation reduces the need for chemical preservatives, promoting a more sustainable food supply chain.

Statement 2 is incorrect because irradiation typically requires just one exposure treatment to achieve the desired food safety effects, simplifying food safety practices.

Statement 4 is also correct, as the Codex Alimentarius Commission established global standards for food irradiation.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the formation of tropical storms: High humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are necessary for the formation of tropical storms. The interaction between evaporating warm water and a mass of cold air leads to the formation of clouds and a low-pressure column. As the pressure in the eye of the storm increases, the speed of the surrounding winds increases. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; high humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are essential factors in the formation of tropical storms. These conditions provide the necessary heat and moisture to fuel the storm. Statement 2 is also correct; the process begins with the evaporation of warm water, which rises and interacts with cooler air, forming clouds and creating a low-pressure column at the center of the developing storm. Statement 3 is incorrect because, as the pressure in the eye of the storm decreases (not increases), the speed of the surrounding winds increases. This intensification of wind speed around the low-pressure eye is a defining characteristic of tropical storms. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; high humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are essential factors in the formation of tropical storms. These conditions provide the necessary heat and moisture to fuel the storm. Statement 2 is also correct; the process begins with the evaporation of warm water, which rises and interacts with cooler air, forming clouds and creating a low-pressure column at the center of the developing storm. Statement 3 is incorrect because, as the pressure in the eye of the storm decreases (not increases), the speed of the surrounding winds increases. This intensification of wind speed around the low-pressure eye is a defining characteristic of tropical storms.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the formation of tropical storms:

• High humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are necessary for the formation of tropical storms.

• The interaction between evaporating warm water and a mass of cold air leads to the formation of clouds and a low-pressure column.

• As the pressure in the eye of the storm increases, the speed of the surrounding winds increases.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct; high humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are essential factors in the formation of tropical storms. These conditions provide the necessary heat and moisture to fuel the storm.

Statement 2 is also correct; the process begins with the evaporation of warm water, which rises and interacts with cooler air, forming clouds and creating a low-pressure column at the center of the developing storm.

Statement 3 is incorrect because, as the pressure in the eye of the storm decreases (not increases), the speed of the surrounding winds increases. This intensification of wind speed around the low-pressure eye is a defining characteristic of tropical storms.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the State Election Commissions (SECs): SECs were established under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments. SECs prepare a separate voter list for local body elections. SECs can remove political parties from their registration in state-level elections. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the SECs were established under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments to conduct elections for Panchayats and Municipalities. Statement 3 is also correct as SECs have the authority to register and deregister political parties in state elections. Statement 2 is incorrect since SECs do not prepare a separate voter list; they use the ECI’s voter list with modifications for local elections. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the SECs were established under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments to conduct elections for Panchayats and Municipalities. Statement 3 is also correct as SECs have the authority to register and deregister political parties in state elections. Statement 2 is incorrect since SECs do not prepare a separate voter list; they use the ECI’s voter list with modifications for local elections.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the State Election Commissions (SECs):

• SECs were established under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.

• SECs prepare a separate voter list for local body elections.

• SECs can remove political parties from their registration in state-level elections.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct as the SECs were established under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments to conduct elections for Panchayats and Municipalities.

Statement 3 is also correct as SECs have the authority to register and deregister political parties in state elections.

Statement 2 is incorrect since SECs do not prepare a separate voter list; they use the ECI’s voter list with modifications for local elections.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct as the SECs were established under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments to conduct elections for Panchayats and Municipalities.

Statement 3 is also correct as SECs have the authority to register and deregister political parties in state elections.

Statement 2 is incorrect since SECs do not prepare a separate voter list; they use the ECI’s voter list with modifications for local elections.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the differences between cheetahs, leopards, and jaguars: Cheetahs have solid black spots, while leopards and jaguars have rosettes. Jaguars have a stronger bite force compared to cheetahs and leopards, enabling them to crush the skulls of their prey. Leopards have a relatively larger head compared to cheetahs and jaguars. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct; cheetahs have solid black spots on their coat, which is distinct from the rosettes found on leopards and jaguars. Statement 2 is also correct; jaguars are known for having the strongest bite force among big cats, which allows them to bite directly through the skulls of their prey, a trait not shared by cheetahs or leopards. Statement 3 is incorrect; leopards have a relatively smaller and more angular head compared to jaguars, which have a larger, rounded head. Cheetahs have a small, rounded head with distinctive tear marks, which help them in hunting during the day. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct; cheetahs have solid black spots on their coat, which is distinct from the rosettes found on leopards and jaguars. Statement 2 is also correct; jaguars are known for having the strongest bite force among big cats, which allows them to bite directly through the skulls of their prey, a trait not shared by cheetahs or leopards. Statement 3 is incorrect; leopards have a relatively smaller and more angular head compared to jaguars, which have a larger, rounded head. Cheetahs have a small, rounded head with distinctive tear marks, which help them in hunting during the day.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the differences between cheetahs, leopards, and jaguars:

• Cheetahs have solid black spots, while leopards and jaguars have rosettes.

• Jaguars have a stronger bite force compared to cheetahs and leopards, enabling them to crush the skulls of their prey.

• Leopards have a relatively larger head compared to cheetahs and jaguars.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct; cheetahs have solid black spots on their coat, which is distinct from the rosettes found on leopards and jaguars.

Statement 2 is also correct; jaguars are known for having the strongest bite force among big cats, which allows them to bite directly through the skulls of their prey, a trait not shared by cheetahs or leopards.

Statement 3 is incorrect; leopards have a relatively smaller and more angular head compared to jaguars, which have a larger, rounded head. Cheetahs have a small, rounded head with distinctive tear marks, which help them in hunting during the day.

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct; cheetahs have solid black spots on their coat, which is distinct from the rosettes found on leopards and jaguars.

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