UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 12 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to Rubella and its elimination, consider the following statements: A country is declared free of rubella when there is no evidence of endemic transmission of the rubella virus for a period of at least 12 months. India has already achieved its target of eliminating measles and rubella. Many people infected with the rubella virus are asymptomatic, which makes surveillance and control of the disease challenging. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. To achieve rubella elimination status, a country must demonstrate the absence of endemic rubella transmission for at least 36 months (3 years) in the presence of a high-quality surveillance system. A 12-month period is not sufficient. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India has made significant progress through its Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination campaign, it has not yet achieved the goal of eliminating measles and rubella. Sporadic cases are still reported, and the campaign is ongoing to reach the target. Statement 3 is correct. A significant challenge in controlling rubella is that many infections are asymptomatic or present with very mild symptoms. This means that infected individuals can unknowingly transmit the virus to others, making it difficult to track and contain outbreaks. This underscores the importance of high vaccination coverage to achieve herd immunity. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. To achieve rubella elimination status, a country must demonstrate the absence of endemic rubella transmission for at least 36 months (3 years) in the presence of a high-quality surveillance system. A 12-month period is not sufficient. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India has made significant progress through its Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination campaign, it has not yet achieved the goal of eliminating measles and rubella. Sporadic cases are still reported, and the campaign is ongoing to reach the target. Statement 3 is correct. A significant challenge in controlling rubella is that many infections are asymptomatic or present with very mild symptoms. This means that infected individuals can unknowingly transmit the virus to others, making it difficult to track and contain outbreaks. This underscores the importance of high vaccination coverage to achieve herd immunity.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Rubella and its elimination, consider the following statements:

• A country is declared free of rubella when there is no evidence of endemic transmission of the rubella virus for a period of at least 12 months.

• India has already achieved its target of eliminating measles and rubella.

• Many people infected with the rubella virus are asymptomatic, which makes surveillance and control of the disease challenging.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. To achieve rubella elimination status, a country must demonstrate the absence of endemic rubella transmission for at least 36 months (3 years) in the presence of a high-quality surveillance system. A 12-month period is not sufficient.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While India has made significant progress through its Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination campaign, it has not yet achieved the goal of eliminating measles and rubella. Sporadic cases are still reported, and the campaign is ongoing to reach the target.

Statement 3 is correct. A significant challenge in controlling rubella is that many infections are asymptomatic or present with very mild symptoms. This means that infected individuals can unknowingly transmit the virus to others, making it difficult to track and contain outbreaks. This underscores the importance of high vaccination coverage to achieve herd immunity.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A private commercial entity based in India planning to launch a satellite constellation is subject to international space law obligations. Statement-II: The Outer Space Treaty of 1967 holds signatory nations responsible for the space activities of their non-governmental entities. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Any private entity’s space activities are governed by the legal and regulatory framework of its home country, which in turn is bound by its international treaty obligations. Therefore, a private Indian company is indirectly subject to the principles of international space law through India’s domestic legal system and its adherence to treaties like the OST. The activities must align with principles of peaceful use, liability, and international cooperation. Statement-II is correct. Article VI of the Outer Space Treaty is foundational to this principle. It explicitly states that States Parties to the Treaty shall bear international responsibility for national activities in outer space, whether such activities are carried on by governmental agencies or by non-governmental entities. This ensures that private commercial activities do not operate in a legal vacuum. Statement-II provides the direct legal reasoning for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Any private entity’s space activities are governed by the legal and regulatory framework of its home country, which in turn is bound by its international treaty obligations. Therefore, a private Indian company is indirectly subject to the principles of international space law through India’s domestic legal system and its adherence to treaties like the OST. The activities must align with principles of peaceful use, liability, and international cooperation. Statement-II is correct. Article VI of the Outer Space Treaty is foundational to this principle. It explicitly states that States Parties to the Treaty shall bear international responsibility for national activities in outer space, whether such activities are carried on by governmental agencies or by non-governmental entities. This ensures that private commercial activities do not operate in a legal vacuum. Statement-II provides the direct legal reasoning for Statement-I.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A private commercial entity based in India planning to launch a satellite constellation is subject to international space law obligations.

Statement-II: The Outer Space Treaty of 1967 holds signatory nations responsible for the space activities of their non-governmental entities.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Any private entity’s space activities are governed by the legal and regulatory framework of its home country, which in turn is bound by its international treaty obligations. Therefore, a private Indian company is indirectly subject to the principles of international space law through India’s domestic legal system and its adherence to treaties like the OST. The activities must align with principles of peaceful use, liability, and international cooperation.

• Statement-II is correct. Article VI of the Outer Space Treaty is foundational to this principle. It explicitly states that States Parties to the Treaty shall bear international responsibility for national activities in outer space, whether such activities are carried on by governmental agencies or by non-governmental entities. This ensures that private commercial activities do not operate in a legal vacuum.

Statement-II provides the direct legal reasoning for Statement-I.

Solution: A

Statement-II provides the direct legal reasoning for Statement-I.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Match the Union Territory in List-I with the corresponding provision for nominated members in its Legislative Assembly in List-II. List-I (Union Territory) List-II (Provision for Nominated Members) A. Jammu & Kashmir 1. Up to three members nominated by the Central Government. B. Puducherry 2. No provision for nominated members. C. Delhi 3. Up to five members may be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor. Select the correct answer code: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2 (c) A-3, B-2, C-1 (d) A-3, B-1, C-2 Correct Solution: D Jammu & Kashmir (A): According to Section 14 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 (as amended in 2023), the Lieutenant Governor may nominate up to five members to the assembly. This includes specific representation for two women, two Kashmiri migrants, and one displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). Therefore, A matches with 3. Puducherry (B): Under Section 3 of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, the Central Government has the authority to nominate up to three members to the Puducherry Legislative Assembly. This power has been a subject of judicial scrutiny and has been upheld by the courts. Therefore, B matches with 1. Delhi (C): The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (GNCTD) Act, 1991, which governs the Delhi Legislative Assembly, has no provision for nominated members. The assembly consists solely of 70 elected members. Therefore, C matches with 2. Incorrect Solution: D Jammu & Kashmir (A): According to Section 14 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 (as amended in 2023), the Lieutenant Governor may nominate up to five members to the assembly. This includes specific representation for two women, two Kashmiri migrants, and one displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). Therefore, A matches with 3. Puducherry (B): Under Section 3 of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, the Central Government has the authority to nominate up to three members to the Puducherry Legislative Assembly. This power has been a subject of judicial scrutiny and has been upheld by the courts. Therefore, B matches with 1. Delhi (C): The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (GNCTD) Act, 1991, which governs the Delhi Legislative Assembly, has no provision for nominated members. The assembly consists solely of 70 elected members. Therefore, C matches with 2.

#### 3. Question

Match the Union Territory in List-I with the corresponding provision for nominated members in its Legislative Assembly in List-II.

List-I (Union Territory) | List-II (Provision for Nominated Members)

A. Jammu & Kashmir | 1. Up to three members nominated by the Central Government.

B. Puducherry | 2. No provision for nominated members.

C. Delhi | 3. Up to five members may be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor.

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) A-2, B-1, C-3

• (b) A-1, B-3, C-2

• (c) A-3, B-2, C-1

• (d) A-3, B-1, C-2

Solution: D

• Jammu & Kashmir (A): According to Section 14 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 (as amended in 2023), the Lieutenant Governor may nominate up to five members to the assembly. This includes specific representation for two women, two Kashmiri migrants, and one displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). Therefore, A matches with 3.

• Puducherry (B): Under Section 3 of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, the Central Government has the authority to nominate up to three members to the Puducherry Legislative Assembly. This power has been a subject of judicial scrutiny and has been upheld by the courts. Therefore, B matches with 1.

• Delhi (C): The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (GNCTD) Act, 1991, which governs the Delhi Legislative Assembly, has no provision for nominated members. The assembly consists solely of 70 elected members. Therefore, C matches with 2.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to BRICS and its membership, consider the following statements: BRICS was founded in 2009 as a coalition of emerging economies to enhance their global economic and political influence. The headquarters of BRICS is located in Shanghai, China. New members can join BRICS only if all current members agree to their inclusion during the annual BRICS summit. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B BRICS was founded in 2009 by Brazil, Russia, India, and China (South Africa joined in 2010) to strengthen economic ties and increase their influence on global affairs. So, statement 2 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. BRICS does not have a permanent headquarters. Instead, its activities are coordinated through annual summits hosted by member nations. The New Development Bank (often associated with BRICS) is headquartered in Shanghai, China. So, statement 2 is incorrect. For a new member to join BRICS, all current members must agree to their inclusion, typically proposed during the annual BRICS summit. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, only two statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: B BRICS was founded in 2009 by Brazil, Russia, India, and China (South Africa joined in 2010) to strengthen economic ties and increase their influence on global affairs. So, statement 2 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. BRICS does not have a permanent headquarters. Instead, its activities are coordinated through annual summits hosted by member nations. The New Development Bank (often associated with BRICS) is headquartered in Shanghai, China. So, statement 2 is incorrect. For a new member to join BRICS, all current members must agree to their inclusion, typically proposed during the annual BRICS summit. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

#### 4. Question

With reference to BRICS and its membership, consider the following statements:

• BRICS was founded in 2009 as a coalition of emerging economies to enhance their global economic and political influence.

• The headquarters of BRICS is located in Shanghai, China.

• New members can join BRICS only if all current members agree to their inclusion during the annual BRICS summit.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

• BRICS was founded in 2009 by Brazil, Russia, India, and China (South Africa joined in 2010) to strengthen economic ties and increase their influence on global affairs. So, statement 2 is correct.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. BRICS does not have a permanent headquarters. Instead, its activities are coordinated through annual summits hosted by member nations. The New Development Bank (often associated with BRICS) is headquartered in Shanghai, China. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

• For a new member to join BRICS, all current members must agree to their inclusion, typically proposed during the annual BRICS summit. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, only two statements are correct.

Solution: B

• For a new member to join BRICS, all current members must agree to their inclusion, typically proposed during the annual BRICS summit. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, only two statements are correct.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Concerning the DANA (Depresión Aislada en Niveles Altos) phenomenon, consider the following statements: DANA is caused by a high-pressure system over the Mediterranean Sea leading to dry conditions. The phenomenon involves the interaction between a pocket of cold air and warm, moist air over the sea. Climate change has intensified DANA events, making them more severe and widespread. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. DANA is not caused by a high-pressure system leading to dry conditions; rather, it is associated with low-pressure systems and atmospheric instability causing heavy rainfall. DANA occurs when a pocket of cold air descends and interacts with warm, moist air over the Mediterranean Sea, leading to the formation of storm clouds and intense rainfall. Climate change has led to warmer sea temperatures, increasing the amount of moisture in the air and intensifying DANA events, making them more severe and geographically widespread. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. DANA is not caused by a high-pressure system leading to dry conditions; rather, it is associated with low-pressure systems and atmospheric instability causing heavy rainfall. DANA occurs when a pocket of cold air descends and interacts with warm, moist air over the Mediterranean Sea, leading to the formation of storm clouds and intense rainfall. Climate change has led to warmer sea temperatures, increasing the amount of moisture in the air and intensifying DANA events, making them more severe and geographically widespread.

#### 5. Question

Concerning the DANA (Depresión Aislada en Niveles Altos) phenomenon, consider the following statements:

• DANA is caused by a high-pressure system over the Mediterranean Sea leading to dry conditions.

• The phenomenon involves the interaction between a pocket of cold air and warm, moist air over the sea.

• Climate change has intensified DANA events, making them more severe and widespread.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• DANA is not caused by a high-pressure system leading to dry conditions; rather, it is associated with low-pressure systems and atmospheric instability causing heavy rainfall.

• DANA occurs when a pocket of cold air descends and interacts with warm, moist air over the Mediterranean Sea, leading to the formation of storm clouds and intense rainfall.

• Climate change has led to warmer sea temperatures, increasing the amount of moisture in the air and intensifying DANA events, making them more severe and geographically widespread.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• DANA is not caused by a high-pressure system leading to dry conditions; rather, it is associated with low-pressure systems and atmospheric instability causing heavy rainfall.

• DANA occurs when a pocket of cold air descends and interacts with warm, moist air over the Mediterranean Sea, leading to the formation of storm clouds and intense rainfall.

• Climate change has led to warmer sea temperatures, increasing the amount of moisture in the air and intensifying DANA events, making them more severe and geographically widespread.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With respect to Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan, consider the following statements: Sambhar Lake is India’s largest freshwater lake and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is designated as a Ramsar site and supports a rich diversity of migratory birds. The lake is a significant site for salt production in India. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Sambhar Lake is India’s largest inland saline (saltwater) lake, not a freshwater lake. It is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site but is recognized as a Ramsar site. It was designated as a Ramsar site in 1990 due to its importance as a wetland that supports a rich diversity of migratory birds, including flamingos and pelicans. Sambhar Lake is significant for salt production, producing about 210,000 tonnes of salt annually, contributing to Rajasthan’s status as one of India’s top salt-producing states. Therefore, Option a) is the correct Solution here. Incorrect Solution: A Sambhar Lake is India’s largest inland saline (saltwater) lake, not a freshwater lake. It is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site but is recognized as a Ramsar site. It was designated as a Ramsar site in 1990 due to its importance as a wetland that supports a rich diversity of migratory birds, including flamingos and pelicans. Sambhar Lake is significant for salt production, producing about 210,000 tonnes of salt annually, contributing to Rajasthan’s status as one of India’s top salt-producing states. Therefore, Option a) is the correct Solution here.

#### 6. Question

With respect to Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan, consider the following statements:

• Sambhar Lake is India’s largest freshwater lake and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

• It is designated as a Ramsar site and supports a rich diversity of migratory birds.

• The lake is a significant site for salt production in India.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

• Sambhar Lake is India’s largest inland saline (saltwater) lake, not a freshwater lake. It is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site but is recognized as a Ramsar site.

• It was designated as a Ramsar site in 1990 due to its importance as a wetland that supports a rich diversity of migratory birds, including flamingos and pelicans.

• Sambhar Lake is significant for salt production, producing about 210,000 tonnes of salt annually, contributing to Rajasthan’s status as one of India’s top salt-producing states.

Therefore, Option a) is the correct Solution here.

Solution: A

• Sambhar Lake is India’s largest inland saline (saltwater) lake, not a freshwater lake. It is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site but is recognized as a Ramsar site.

• It was designated as a Ramsar site in 1990 due to its importance as a wetland that supports a rich diversity of migratory birds, including flamingos and pelicans.

• Sambhar Lake is significant for salt production, producing about 210,000 tonnes of salt annually, contributing to Rajasthan’s status as one of India’s top salt-producing states.

Therefore, Option a) is the correct Solution here.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to foreign exchange (forex) reserves, consider the following statements: India’s forex reserves include foreign currencies, gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and the Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) with the IMF. Forex reserves help in stabilizing the Indian rupee and managing exchange rates. A robust forex reserve position enhances India’s ability to attract foreign investment and trade. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Forex reserves consist of foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs, and the RTP with the IMF. These reserves are crucial for maintaining currency stability and managing the exchange rate of the rupee. A strong forex reserve boosts investor confidence, making India more attractive for foreign investment and facilitating international trade. Incorrect Solution: D Forex reserves consist of foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs, and the RTP with the IMF. These reserves are crucial for maintaining currency stability and managing the exchange rate of the rupee. A strong forex reserve boosts investor confidence, making India more attractive for foreign investment and facilitating international trade.

#### 7. Question

With reference to foreign exchange (forex) reserves, consider the following statements:

• India’s forex reserves include foreign currencies, gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and the Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) with the IMF.

• Forex reserves help in stabilizing the Indian rupee and managing exchange rates.

• A robust forex reserve position enhances India’s ability to attract foreign investment and trade.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Forex reserves consist of foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs, and the RTP with the IMF.

• These reserves are crucial for maintaining currency stability and managing the exchange rate of the rupee.

• A strong forex reserve boosts investor confidence, making India more attractive for foreign investment and facilitating international trade.

Solution: D

• Forex reserves consist of foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs, and the RTP with the IMF.

• These reserves are crucial for maintaining currency stability and managing the exchange rate of the rupee.

• A strong forex reserve boosts investor confidence, making India more attractive for foreign investment and facilitating international trade.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and functions of the Chief Justice of India (CJI): The Chief Justice of India has the discretion to appoint any High Court judge as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court to handle a backlog of cases. The CJI is responsible for the allocation of cases and the composition of benches in the Supreme Court. Upon retirement, a former CJI cannot be appointed to any position under the government of India to avoid conflicts of interest. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the CJI does have administrative authority, the appointment of ad hoc judges is not at the discretion of the CJI alone. It requires consultation and specific procedures outlined under Article 127 of the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. The CJI plays a crucial role in the functioning of the Supreme Court, including the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches, which impacts the court’s efficiency and the delivery of justice. Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no constitutional restriction on appointing a retired CJI to a government position, although such appointments are scrutinized for potential conflicts of interest. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the CJI does have administrative authority, the appointment of ad hoc judges is not at the discretion of the CJI alone. It requires consultation and specific procedures outlined under Article 127 of the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. The CJI plays a crucial role in the functioning of the Supreme Court, including the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches, which impacts the court’s efficiency and the delivery of justice. Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no constitutional restriction on appointing a retired CJI to a government position, although such appointments are scrutinized for potential conflicts of interest.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and functions of the Chief Justice of India (CJI):

• The Chief Justice of India has the discretion to appoint any High Court judge as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court to handle a backlog of cases.

• The CJI is responsible for the allocation of cases and the composition of benches in the Supreme Court.

• Upon retirement, a former CJI cannot be appointed to any position under the government of India to avoid conflicts of interest.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the CJI does have administrative authority, the appointment of ad hoc judges is not at the discretion of the CJI alone. It requires consultation and specific procedures outlined under Article 127 of the Constitution.

• Statement 2 is correct. The CJI plays a crucial role in the functioning of the Supreme Court, including the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches, which impacts the court’s efficiency and the delivery of justice.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no constitutional restriction on appointing a retired CJI to a government position, although such appointments are scrutinized for potential conflicts of interest.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Citizenship Act, 1955: The Act does not allow for dual citizenship, maintaining India’s policy of single citizenship. Citizenship can be obtained through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization, and there is a special provision for those married to Indian citizens. The Act provides for the revocation of citizenship if a person acquires citizenship of another country. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The Citizenship Act, 1955, enshrines the principle of single citizenship, meaning Indian citizens cannot hold dual nationality. This policy is intended to ensure allegiance to India. The Act allows citizenship to be acquired through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization. There is a provision for registration for those married to Indian citizens, provided they meet certain residency and legal requirements. The Act does provide for the revocation of Indian citizenship if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, maintaining the exclusivity of Indian nationality. Incorrect Solution: C The Citizenship Act, 1955, enshrines the principle of single citizenship, meaning Indian citizens cannot hold dual nationality. This policy is intended to ensure allegiance to India. The Act allows citizenship to be acquired through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization. There is a provision for registration for those married to Indian citizens, provided they meet certain residency and legal requirements. The Act does provide for the revocation of Indian citizenship if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, maintaining the exclusivity of Indian nationality.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the Citizenship Act, 1955:

• The Act does not allow for dual citizenship, maintaining India’s policy of single citizenship.

• Citizenship can be obtained through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization, and there is a special provision for those married to Indian citizens.

• The Act provides for the revocation of citizenship if a person acquires citizenship of another country.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• The Citizenship Act, 1955, enshrines the principle of single citizenship, meaning Indian citizens cannot hold dual nationality. This policy is intended to ensure allegiance to India.

• The Act allows citizenship to be acquired through birth, descent, registration, or naturalization. There is a provision for registration for those married to Indian citizens, provided they meet certain residency and legal requirements.

• The Act does provide for the revocation of Indian citizenship if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, maintaining the exclusivity of Indian nationality.

Solution: C

• The Citizenship Act, 1955, enshrines the principle of single citizenship, meaning Indian citizens cannot hold dual nationality. This policy is intended to ensure allegiance to India.

• The Act does provide for the revocation of Indian citizenship if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, maintaining the exclusivity of Indian nationality.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With respect to the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) feature in EVMs, consider the following statements: VVPAT provides a printed slip with the name of the candidate the voter has selected. The printed slip can be retained by the voter for future reference. VVPAT is used as an audit mechanism to verify the electronic vote. VVPAT was introduced to increase transparency and reduce doubts about EVM accuracy. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B VVPAT provides a printed slip with the candidate’s name, visible to the voter for a few seconds before it drops into a sealed compartment. It serves as an audit trail to cross-check the accuracy of the electronic vote, enhancing transparency. Statement 2 is incorrect because the voter cannot retain the slip; it is stored for auditing purposes by election officials. Incorrect Solution: B VVPAT provides a printed slip with the candidate’s name, visible to the voter for a few seconds before it drops into a sealed compartment. It serves as an audit trail to cross-check the accuracy of the electronic vote, enhancing transparency. Statement 2 is incorrect because the voter cannot retain the slip; it is stored for auditing purposes by election officials.

#### 10. Question

With respect to the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) feature in EVMs, consider the following statements:

• VVPAT provides a printed slip with the name of the candidate the voter has selected.

• The printed slip can be retained by the voter for future reference.

• VVPAT is used as an audit mechanism to verify the electronic vote.

• VVPAT was introduced to increase transparency and reduce doubts about EVM accuracy.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

VVPAT provides a printed slip with the candidate’s name, visible to the voter for a few seconds before it drops into a sealed compartment. It serves as an audit trail to cross-check the accuracy of the electronic vote, enhancing transparency. Statement 2 is incorrect because the voter cannot retain the slip; it is stored for auditing purposes by election officials.

Solution: B

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE