UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 12 February 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes why Lymphatic Filariasis (LF) is difficult to eliminate? a) The parasites that cause LF can survive in the human body for years, making treatment ineffective. b) LF is transmitted through multiple mosquito species, complicating vector control strategies. c) The disease spreads rapidly through direct human-to-human transmission. d) The current medications used in Mass Drug Administration (MDA) campaigns have severe side effects, limiting their use. Correct Solution: b) LF is transmitted by various mosquito species (Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes), making vector control challenging. The parasites (Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori) can survive in the human body for years, but treatment with anti-filarial drugs (DEC, Albendazole, Ivermectin) is effective when administered properly. The disease does not spread directly between humans and MDA drugs have manageable side effects, making options (c) and (d) incorrect. What is Lymphatic Filariasis? Lymphatic Filariasis (LF), also called Elephantiasis, is a parasitic diseasecaused by filarial worms that infect the human lymphatic system, leading to severe swelling and disability. India’s Status: India is among the highest-burden countriesfor LF, contributing significantly to the global caseload. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha are among the states with the highest number of LF cases The government aims to eliminate LF by 2027through mass drug administration, morbidity management, and vector control Causes and Transmission: Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti(most common), Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori Transmitted through mosquito bites(Anopheles, Culex, Aedes species). Requires repeated mosquito bites over months or yearsfor infection to establish. Symptoms: Asymptomatic in early stagesbut leads to chronic lymphatic damage over time. Common symptoms: Lymphedema:Swelling of arms, legs, breasts, or genitals. Elephantiasis:Thickening of the skin and severe swelling. Hydrocele:Swelling of the scrotum (in males). Recurrent infectionsdue to weakened immunity. Prevention and Treatment Mass Drug Administration (MDA):Annual distribution of anti-filarial drugs (Diethylcarbamazine + Albendazole). Triple Drug Therapyin select districts to accelerate LF elimination efforts. Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin. Morbidity Management & Disability Prevention (MMDP):Ensuring access to care for affected individuals. Surgical intervention:Hydrocelectomy under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY Vector Control:Use of mosquito nets, insecticides, and community awareness. Incorrect Solution: b) LF is transmitted by various mosquito species (Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes), making vector control challenging. The parasites (Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori) can survive in the human body for years, but treatment with anti-filarial drugs (DEC, Albendazole, Ivermectin) is effective when administered properly. The disease does not spread directly between humans and MDA drugs have manageable side effects, making options (c) and (d) incorrect. What is Lymphatic Filariasis? Lymphatic Filariasis (LF), also called Elephantiasis, is a parasitic diseasecaused by filarial worms that infect the human lymphatic system, leading to severe swelling and disability. India’s Status: India is among the highest-burden countriesfor LF, contributing significantly to the global caseload. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha are among the states with the highest number of LF cases The government aims to eliminate LF by 2027through mass drug administration, morbidity management, and vector control Causes and Transmission: Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti(most common), Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori Transmitted through mosquito bites(Anopheles, Culex, Aedes species). Requires repeated mosquito bites over months or yearsfor infection to establish. Symptoms: Asymptomatic in early stagesbut leads to chronic lymphatic damage over time. Common symptoms: Lymphedema:Swelling of arms, legs, breasts, or genitals. Elephantiasis:Thickening of the skin and severe swelling. Hydrocele:Swelling of the scrotum (in males). Recurrent infectionsdue to weakened immunity. Prevention and Treatment Mass Drug Administration (MDA):Annual distribution of anti-filarial drugs (Diethylcarbamazine + Albendazole). Triple Drug Therapyin select districts to accelerate LF elimination efforts. Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin. Morbidity Management & Disability Prevention (MMDP):Ensuring access to care for affected individuals. Surgical intervention:Hydrocelectomy under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY Vector Control:Use of mosquito nets, insecticides, and community awareness.
#### 1. Question
Which of the following best describes why Lymphatic Filariasis (LF) is difficult to eliminate?
• a) The parasites that cause LF can survive in the human body for years, making treatment ineffective.
• b) LF is transmitted through multiple mosquito species, complicating vector control strategies.
• c) The disease spreads rapidly through direct human-to-human transmission.
• d) The current medications used in Mass Drug Administration (MDA) campaigns have severe side effects, limiting their use.
Solution: b)
LF is transmitted by various mosquito species (Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes), making vector control challenging. The parasites (Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori) can survive in the human body for years, but treatment with anti-filarial drugs (DEC, Albendazole, Ivermectin) is effective when administered properly. The disease does not spread directly between humans and MDA drugs have manageable side effects, making options (c) and (d) incorrect.
• What is Lymphatic Filariasis? Lymphatic Filariasis (LF), also called Elephantiasis, is a parasitic diseasecaused by filarial worms that infect the human lymphatic system, leading to severe swelling and disability.
• Lymphatic Filariasis (LF), also called Elephantiasis, is a parasitic diseasecaused by filarial worms that infect the human lymphatic system, leading to severe swelling and disability.
• India’s Status: India is among the highest-burden countriesfor LF, contributing significantly to the global caseload. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha are among the states with the highest number of LF cases The government aims to eliminate LF by 2027through mass drug administration, morbidity management, and vector control
• India is among the highest-burden countriesfor LF, contributing significantly to the global caseload. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha are among the states with the highest number of LF cases
• Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha are among the states with the highest number of LF cases
• The government aims to eliminate LF by 2027through mass drug administration, morbidity management, and vector control
• Causes and Transmission: Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti(most common), Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori Transmitted through mosquito bites(Anopheles, Culex, Aedes species). Requires repeated mosquito bites over months or yearsfor infection to establish.
• Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti(most common), Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori
• Transmitted through mosquito bites(Anopheles, Culex, Aedes species).
• Requires repeated mosquito bites over months or yearsfor infection to establish.
• Symptoms: Asymptomatic in early stagesbut leads to chronic lymphatic damage over time. Common symptoms: Lymphedema:Swelling of arms, legs, breasts, or genitals. Elephantiasis:Thickening of the skin and severe swelling. Hydrocele:Swelling of the scrotum (in males). Recurrent infectionsdue to weakened immunity. Prevention and Treatment Mass Drug Administration (MDA):Annual distribution of anti-filarial drugs (Diethylcarbamazine + Albendazole). Triple Drug Therapyin select districts to accelerate LF elimination efforts. Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin. Morbidity Management & Disability Prevention (MMDP):Ensuring access to care for affected individuals. Surgical intervention:Hydrocelectomy under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY Vector Control:Use of mosquito nets, insecticides, and community awareness.
• Asymptomatic in early stagesbut leads to chronic lymphatic damage over time.
• Common symptoms: Lymphedema:Swelling of arms, legs, breasts, or genitals. Elephantiasis:Thickening of the skin and severe swelling. Hydrocele:Swelling of the scrotum (in males). Recurrent infectionsdue to weakened immunity.
• Lymphedema:Swelling of arms, legs, breasts, or genitals.
• Elephantiasis:Thickening of the skin and severe swelling.
• Hydrocele:Swelling of the scrotum (in males).
• Recurrent infectionsdue to weakened immunity.
• Prevention and Treatment Mass Drug Administration (MDA):Annual distribution of anti-filarial drugs (Diethylcarbamazine + Albendazole). Triple Drug Therapyin select districts to accelerate LF elimination efforts. Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin. Morbidity Management & Disability Prevention (MMDP):Ensuring access to care for affected individuals. Surgical intervention:Hydrocelectomy under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY Vector Control:Use of mosquito nets, insecticides, and community awareness.
• Mass Drug Administration (MDA):Annual distribution of anti-filarial drugs (Diethylcarbamazine + Albendazole).
• Triple Drug Therapyin select districts to accelerate LF elimination efforts. Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin.
• Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin.
• Morbidity Management & Disability Prevention (MMDP):Ensuring access to care for affected individuals.
• Surgical intervention:Hydrocelectomy under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY
• Vector Control:Use of mosquito nets, insecticides, and community awareness.
Solution: b)
LF is transmitted by various mosquito species (Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes), making vector control challenging. The parasites (Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori) can survive in the human body for years, but treatment with anti-filarial drugs (DEC, Albendazole, Ivermectin) is effective when administered properly. The disease does not spread directly between humans and MDA drugs have manageable side effects, making options (c) and (d) incorrect.
• What is Lymphatic Filariasis? Lymphatic Filariasis (LF), also called Elephantiasis, is a parasitic diseasecaused by filarial worms that infect the human lymphatic system, leading to severe swelling and disability.
• Lymphatic Filariasis (LF), also called Elephantiasis, is a parasitic diseasecaused by filarial worms that infect the human lymphatic system, leading to severe swelling and disability.
• India’s Status: India is among the highest-burden countriesfor LF, contributing significantly to the global caseload. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha are among the states with the highest number of LF cases The government aims to eliminate LF by 2027through mass drug administration, morbidity management, and vector control
• India is among the highest-burden countriesfor LF, contributing significantly to the global caseload. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha are among the states with the highest number of LF cases
• Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha are among the states with the highest number of LF cases
• The government aims to eliminate LF by 2027through mass drug administration, morbidity management, and vector control
• Causes and Transmission: Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti(most common), Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori Transmitted through mosquito bites(Anopheles, Culex, Aedes species). Requires repeated mosquito bites over months or yearsfor infection to establish.
• Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti(most common), Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori
• Transmitted through mosquito bites(Anopheles, Culex, Aedes species).
• Requires repeated mosquito bites over months or yearsfor infection to establish.
• Symptoms: Asymptomatic in early stagesbut leads to chronic lymphatic damage over time. Common symptoms: Lymphedema:Swelling of arms, legs, breasts, or genitals. Elephantiasis:Thickening of the skin and severe swelling. Hydrocele:Swelling of the scrotum (in males). Recurrent infectionsdue to weakened immunity. Prevention and Treatment Mass Drug Administration (MDA):Annual distribution of anti-filarial drugs (Diethylcarbamazine + Albendazole). Triple Drug Therapyin select districts to accelerate LF elimination efforts. Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin. Morbidity Management & Disability Prevention (MMDP):Ensuring access to care for affected individuals. Surgical intervention:Hydrocelectomy under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY Vector Control:Use of mosquito nets, insecticides, and community awareness.
• Asymptomatic in early stagesbut leads to chronic lymphatic damage over time.
• Common symptoms: Lymphedema:Swelling of arms, legs, breasts, or genitals. Elephantiasis:Thickening of the skin and severe swelling. Hydrocele:Swelling of the scrotum (in males). Recurrent infectionsdue to weakened immunity.
• Lymphedema:Swelling of arms, legs, breasts, or genitals.
• Elephantiasis:Thickening of the skin and severe swelling.
• Hydrocele:Swelling of the scrotum (in males).
• Recurrent infectionsdue to weakened immunity.
• Prevention and Treatment Mass Drug Administration (MDA):Annual distribution of anti-filarial drugs (Diethylcarbamazine + Albendazole). Triple Drug Therapyin select districts to accelerate LF elimination efforts. Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin. Morbidity Management & Disability Prevention (MMDP):Ensuring access to care for affected individuals. Surgical intervention:Hydrocelectomy under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY Vector Control:Use of mosquito nets, insecticides, and community awareness.
• Mass Drug Administration (MDA):Annual distribution of anti-filarial drugs (Diethylcarbamazine + Albendazole).
• Triple Drug Therapyin select districts to accelerate LF elimination efforts. Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin.
• Triple Drug Therapy include diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + Albendazole + Ivermectin.
• Morbidity Management & Disability Prevention (MMDP):Ensuring access to care for affected individuals.
• Surgical intervention:Hydrocelectomy under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY
• Vector Control:Use of mosquito nets, insecticides, and community awareness.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points What is the primary objective of the Defence Partnership–India (DP-I) agreement between India and the UK? a) To develop a joint AI-based cyber defence program b) To establish a dedicated UK-India defence supply chain c) To merge the UK’s Royal Air Force with the Indian Air Force for joint military operations d) To collaborate on the development of next-generation weapons and military technologies Correct Solution: d) The Defence Partnership–India (DP-I) focuses on joint development of advanced defence technologies, including high-velocity missiles, laser beam riding systems, and lightweight multirole missiles. It does not aim to merge air forces or create a UK-India supply chain exclusively. Although AI-based cyber defence is an area of concern, it is not the primary goal of the agreement. Key India-UK Defence Agreements: Defence Partnership–India (DP-I): Laser Beam Riding MANPADS (LBRM): Thales UK & Bharat Dynamics Ltd. (BDL) signed a contract for STARStreak high-velocity missiles. Lightweight Multirole Missiles (LMM): Future production collaboration between Thales & BDL. ASRAAM Missile Facility: MBDA UK & BDL to set up India’s first Advanced Short-Range Air-to-Air Missile (ASRAAM) assembly & test centre in Hyderabad. Maritime Defence Cooperation: Integrated Full Electric Propulsion (IFEP) System: UK & India signed a Statement of Intent to design and develop electric propulsion systems for Indian Navy ships. Land-Based Testing Facility (LBTF): GE Vernova & BHEL to develop India’s first maritime testing facility for future Landing Platform Dock (LPD) fleets by 2030. Strategic & Economic Impact: Boosts Atmanirbhar Bharat: Supports India’s self-reliance in defence manufacturing. Creates Jobs: Strengthens bilateral industrial collaboration and adds Indian industries to Thales’ global supply chain. Interoperability: Enhances defence coordination between the two-armed forces. Incorrect Solution: d) The Defence Partnership–India (DP-I) focuses on joint development of advanced defence technologies, including high-velocity missiles, laser beam riding systems, and lightweight multirole missiles. It does not aim to merge air forces or create a UK-India supply chain exclusively. Although AI-based cyber defence is an area of concern, it is not the primary goal of the agreement. Key India-UK Defence Agreements: Defence Partnership–India (DP-I): Laser Beam Riding MANPADS (LBRM): Thales UK & Bharat Dynamics Ltd. (BDL) signed a contract for STARStreak high-velocity missiles. Lightweight Multirole Missiles (LMM): Future production collaboration between Thales & BDL. ASRAAM Missile Facility: MBDA UK & BDL to set up India’s first Advanced Short-Range Air-to-Air Missile (ASRAAM) assembly & test centre in Hyderabad. Maritime Defence Cooperation: Integrated Full Electric Propulsion (IFEP) System: UK & India signed a Statement of Intent to design and develop electric propulsion systems for Indian Navy ships. Land-Based Testing Facility (LBTF): GE Vernova & BHEL to develop India’s first maritime testing facility for future Landing Platform Dock (LPD) fleets by 2030. Strategic & Economic Impact: Boosts Atmanirbhar Bharat: Supports India’s self-reliance in defence manufacturing. Creates Jobs: Strengthens bilateral industrial collaboration and adds Indian industries to Thales’ global supply chain. Interoperability: Enhances defence coordination between the two-armed forces.
#### 2. Question
What is the primary objective of the Defence Partnership–India (DP-I) agreement between India and the UK?
• a) To develop a joint AI-based cyber defence program
• b) To establish a dedicated UK-India defence supply chain
• c) To merge the UK’s Royal Air Force with the Indian Air Force for joint military operations
• d) To collaborate on the development of next-generation weapons and military technologies
Solution: d)
The Defence Partnership–India (DP-I) focuses on joint development of advanced defence technologies, including high-velocity missiles, laser beam riding systems, and lightweight multirole missiles. It does not aim to merge air forces or create a UK-India supply chain exclusively. Although AI-based cyber defence is an area of concern, it is not the primary goal of the agreement.
Key India-UK Defence Agreements:
• Defence Partnership–India (DP-I): Laser Beam Riding MANPADS (LBRM): Thales UK & Bharat Dynamics Ltd. (BDL) signed a contract for STARStreak high-velocity missiles. Lightweight Multirole Missiles (LMM): Future production collaboration between Thales & BDL. ASRAAM Missile Facility: MBDA UK & BDL to set up India’s first Advanced Short-Range Air-to-Air Missile (ASRAAM) assembly & test centre in Hyderabad.
• Laser Beam Riding MANPADS (LBRM): Thales UK & Bharat Dynamics Ltd. (BDL) signed a contract for STARStreak high-velocity missiles.
• Lightweight Multirole Missiles (LMM): Future production collaboration between Thales & BDL.
• ASRAAM Missile Facility: MBDA UK & BDL to set up India’s first Advanced Short-Range Air-to-Air Missile (ASRAAM) assembly & test centre in Hyderabad.
• Maritime Defence Cooperation:
• Integrated Full Electric Propulsion (IFEP) System: UK & India signed a Statement of Intent to design and develop electric propulsion systems for Indian Navy ships. Land-Based Testing Facility (LBTF): GE Vernova & BHEL to develop India’s first maritime testing facility for future Landing Platform Dock (LPD) fleets by 2030.
• Integrated Full Electric Propulsion (IFEP) System: UK & India signed a Statement of Intent to design and develop electric propulsion systems for Indian Navy ships.
• Land-Based Testing Facility (LBTF): GE Vernova & BHEL to develop India’s first maritime testing facility for future Landing Platform Dock (LPD) fleets by 2030.
• Strategic & Economic Impact:
• Boosts Atmanirbhar Bharat: Supports India’s self-reliance in defence manufacturing. Creates Jobs: Strengthens bilateral industrial collaboration and adds Indian industries to Thales’ global supply chain. Interoperability: Enhances defence coordination between the two-armed forces.
• Boosts Atmanirbhar Bharat: Supports India’s self-reliance in defence manufacturing.
• Creates Jobs: Strengthens bilateral industrial collaboration and adds Indian industries to Thales’ global supply chain.
• Interoperability: Enhances defence coordination between the two-armed forces.
Solution: d)
The Defence Partnership–India (DP-I) focuses on joint development of advanced defence technologies, including high-velocity missiles, laser beam riding systems, and lightweight multirole missiles. It does not aim to merge air forces or create a UK-India supply chain exclusively. Although AI-based cyber defence is an area of concern, it is not the primary goal of the agreement.
Key India-UK Defence Agreements:
• Defence Partnership–India (DP-I): Laser Beam Riding MANPADS (LBRM): Thales UK & Bharat Dynamics Ltd. (BDL) signed a contract for STARStreak high-velocity missiles. Lightweight Multirole Missiles (LMM): Future production collaboration between Thales & BDL. ASRAAM Missile Facility: MBDA UK & BDL to set up India’s first Advanced Short-Range Air-to-Air Missile (ASRAAM) assembly & test centre in Hyderabad.
• Laser Beam Riding MANPADS (LBRM): Thales UK & Bharat Dynamics Ltd. (BDL) signed a contract for STARStreak high-velocity missiles.
• Lightweight Multirole Missiles (LMM): Future production collaboration between Thales & BDL.
• ASRAAM Missile Facility: MBDA UK & BDL to set up India’s first Advanced Short-Range Air-to-Air Missile (ASRAAM) assembly & test centre in Hyderabad.
• Maritime Defence Cooperation:
• Integrated Full Electric Propulsion (IFEP) System: UK & India signed a Statement of Intent to design and develop electric propulsion systems for Indian Navy ships. Land-Based Testing Facility (LBTF): GE Vernova & BHEL to develop India’s first maritime testing facility for future Landing Platform Dock (LPD) fleets by 2030.
• Integrated Full Electric Propulsion (IFEP) System: UK & India signed a Statement of Intent to design and develop electric propulsion systems for Indian Navy ships.
• Land-Based Testing Facility (LBTF): GE Vernova & BHEL to develop India’s first maritime testing facility for future Landing Platform Dock (LPD) fleets by 2030.
• Strategic & Economic Impact:
• Boosts Atmanirbhar Bharat: Supports India’s self-reliance in defence manufacturing. Creates Jobs: Strengthens bilateral industrial collaboration and adds Indian industries to Thales’ global supply chain. Interoperability: Enhances defence coordination between the two-armed forces.
• Boosts Atmanirbhar Bharat: Supports India’s self-reliance in defence manufacturing.
• Creates Jobs: Strengthens bilateral industrial collaboration and adds Indian industries to Thales’ global supply chain.
• Interoperability: Enhances defence coordination between the two-armed forces.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): MIS applies to perishable crops that do not fall under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) regime. The revised guidelines now allow procurement by Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs). Under the new guidelines, all states are required to implement MIS without seeking prior approval from the central government. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) MIS covers perishable crops that do not fall under MSP, making Statement 1 correct. The 2025 revision expanded procurement agencies, including Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), making Statement 2 correct. However, States still need approval from the central government to implement MIS, making Statement 3 incorrect. What is Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)? A price support schemeunder the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. Part of the PM-AASHA scheme, ensuring remunerative pricesfor farmers. Covers perishable crops (horticultural & agricultural commodities)that do not have Minimum Support Price (MSP). Implemented on request of State/UT Governmentswhen market prices drop by at least 10% compared to the previous season. Key Features of MIS: Ad-hoc Scheme:Applied during market price crashes. State-Central Cost Sharing:50:50 (75:25 for North-Eastern States). Operational by NAFED, NCCF & State Agencies. Revised Market Intervention Scheme(MIS): Increased Procurement Limit:Procurement coverage raised from 20% to 25% of total production. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Option:States can now pay farmers directly for the price difference between the Market Intervention Price (MIP) and market price. Expanded Procurement Agencies: Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), State-nominated agencies, and Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF)will procure TOP (Tomato, Onion, Potato) crops. Reimbursement of Storage & Transport Costs: Central Nodal Agencies (CNA)will reimburse costs for transporting crops from producing to consuming States. Incorrect Solution: b) MIS covers perishable crops that do not fall under MSP, making Statement 1 correct. The 2025 revision expanded procurement agencies, including Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), making Statement 2 correct. However, States still need approval from the central government to implement MIS, making Statement 3 incorrect. What is Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)? A price support schemeunder the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. Part of the PM-AASHA scheme, ensuring remunerative pricesfor farmers. Covers perishable crops (horticultural & agricultural commodities)that do not have Minimum Support Price (MSP). Implemented on request of State/UT Governmentswhen market prices drop by at least 10% compared to the previous season. Key Features of MIS: Ad-hoc Scheme:Applied during market price crashes. State-Central Cost Sharing:50:50 (75:25 for North-Eastern States). Operational by NAFED, NCCF & State Agencies. Revised Market Intervention Scheme(MIS): Increased Procurement Limit:Procurement coverage raised from 20% to 25% of total production. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Option:States can now pay farmers directly for the price difference between the Market Intervention Price (MIP) and market price. Expanded Procurement Agencies: Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), State-nominated agencies, and Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF)will procure TOP (Tomato, Onion, Potato) crops. Reimbursement of Storage & Transport Costs: Central Nodal Agencies (CNA)will reimburse costs for transporting crops from producing to consuming States.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS):
• MIS applies to perishable crops that do not fall under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) regime.
• The revised guidelines now allow procurement by Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs).
• Under the new guidelines, all states are required to implement MIS without seeking prior approval from the central government.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
MIS covers perishable crops that do not fall under MSP, making Statement 1 correct.
The 2025 revision expanded procurement agencies, including Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), making Statement 2 correct.
However, States still need approval from the central government to implement MIS, making Statement 3 incorrect.
• What is Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)? A price support schemeunder the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. Part of the PM-AASHA scheme, ensuring remunerative pricesfor farmers. Covers perishable crops (horticultural & agricultural commodities)that do not have Minimum Support Price (MSP). Implemented on request of State/UT Governmentswhen market prices drop by at least 10% compared to the previous season.
• A price support schemeunder the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
• Part of the PM-AASHA scheme, ensuring remunerative pricesfor farmers.
• Covers perishable crops (horticultural & agricultural commodities)that do not have Minimum Support Price (MSP).
• Implemented on request of State/UT Governmentswhen market prices drop by at least 10% compared to the previous season.
• Key Features of MIS: Ad-hoc Scheme:Applied during market price crashes. State-Central Cost Sharing:50:50 (75:25 for North-Eastern States). Operational by NAFED, NCCF & State Agencies.
• Ad-hoc Scheme:Applied during market price crashes.
• State-Central Cost Sharing:50:50 (75:25 for North-Eastern States).
• Operational by NAFED, NCCF & State Agencies.
• Revised Market Intervention Scheme(MIS): Increased Procurement Limit:Procurement coverage raised from 20% to 25% of total production. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Option:States can now pay farmers directly for the price difference between the Market Intervention Price (MIP) and market price. Expanded Procurement Agencies: Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), State-nominated agencies, and Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF)will procure TOP (Tomato, Onion, Potato) crops. Reimbursement of Storage & Transport Costs: Central Nodal Agencies (CNA)will reimburse costs for transporting crops from producing to consuming States.
• Increased Procurement Limit:Procurement coverage raised from 20% to 25% of total production.
• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Option:States can now pay farmers directly for the price difference between the Market Intervention Price (MIP) and market price.
• Expanded Procurement Agencies: Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), State-nominated agencies, and Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF)will procure TOP (Tomato, Onion, Potato) crops.
• Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), State-nominated agencies, and Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF)will procure TOP (Tomato, Onion, Potato) crops.
• Reimbursement of Storage & Transport Costs: Central Nodal Agencies (CNA)will reimburse costs for transporting crops from producing to consuming States.
• Central Nodal Agencies (CNA)will reimburse costs for transporting crops from producing to consuming States.
Solution: b)
MIS covers perishable crops that do not fall under MSP, making Statement 1 correct.
The 2025 revision expanded procurement agencies, including Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), making Statement 2 correct.
However, States still need approval from the central government to implement MIS, making Statement 3 incorrect.
• What is Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)? A price support schemeunder the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. Part of the PM-AASHA scheme, ensuring remunerative pricesfor farmers. Covers perishable crops (horticultural & agricultural commodities)that do not have Minimum Support Price (MSP). Implemented on request of State/UT Governmentswhen market prices drop by at least 10% compared to the previous season.
• A price support schemeunder the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
• Part of the PM-AASHA scheme, ensuring remunerative pricesfor farmers.
• Covers perishable crops (horticultural & agricultural commodities)that do not have Minimum Support Price (MSP).
• Implemented on request of State/UT Governmentswhen market prices drop by at least 10% compared to the previous season.
• Key Features of MIS: Ad-hoc Scheme:Applied during market price crashes. State-Central Cost Sharing:50:50 (75:25 for North-Eastern States). Operational by NAFED, NCCF & State Agencies.
• Ad-hoc Scheme:Applied during market price crashes.
• State-Central Cost Sharing:50:50 (75:25 for North-Eastern States).
• Operational by NAFED, NCCF & State Agencies.
• Revised Market Intervention Scheme(MIS): Increased Procurement Limit:Procurement coverage raised from 20% to 25% of total production. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Option:States can now pay farmers directly for the price difference between the Market Intervention Price (MIP) and market price. Expanded Procurement Agencies: Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), State-nominated agencies, and Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF)will procure TOP (Tomato, Onion, Potato) crops. Reimbursement of Storage & Transport Costs: Central Nodal Agencies (CNA)will reimburse costs for transporting crops from producing to consuming States.
• Increased Procurement Limit:Procurement coverage raised from 20% to 25% of total production.
• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Option:States can now pay farmers directly for the price difference between the Market Intervention Price (MIP) and market price.
• Expanded Procurement Agencies: Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), State-nominated agencies, and Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF)will procure TOP (Tomato, Onion, Potato) crops.
• Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), State-nominated agencies, and Central Nodal Agencies (NAFED, NCCF)will procure TOP (Tomato, Onion, Potato) crops.
• Reimbursement of Storage & Transport Costs: Central Nodal Agencies (CNA)will reimburse costs for transporting crops from producing to consuming States.
• Central Nodal Agencies (CNA)will reimburse costs for transporting crops from producing to consuming States.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Why is the Bombay Blood Group (hh phenotype) considered unique in transfusion medicine? a) Individuals with this blood type can donate blood to any ABO group. b) It was first discovered in South Africa but is most prevalent in Europe. c) Individuals with this blood type cannot receive blood from any ABO or O-negative donors. d) It is a recently discovered blood group with a global prevalence of more than 5%. Correct Solution: c) The Bombay Blood Group (hh phenotype) lacks the H antigen, which is the precursor for the A and B antigens in the ABO system. This means individuals with Bombay Blood Group cannot receive blood from ABO or O-negative donors because those blood types still contain the H antigen, triggering a severe immune reaction. The blood group was first discovered in India, not South Africa, and its global prevalence is extremely rare (~1 in 1 million), making options (b) and (d) incorrect. What is the Bombay Blood Group? A rare blood type (hh phenotype)first discovered in Mumbai (Bombay) in 1952 by Y.M. Bhende. Lacks the H antigen, which is the base structure for A and B antigensin the ABO blood group system. Unique Characteristics Individuals with this blood type cannot receive blood from any ABO group, including O-negative, as it contains the H antigen. Can only receive blood from another Bombay blood group donor, making transfusions highly difficult. Prevalence:1 in 10,000 in India, 1 in 1 million globally. Challenges in Blood Transfusion: Routine blood tests often misidentify Bombay blood group as O-type, leading to misdiagnosis and transfusion complications. Receiving blood with the H antigen can trigger an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, causing severe immune responses. Incorrect Solution: c) The Bombay Blood Group (hh phenotype) lacks the H antigen, which is the precursor for the A and B antigens in the ABO system. This means individuals with Bombay Blood Group cannot receive blood from ABO or O-negative donors because those blood types still contain the H antigen, triggering a severe immune reaction. The blood group was first discovered in India, not South Africa, and its global prevalence is extremely rare (~1 in 1 million), making options (b) and (d) incorrect. What is the Bombay Blood Group? A rare blood type (hh phenotype)first discovered in Mumbai (Bombay) in 1952 by Y.M. Bhende. Lacks the H antigen, which is the base structure for A and B antigensin the ABO blood group system. Unique Characteristics Individuals with this blood type cannot receive blood from any ABO group, including O-negative, as it contains the H antigen. Can only receive blood from another Bombay blood group donor, making transfusions highly difficult. Prevalence:1 in 10,000 in India, 1 in 1 million globally. Challenges in Blood Transfusion: Routine blood tests often misidentify Bombay blood group as O-type, leading to misdiagnosis and transfusion complications. Receiving blood with the H antigen can trigger an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, causing severe immune responses.
#### 4. Question
Why is the Bombay Blood Group (hh phenotype) considered unique in transfusion medicine?
• a) Individuals with this blood type can donate blood to any ABO group.
• b) It was first discovered in South Africa but is most prevalent in Europe.
• c) Individuals with this blood type cannot receive blood from any ABO or O-negative donors.
• d) It is a recently discovered blood group with a global prevalence of more than 5%.
Solution: c)
The Bombay Blood Group (hh phenotype) lacks the H antigen, which is the precursor for the A and B antigens in the ABO system. This means individuals with Bombay Blood Group cannot receive blood from ABO or O-negative donors because those blood types still contain the H antigen, triggering a severe immune reaction. The blood group was first discovered in India, not South Africa, and its global prevalence is extremely rare (~1 in 1 million), making options (b) and (d) incorrect.
• What is the Bombay Blood Group? A rare blood type (hh phenotype)first discovered in Mumbai (Bombay) in 1952 by Y.M. Bhende. Lacks the H antigen, which is the base structure for A and B antigensin the ABO blood group system.
• A rare blood type (hh phenotype)first discovered in Mumbai (Bombay) in 1952 by Y.M. Bhende.
• Lacks the H antigen, which is the base structure for A and B antigensin the ABO blood group system.
• Unique Characteristics Individuals with this blood type cannot receive blood from any ABO group, including O-negative, as it contains the H antigen. Can only receive blood from another Bombay blood group donor, making transfusions highly difficult. Prevalence:1 in 10,000 in India, 1 in 1 million globally.
• Individuals with this blood type cannot receive blood from any ABO group, including O-negative, as it contains the H antigen.
• Can only receive blood from another Bombay blood group donor, making transfusions highly difficult.
• Prevalence:1 in 10,000 in India, 1 in 1 million globally.
• Challenges in Blood Transfusion: Routine blood tests often misidentify Bombay blood group as O-type, leading to misdiagnosis and transfusion complications. Receiving blood with the H antigen can trigger an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, causing severe immune responses.
• Routine blood tests often misidentify Bombay blood group as O-type, leading to misdiagnosis and transfusion complications.
• Receiving blood with the H antigen can trigger an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, causing severe immune responses.
Solution: c)
The Bombay Blood Group (hh phenotype) lacks the H antigen, which is the precursor for the A and B antigens in the ABO system. This means individuals with Bombay Blood Group cannot receive blood from ABO or O-negative donors because those blood types still contain the H antigen, triggering a severe immune reaction. The blood group was first discovered in India, not South Africa, and its global prevalence is extremely rare (~1 in 1 million), making options (b) and (d) incorrect.
• What is the Bombay Blood Group? A rare blood type (hh phenotype)first discovered in Mumbai (Bombay) in 1952 by Y.M. Bhende. Lacks the H antigen, which is the base structure for A and B antigensin the ABO blood group system.
• A rare blood type (hh phenotype)first discovered in Mumbai (Bombay) in 1952 by Y.M. Bhende.
• Lacks the H antigen, which is the base structure for A and B antigensin the ABO blood group system.
• Unique Characteristics Individuals with this blood type cannot receive blood from any ABO group, including O-negative, as it contains the H antigen. Can only receive blood from another Bombay blood group donor, making transfusions highly difficult. Prevalence:1 in 10,000 in India, 1 in 1 million globally.
• Individuals with this blood type cannot receive blood from any ABO group, including O-negative, as it contains the H antigen.
• Can only receive blood from another Bombay blood group donor, making transfusions highly difficult.
• Prevalence:1 in 10,000 in India, 1 in 1 million globally.
• Challenges in Blood Transfusion: Routine blood tests often misidentify Bombay blood group as O-type, leading to misdiagnosis and transfusion complications. Receiving blood with the H antigen can trigger an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, causing severe immune responses.
• Routine blood tests often misidentify Bombay blood group as O-type, leading to misdiagnosis and transfusion complications.
• Receiving blood with the H antigen can trigger an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, causing severe immune responses.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project: The project involves inter-state water sharing agreements between Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. The Morand River originates in Chhattisgarh and flows into the Narmada River. The project is expected to impact key wildlife corridors in central India. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) The Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project is entirely within Madhya Pradesh and does not involve inter-state water sharing with Maharashtra, making Statement 1 incorrect. The Morand River originates within Madhya Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh, making Statement 2 incorrect. The project is expected to impact wildlife corridors, particularly affecting Satpura and Melghat Tiger Reserves, making Statement 3 correct. About Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project: What it is: A dam-based irrigation project aimed at improving agricultural productivity in Madhya Pradesh. Rivers Involved: Morand and Ganjal Rivers. Both the Morand and Ganjal rivers are considered major tributaries of the Narmada River. The Ganjal being a left bank tributary and the Morand being a significant tributary of the Ganjal. Location: Covers Hoshangabad, Betul, Harda, and Khandwa districts in Madhya Pradesh. Incorrect Solution: c) The Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project is entirely within Madhya Pradesh and does not involve inter-state water sharing with Maharashtra, making Statement 1 incorrect. The Morand River originates within Madhya Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh, making Statement 2 incorrect. The project is expected to impact wildlife corridors, particularly affecting Satpura and Melghat Tiger Reserves, making Statement 3 correct. About Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project: What it is: A dam-based irrigation project aimed at improving agricultural productivity in Madhya Pradesh. Rivers Involved: Morand and Ganjal Rivers. Both the Morand and Ganjal rivers are considered major tributaries of the Narmada River. The Ganjal being a left bank tributary and the Morand being a significant tributary of the Ganjal. Location: Covers Hoshangabad, Betul, Harda, and Khandwa districts in Madhya Pradesh.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements about the Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project:
• The project involves inter-state water sharing agreements between Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
• The Morand River originates in Chhattisgarh and flows into the Narmada River.
• The project is expected to impact key wildlife corridors in central India.
Which of the above statements is correct?
• d) None of the above
Solution: c)
The Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project is entirely within Madhya Pradesh and does not involve inter-state water sharing with Maharashtra, making Statement 1 incorrect.
The Morand River originates within Madhya Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh, making Statement 2 incorrect.
The project is expected to impact wildlife corridors, particularly affecting Satpura and Melghat Tiger Reserves, making Statement 3 correct.
About Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project:
• What it is: A dam-based irrigation project aimed at improving agricultural productivity in Madhya Pradesh.
• Rivers Involved: Morand and Ganjal Rivers. Both the Morand and Ganjal rivers are considered major tributaries of the Narmada River. The Ganjal being a left bank tributary and the Morand being a significant tributary of the Ganjal.
• Both the Morand and Ganjal rivers are considered major tributaries of the Narmada River.
• The Ganjal being a left bank tributary and the Morand being a significant tributary of the Ganjal.
• Location: Covers Hoshangabad, Betul, Harda, and Khandwa districts in Madhya Pradesh.
Solution: c)
The Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project is entirely within Madhya Pradesh and does not involve inter-state water sharing with Maharashtra, making Statement 1 incorrect.
The Morand River originates within Madhya Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh, making Statement 2 incorrect.
The project is expected to impact wildlife corridors, particularly affecting Satpura and Melghat Tiger Reserves, making Statement 3 correct.
About Morand-Ganjal Irrigation Project:
• What it is: A dam-based irrigation project aimed at improving agricultural productivity in Madhya Pradesh.
• Rivers Involved: Morand and Ganjal Rivers. Both the Morand and Ganjal rivers are considered major tributaries of the Narmada River. The Ganjal being a left bank tributary and the Morand being a significant tributary of the Ganjal.
• Both the Morand and Ganjal rivers are considered major tributaries of the Narmada River.
• The Ganjal being a left bank tributary and the Morand being a significant tributary of the Ganjal.
• Location: Covers Hoshangabad, Betul, Harda, and Khandwa districts in Madhya Pradesh.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Paris AI Summit: The summit was initiated by the United Nations to establish a global AI oversight authority. It mandates all participants to adopt a unified AI regulatory framework. The summit excludes private AI firms, focusing only on government-level discussions. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) The Paris AI Summit is not initiated by the United Nations; it is organized by France (Statement 1 incorrect). The summit does not enforce a single regulatory framework but instead sets AI governance norms (Statement 2 incorrect). Private AI firms like OpenAI, Google, and other tech CEOs actively participate in discussions, making Statement 3 incorrect. Incorrect Solution: d) The Paris AI Summit is not initiated by the United Nations; it is organized by France (Statement 1 incorrect). The summit does not enforce a single regulatory framework but instead sets AI governance norms (Statement 2 incorrect). Private AI firms like OpenAI, Google, and other tech CEOs actively participate in discussions, making Statement 3 incorrect.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Paris AI Summit:
• The summit was initiated by the United Nations to establish a global AI oversight authority.
• It mandates all participants to adopt a unified AI regulatory framework.
• The summit excludes private AI firms, focusing only on government-level discussions.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: d)
The Paris AI Summit is not initiated by the United Nations; it is organized by France (Statement 1 incorrect).
The summit does not enforce a single regulatory framework but instead sets AI governance norms (Statement 2 incorrect).
Private AI firms like OpenAI, Google, and other tech CEOs actively participate in discussions, making Statement 3 incorrect.
Solution: d)
The Paris AI Summit is not initiated by the United Nations; it is organized by France (Statement 1 incorrect).
The summit does not enforce a single regulatory framework but instead sets AI governance norms (Statement 2 incorrect).
Private AI firms like OpenAI, Google, and other tech CEOs actively participate in discussions, making Statement 3 incorrect.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding bacterial plastic degradation mechanisms: Oxidation and hydrolysis reactions break down polymer chains into smaller molecules. The breakdown of plastics always results in complete mineralization into CO₂ and water. The rate of plastic degradation depends on environmental factors such as temperature and UV exposure. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Oxidation and hydrolysis reactions are common microbial strategies to break down polymer chains, making Statement 1 correct. Plastic degradation does not always result in complete mineralization; sometimes, it leads to microplastic formation, making Statement 2 incorrect. Environmental factors like UV exposure, temperature, and microbial activity significantly impact plastic degradation rates, making Statement 3 correct. Bacteria and Plastic Degradation: Bacteria That Break Down Plastic: Ideonella sakaiensis:Discovered in Kyoto Institute of Technology, breaks down PET plastics using two enzymes. X-32 Bacteria:Degrades PET, polyolefins, and polyamides, effective against tough carbon-carbon bonds. Vibrio natriegens:Genetically engineered to attach PET-degrading enzymes for rapid plastic breakdown. Bacillus subtilis:Incorporated into biodegradable plastics, activated in compost for gradual degradation. Enzymatic Plastic Degradation: Scientists have engineered enzymes like PETase and MHETase, enhancing their efficiency for large-scale use. French company Carbios developed heat-stable PET-degrading enzymes that break down 90% of PET in 10 hours. Enzyme-derived breakdown products can be used for recycling and circular economy models. Challenges & Limitations: Time Factor:Bacterial degradation can take months to years, slowing industrial applications. Scalability:Producing and deploying bacteria or enzymes at an industrial scale is costly. Selective Efficiency:Many strains work only on specific plastics, limiting universal application. Regulatory Issues:Concerns exist over introducing engineered bacteria into ecosystems. Crystalline PET Resistance:Most bacteria struggle to degrade highly crystalline PET, like plastic bottles. Incorrect Solution: b) Oxidation and hydrolysis reactions are common microbial strategies to break down polymer chains, making Statement 1 correct. Plastic degradation does not always result in complete mineralization; sometimes, it leads to microplastic formation, making Statement 2 incorrect. Environmental factors like UV exposure, temperature, and microbial activity significantly impact plastic degradation rates, making Statement 3 correct. Bacteria and Plastic Degradation: Bacteria That Break Down Plastic: Ideonella sakaiensis:Discovered in Kyoto Institute of Technology, breaks down PET plastics using two enzymes. X-32 Bacteria:Degrades PET, polyolefins, and polyamides, effective against tough carbon-carbon bonds. Vibrio natriegens:Genetically engineered to attach PET-degrading enzymes for rapid plastic breakdown. Bacillus subtilis:Incorporated into biodegradable plastics, activated in compost for gradual degradation. Enzymatic Plastic Degradation: Scientists have engineered enzymes like PETase and MHETase, enhancing their efficiency for large-scale use. French company Carbios developed heat-stable PET-degrading enzymes that break down 90% of PET in 10 hours. Enzyme-derived breakdown products can be used for recycling and circular economy models. Challenges & Limitations: Time Factor:Bacterial degradation can take months to years, slowing industrial applications. Scalability:Producing and deploying bacteria or enzymes at an industrial scale is costly. Selective Efficiency:Many strains work only on specific plastics, limiting universal application. Regulatory Issues:Concerns exist over introducing engineered bacteria into ecosystems. Crystalline PET Resistance:Most bacteria struggle to degrade highly crystalline PET, like plastic bottles.
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding bacterial plastic degradation mechanisms:
• Oxidation and hydrolysis reactions break down polymer chains into smaller molecules.
• The breakdown of plastics always results in complete mineralization into CO₂ and water.
• The rate of plastic degradation depends on environmental factors such as temperature and UV exposure.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Oxidation and hydrolysis reactions are common microbial strategies to break down polymer chains, making Statement 1 correct.
Plastic degradation does not always result in complete mineralization; sometimes, it leads to microplastic formation, making Statement 2 incorrect.
Environmental factors like UV exposure, temperature, and microbial activity significantly impact plastic degradation rates, making Statement 3 correct.
Bacteria and Plastic Degradation:
Bacteria That Break Down Plastic:
• Ideonella sakaiensis:Discovered in Kyoto Institute of Technology, breaks down PET plastics using two enzymes.
• X-32 Bacteria:Degrades PET, polyolefins, and polyamides, effective against tough carbon-carbon bonds.
• Vibrio natriegens:Genetically engineered to attach PET-degrading enzymes for rapid plastic breakdown.
• Bacillus subtilis:Incorporated into biodegradable plastics, activated in compost for gradual degradation.
Enzymatic Plastic Degradation:
• Scientists have engineered enzymes like PETase and MHETase, enhancing their efficiency for large-scale use.
• French company Carbios developed heat-stable PET-degrading enzymes that break down 90% of PET in 10 hours.
• Enzyme-derived breakdown products can be used for recycling and circular economy models.
Challenges & Limitations:
• Time Factor:Bacterial degradation can take months to years, slowing industrial applications.
• Scalability:Producing and deploying bacteria or enzymes at an industrial scale is costly.
• Selective Efficiency:Many strains work only on specific plastics, limiting universal application.
• Regulatory Issues:Concerns exist over introducing engineered bacteria into ecosystems.
• Crystalline PET Resistance:Most bacteria struggle to degrade highly crystalline PET, like plastic bottles.
Solution: b)
Oxidation and hydrolysis reactions are common microbial strategies to break down polymer chains, making Statement 1 correct.
Plastic degradation does not always result in complete mineralization; sometimes, it leads to microplastic formation, making Statement 2 incorrect.
Environmental factors like UV exposure, temperature, and microbial activity significantly impact plastic degradation rates, making Statement 3 correct.
Bacteria and Plastic Degradation:
Bacteria That Break Down Plastic:
• Ideonella sakaiensis:Discovered in Kyoto Institute of Technology, breaks down PET plastics using two enzymes.
• X-32 Bacteria:Degrades PET, polyolefins, and polyamides, effective against tough carbon-carbon bonds.
• Vibrio natriegens:Genetically engineered to attach PET-degrading enzymes for rapid plastic breakdown.
• Bacillus subtilis:Incorporated into biodegradable plastics, activated in compost for gradual degradation.
Enzymatic Plastic Degradation:
• Scientists have engineered enzymes like PETase and MHETase, enhancing their efficiency for large-scale use.
• French company Carbios developed heat-stable PET-degrading enzymes that break down 90% of PET in 10 hours.
• Enzyme-derived breakdown products can be used for recycling and circular economy models.
Challenges & Limitations:
• Time Factor:Bacterial degradation can take months to years, slowing industrial applications.
• Scalability:Producing and deploying bacteria or enzymes at an industrial scale is costly.
• Selective Efficiency:Many strains work only on specific plastics, limiting universal application.
• Regulatory Issues:Concerns exist over introducing engineered bacteria into ecosystems.
• Crystalline PET Resistance:Most bacteria struggle to degrade highly crystalline PET, like plastic bottles.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Match the following election-related articles with their provisions: Article Provision 1. Article 324 a. Reservation of seats in Lok Sabha for SC/ST 2. Article 326 b. Superintendence of elections by ECI 3. Article 330 c. Voting rights based on adult suffrage 4. Article 356 d. President’s rule in a state Select the correct answer: a) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c Correct Solution: a) Article 324 provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission of India. Article 326 establishes universal adult suffrage as the basis for elections. Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha. Article 356 relates to the imposition of President’s Rule in a state in case of constitutional breakdown. Incorrect Solution: a) Article 324 provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission of India. Article 326 establishes universal adult suffrage as the basis for elections. Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha. Article 356 relates to the imposition of President’s Rule in a state in case of constitutional breakdown.
#### 8. Question
Match the following election-related articles with their provisions:
Article | Provision
- 1.Article 324 | a. Reservation of seats in Lok Sabha for SC/ST
- 2.Article 326 | b. Superintendence of elections by ECI
- 3.Article 330 | c. Voting rights based on adult suffrage
- 4.Article 356 | d. President’s rule in a state
Select the correct answer:
• a) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
• b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
• c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
• d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
Solution: a)
Article 324 provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission of India.
Article 326 establishes universal adult suffrage as the basis for elections.
Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha.
Article 356 relates to the imposition of President’s Rule in a state in case of constitutional breakdown.
Solution: a)
Article 324 provides for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections by the Election Commission of India.
Article 326 establishes universal adult suffrage as the basis for elections.
Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha.
Article 356 relates to the imposition of President’s Rule in a state in case of constitutional breakdown.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Lymphatic Filariasis (LF): LF is included in the World Health Organization’s (WHO) list of Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs). India’s elimination strategy includes a Triple Drug Therapy to accelerate progress. LF is caused by a protozoan parasite that infects the human lymphatic system. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) All of the above Correct Solution: a) LF is classified as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) by WHO, making Statement 1 correct. India has introduced Triple Drug Therapy (DEC + Albendazole + Ivermectin) in certain endemic regions to accelerate elimination (Statement 2 correct). However, LF is caused by parasitic worms (filarial nematodes), not protozoa, making Statement 3 incorrect. Incorrect Solution: a) LF is classified as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) by WHO, making Statement 1 correct. India has introduced Triple Drug Therapy (DEC + Albendazole + Ivermectin) in certain endemic regions to accelerate elimination (Statement 2 correct). However, LF is caused by parasitic worms (filarial nematodes), not protozoa, making Statement 3 incorrect.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Lymphatic Filariasis (LF):
• LF is included in the World Health Organization’s (WHO) list of Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs).
• India’s elimination strategy includes a Triple Drug Therapy to accelerate progress.
• LF is caused by a protozoan parasite that infects the human lymphatic system.
Which of the above statements are correct?
• a) 1 and 2
• b) 1 and 3
• c) 2 and 3
• d) All of the above
Solution: a)
LF is classified as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) by WHO, making Statement 1 correct. India has introduced Triple Drug Therapy (DEC + Albendazole + Ivermectin) in certain endemic regions to accelerate elimination (Statement 2 correct). However, LF is caused by parasitic worms (filarial nematodes), not protozoa, making Statement 3 incorrect.
Solution: a)
LF is classified as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) by WHO, making Statement 1 correct. India has introduced Triple Drug Therapy (DEC + Albendazole + Ivermectin) in certain endemic regions to accelerate elimination (Statement 2 correct). However, LF is caused by parasitic worms (filarial nematodes), not protozoa, making Statement 3 incorrect.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Bombay Blood Group. Statement-I: The Bombay Blood Group is extremely rare, with a global occurrence of approximately 1 in a million individuals. Statement-II: The low prevalence of the Bombay phenotype is due to its inheritance pattern, which requires both parents to be carriers of the recessive hh gene. Which one of the following is correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) The Bombay Blood Group is extremely rare, occurring in 1 in 10,000 people in India and 1 in a million globally (Statement-I correct). The low prevalence is due to its recessive inheritance pattern (hh), requiring both parents to be carriers (Statement-II correct and explains Statement-I). Thus, option (a) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: a) The Bombay Blood Group is extremely rare, occurring in 1 in 10,000 people in India and 1 in a million globally (Statement-I correct). The low prevalence is due to its recessive inheritance pattern (hh), requiring both parents to be carriers (Statement-II correct and explains Statement-I). Thus, option (a) is the correct answer.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Bombay Blood Group.
Statement-I: The Bombay Blood Group is extremely rare, with a global occurrence of approximately 1 in a million individuals.
Statement-II: The low prevalence of the Bombay phenotype is due to its inheritance pattern, which requires both parents to be carriers of the recessive hh gene.
Which one of the following is correct?
• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: a)
The Bombay Blood Group is extremely rare, occurring in 1 in 10,000 people in India and 1 in a million globally (Statement-I correct).
The low prevalence is due to its recessive inheritance pattern (hh), requiring both parents to be carriers (Statement-II correct and explains Statement-I).
Thus, option (a) is the correct answer.
Solution: a)
The Bombay Blood Group is extremely rare, occurring in 1 in 10,000 people in India and 1 in a million globally (Statement-I correct).
The low prevalence is due to its recessive inheritance pattern (hh), requiring both parents to be carriers (Statement-II correct and explains Statement-I).
Thus, option (a) is the correct answer.
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