UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 12 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the most significant new finding regarding the decline of the Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC), as per the recent 2025 multi-proxy paleoclimate study? (a) The decline was caused by a single, catastrophic mega-flood that destroyed major urban centers. (b) The civilisation collapsed due to large-scale 'Aryan' invasion, as evidenced by mass graves and weapons. (c) The decline was gradual, triggered by a cycle of four major mega-droughts, each lasting over 85 years, leading to hydrological instability. (d) The main factor was the complete cessation of long-distance trade with Mesopotamia due to their internal political turmoil. Correct Solution: C Explanation: The 2025 multi-proxy paleoclimate study claims that the IVC decline was gradual and was not a single catastrophic event. The key finding is that it was triggered by a cycle of four major mega-droughts between 2425–1400 BCE, with the most severe one peaking around 1733 BCE. This recurring pattern created centuries of hydrological instability, which progressively weakened the agriculture (forcing a shift to millets) and the economic base. The climate records show a weakening monsoon due to the tropical Pacific shifting to a warmer, El Niño-like phase. While trade breakdown and river shifts were contributing factors, the prolonged, recurring mega-droughts are the core new evidence for the decline. Significance of Indus Valley Civilisation: Gave India its first planned cities, sanitation systems and urban governance models. Demonstrated advanced hydrology, craft specialisation, maritime trade, and agricultural adaptation. Offers lessons for today on water management, climate resilience, and decentralised settlement planning. Its peaceful culture and standardised systems highlight early forms of civil administration, trade regulation and environmental adaptation Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: The 2025 multi-proxy paleoclimate study claims that the IVC decline was gradual and was not a single catastrophic event. The key finding is that it was triggered by a cycle of four major mega-droughts between 2425–1400 BCE, with the most severe one peaking around 1733 BCE. This recurring pattern created centuries of hydrological instability, which progressively weakened the agriculture (forcing a shift to millets) and the economic base. The climate records show a weakening monsoon due to the tropical Pacific shifting to a warmer, El Niño-like phase. While trade breakdown and river shifts were contributing factors, the prolonged, recurring mega-droughts are the core new evidence for the decline. Significance of Indus Valley Civilisation: Gave India its first planned cities, sanitation systems and urban governance models. Demonstrated advanced hydrology, craft specialisation, maritime trade, and agricultural adaptation. Offers lessons for today on water management, climate resilience, and decentralised settlement planning. Its peaceful culture and standardised systems highlight early forms of civil administration, trade regulation and environmental adaptation

#### 1. Question

Which one of the following is the most significant new finding regarding the decline of the Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC), as per the recent 2025 multi-proxy paleoclimate study?

• (a) The decline was caused by a single, catastrophic mega-flood that destroyed major urban centers.

• (b) The civilisation collapsed due to large-scale 'Aryan' invasion, as evidenced by mass graves and weapons.

• (c) The decline was gradual, triggered by a cycle of four major mega-droughts, each lasting over 85 years, leading to hydrological instability.

• (d) The main factor was the complete cessation of long-distance trade with Mesopotamia due to their internal political turmoil.

Solution: C

Explanation:

The 2025 multi-proxy paleoclimate study claims that the IVC decline was gradual and was not a single catastrophic event. The key finding is that it was triggered by a cycle of four major mega-droughts between 2425–1400 BCE, with the most severe one peaking around 1733 BCE. This recurring pattern created centuries of hydrological instability, which progressively weakened the agriculture (forcing a shift to millets) and the economic base.

The climate records show a weakening monsoon due to the tropical Pacific shifting to a warmer, El Niño-like phase. While trade breakdown and river shifts were contributing factors, the prolonged, recurring mega-droughts are the core new evidence for the decline.

Significance of Indus Valley Civilisation:

• Gave India its first planned cities, sanitation systems and urban governance models.

• Demonstrated advanced hydrology, craft specialisation, maritime trade, and agricultural adaptation.

• Offers lessons for today on water management, climate resilience, and decentralised settlement planning.

Its peaceful culture and standardised systems highlight early forms of civil administration, trade regulation and environmental adaptation

Solution: C

Explanation:

Significance of Indus Valley Civilisation:

• Gave India its first planned cities, sanitation systems and urban governance models.

• Demonstrated advanced hydrology, craft specialisation, maritime trade, and agricultural adaptation.

• Offers lessons for today on water management, climate resilience, and decentralised settlement planning.

Its peaceful culture and standardised systems highlight early forms of civil administration, trade regulation and environmental adaptation

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Western Tragopan (Jujurana), consider the following statements: It is the State bird of Uttarakhand and is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. Its habitat is restricted to the moist temperate Himalayan forests between 2,400–3,600 m altitude. The successful captive-breeding programme to stabilise its population is primarily being carried out at Sarahan Pheasantry in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Western Tragopan, or Jujurana, is the State bird of Himachal Pradesh, not Uttarakhand. Its IUCN status is Vulnerable, not Critically Endangered. Statement 2 is correct. Its habitat is found between 2,400–3,600 m in moist temperate Himalayan forests, with strongholds including the Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP). Statement 3 is correct. The captive-breeding programme that has stabilised its population is run at Sarahan Pheasantry in Himachal Pradesh. The species is a flagship indicator of high-altitude forest health Key Characteristics: Male: Velvet-black head, crimson breast, white spotting, and colourful blue–orange facial wattles used in elaborate mating displays. Female: Brown, camouflaged, smaller; immature males resemble females. Ground-dwelling, shy, active at dawn/dusk; feeds on berries, seeds, buds, shoots, and insects. Breeds during May–June, laying 3–5 eggs in concealed nests. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Western Tragopan, or Jujurana, is the State bird of Himachal Pradesh, not Uttarakhand. Its IUCN status is Vulnerable, not Critically Endangered. Statement 2 is correct. Its habitat is found between 2,400–3,600 m in moist temperate Himalayan forests, with strongholds including the Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP). Statement 3 is correct. The captive-breeding programme that has stabilised its population is run at Sarahan Pheasantry in Himachal Pradesh. The species is a flagship indicator of high-altitude forest health Key Characteristics: Male: Velvet-black head, crimson breast, white spotting, and colourful blue–orange facial wattles used in elaborate mating displays. Female: Brown, camouflaged, smaller; immature males resemble females. Ground-dwelling, shy, active at dawn/dusk; feeds on berries, seeds, buds, shoots, and insects. Breeds during May–June, laying 3–5 eggs in concealed nests.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Western Tragopan (Jujurana), consider the following statements:

• It is the State bird of Uttarakhand and is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List.

• Its habitat is restricted to the moist temperate Himalayan forests between 2,400–3,600 m altitude.

• The successful captive-breeding programme to stabilise its population is primarily being carried out at Sarahan Pheasantry in Himachal Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Western Tragopan, or Jujurana, is the State bird of Himachal Pradesh, not Uttarakhand. Its IUCN status is Vulnerable, not Critically Endangered.

Statement 2 is correct. Its habitat is found between 2,400–3,600 m in moist temperate Himalayan forests, with strongholds including the Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP).

Statement 3 is correct. The captive-breeding programme that has stabilised its population is run at Sarahan Pheasantry in Himachal Pradesh. The species is a flagship indicator of high-altitude forest health

Key Characteristics:

• Male: Velvet-black head, crimson breast, white spotting, and colourful blue–orange facial wattles used in elaborate mating displays.

• Female: Brown, camouflaged, smaller; immature males resemble females.

• Ground-dwelling, shy, active at dawn/dusk; feeds on berries, seeds, buds, shoots, and insects.

• Breeds during May–June, laying 3–5 eggs in concealed nests.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Western Tragopan, or Jujurana, is the State bird of Himachal Pradesh, not Uttarakhand. Its IUCN status is Vulnerable, not Critically Endangered.

Statement 2 is correct. Its habitat is found between 2,400–3,600 m in moist temperate Himalayan forests, with strongholds including the Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP).

Key Characteristics:

• Male: Velvet-black head, crimson breast, white spotting, and colourful blue–orange facial wattles used in elaborate mating displays.

• Female: Brown, camouflaged, smaller; immature males resemble females.

• Ground-dwelling, shy, active at dawn/dusk; feeds on berries, seeds, buds, shoots, and insects.

• Breeds during May–June, laying 3–5 eggs in concealed nests.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the proposed “One Nation, One License, One Payment” model for Generative AI and Copyright in India, consider the following statements: It aims to introduce an explicit Text & Data Mining (TDM) exception under Section 52 of the Copyright Act for commercial AI training. It recommends establishing a central body, the Copyright Royalties Collective for AI Training (CRCAT), for collecting license fees and distributing royalties. It suggests a mandatory blanket license, allowing AI developers to train on all lawfully accessed copyrighted works without needing individual creator permissions. The proposal is intended to solely benefit large foreign Big Tech AI firms by easing their compliance burden in the Indian market. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the existing Copyright Act lacks an explicit TDM exception, and the proposed model is a Mandatory Blanket License system with royalty payments, which is an alternative to a simple TDM exception which typically requires no payment. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Working Paper recommends introducing a Mandatory Blanket License for AI Training to ensure wide dataset access without requiring individual permissions. It also suggests establishing the Copyright Royalties Collective for AI Training (CRCAT) as a central body to collect license fees and distribute statutory royalties to creators. Statement 4 is incorrect; the model aims to balance creator rights and AI innovation, protect the creative economy, ensure fair revenue-sharing for Indian creators, and support Indian startups with a low-cost, low-friction system. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the existing Copyright Act lacks an explicit TDM exception, and the proposed model is a Mandatory Blanket License system with royalty payments, which is an alternative to a simple TDM exception which typically requires no payment. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Working Paper recommends introducing a Mandatory Blanket License for AI Training to ensure wide dataset access without requiring individual permissions. It also suggests establishing the Copyright Royalties Collective for AI Training (CRCAT) as a central body to collect license fees and distribute statutory royalties to creators. Statement 4 is incorrect; the model aims to balance creator rights and AI innovation, protect the creative economy, ensure fair revenue-sharing for Indian creators, and support Indian startups with a low-cost, low-friction system.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the proposed “One Nation, One License, One Payment” model for Generative AI and Copyright in India, consider the following statements:

• It aims to introduce an explicit Text & Data Mining (TDM) exception under Section 52 of the Copyright Act for commercial AI training.

• It recommends establishing a central body, the Copyright Royalties Collective for AI Training (CRCAT), for collecting license fees and distributing royalties.

• It suggests a mandatory blanket license, allowing AI developers to train on all lawfully accessed copyrighted works without needing individual creator permissions.

• The proposal is intended to solely benefit large foreign Big Tech AI firms by easing their compliance burden in the Indian market.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect; the existing Copyright Act lacks an explicit TDM exception, and the proposed model is a Mandatory Blanket License system with royalty payments, which is an alternative to a simple TDM exception which typically requires no payment.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Working Paper recommends introducing a Mandatory Blanket License for AI Training to ensure wide dataset access without requiring individual permissions. It also suggests establishing the Copyright Royalties Collective for AI Training (CRCAT) as a central body to collect license fees and distribute statutory royalties to creators.

Statement 4 is incorrect; the model aims to balance creator rights and AI innovation, protect the creative economy, ensure fair revenue-sharing for Indian creators, and support Indian startups with a low-cost, low-friction system.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Match the Following Award/Event with Associated Entity/Subjects: List-I (Award/Event) List-II (Associated Entity/Subject) 1. Q-day Breaking of RSA-2048 encryption by a quantum computer 2. Champions of the Earth Award UNEP’s highest environmental honour 3. Shilp Didi Programme Ministry of Textiles’ women artisan empowerment 4. Nnena Kalu’s Turner Prize Preservation of neurodivergent art and inclusion Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D Explanation: All pairs are correctly matched. Q-day refers to the moment when quantum computers become powerful enough to break modern encryption systems, especially RSA-2048, posing a major cybersecurity threat. Thus, it is linked to the potential quantum decryption of current cryptographic standards. The Champions of the Earth Award is the highest environmental honour of UNEP, recognising outstanding contributions to climate action, environmental protection, and sustainable development by individuals and institutions. The Shilp Didi Programme, implemented by India’s Ministry of Textiles, focuses on empowering women artisans by providing training, design support, market access, and entrepreneurship opportunities within the handicrafts sector. Nnena Kalu, a neurodivergent artist, won the Turner Prize, highlighting the global recognition of neurodivergent art and the importance of inclusion within contemporary art spaces. Her win underscores the need to preserve and promote diverse creative expressions. Thus, all four pairs are correctly matched. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: All pairs are correctly matched. Q-day refers to the moment when quantum computers become powerful enough to break modern encryption systems, especially RSA-2048, posing a major cybersecurity threat. Thus, it is linked to the potential quantum decryption of current cryptographic standards. The Champions of the Earth Award is the highest environmental honour of UNEP, recognising outstanding contributions to climate action, environmental protection, and sustainable development by individuals and institutions. The Shilp Didi Programme, implemented by India’s Ministry of Textiles, focuses on empowering women artisans by providing training, design support, market access, and entrepreneurship opportunities within the handicrafts sector. Nnena Kalu, a neurodivergent artist, won the Turner Prize, highlighting the global recognition of neurodivergent art and the importance of inclusion within contemporary art spaces. Her win underscores the need to preserve and promote diverse creative expressions. Thus, all four pairs are correctly matched.

#### 4. Question

Match the Following Award/Event with Associated Entity/Subjects:

List-I (Award/Event) | List-II (Associated Entity/Subject)

1.Q-day | Breaking of RSA-2048 encryption by a quantum computer
2.Champions of the Earth Award | UNEP’s highest environmental honour
3.Shilp Didi Programme | Ministry of Textiles’ women artisan empowerment
4.Nnena Kalu’s Turner Prize | Preservation of neurodivergent art and inclusion

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

Explanation:

All pairs are correctly matched.

Q-day refers to the moment when quantum computers become powerful enough to break modern encryption systems, especially RSA-2048, posing a major cybersecurity threat. Thus, it is linked to the potential quantum decryption of current cryptographic standards. The Champions of the Earth Award is the highest environmental honour of UNEP, recognising outstanding contributions to climate action, environmental protection, and sustainable development by individuals and institutions. The Shilp Didi Programme, implemented by India’s Ministry of Textiles, focuses on empowering women artisans by providing training, design support, market access, and entrepreneurship opportunities within the handicrafts sector. Nnena Kalu, a neurodivergent artist, won the Turner Prize, highlighting the global recognition of neurodivergent art and the importance of inclusion within contemporary art spaces. Her win underscores the need to preserve and promote diverse creative expressions.

Thus, all four pairs are correctly matched.

Solution: D

Explanation:

All pairs are correctly matched.

Thus, all four pairs are correctly matched.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The ‘fair dealing’ exception under India’s Copyright Act is unlikely to legally cover Generative AI training at an industrial scale. Statement-II: Fair dealing is narrowly defined for purposes like private research, criticism, or reporting, and commercial Large Language Model (LLM) developers cannot invoke it as training is revenue-driven. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement-I is Correct. India’s Copyright Act (Section 52) uses a narrower ‘fair dealing’ doctrine, unlike the broader ‘fair use’ in the US, which strictly limits exceptions to specific, non-commercial purposes. Statement-II: is also Correct. Fair dealing is defined for limited purposes like private research, criticism, or news reporting. Training a Commercial Large Language Model (LLM) involves systematic, mass copying of works to create a core, revenue-driven product. Because this activity is commercial and falls outside the narrow, specified list of allowable uses, LLM developers cannot legally invoke the fair dealing defense. The commercial, industrial nature of the training directly contradicts the public-interest and non-commercial spirit of the exception. Therefore, Statement-II correctly explains why the ‘fair dealing’ exception is generally not applicable to commercial GenAI training, supporting Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement-I is Correct. India’s Copyright Act (Section 52) uses a narrower ‘fair dealing’ doctrine, unlike the broader ‘fair use’ in the US, which strictly limits exceptions to specific, non-commercial purposes. Statement-II: is also Correct. Fair dealing is defined for limited purposes like private research, criticism, or news reporting. Training a Commercial Large Language Model (LLM) involves systematic, mass copying of works to create a core, revenue-driven product. Because this activity is commercial and falls outside the narrow, specified list of allowable uses, LLM developers cannot legally invoke the fair dealing defense. The commercial, industrial nature of the training directly contradicts the public-interest and non-commercial spirit of the exception. Therefore, Statement-II correctly explains why the ‘fair dealing’ exception is generally not applicable to commercial GenAI training, supporting Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The ‘fair dealing’ exception under India’s Copyright Act is unlikely to legally cover Generative AI training at an industrial scale.

Statement-II: Fair dealing is narrowly defined for purposes like private research, criticism, or reporting, and commercial Large Language Model (LLM) developers cannot invoke it as training is revenue-driven.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement-I is Correct. India’s Copyright Act (Section 52) uses a narrower ‘fair dealing’ doctrine, unlike the broader ‘fair use’ in the US, which strictly limits exceptions to specific, non-commercial purposes.

Statement-II: is also Correct. Fair dealing is defined for limited purposes like private research, criticism, or news reporting. Training a Commercial Large Language Model (LLM) involves systematic, mass copying of works to create a core, revenue-driven product. Because this activity is commercial and falls outside the narrow, specified list of allowable uses, LLM developers cannot legally invoke the fair dealing defense. The commercial, industrial nature of the training directly contradicts the public-interest and non-commercial spirit of the exception.

Therefore, Statement-II correctly explains why the ‘fair dealing’ exception is generally not applicable to commercial GenAI training, supporting Statement-I.

Solution: A

Explanation:

Therefore, Statement-II correctly explains why the ‘fair dealing’ exception is generally not applicable to commercial GenAI training, supporting Statement-I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the most accurate classification of the object 3I/ATLAS (C/2025 N1), the focus of the recent global planetary-defence exercise? (a) A Near-Earth Asteroid (NEA) with an unusual, highly-inclined orbit. (b) The third confirmed interstellar object, classified as an active comet. (c) A main-belt asteroid temporarily captured into a hyperbolic orbit due to a Jupiter perturbation. (d) A newly discovered long-period comet originating from the Oort Cloud with an exceptionally long tail. Correct Solution: B Explanation The most accurate classification of the object 3I/ATLAS (C/2025 N1) is that it is the third confirmed interstellar object, classified as an active comet. Key Points About 3I/ATLAS Designation Significance: The prefix “I” in its designation, 3I/ATLAS, stands for Interstellar. This is the key identifier that immediately sets it apart from typical solar system objects. The preceding number “3” indicates it is the third such object confirmed, following 1I/’Oumuamua and 2I/Borisov. The parenthetical designation (C/2025 N1) indicates it was observed as an active comet (C/ means non-periodic comet) and was discovered by the ATLAS survey. Origin and Orbit: Its fundamental classification as an interstellar object means it did not originate within our Solar System. Its trajectory is an unbound, hyperbolic orbit, confirming that it is just passing through and will eventually leave the Sun’s gravitational influence. Hence, option B is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation The most accurate classification of the object 3I/ATLAS (C/2025 N1) is that it is the third confirmed interstellar object, classified as an active comet. Key Points About 3I/ATLAS Designation Significance: The prefix “I” in its designation, 3I/ATLAS, stands for Interstellar. This is the key identifier that immediately sets it apart from typical solar system objects. The preceding number “3” indicates it is the third such object confirmed, following 1I/’Oumuamua and 2I/Borisov. The parenthetical designation (C/2025 N1) indicates it was observed as an active comet (C/ means non-periodic comet) and was discovered by the ATLAS survey. Origin and Orbit: Its fundamental classification as an interstellar object means it did not originate within our Solar System. Its trajectory is an unbound, hyperbolic orbit, confirming that it is just passing through and will eventually leave the Sun’s gravitational influence. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

#### 6. Question

Which one of the following is the most accurate classification of the object 3I/ATLAS (C/2025 N1), the focus of the recent global planetary-defence exercise?

• (a) A Near-Earth Asteroid (NEA) with an unusual, highly-inclined orbit.

• (b) The third confirmed interstellar object, classified as an active comet.

• (c) A main-belt asteroid temporarily captured into a hyperbolic orbit due to a Jupiter perturbation.

• (d) A newly discovered long-period comet originating from the Oort Cloud with an exceptionally long tail.

Solution: B

Explanation

The most accurate classification of the object 3I/ATLAS (C/2025 N1) is that it is the third confirmed interstellar object, classified as an active comet.

Key Points About 3I/ATLAS

• Designation Significance: The prefix “I” in its designation, 3I/ATLAS, stands for Interstellar. This is the key identifier that immediately sets it apart from typical solar system objects. The preceding number “3” indicates it is the third such object confirmed, following 1I/’Oumuamua and 2I/Borisov. The parenthetical designation (C/2025 N1) indicates it was observed as an active comet (C/ means non-periodic comet) and was discovered by the ATLAS survey.

• The prefix “I” in its designation, 3I/ATLAS, stands for Interstellar. This is the key identifier that immediately sets it apart from typical solar system objects.

• The preceding number “3” indicates it is the third such object confirmed, following 1I/’Oumuamua and 2I/Borisov.

• The parenthetical designation (C/2025 N1) indicates it was observed as an active comet (C/ means non-periodic comet) and was discovered by the ATLAS survey.

• Origin and Orbit: Its fundamental classification as an interstellar object means it did not originate within our Solar System. Its trajectory is an unbound, hyperbolic orbit, confirming that it is just passing through and will eventually leave the Sun’s gravitational influence.

• Its fundamental classification as an interstellar object means it did not originate within our Solar System. Its trajectory is an unbound, hyperbolic orbit, confirming that it is just passing through and will eventually leave the Sun’s gravitational influence.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Solution: B

Explanation

The most accurate classification of the object 3I/ATLAS (C/2025 N1) is that it is the third confirmed interstellar object, classified as an active comet.

Key Points About 3I/ATLAS

• The prefix “I” in its designation, 3I/ATLAS, stands for Interstellar. This is the key identifier that immediately sets it apart from typical solar system objects.

• The preceding number “3” indicates it is the third such object confirmed, following 1I/’Oumuamua and 2I/Borisov.

• The parenthetical designation (C/2025 N1) indicates it was observed as an active comet (C/ means non-periodic comet) and was discovered by the ATLAS survey.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Gram Sabha under the Indian Constitution: The functions of the Gram Sabha are clearly defined in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. The decisions taken by the Gram Sabha are mandatory and cannot be overturned by the Gram Panchayat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Explanation: Both statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 functional matters for the Gram Panchayat (the elected body), such as agriculture, minor irrigation, and poverty alleviation. The powers and functions of the Gram Sabha (the body comprising all registered voters in the Panchayat area) are not defined by the Constitution itself but are left to be defined by the State Legislatures. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gram Sabha, while being the foundation of democratic decentralization and a body of direct democracy, usually functions in an advisory and oversight capacity (e.g., approving the budget, identifying beneficiaries). The State laws often give the Gram Panchayat the final power to execute and even modify the resolutions, although transparency mandates are in place to prevent arbitrary changes. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: Both statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 functional matters for the Gram Panchayat (the elected body), such as agriculture, minor irrigation, and poverty alleviation. The powers and functions of the Gram Sabha (the body comprising all registered voters in the Panchayat area) are not defined by the Constitution itself but are left to be defined by the State Legislatures. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gram Sabha, while being the foundation of democratic decentralization and a body of direct democracy, usually functions in an advisory and oversight capacity (e.g., approving the budget, identifying beneficiaries). The State laws often give the Gram Panchayat the final power to execute and even modify the resolutions, although transparency mandates are in place to prevent arbitrary changes.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Gram Sabha under the Indian Constitution:

• The functions of the Gram Sabha are clearly defined in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.

• The decisions taken by the Gram Sabha are mandatory and cannot be overturned by the Gram Panchayat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Explanation: Both statements are incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 functional matters for the Gram Panchayat (the elected body), such as agriculture, minor irrigation, and poverty alleviation. The powers and functions of the Gram Sabha (the body comprising all registered voters in the Panchayat area) are not defined by the Constitution itself but are left to be defined by the State Legislatures.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gram Sabha, while being the foundation of democratic decentralization and a body of direct democracy, usually functions in an advisory and oversight capacity (e.g., approving the budget, identifying beneficiaries). The State laws often give the Gram Panchayat the final power to execute and even modify the resolutions, although transparency mandates are in place to prevent arbitrary changes.

Solution: D

Explanation: Both statements are incorrect.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the practice of Santhara (Sallekhana) in Jainism: The practice requires the individual to have attained a certain level of spiritual maturity and is ideally undertaken under religious guidance. The Supreme Court of India, in its final judgment, has declared Santhara unconstitutional, equating it with culpable homicide. Key aspects of undertaking Santhara include seeking forgiveness, cultivating detachment, and engaging in spiritual reflection. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Santhara is not a whimsical act but a profound religious vow taken by individuals who have achieved spiritual maturity and usually under religious supervision. This ensures the vow is undertaken with the correct understanding and intent. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Rajasthan High Court did declare Santhara illegal in 2015, equating it with suicide, the Supreme Court subsequently stayed this order in August 2015. Currently, Santhara is legally protected as a religious practice under Article 25 of the Constitution (right to religious freedom), provided it is consensual and guided. Statement 3 is correct. The process of Santhara is deeply intertwined with spiritual practices such as seeking forgiveness for past karmas, cultivating detachment from worldly affairs, and intense spiritual reflection, all aimed at purifying the soul. About Santhara (Sallekhana): Definition: Santhara or Sallekhana is a Jain religious vow of voluntary fasting unto death, undertaken to purify the soul and attain moksha. Religious Association: Practiced in Jainism by both monks and laypersons under extreme conditions like terminal illness, old age, or famine. Features: Involves gradual withdrawal from food and water. Taken only with spiritual maturity and under religious supervision. Involves forgiveness, detachment, and spiritual reflection. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Santhara is not a whimsical act but a profound religious vow taken by individuals who have achieved spiritual maturity and usually under religious supervision. This ensures the vow is undertaken with the correct understanding and intent. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Rajasthan High Court did declare Santhara illegal in 2015, equating it with suicide, the Supreme Court subsequently stayed this order in August 2015. Currently, Santhara is legally protected as a religious practice under Article 25 of the Constitution (right to religious freedom), provided it is consensual and guided. Statement 3 is correct. The process of Santhara is deeply intertwined with spiritual practices such as seeking forgiveness for past karmas, cultivating detachment from worldly affairs, and intense spiritual reflection, all aimed at purifying the soul. About Santhara (Sallekhana): Definition: Santhara or Sallekhana is a Jain religious vow of voluntary fasting unto death, undertaken to purify the soul and attain moksha. Religious Association: Practiced in Jainism by both monks and laypersons under extreme conditions like terminal illness, old age, or famine. Features: Involves gradual withdrawal from food and water. Taken only with spiritual maturity and under religious supervision. Involves forgiveness, detachment, and spiritual reflection.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the practice of Santhara (Sallekhana) in Jainism:

• The practice requires the individual to have attained a certain level of spiritual maturity and is ideally undertaken under religious guidance.

• The Supreme Court of India, in its final judgment, has declared Santhara unconstitutional, equating it with culpable homicide.

• Key aspects of undertaking Santhara include seeking forgiveness, cultivating detachment, and engaging in spiritual reflection.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. Santhara is not a whimsical act but a profound religious vow taken by individuals who have achieved spiritual maturity and usually under religious supervision. This ensures the vow is undertaken with the correct understanding and intent.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Rajasthan High Court did declare Santhara illegal in 2015, equating it with suicide, the Supreme Court subsequently stayed this order in August 2015. Currently, Santhara is legally protected as a religious practice under Article 25 of the Constitution (right to religious freedom), provided it is consensual and guided.

• Statement 3 is correct. The process of Santhara is deeply intertwined with spiritual practices such as seeking forgiveness for past karmas, cultivating detachment from worldly affairs, and intense spiritual reflection, all aimed at purifying the soul.

About Santhara (Sallekhana):

• Definition: Santhara or Sallekhana is a Jain religious vow of voluntary fasting unto death, undertaken to purify the soul and attain moksha.

• Religious Association: Practiced in Jainism by both monks and laypersons under extreme conditions like terminal illness, old age, or famine.

• Features: Involves gradual withdrawal from food and water. Taken only with spiritual maturity and under religious supervision. Involves forgiveness, detachment, and spiritual reflection.

• Involves gradual withdrawal from food and water.

• Taken only with spiritual maturity and under religious supervision.

• Involves forgiveness, detachment, and spiritual reflection.

Solution: B

Explanation:

About Santhara (Sallekhana):

• Definition: Santhara or Sallekhana is a Jain religious vow of voluntary fasting unto death, undertaken to purify the soul and attain moksha.

• Religious Association: Practiced in Jainism by both monks and laypersons under extreme conditions like terminal illness, old age, or famine.

• Features: Involves gradual withdrawal from food and water. Taken only with spiritual maturity and under religious supervision. Involves forgiveness, detachment, and spiritual reflection.

• Involves gradual withdrawal from food and water.

• Taken only with spiritual maturity and under religious supervision.

• Involves forgiveness, detachment, and spiritual reflection.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the cultural heritage conservation efforts in India, consider the following statements: India ratified the UNESCO Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) in 2005. The inscription of an element like Deepavali on the ICH list automatically provides it with financial protection funds directly from the UNESCO headquarters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. India is a State Party to the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage, 2003, having ratified it in 2005. This convention provides the framework for identifying and safeguarding traditional practices, expressions, knowledge, and skills—like festivals, performing arts, and craftsmanship. Statement 2 is incorrect. The inscription of an element (like Deepavali) on the ICH list is primarily an act of recognition and international visibility. While UNESCO may offer assistance or access to specific global funds for safeguarding efforts, it does not automatically provide direct financial protection funds for the element from UNESCO headquarters. The primary responsibility for financing and safeguarding rests with the State Party (India) and the practicing communities. About Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH): ICH refers to living traditions, expressions, rituals, performing arts, craftsmanship and knowledge systems that communities recognise as part of their cultural identity. Origin: UNESCO adopted the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (2003), which came into force in 2006; India ratified it in 2005. Aim: To safeguard living heritage, support practitioners, promote cultural diversity, transmission, community participation and intercultural dialogue. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. India is a State Party to the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage, 2003, having ratified it in 2005. This convention provides the framework for identifying and safeguarding traditional practices, expressions, knowledge, and skills—like festivals, performing arts, and craftsmanship. Statement 2 is incorrect. The inscription of an element (like Deepavali) on the ICH list is primarily an act of recognition and international visibility. While UNESCO may offer assistance or access to specific global funds for safeguarding efforts, it does not automatically provide direct financial protection funds for the element from UNESCO headquarters. The primary responsibility for financing and safeguarding rests with the State Party (India) and the practicing communities. About Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH): ICH refers to living traditions, expressions, rituals, performing arts, craftsmanship and knowledge systems that communities recognise as part of their cultural identity. Origin: UNESCO adopted the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (2003), which came into force in 2006; India ratified it in 2005. Aim: To safeguard living heritage, support practitioners, promote cultural diversity, transmission, community participation and intercultural dialogue.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the cultural heritage conservation efforts in India, consider the following statements:

• India ratified the UNESCO Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) in 2005.

• The inscription of an element like Deepavali on the ICH list automatically provides it with financial protection funds directly from the UNESCO headquarters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. India is a State Party to the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage, 2003, having ratified it in 2005. This convention provides the framework for identifying and safeguarding traditional practices, expressions, knowledge, and skills—like festivals, performing arts, and craftsmanship.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The inscription of an element (like Deepavali) on the ICH list is primarily an act of recognition and international visibility. While UNESCO may offer assistance or access to specific global funds for safeguarding efforts, it does not automatically provide direct financial protection funds for the element from UNESCO headquarters. The primary responsibility for financing and safeguarding rests with the State Party (India) and the practicing communities.

About Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH):

ICH refers to living traditions, expressions, rituals, performing arts, craftsmanship and knowledge systems that communities recognise as part of their cultural identity.

Origin: UNESCO adopted the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (2003), which came into force in 2006; India ratified it in 2005.

Aim: To safeguard living heritage, support practitioners, promote cultural diversity, transmission, community participation and intercultural dialogue.

Solution: A

Explanation:

About Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH):

ICH refers to living traditions, expressions, rituals, performing arts, craftsmanship and knowledge systems that communities recognise as part of their cultural identity.

Origin: UNESCO adopted the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (2003), which came into force in 2006; India ratified it in 2005.

Aim: To safeguard living heritage, support practitioners, promote cultural diversity, transmission, community participation and intercultural dialogue.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the Sea of Japan (East Sea), consider the following statements: It is a major marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean, bounded by Japan to the west and the Korean Peninsula to the east. It is connected to the Pacific Ocean via several narrow straits, including the Korea Strait and the La Perouse Strait. The core flashpoint between Japan and Russia involves the Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands located within the Sea of Japan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: B Explanation: About Sea of Japan: The Sea of Japan is a major marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean, characterised by a deep, semi-enclosed basin with restricted water exchange through narrow straits. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea of Japan (East Sea) is a major marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean. However, it is bounded by the Korean Peninsula and Russia to the west and the Japanese archipelago (Hokkaido, Honshu, and Kyushu) to the east. The statement reverses the positions of Japan and the Korean Peninsula. Statement 2 is correct. It is a semi-enclosed basin with restricted water exchange through several narrow straits, including the Korea Strait (via Tsushima Strait) and La Perouse Strait. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands are a core flashpoint between Japan, China, and Taiwan, and they are located in the East China Sea, not the Sea of Japan. The core territorial dispute between Japan and Russia involves the Kuril Islands (or Northern Territories to Japan), which are located north of Japan, near the Sea of Okhotsk and the Pacific Ocean. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: About Sea of Japan: The Sea of Japan is a major marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean, characterised by a deep, semi-enclosed basin with restricted water exchange through narrow straits. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea of Japan (East Sea) is a major marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean. However, it is bounded by the Korean Peninsula and Russia to the west and the Japanese archipelago (Hokkaido, Honshu, and Kyushu) to the east. The statement reverses the positions of Japan and the Korean Peninsula. Statement 2 is correct. It is a semi-enclosed basin with restricted water exchange through several narrow straits, including the Korea Strait (via Tsushima Strait) and La Perouse Strait. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands are a core flashpoint between Japan, China, and Taiwan, and they are located in the East China Sea, not the Sea of Japan. The core territorial dispute between Japan and Russia involves the Kuril Islands (or Northern Territories to Japan), which are located north of Japan, near the Sea of Okhotsk and the Pacific Ocean.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the Sea of Japan (East Sea), consider the following statements:

• It is a major marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean, bounded by Japan to the west and the Korean Peninsula to the east.

• It is connected to the Pacific Ocean via several narrow straits, including the Korea Strait and the La Perouse Strait.

• The core flashpoint between Japan and Russia involves the Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands located within the Sea of Japan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: B

Explanation:

About Sea of Japan:

The Sea of Japan is a major marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean, characterised by a deep, semi-enclosed basin with restricted water exchange through narrow straits.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea of Japan (East Sea) is a major marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean. However, it is bounded by the Korean Peninsula and Russia to the west and the Japanese archipelago (Hokkaido, Honshu, and Kyushu) to the east. The statement reverses the positions of Japan and the Korean Peninsula.

Statement 2 is correct. It is a semi-enclosed basin with restricted water exchange through several narrow straits, including the Korea Strait (via Tsushima Strait) and La Perouse Strait.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands are a core flashpoint between Japan, China, and Taiwan, and they are located in the East China Sea, not the Sea of Japan. The core territorial dispute between Japan and Russia involves the Kuril Islands (or Northern Territories to Japan), which are located north of Japan, near the Sea of Okhotsk and the Pacific Ocean.

Solution: B

Explanation:

About Sea of Japan:

The Sea of Japan is a major marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean, characterised by a deep, semi-enclosed basin with restricted water exchange through narrow straits.

Statement 2 is correct. It is a semi-enclosed basin with restricted water exchange through several narrow straits, including the Korea Strait (via Tsushima Strait) and La Perouse Strait.

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