UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 12 April 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the economic effects of a bear market: Declining household wealth during a bear market reduces consumer demand. Central banks usually respond by increasing benchmark interest rates. Companies may resort to layoffs and hiring freezes. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2, and 3 c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: d) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Bear markets trigger wealth erosion, which reduces consumer confidence and spending, thereby depressing aggregate demand. In parallel, businesses face uncertain revenue streams and thus implement cost-cutting via hiring freezes or job cuts (statement 3). However, statement 2 is incorrect — during bear markets, central banks usually reduce interest rates or introduce quantitative easing to improve liquidity and boost growth. Raising rates would further depress investment and worsen financial conditions. Incorrect Solution: d) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Bear markets trigger wealth erosion, which reduces consumer confidence and spending, thereby depressing aggregate demand. In parallel, businesses face uncertain revenue streams and thus implement cost-cutting via hiring freezes or job cuts (statement 3). However, statement 2 is incorrect — during bear markets, central banks usually reduce interest rates or introduce quantitative easing to improve liquidity and boost growth. Raising rates would further depress investment and worsen financial conditions.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the economic effects of a bear market:

• Declining household wealth during a bear market reduces consumer demand.

• Central banks usually respond by increasing benchmark interest rates.

• Companies may resort to layoffs and hiring freezes.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1, 2, and 3

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• Bear markets trigger wealth erosion, which reduces consumer confidence and spending, thereby depressing aggregate demand. In parallel, businesses face uncertain revenue streams and thus implement cost-cutting via hiring freezes or job cuts (statement 3).

• However, statement 2 is incorrect — during bear markets, central banks usually reduce interest rates or introduce quantitative easing to improve liquidity and boost growth. Raising rates would further depress investment and worsen financial conditions.

Solution: d)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following are correct regarding the structure and objectives of Regional Rural Banks? RRBs are governed by the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976. They are prohibited from engaging in core banking operations like commercial banks. They must comply with priority sector lending norms like other scheduled banks. Their area of operation is typically confined to notified districts in a state. Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: b) Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct: Statement 1: True. RRBs were legally constituted under the RRB Act, 1976. Statement 3: True. RRBs are scheduled banks, hence subject to priority sector lending (PSL) obligations, similar to commercial banks. Statement 4: True. RRBs are geographically restricted, often operating in a few designated districts, to maintain local focus. Statement 2: False. RRBs perform core banking services, including deposits, remittances, and loans, akin to commercial banks, though with a rural focus. Incorrect Solution: b) Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct: Statement 1: True. RRBs were legally constituted under the RRB Act, 1976. Statement 3: True. RRBs are scheduled banks, hence subject to priority sector lending (PSL) obligations, similar to commercial banks. Statement 4: True. RRBs are geographically restricted, often operating in a few designated districts, to maintain local focus. Statement 2: False. RRBs perform core banking services, including deposits, remittances, and loans, akin to commercial banks, though with a rural focus.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following are correct regarding the structure and objectives of Regional Rural Banks?

• RRBs are governed by the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.

• They are prohibited from engaging in core banking operations like commercial banks.

• They must comply with priority sector lending norms like other scheduled banks.

• Their area of operation is typically confined to notified districts in a state.

Select the correct answer code:

• a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• b) 1, 3 and 4 only

• c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: b)

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct:

• Statement 1: True. RRBs were legally constituted under the RRB Act, 1976.

• Statement 3: True. RRBs are scheduled banks, hence subject to priority sector lending (PSL) obligations, similar to commercial banks.

• Statement 4: True. RRBs are geographically restricted, often operating in a few designated districts, to maintain local focus.

• Statement 2: False. RRBs perform core banking services, including deposits, remittances, and loans, akin to commercial banks, though with a rural focus.

Solution: b)

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct:

• Statement 1: True. RRBs were legally constituted under the RRB Act, 1976.

• Statement 3: True. RRBs are scheduled banks, hence subject to priority sector lending (PSL) obligations, similar to commercial banks.

• Statement 4: True. RRBs are geographically restricted, often operating in a few designated districts, to maintain local focus.

• Statement 2: False. RRBs perform core banking services, including deposits, remittances, and loans, akin to commercial banks, though with a rural focus.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding mirror physics: Mirrors reflect sound and are used in acoustic applications. Rear-view mirrors in vehicles use plain glass to avoid image distortion. A virtual image formed by a plane mirror appears to be located behind the mirror. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: c) Only Statement 3 is correct. A virtual image in a plane mirror always appears to be behind the mirror, at the same distance as the object in front. Statement 1 is incorrect—mirrors reflect light, not sound. Acoustic reflection occurs with walls and hard surfaces, not typical mirrors. Statement 2 is incorrect—rear-view mirrors use convex mirrors, not plain glass, to provide a wider field of view. Plain glass would distort or block clear visibility due to internal refraction and lack of curvature. Incorrect Solution: c) Only Statement 3 is correct. A virtual image in a plane mirror always appears to be behind the mirror, at the same distance as the object in front. Statement 1 is incorrect—mirrors reflect light, not sound. Acoustic reflection occurs with walls and hard surfaces, not typical mirrors. Statement 2 is incorrect—rear-view mirrors use convex mirrors, not plain glass, to provide a wider field of view. Plain glass would distort or block clear visibility due to internal refraction and lack of curvature.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding mirror physics:

• Mirrors reflect sound and are used in acoustic applications.

• Rear-view mirrors in vehicles use plain glass to avoid image distortion.

• A virtual image formed by a plane mirror appears to be located behind the mirror.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: c)

• Only Statement 3 is correct. A virtual image in a plane mirror always appears to be behind the mirror, at the same distance as the object in front.

• Statement 1 is incorrect—mirrors reflect light, not sound. Acoustic reflection occurs with walls and hard surfaces, not typical mirrors.

• Statement 2 is incorrect—rear-view mirrors use convex mirrors, not plain glass, to provide a wider field of view. Plain glass would distort or block clear visibility due to internal refraction and lack of curvature.

Solution: c)

• Only Statement 3 is correct. A virtual image in a plane mirror always appears to be behind the mirror, at the same distance as the object in front.

• Statement 1 is incorrect—mirrors reflect light, not sound. Acoustic reflection occurs with walls and hard surfaces, not typical mirrors.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Match the Buddhist contribution with its area of impact: Contribution Area of Impact A. Sangha institution 1. Social egalitarianism B. Jataka literature 2. Moral pedagogy & folklore C. Chaitya-Vihara system 3. Religious and educational architecture Select the correct answer code: a) A-1, B-2, C-3 b) A-2, B-3, C-1 c) A-3, B-1, C-2 d) A-1, B-3, C-2 Correct Solution: a) Sangha provided a framework for egalitarian community living, open to all castes. Jataka tales, recounting the Buddha’s past lives, became central to storytelling and ethical education. Chaityas (prayer halls) and Viharas (monastic residences) laid the architectural foundation for Indian Buddhist and later Hindu temple design Incorrect Solution: a) Sangha provided a framework for egalitarian community living, open to all castes. Jataka tales, recounting the Buddha’s past lives, became central to storytelling and ethical education. Chaityas (prayer halls) and Viharas (monastic residences) laid the architectural foundation for Indian Buddhist and later Hindu temple design

#### 4. Question

Match the Buddhist contribution with its area of impact:

Contribution | Area of Impact

A. Sangha institution | 1. Social egalitarianism

B. Jataka literature | 2. Moral pedagogy & folklore

C. Chaitya-Vihara system | 3. Religious and educational architecture

Select the correct answer code:

• a) A-1, B-2, C-3

• b) A-2, B-3, C-1

• c) A-3, B-1, C-2

• d) A-1, B-3, C-2

Solution: a)

• Sangha provided a framework for egalitarian community living, open to all castes.

• Jataka tales, recounting the Buddha’s past lives, became central to storytelling and ethical education.

• Chaityas (prayer halls) and Viharas (monastic residences) laid the architectural foundation for Indian Buddhist and later Hindu temple design

Solution: a)

• Sangha provided a framework for egalitarian community living, open to all castes.

• Jataka tales, recounting the Buddha’s past lives, became central to storytelling and ethical education.

• Chaityas (prayer halls) and Viharas (monastic residences) laid the architectural foundation for Indian Buddhist and later Hindu temple design

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements are true about environmentalism in India? The Chipko movement focused on pollution control in urban areas. Environmentalism links ecological protection with economic justice. Forest Rights Act, 2006 empowers forest-dwelling communities to sustainably manage forests. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy played no role in shaping environmental policy in India. Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chipko movement was a grassroots forest conservation movement in rural Uttarakhand, not aimed at urban pollution. It was rooted in community-led ecological defense against commercial logging. Statement 2 is correct. Environmentalism emphasizes that economic justice—particularly for the poor and indigenous—is integral to ecological protection. Resource access, equitable distribution, and livelihood are central to the environmental narrative. Statement 3 is correct. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognizes the historical rights of tribal and forest-dependent communities to manage and conserve forests sustainably. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Bhopal Gas Disaster (1984) was a critical turning point in India’s environmental jurisprudence, leading to the EPA 1986, judicial activism, and increased awareness around industrial safety and pollution. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chipko movement was a grassroots forest conservation movement in rural Uttarakhand, not aimed at urban pollution. It was rooted in community-led ecological defense against commercial logging. Statement 2 is correct. Environmentalism emphasizes that economic justice—particularly for the poor and indigenous—is integral to ecological protection. Resource access, equitable distribution, and livelihood are central to the environmental narrative. Statement 3 is correct. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognizes the historical rights of tribal and forest-dependent communities to manage and conserve forests sustainably. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Bhopal Gas Disaster (1984) was a critical turning point in India’s environmental jurisprudence, leading to the EPA 1986, judicial activism, and increased awareness around industrial safety and pollution.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements are true about environmentalism in India?

• The Chipko movement focused on pollution control in urban areas.

• Environmentalism links ecological protection with economic justice.

• Forest Rights Act, 2006 empowers forest-dwelling communities to sustainably manage forests.

• The Bhopal Gas Tragedy played no role in shaping environmental policy in India.

Select the correct answer code:

• a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 4 only

• d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chipko movement was a grassroots forest conservation movement in rural Uttarakhand, not aimed at urban pollution. It was rooted in community-led ecological defense against commercial logging.

• Statement 2 is correct. Environmentalism emphasizes that economic justice—particularly for the poor and indigenous—is integral to ecological protection. Resource access, equitable distribution, and livelihood are central to the environmental narrative.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognizes the historical rights of tribal and forest-dependent communities to manage and conserve forests sustainably.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Bhopal Gas Disaster (1984) was a critical turning point in India’s environmental jurisprudence, leading to the EPA 1986, judicial activism, and increased awareness around industrial safety and pollution.

Solution: b)

• Statement 3 is correct. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognizes the historical rights of tribal and forest-dependent communities to manage and conserve forests sustainably.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India Skills Accelerator: It mandates corporate CSR funds to be routed through a centralized skilling platform. It promotes skilling that is responsive to emerging sectors like robotics and AI. It replaces the Skill India Mission’s umbrella framework for all skilling initiatives. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: b) Only Statement 2 is correct. The India Skills Accelerator prioritizes emerging technology sectors, aligning its curriculum and policy with AI, robotics, energy, and global capability centers (GCCs). Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no mandate to centralize CSR under the Accelerator. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Accelerator does not replace the Skill India Mission, but complements it by filling policy and collaboration gaps. Incorrect Solution: b) Only Statement 2 is correct. The India Skills Accelerator prioritizes emerging technology sectors, aligning its curriculum and policy with AI, robotics, energy, and global capability centers (GCCs). Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no mandate to centralize CSR under the Accelerator. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Accelerator does not replace the Skill India Mission, but complements it by filling policy and collaboration gaps.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India Skills Accelerator:

• It mandates corporate CSR funds to be routed through a centralized skilling platform.

• It promotes skilling that is responsive to emerging sectors like robotics and AI.

• It replaces the Skill India Mission’s umbrella framework for all skilling initiatives.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: b)

Only Statement 2 is correct.

The India Skills Accelerator prioritizes emerging technology sectors, aligning its curriculum and policy with AI, robotics, energy, and global capability centers (GCCs).

• Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no mandate to centralize CSR under the Accelerator.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Accelerator does not replace the Skill India Mission, but complements it by filling policy and collaboration gaps.

Solution: b)

Only Statement 2 is correct.

The India Skills Accelerator prioritizes emerging technology sectors, aligning its curriculum and policy with AI, robotics, energy, and global capability centers (GCCs).

• Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no mandate to centralize CSR under the Accelerator.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Accelerator does not replace the Skill India Mission, but complements it by filling policy and collaboration gaps.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Match the constitutional articles with their relevance to the Governor’s assent case: | A. Article 200 | 1. Options available to the Governor on a Bill | B. Article 163 | 2. Requirement to act on Ministerial advice | C. Article 142 | 3. Supreme Court’s power to do complete justice | D. Article 201 | 4. Provision for President’s assent on reserved Bills Select the correct answer code: a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 Correct Solution: a) Each article’s role: Article 200: Allows the Governor to assent, withhold, return (once), or reserve a Bill. Article 163: Establishes that the Governor must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers except in matters with discretion. Article 142: Empowers the Supreme Court to do complete justice, invoked here to ensure executive compliance. Article 201: Addresses what happens when the President’s assent is sought, post-reservation. Incorrect Solution: a) Each article’s role: Article 200: Allows the Governor to assent, withhold, return (once), or reserve a Bill. Article 163: Establishes that the Governor must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers except in matters with discretion. Article 142: Empowers the Supreme Court to do complete justice, invoked here to ensure executive compliance. Article 201: Addresses what happens when the President’s assent is sought, post-reservation.

#### 7. Question

Match the constitutional articles with their relevance to the Governor’s assent case:

Select the correct answer code:

• a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

• b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

• c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

• d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Solution: a)

Each article’s role:

• Article 200: Allows the Governor to assent, withhold, return (once), or reserve a Bill.

• Article 163: Establishes that the Governor must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers except in matters with discretion.

• Article 142: Empowers the Supreme Court to do complete justice, invoked here to ensure executive compliance.

• Article 201: Addresses what happens when the President’s assent is sought, post-reservation.

Solution: a)

Each article’s role:

• Article 200: Allows the Governor to assent, withhold, return (once), or reserve a Bill.

• Article 163: Establishes that the Governor must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers except in matters with discretion.

• Article 142: Empowers the Supreme Court to do complete justice, invoked here to ensure executive compliance.

• Article 201: Addresses what happens when the President’s assent is sought, post-reservation.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The primary objective behind the One State, One RRB Policy is to: a) Privatize all Regional Rural Banks to attract foreign investment b) Create competition among multiple sponsor banks within each state c) Consolidate Regional Rural Banks to enhance efficiency and eliminate redundancy d) Merge RRBs with public sector commercial banks for urban expansion Correct Solution: c) The One State, One RRB Policy, driven by the Department of Financial Services, aims to consolidate multiple RRBs within a state into a single entity, as recommended by the Vyas Committee (2005). This policy seeks to enhance operational efficiency, reduce duplication of efforts, and eliminate intra-state competition between RRBs sponsored by different banks. By consolidating RRBs, the policy promotes better resource utilization, unified governance under one sponsor bank, standardized technology platforms, and improved financial inclusion in rural areas. It does not advocate privatization or merging RRBs with PSBs for urban markets. Incorrect Solution: c) The One State, One RRB Policy, driven by the Department of Financial Services, aims to consolidate multiple RRBs within a state into a single entity, as recommended by the Vyas Committee (2005). This policy seeks to enhance operational efficiency, reduce duplication of efforts, and eliminate intra-state competition between RRBs sponsored by different banks. By consolidating RRBs, the policy promotes better resource utilization, unified governance under one sponsor bank, standardized technology platforms, and improved financial inclusion in rural areas. It does not advocate privatization or merging RRBs with PSBs for urban markets.

#### 8. Question

The primary objective behind the One State, One RRB Policy is to:

• a) Privatize all Regional Rural Banks to attract foreign investment

• b) Create competition among multiple sponsor banks within each state

• c) Consolidate Regional Rural Banks to enhance efficiency and eliminate redundancy

• d) Merge RRBs with public sector commercial banks for urban expansion

Solution: c)

• The One State, One RRB Policy, driven by the Department of Financial Services, aims to consolidate multiple RRBs within a state into a single entity, as recommended by the Vyas Committee (2005). This policy seeks to enhance operational efficiency, reduce duplication of efforts, and eliminate intra-state competition between RRBs sponsored by different banks.

• By consolidating RRBs, the policy promotes better resource utilization, unified governance under one sponsor bank, standardized technology platforms, and improved financial inclusion in rural areas. It does not advocate privatization or merging RRBs with PSBs for urban markets.

Solution: c)

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains why power line infrastructure poses a disproportionately high threat to the Great Indian Bustard? a) GIBs migrate at night, increasing collision risk with low-visibility pylons b) GIBs have frontal vision, limiting their ability to detect fast-moving threats c) GIBs lack frontal vision, making them vulnerable to collision with overhead lines d) Power lines disrupt GIB nesting behavior through electromagnetic interference Correct Solution: c) The Great Indian Bustard has limited frontal vision—its eyes are positioned laterally to scan for predators while foraging on the ground. This adaptation, while suited for open grassland habitats, leaves the bird incapable of detecting power lines directly in its flight path. As the species is large, heavy-bodied, and low-flying, this results in a high collision mortality rate, especially with transmission lines. This is why both the Supreme Court and conservation bodies have emphasized undergrounding power lines in priority GIB habitats like the Thar Desert. Therefore, (c) is correct. Incorrect Solution: c) The Great Indian Bustard has limited frontal vision—its eyes are positioned laterally to scan for predators while foraging on the ground. This adaptation, while suited for open grassland habitats, leaves the bird incapable of detecting power lines directly in its flight path. As the species is large, heavy-bodied, and low-flying, this results in a high collision mortality rate, especially with transmission lines. This is why both the Supreme Court and conservation bodies have emphasized undergrounding power lines in priority GIB habitats like the Thar Desert. Therefore, (c) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following best explains why power line infrastructure poses a disproportionately high threat to the Great Indian Bustard?

• a) GIBs migrate at night, increasing collision risk with low-visibility pylons

• b) GIBs have frontal vision, limiting their ability to detect fast-moving threats

• c) GIBs lack frontal vision, making them vulnerable to collision with overhead lines

• d) Power lines disrupt GIB nesting behavior through electromagnetic interference

Solution: c)

The Great Indian Bustard has limited frontal vision—its eyes are positioned laterally to scan for predators while foraging on the ground. This adaptation, while suited for open grassland habitats, leaves the bird incapable of detecting power lines directly in its flight path. As the species is large, heavy-bodied, and low-flying, this results in a high collision mortality rate, especially with transmission lines. This is why both the Supreme Court and conservation bodies have emphasized undergrounding power lines in priority GIB habitats like the Thar Desert. Therefore, (c) is correct.

Solution: c)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Tropical cyclones form in regions with strong vertical wind shear. Tornadoes require calm and stable atmospheric conditions. Tropical cyclones form in areas with high horizontal temperature gradients. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) None of the above Correct Solution: d) All three statements are incorrect. Tropical cyclones require low vertical wind shear; high shear disorganizes their convection. Tornadoes are products of unstable, convective environments, not calm conditions. Cyclones form in tropics, where horizontal temperature gradients are minimal. Their energy is derived from latent heat and sea surface temperatures, not temperature contrasts. Incorrect Solution: d) All three statements are incorrect. Tropical cyclones require low vertical wind shear; high shear disorganizes their convection. Tornadoes are products of unstable, convective environments, not calm conditions. Cyclones form in tropics, where horizontal temperature gradients are minimal. Their energy is derived from latent heat and sea surface temperatures, not temperature contrasts.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Tropical cyclones form in regions with strong vertical wind shear.

• Tornadoes require calm and stable atmospheric conditions.

• Tropical cyclones form in areas with high horizontal temperature gradients.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• d) None of the above

Solution: d)

All three statements are incorrect.

• Tropical cyclones require low vertical wind shear; high shear disorganizes their convection.

• Tornadoes are products of unstable, convective environments, not calm conditions.

• Cyclones form in tropics, where horizontal temperature gradients are minimal. Their energy is derived from latent heat and sea surface temperatures, not temperature contrasts.

Solution: d)

All three statements are incorrect.

• Tropical cyclones require low vertical wind shear; high shear disorganizes their convection.

• Tornadoes are products of unstable, convective environments, not calm conditions.

• Cyclones form in tropics, where horizontal temperature gradients are minimal. Their energy is derived from latent heat and sea surface temperatures, not temperature contrasts.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE