UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 12 April 2024

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The liquor prohibition is enforced by state governments under the directive principles of state policy (DPSP) established by the Constitution of India. The guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor are established by the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: High taxes and excessive licensing in the liquor industry contribute to corruption and financial burdens on consumers. Indian Constitution views alcohol as an undesirable evil to be regulated. The Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 47) encourage the prohibition of alcohol consumption, except for medicinal purposes, aiming to protect citizens’ health. While not legally enforceable, these principles guide state action. Additionally, alcohol regulation falls under the authority of state legislatures according to the Seventh Schedule, allowing for varying laws across states, from prohibition to private sale. Distribution of Power on Liquor Control in India: Central Government: Sets guidelines for import duties on foreign liquor. Formulates national-level policies regarding alcohol advertising and marketing. State Governments: Liquor falls under the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule Impose state-specific excise duties and taxes on liquor sales. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/liquor-policy-issues-in-the-liquor-industry/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: High taxes and excessive licensing in the liquor industry contribute to corruption and financial burdens on consumers. Indian Constitution views alcohol as an undesirable evil to be regulated. The Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 47) encourage the prohibition of alcohol consumption, except for medicinal purposes, aiming to protect citizens’ health. While not legally enforceable, these principles guide state action. Additionally, alcohol regulation falls under the authority of state legislatures according to the Seventh Schedule, allowing for varying laws across states, from prohibition to private sale. Distribution of Power on Liquor Control in India: Central Government: Sets guidelines for import duties on foreign liquor. Formulates national-level policies regarding alcohol advertising and marketing. State Governments: Liquor falls under the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule Impose state-specific excise duties and taxes on liquor sales. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/liquor-policy-issues-in-the-liquor-industry/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The liquor prohibition is enforced by state governments under the directive principles of state policy (DPSP) established by the Constitution of India. The guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor are established by the Central Government.

• The liquor prohibition is enforced by state governments under the directive principles of state policy (DPSP) established by the Constitution of India.

• The guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor are established by the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: High taxes and excessive licensing in the liquor industry contribute to corruption and financial burdens on consumers. Indian Constitution views alcohol as an undesirable evil to be regulated. The Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 47) encourage the prohibition of alcohol consumption, except for medicinal purposes, aiming to protect citizens’ health. While not legally enforceable, these principles guide state action. Additionally, alcohol regulation falls under the authority of state legislatures according to the Seventh Schedule, allowing for varying laws across states, from prohibition to private sale.

• Indian Constitution views alcohol as an undesirable evil to be regulated. The Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 47) encourage the prohibition of alcohol consumption, except for medicinal purposes, aiming to protect citizens’ health. While not legally enforceable, these principles guide state action. Additionally, alcohol regulation falls under the authority of state legislatures according to the Seventh Schedule, allowing for varying laws across states, from prohibition to private sale.

• Distribution of Power on Liquor Control in India: Central Government: Sets guidelines for import duties on foreign liquor. Formulates national-level policies regarding alcohol advertising and marketing. State Governments: Liquor falls under the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule Impose state-specific excise duties and taxes on liquor sales.

• Central Government: Sets guidelines for import duties on foreign liquor. Formulates national-level policies regarding alcohol advertising and marketing.

• Sets guidelines for import duties on foreign liquor.

• Formulates national-level policies regarding alcohol advertising and marketing.

• State Governments: Liquor falls under the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule Impose state-specific excise duties and taxes on liquor sales.

• Liquor falls under the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule

• Impose state-specific excise duties and taxes on liquor sales.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/liquor-policy-issues-in-the-liquor-industry/

Explanation:

• Central Government: Sets guidelines for import duties on foreign liquor. Formulates national-level policies regarding alcohol advertising and marketing.

• Sets guidelines for import duties on foreign liquor.

• Formulates national-level policies regarding alcohol advertising and marketing.

• State Governments: Liquor falls under the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule Impose state-specific excise duties and taxes on liquor sales.

• Liquor falls under the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule

• Impose state-specific excise duties and taxes on liquor sales.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/liquor-policy-issues-in-the-liquor-industry/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points How is liquor typically made? (a) By distilling fermented grains, fruits, or vegetables (b) By mixing various herbs and spices with water (c) By fermenting sugars obtained from different sources (d) By directly extracting alcohol from natural sources like trees or plants Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: How Liquor is Made: Distillation: Most liquors are made through the process of distillation, where fermented grains, fruits, or vegetables are heated to vaporize the alcohol, which is then condensed back into liquid form. Fermentation: Initially, raw materials like grains (for whiskey), grapes (for wine), or sugarcane (for rum) are fermented using yeast, which converts sugars into alcohol and carbon dioxide. Ageing: Some liquors, like whiskey and brandy, are aged in wooden barrels to develop flavour and character. This ageing process can take several years, during which the liquor absorbs flavours from the wood. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/liquor-policy-issues-in-the-liquor-industry/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: How Liquor is Made: Distillation: Most liquors are made through the process of distillation, where fermented grains, fruits, or vegetables are heated to vaporize the alcohol, which is then condensed back into liquid form. Fermentation: Initially, raw materials like grains (for whiskey), grapes (for wine), or sugarcane (for rum) are fermented using yeast, which converts sugars into alcohol and carbon dioxide. Ageing: Some liquors, like whiskey and brandy, are aged in wooden barrels to develop flavour and character. This ageing process can take several years, during which the liquor absorbs flavours from the wood. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/liquor-policy-issues-in-the-liquor-industry/

#### 2. Question

How is liquor typically made?

• (a) By distilling fermented grains, fruits, or vegetables

• (b) By mixing various herbs and spices with water

• (c) By fermenting sugars obtained from different sources

• (d) By directly extracting alcohol from natural sources like trees or plants

Explanation:

• How Liquor is Made: Distillation: Most liquors are made through the process of distillation, where fermented grains, fruits, or vegetables are heated to vaporize the alcohol, which is then condensed back into liquid form. Fermentation: Initially, raw materials like grains (for whiskey), grapes (for wine), or sugarcane (for rum) are fermented using yeast, which converts sugars into alcohol and carbon dioxide. Ageing: Some liquors, like whiskey and brandy, are aged in wooden barrels to develop flavour and character. This ageing process can take several years, during which the liquor absorbs flavours from the wood.

• Distillation: Most liquors are made through the process of distillation, where fermented grains, fruits, or vegetables are heated to vaporize the alcohol, which is then condensed back into liquid form.

• Fermentation: Initially, raw materials like grains (for whiskey), grapes (for wine), or sugarcane (for rum) are fermented using yeast, which converts sugars into alcohol and carbon dioxide.

• Ageing: Some liquors, like whiskey and brandy, are aged in wooden barrels to develop flavour and character. This ageing process can take several years, during which the liquor absorbs flavours from the wood.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/liquor-policy-issues-in-the-liquor-industry/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/liquor-policy-issues-in-the-liquor-industry/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best reflects the principle of “Principles for Harmonious Construction”? (a) In case of ambiguity, courts should interpret statutes in a way that advances the public interest. (b) When interpreting statutes, courts should consider the legislative intent and the purpose of the law. (c) Courts should strictly adhere to the plain language of statutes without considering their underlying purpose. (d) Statutes should be interpreted in a manner that favors one particular group over others. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The Supreme Court, while refusing to condone a 5659-day delay in an appeal, outlined eight principles deciding an application for condonation of delay. The principle of “Principles for Harmonious Construction” suggests that when interpreting statutes, courts should strive to achieve harmony and coherence in the law. This involves considering the legislative intent behind the statute and the purpose it seeks to achieve. Option A might seem plausible, but it doesn’t necessarily encompass the broader notion of considering legislative intent and purpose. Option C contradicts the principle by suggesting a strict adherence to the plain language of statutes without regard for their purpose or intent. Option D is incorrect as it goes against the idea of impartiality in legal interpretation. Therefore, option B is the most fitting choice as it aligns with the principle of harmonious construction by advocating for a holistic interpretation of statutes. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/principles-for-harmonious-construction/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The Supreme Court, while refusing to condone a 5659-day delay in an appeal, outlined eight principles deciding an application for condonation of delay. The principle of “Principles for Harmonious Construction” suggests that when interpreting statutes, courts should strive to achieve harmony and coherence in the law. This involves considering the legislative intent behind the statute and the purpose it seeks to achieve. Option A might seem plausible, but it doesn’t necessarily encompass the broader notion of considering legislative intent and purpose. Option C contradicts the principle by suggesting a strict adherence to the plain language of statutes without regard for their purpose or intent. Option D is incorrect as it goes against the idea of impartiality in legal interpretation. Therefore, option B is the most fitting choice as it aligns with the principle of harmonious construction by advocating for a holistic interpretation of statutes. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/principles-for-harmonious-construction/

#### 3. Question

Which of the following statements best reflects the principle of “Principles for Harmonious Construction”?

• (a) In case of ambiguity, courts should interpret statutes in a way that advances the public interest.

• (b) When interpreting statutes, courts should consider the legislative intent and the purpose of the law.

• (c) Courts should strictly adhere to the plain language of statutes without considering their underlying purpose.

• (d) Statutes should be interpreted in a manner that favors one particular group over others.

Explanation:

• Context: The Supreme Court, while refusing to condone a 5659-day delay in an appeal, outlined eight principles deciding an application for condonation of delay.

• The principle of “Principles for Harmonious Construction” suggests that when interpreting statutes, courts should strive to achieve harmony and coherence in the law. This involves considering the legislative intent behind the statute and the purpose it seeks to achieve. Option A might seem plausible, but it doesn’t necessarily encompass the broader notion of considering legislative intent and purpose. Option C contradicts the principle by suggesting a strict adherence to the plain language of statutes without regard for their purpose or intent. Option D is incorrect as it goes against the idea of impartiality in legal interpretation. Therefore, option B is the most fitting choice as it aligns with the principle of harmonious construction by advocating for a holistic interpretation of statutes.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/principles-for-harmonious-construction/

Explanation:

• Context: The Supreme Court, while refusing to condone a 5659-day delay in an appeal, outlined eight principles deciding an application for condonation of delay.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/principles-for-harmonious-construction/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about bilateral investment treaties (BITs) is correct? (a) BITs are only established between countries within the same geographic region. (b) BITs primarily focus on promoting trade in goods rather than protecting foreign investments. (c) BITs typically include provisions for resolving disputes between foreign investors and host states. (d) BITs are exclusively designed to benefit the host state and not the foreign investor. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) has directed the commerce ministry to review the model text of bilateral investment treaties (BITs) and propose enhancements to facilitate business operations. This move is prompted by India’s previous losses in international arbitration cases against companies like Vodafone and Cairn Energy over retrospective tax imposition. Model text of BIT: Union Cabinet adopted a new Model BIT text in 2015, which replaced Indian Model BIT, 1993. BITs are crucial for protecting and promoting investments between nations, and they are a focal point in India’s negotiations with countries like the UK and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA). Bilateral investment treaties (BITs) are agreements between two countries to promote and protect investments made by investors from one country in the territory of the other. These treaties often contain provisions regarding the treatment of foreign investments, including protection against expropriation without compensation, guarantees of fair and equitable treatment, and mechanisms for resolving disputes between investors and host states. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/bilateral-investment-treaty/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) has directed the commerce ministry to review the model text of bilateral investment treaties (BITs) and propose enhancements to facilitate business operations. This move is prompted by India’s previous losses in international arbitration cases against companies like Vodafone and Cairn Energy over retrospective tax imposition. Model text of BIT: Union Cabinet adopted a new Model BIT text in 2015, which replaced Indian Model BIT, 1993. BITs are crucial for protecting and promoting investments between nations, and they are a focal point in India’s negotiations with countries like the UK and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA). Bilateral investment treaties (BITs) are agreements between two countries to promote and protect investments made by investors from one country in the territory of the other. These treaties often contain provisions regarding the treatment of foreign investments, including protection against expropriation without compensation, guarantees of fair and equitable treatment, and mechanisms for resolving disputes between investors and host states. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/bilateral-investment-treaty/

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements about bilateral investment treaties (BITs) is correct?

• (a) BITs are only established between countries within the same geographic region.

• (b) BITs primarily focus on promoting trade in goods rather than protecting foreign investments.

• (c) BITs typically include provisions for resolving disputes between foreign investors and host states.

• (d) BITs are exclusively designed to benefit the host state and not the foreign investor.

Explanation:

• Context: The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) has directed the commerce ministry to review the model text of bilateral investment treaties (BITs) and propose enhancements to facilitate business operations. This move is prompted by India’s previous losses in international arbitration cases against companies like Vodafone and Cairn Energy over retrospective tax imposition. Model text of BIT: Union Cabinet adopted a new Model BIT text in 2015, which replaced Indian Model BIT, 1993.

• This move is prompted by India’s previous losses in international arbitration cases against companies like Vodafone and Cairn Energy over retrospective tax imposition.

• Model text of BIT: Union Cabinet adopted a new Model BIT text in 2015, which replaced Indian Model BIT, 1993.

• BITs are crucial for protecting and promoting investments between nations, and they are a focal point in India’s negotiations with countries like the UK and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA).

• Bilateral investment treaties (BITs) are agreements between two countries to promote and protect investments made by investors from one country in the territory of the other. These treaties often contain provisions regarding the treatment of foreign investments, including protection against expropriation without compensation, guarantees of fair and equitable treatment, and mechanisms for resolving disputes between investors and host states.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/bilateral-investment-treaty/

Explanation:

• This move is prompted by India’s previous losses in international arbitration cases against companies like Vodafone and Cairn Energy over retrospective tax imposition.

• Model text of BIT: Union Cabinet adopted a new Model BIT text in 2015, which replaced Indian Model BIT, 1993.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/bilateral-investment-treaty/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points What is the significance of the “peace clause” at the World Trade Organization (WTO)? (a) It ensures that member countries engage in peaceful negotiations to resolve trade disputes. (b) It prohibits member countries from engaging in any form of military conflict related to trade matters. (c) It temporarily exempts developing countries from legal challenges regarding their domestic agricultural subsidies under certain conditions. (d) It mandates that member countries establish peaceful resolutions to disputes arising from intellectual property rights violations. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: India has invoked the peace clause at the WTO for the fifth consecutive time for the marketing year 2022-23, as it breached the prescribed subsidy limit for rice. Despite breaching the 10% domestic support ceiling, there are no immediate repercussions due to the peace clause, which provides immunity until a permanent solution is found. India justifies its actions as necessary to meet domestic food security needs. The peace clause in the World Trade Organization (WTO) refers to an agreement that temporarily shields developing countries from legal challenges for breaching the domestic support limits on agricultural subsidies. It was established during the WTO’s Bali Ministerial Conference in 2013. This clause allows developing countries to provide subsidies beyond the prescribed limits for certain agricultural products, such as rice and wheat, without facing immediate repercussions. The peace clause provides immunity until a permanent solution is found, allowing developing countries to support their domestic agricultural sectors while negotiations continue on more permanent subsidy rules. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/peace-clause-in-wto/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: India has invoked the peace clause at the WTO for the fifth consecutive time for the marketing year 2022-23, as it breached the prescribed subsidy limit for rice. Despite breaching the 10% domestic support ceiling, there are no immediate repercussions due to the peace clause, which provides immunity until a permanent solution is found. India justifies its actions as necessary to meet domestic food security needs. The peace clause in the World Trade Organization (WTO) refers to an agreement that temporarily shields developing countries from legal challenges for breaching the domestic support limits on agricultural subsidies. It was established during the WTO’s Bali Ministerial Conference in 2013. This clause allows developing countries to provide subsidies beyond the prescribed limits for certain agricultural products, such as rice and wheat, without facing immediate repercussions. The peace clause provides immunity until a permanent solution is found, allowing developing countries to support their domestic agricultural sectors while negotiations continue on more permanent subsidy rules. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/peace-clause-in-wto/

#### 5. Question

What is the significance of the “peace clause” at the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

• (a) It ensures that member countries engage in peaceful negotiations to resolve trade disputes.

• (b) It prohibits member countries from engaging in any form of military conflict related to trade matters.

• (c) It temporarily exempts developing countries from legal challenges regarding their domestic agricultural subsidies under certain conditions.

• (d) It mandates that member countries establish peaceful resolutions to disputes arising from intellectual property rights violations.

Explanation:

• Context: India has invoked the peace clause at the WTO for the fifth consecutive time for the marketing year 2022-23, as it breached the prescribed subsidy limit for rice. Despite breaching the 10% domestic support ceiling, there are no immediate repercussions due to the peace clause, which provides immunity until a permanent solution is found. India justifies its actions as necessary to meet domestic food security needs.

• Despite breaching the 10% domestic support ceiling, there are no immediate repercussions due to the peace clause, which provides immunity until a permanent solution is found.

• India justifies its actions as necessary to meet domestic food security needs.

• The peace clause in the World Trade Organization (WTO) refers to an agreement that temporarily shields developing countries from legal challenges for breaching the domestic support limits on agricultural subsidies. It was established during the WTO’s Bali Ministerial Conference in 2013. This clause allows developing countries to provide subsidies beyond the prescribed limits for certain agricultural products, such as rice and wheat, without facing immediate repercussions. The peace clause provides immunity until a permanent solution is found, allowing developing countries to support their domestic agricultural sectors while negotiations continue on more permanent subsidy rules.

• It was established during the WTO’s Bali Ministerial Conference in 2013.

• This clause allows developing countries to provide subsidies beyond the prescribed limits for certain agricultural products, such as rice and wheat, without facing immediate repercussions.

• The peace clause provides immunity until a permanent solution is found, allowing developing countries to support their domestic agricultural sectors while negotiations continue on more permanent subsidy rules.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/peace-clause-in-wto/

Explanation:

• Despite breaching the 10% domestic support ceiling, there are no immediate repercussions due to the peace clause, which provides immunity until a permanent solution is found.

• India justifies its actions as necessary to meet domestic food security needs.

• It was established during the WTO’s Bali Ministerial Conference in 2013.

• This clause allows developing countries to provide subsidies beyond the prescribed limits for certain agricultural products, such as rice and wheat, without facing immediate repercussions.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/peace-clause-in-wto/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points “Global Unicorn Index” is released by which of the following? (a) World Economic Forum (b) Hurun Research Institute (c) Global Leaders Group (d) Environmental Investigation Agency Correct Ans: (b) Explanation:Global Unicorn Index 2024 Report released by Hurun Research Institute Findings: In 2023, India had 67 unicorn startups (68 in 2022), ranking third globally behind the USA and China. Indian founders have produced more offshore unicorns than any other country. India lacks unicorns in the Aerospace or SpaceTech sector. Factors behind the decline include a slowdown in India’s startup ecosystem due to insufficient investment. Unicorns are privately held, venture-capital-backed startups valued at $1 billion or more. The term was coined by venture capitalist Aileen Lee in 2013 Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/288278/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation:Global Unicorn Index 2024 Report released by Hurun Research Institute Findings: In 2023, India had 67 unicorn startups (68 in 2022), ranking third globally behind the USA and China. Indian founders have produced more offshore unicorns than any other country. India lacks unicorns in the Aerospace or SpaceTech sector. Factors behind the decline include a slowdown in India’s startup ecosystem due to insufficient investment. Unicorns are privately held, venture-capital-backed startups valued at $1 billion or more. The term was coined by venture capitalist Aileen Lee in 2013 Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/288278/

#### 6. Question

“Global Unicorn Index” is released by which of the following?

• (a) World Economic Forum

• (b) Hurun Research Institute

• (c) Global Leaders Group

• (d) Environmental Investigation Agency

Explanation:Global Unicorn Index 2024

• Report released by Hurun Research Institute

• Findings: In 2023, India had 67 unicorn startups (68 in 2022), ranking third globally behind the USA and China. Indian founders have produced more offshore unicorns than any other country. India lacks unicorns in the Aerospace or SpaceTech sector. Factors behind the decline include a slowdown in India’s startup ecosystem due to insufficient investment.

• Unicorns are privately held, venture-capital-backed startups valued at $1 billion or more. The term was coined by venture capitalist Aileen Lee in 2013

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/288278/

Explanation:Global Unicorn Index 2024

• Report released by Hurun Research Institute

• Unicorns are privately held, venture-capital-backed startups valued at $1 billion or more. The term was coined by venture capitalist Aileen Lee in 2013

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/288278/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points What is the role of dark energy in the expansion of the universe? (a) Dark energy causes the expansion of the universe to accelerate. (b) Dark energy causes the expansion of the universe to decelerate. (c) Dark energy has no effect on the expansion of the universe. (d) Dark energy only affects the contraction of the universe. Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: DESI’s groundbreaking project harnesses 5,000 robots to peer 11 billion years into the past, revealing unprecedented insights into our expanding universe. Dark energy is a mysterious force that permeates the universe and is thought to be responsible for the observed accelerated expansion of the universe. This phenomenon was first detected through observations of distant supernovae in the late 1990s. Unlike matter and radiation, which exert attractive forces and decelerate the expansion, dark energy acts as a repulsive force, driving galaxies away from each other at an accelerating rate. This concept challenges traditional models of cosmology and remains one of the most intriguing puzzles in modern astrophysics. What is DESI? DESI is a project aimed at mapping the universe to study dark energy’s effects over billions of years. It is the product of an international collaboration that brings together researchers from more than 70 institutions (including from India). It is a ground-based dark energy experiment, located on the Mayall 4-meter telescope at Kitt Peak National Observatory (USA) Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/dark-energy-spectroscopic-instrument-desi/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: DESI’s groundbreaking project harnesses 5,000 robots to peer 11 billion years into the past, revealing unprecedented insights into our expanding universe. Dark energy is a mysterious force that permeates the universe and is thought to be responsible for the observed accelerated expansion of the universe. This phenomenon was first detected through observations of distant supernovae in the late 1990s. Unlike matter and radiation, which exert attractive forces and decelerate the expansion, dark energy acts as a repulsive force, driving galaxies away from each other at an accelerating rate. This concept challenges traditional models of cosmology and remains one of the most intriguing puzzles in modern astrophysics. What is DESI? DESI is a project aimed at mapping the universe to study dark energy’s effects over billions of years. It is the product of an international collaboration that brings together researchers from more than 70 institutions (including from India). It is a ground-based dark energy experiment, located on the Mayall 4-meter telescope at Kitt Peak National Observatory (USA) Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/dark-energy-spectroscopic-instrument-desi/

#### 7. Question

What is the role of dark energy in the expansion of the universe?

• (a) Dark energy causes the expansion of the universe to accelerate.

• (b) Dark energy causes the expansion of the universe to decelerate.

• (c) Dark energy has no effect on the expansion of the universe.

• (d) Dark energy only affects the contraction of the universe.

Explanation:

• Context: DESI’s groundbreaking project harnesses 5,000 robots to peer 11 billion years into the past, revealing unprecedented insights into our expanding universe.

• Dark energy is a mysterious force that permeates the universe and is thought to be responsible for the observed accelerated expansion of the universe. This phenomenon was first detected through observations of distant supernovae in the late 1990s. Unlike matter and radiation, which exert attractive forces and decelerate the expansion, dark energy acts as a repulsive force, driving galaxies away from each other at an accelerating rate. This concept challenges traditional models of cosmology and remains one of the most intriguing puzzles in modern astrophysics.

• What is DESI? DESI is a project aimed at mapping the universe to study dark energy’s effects over billions of years. It is the product of an international collaboration that brings together researchers from more than 70 institutions (including from India). It is a ground-based dark energy experiment, located on the Mayall 4-meter telescope at Kitt Peak National Observatory (USA)

• DESI is a project aimed at mapping the universe to study dark energy’s effects over billions of years. It is the product of an international collaboration that brings together researchers from more than 70 institutions (including from India). It is a ground-based dark energy experiment, located on the Mayall 4-meter telescope at Kitt Peak National Observatory (USA)

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/dark-energy-spectroscopic-instrument-desi/

Explanation:

• Context: DESI’s groundbreaking project harnesses 5,000 robots to peer 11 billion years into the past, revealing unprecedented insights into our expanding universe.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/dark-energy-spectroscopic-instrument-desi/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Falcon 9 rocket is true? (a) It is solely powered by liquid hydrogen fuel. (b) Its first stage is capable of vertical landing for reuse. (c) It is manufactured by Roscosmos, the Russian space agency. (d) It has a maximum payload capacity of 5 metric tons to low Earth orbit. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) announced the successful deployment of its sub-metre optical satellite, TSAT-1A, into space. The satellite, assembled and tested in India, was launched aboard SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida. TSAT-1A will provide high-resolution optical satellite images with enhanced collection capacity and dynamic range through its multispectral and hyperspectral capabilities. The Falcon 9 rocket, developed by SpaceX, is known for its innovative technology allowing for the vertical landing and reuse of its first stage. This capability significantly reduces the cost of space launches. Options A and C are incorrect as the Falcon 9 primarily uses liquid oxygen and rocket-grade kerosene (RP-1) as propellants, and it is manufactured by SpaceX, a private American aerospace manufacturer, not Roscosmos. Option D is incorrect; the Falcon 9 has a much higher payload capacity, with versions capable of delivering up to 22.8 metric tons to low Earth orbit. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/tsat-1a/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) announced the successful deployment of its sub-metre optical satellite, TSAT-1A, into space. The satellite, assembled and tested in India, was launched aboard SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida. TSAT-1A will provide high-resolution optical satellite images with enhanced collection capacity and dynamic range through its multispectral and hyperspectral capabilities. The Falcon 9 rocket, developed by SpaceX, is known for its innovative technology allowing for the vertical landing and reuse of its first stage. This capability significantly reduces the cost of space launches. Options A and C are incorrect as the Falcon 9 primarily uses liquid oxygen and rocket-grade kerosene (RP-1) as propellants, and it is manufactured by SpaceX, a private American aerospace manufacturer, not Roscosmos. Option D is incorrect; the Falcon 9 has a much higher payload capacity, with versions capable of delivering up to 22.8 metric tons to low Earth orbit. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/tsat-1a/

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements about the Falcon 9 rocket is true?

• (a) It is solely powered by liquid hydrogen fuel.

• (b) Its first stage is capable of vertical landing for reuse.

• (c) It is manufactured by Roscosmos, the Russian space agency.

• (d) It has a maximum payload capacity of 5 metric tons to low Earth orbit.

Explanation:

• Context: Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) announced the successful deployment of its sub-metre optical satellite, TSAT-1A, into space. The satellite, assembled and tested in India, was launched aboard SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida. TSAT-1A will provide high-resolution optical satellite images with enhanced collection capacity and dynamic range through its multispectral and hyperspectral capabilities.

• The satellite, assembled and tested in India, was launched aboard SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida.

• TSAT-1A will provide high-resolution optical satellite images with enhanced collection capacity and dynamic range through its multispectral and hyperspectral capabilities.

• The Falcon 9 rocket, developed by SpaceX, is known for its innovative technology allowing for the vertical landing and reuse of its first stage. This capability significantly reduces the cost of space launches. Options A and C are incorrect as the Falcon 9 primarily uses liquid oxygen and rocket-grade kerosene (RP-1) as propellants, and it is manufactured by SpaceX, a private American aerospace manufacturer, not Roscosmos. Option D is incorrect; the Falcon 9 has a much higher payload capacity, with versions capable of delivering up to 22.8 metric tons to low Earth orbit.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/tsat-1a/

Explanation:

• The satellite, assembled and tested in India, was launched aboard SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida.

• TSAT-1A will provide high-resolution optical satellite images with enhanced collection capacity and dynamic range through its multispectral and hyperspectral capabilities.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/tsat-1a/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness Training(START)’: This is an online course for Indian high school students that covers space science and technology at an introductory level. It is offered by Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) free of cost. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The Gujarat Council on Science and Technology (GUJCOST) has been appointed as the Nodal Centre for the Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START)’ programme. This initiative, conceived by ISRO, aims to provide introductory-level online training in various areas of space science research, such as planetary exploration, astronomy, and atmospheric science. The Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) is a free, introductory online training program for undergraduate and postgraduate students in India interested in space science and technology. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/gujcost/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The Gujarat Council on Science and Technology (GUJCOST) has been appointed as the Nodal Centre for the Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START)’ programme. This initiative, conceived by ISRO, aims to provide introductory-level online training in various areas of space science research, such as planetary exploration, astronomy, and atmospheric science. The Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) is a free, introductory online training program for undergraduate and postgraduate students in India interested in space science and technology. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/gujcost/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness Training(START)’:

• This is an online course for Indian high school students that covers space science and technology at an introductory level. It is offered by Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) free of cost.

• This is an online course for Indian high school students that covers space science and technology at an introductory level.

• It is offered by Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) free of cost.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: The Gujarat Council on Science and Technology (GUJCOST) has been appointed as the Nodal Centre for the Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START)’ programme.

• This initiative, conceived by ISRO, aims to provide introductory-level online training in various areas of space science research, such as planetary exploration, astronomy, and atmospheric science.

• The Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) is a free, introductory online training program for undergraduate and postgraduate students in India interested in space science and technology.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/gujcost/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/gujcost/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Botswana: It is a landlocked country in Southern Africa. It borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. Its landscape is defined by the Kalahari Desert and the Okavango Delta. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation Context: Botswana’s President recently made headlines by threatening to export 20,000 elephants to Germany in response to Germany’s proposal for stricter limits on the import of hunting trophies. About Botswana: It is a landlocked country in Southern Africa, predominantly inhabited by the Tswana ethnic group. It borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. It is one of the world’s most sparsely populated countries. Botswana is known for its diamond industry, high standard of living, and impressive Human Development Index Its landscape is defined by the Kalahari Desert and the Okavango Delta, which becomes a lush animal habitat during the seasonal floods. The massive Central Kalahari Game Reserve, with its fossilized river valleys and undulating grasslands, is home to numerous animals including giraffes, cheetahs, hyenas and wild dogs. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/botswana/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation Context: Botswana’s President recently made headlines by threatening to export 20,000 elephants to Germany in response to Germany’s proposal for stricter limits on the import of hunting trophies. About Botswana: It is a landlocked country in Southern Africa, predominantly inhabited by the Tswana ethnic group. It borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. It is one of the world’s most sparsely populated countries. Botswana is known for its diamond industry, high standard of living, and impressive Human Development Index Its landscape is defined by the Kalahari Desert and the Okavango Delta, which becomes a lush animal habitat during the seasonal floods. The massive Central Kalahari Game Reserve, with its fossilized river valleys and undulating grasslands, is home to numerous animals including giraffes, cheetahs, hyenas and wild dogs. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/botswana/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about Botswana:

• It is a landlocked country in Southern Africa. It borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. Its landscape is defined by the Kalahari Desert and the Okavango Delta.

• It is a landlocked country in Southern Africa.

• It borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge.

• Its landscape is defined by the Kalahari Desert and the Okavango Delta.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation

• Context: Botswana’s President recently made headlines by threatening to export 20,000 elephants to Germany in response to Germany’s proposal for stricter limits on the import of hunting trophies.

• About Botswana: It is a landlocked country in Southern Africa, predominantly inhabited by the Tswana ethnic group. It borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. It is one of the world’s most sparsely populated countries. Botswana is known for its diamond industry, high standard of living, and impressive Human Development Index Its landscape is defined by the Kalahari Desert and the Okavango Delta, which becomes a lush animal habitat during the seasonal floods. The massive Central Kalahari Game Reserve, with its fossilized river valleys and undulating grasslands, is home to numerous animals including giraffes, cheetahs, hyenas and wild dogs.

• It is a landlocked country in Southern Africa, predominantly inhabited by the Tswana ethnic group. It borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. It is one of the world’s most sparsely populated countries. Botswana is known for its diamond industry, high standard of living, and impressive Human Development Index

• Its landscape is defined by the Kalahari Desert and the Okavango Delta, which becomes a lush animal habitat during the seasonal floods. The massive Central Kalahari Game Reserve, with its fossilized river valleys and undulating grasslands, is home to numerous animals including giraffes, cheetahs, hyenas and wild dogs.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/botswana/

Explanation

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/11/botswana/

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