UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 11 March 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Tiger Reserves in India: Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and free from human habitation. The declaration of a Tiger Reserve makes the area a ‘no-go’ zone, permanently prohibiting any human presence, including indigenous communities. The core and buffer zones of Tiger Reserves are defined under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and set aside for tiger conservation. Statement 2 is incorrect – While relocation of human settlements from core zones is encouraged, traditional rights of forest dwellers are recognized under the Forest Rights Act (2006), and they can co-exist in buffer zones. Statement 3 is correct – The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 defines core and buffer zones in Tiger Reserves. What is a Tiger Reserve? A Tiger Reserve is a protected area meant for the conservation of Bengal tigers and their ecosystem. It falls under Project Tiger (1973), a centrally sponsored scheme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). These reserves ensure tiger population growth, habitat conservation, and human-wildlife conflict mitigation. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and set aside for tiger conservation. Statement 2 is incorrect – While relocation of human settlements from core zones is encouraged, traditional rights of forest dwellers are recognized under the Forest Rights Act (2006), and they can co-exist in buffer zones. Statement 3 is correct – The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 defines core and buffer zones in Tiger Reserves. What is a Tiger Reserve? A Tiger Reserve is a protected area meant for the conservation of Bengal tigers and their ecosystem. It falls under Project Tiger (1973), a centrally sponsored scheme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). These reserves ensure tiger population growth, habitat conservation, and human-wildlife conflict mitigation.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Tiger Reserves in India:

• Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and free from human habitation.

• The declaration of a Tiger Reserve makes the area a ‘no-go’ zone, permanently prohibiting any human presence, including indigenous communities.

• The core and buffer zones of Tiger Reserves are defined under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct – Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and set aside for tiger conservation.

Statement 2 is incorrect – While relocation of human settlements from core zones is encouraged, traditional rights of forest dwellers are recognized under the Forest Rights Act (2006), and they can co-exist in buffer zones.

Statement 3 is correct – The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 defines core and buffer zones in Tiger Reserves.

What is a Tiger Reserve?

• A Tiger Reserve is a protected area meant for the conservation of Bengal tigers and their ecosystem.

• It falls under Project Tiger (1973), a centrally sponsored scheme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

• These reserves ensure tiger population growth, habitat conservation, and human-wildlife conflict mitigation.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct – Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and set aside for tiger conservation.

Statement 3 is correct – The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 defines core and buffer zones in Tiger Reserves.

What is a Tiger Reserve?

• A Tiger Reserve is a protected area meant for the conservation of Bengal tigers and their ecosystem.

• It falls under Project Tiger (1973), a centrally sponsored scheme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

• These reserves ensure tiger population growth, habitat conservation, and human-wildlife conflict mitigation.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains the ecological significance of Satkosia Tiger Reserve? (a) It is located at the confluence of the Mahanadi and Godavari rivers, making it one of India's largest riparian tiger reserves. (b) Satkosia Tiger Reserve is a completely uninhabited protected area, ensuring minimal human-wildlife conflict. (c) It was the first Tiger Reserve in India to successfully reintroduce tigers from another state under Project Tiger. (d) It acts as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, supporting a unique blend of biodiversity. Correct Solution: D Satkosia Tiger Reserve serves as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Plateau, making it ecologically unique. Option a is incorrect because Satkosia is located along the Mahanadi River, but not at the confluence of Mahanadi and Godavari. Option b is incorrect because there are 234 villages in the impact zone, leading to significant human-wildlife conflicts. Option c is incorrect because the tiger reintroduction project at Satkosia failed due to poaching and mismanagement. About Satkosia Tiger Reserve: Location: Spans Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh districts in Odisha. Established: 2007, by merging Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (1976) and Baisipali Wildlife Sanctuary (1981). Total Area: 1,136.70 sq. km. Geographical Significance: A transitional zone between Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, promoting rich biodiversity. Fauna: Previously home to 12 tigers (2007), but the 2022 census found none; shelters elephants, leopards, mugger crocodiles, wild dogs, and 200+ bird species. Flora: Houses 400+ plant species, including Sal, Mahua, Bamboo, and medicinal plants. Ramsar Site: Recognized as a wetland of international importance. Tiger Reintroduction: Initiated in 2018 with two tigers from Madhya Pradesh; failed due to poaching and mismanagement. Human Settlements: 234 villages in the surrounding impact zone, creating conflicts over land and resources. Incorrect Solution: D Satkosia Tiger Reserve serves as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Plateau, making it ecologically unique. Option a is incorrect because Satkosia is located along the Mahanadi River, but not at the confluence of Mahanadi and Godavari. Option b is incorrect because there are 234 villages in the impact zone, leading to significant human-wildlife conflicts. Option c is incorrect because the tiger reintroduction project at Satkosia failed due to poaching and mismanagement. About Satkosia Tiger Reserve: Location: Spans Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh districts in Odisha. Established: 2007, by merging Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (1976) and Baisipali Wildlife Sanctuary (1981). Total Area: 1,136.70 sq. km. Geographical Significance: A transitional zone between Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, promoting rich biodiversity. Fauna: Previously home to 12 tigers (2007), but the 2022 census found none; shelters elephants, leopards, mugger crocodiles, wild dogs, and 200+ bird species. Flora: Houses 400+ plant species, including Sal, Mahua, Bamboo, and medicinal plants. Ramsar Site: Recognized as a wetland of international importance. Tiger Reintroduction: Initiated in 2018 with two tigers from Madhya Pradesh; failed due to poaching and mismanagement. Human Settlements: 234 villages in the surrounding impact zone, creating conflicts over land and resources.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following best explains the ecological significance of Satkosia Tiger Reserve?

• (a) It is located at the confluence of the Mahanadi and Godavari rivers, making it one of India's largest riparian tiger reserves.

• (b) Satkosia Tiger Reserve is a completely uninhabited protected area, ensuring minimal human-wildlife conflict.

• (c) It was the first Tiger Reserve in India to successfully reintroduce tigers from another state under Project Tiger.

• (d) It acts as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, supporting a unique blend of biodiversity.

Solution: D

Satkosia Tiger Reserve serves as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Plateau, making it ecologically unique.

• Option a is incorrect because Satkosia is located along the Mahanadi River, but not at the confluence of Mahanadi and Godavari.

• Option b is incorrect because there are 234 villages in the impact zone, leading to significant human-wildlife conflicts.

• Option c is incorrect because the tiger reintroduction project at Satkosia failed due to poaching and mismanagement.

About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:

• Location: Spans Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh districts in Odisha.

• Established: 2007, by merging Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (1976) and Baisipali Wildlife Sanctuary (1981).

• Total Area: 1,136.70 sq. km.

• Geographical Significance: A transitional zone between Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, promoting rich biodiversity.

• Fauna: Previously home to 12 tigers (2007), but the 2022 census found none; shelters elephants, leopards, mugger crocodiles, wild dogs, and 200+ bird species.

• Flora: Houses 400+ plant species, including Sal, Mahua, Bamboo, and medicinal plants.

• Ramsar Site: Recognized as a wetland of international importance.

• Tiger Reintroduction: Initiated in 2018 with two tigers from Madhya Pradesh; failed due to poaching and mismanagement.

• Human Settlements: 234 villages in the surrounding impact zone, creating conflicts over land and resources.

Solution: D

Satkosia Tiger Reserve serves as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Plateau, making it ecologically unique.

• Option a is incorrect because Satkosia is located along the Mahanadi River, but not at the confluence of Mahanadi and Godavari.

• Option b is incorrect because there are 234 villages in the impact zone, leading to significant human-wildlife conflicts.

• Option c is incorrect because the tiger reintroduction project at Satkosia failed due to poaching and mismanagement.

About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:

• Location: Spans Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh districts in Odisha.

• Established: 2007, by merging Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (1976) and Baisipali Wildlife Sanctuary (1981).

• Total Area: 1,136.70 sq. km.

• Geographical Significance: A transitional zone between Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, promoting rich biodiversity.

• Fauna: Previously home to 12 tigers (2007), but the 2022 census found none; shelters elephants, leopards, mugger crocodiles, wild dogs, and 200+ bird species.

• Flora: Houses 400+ plant species, including Sal, Mahua, Bamboo, and medicinal plants.

• Ramsar Site: Recognized as a wetland of international importance.

• Tiger Reintroduction: Initiated in 2018 with two tigers from Madhya Pradesh; failed due to poaching and mismanagement.

• Human Settlements: 234 villages in the surrounding impact zone, creating conflicts over land and resources.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Smooth-Coated Otters and their conservation: They are included in Appendix I of CITES, prohibiting international trade of the species. The Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins provide major habitats for the species in India. Smooth-Coated Otters build extensive burrows along riverbanks for shelter and breeding. The species is known for forming large social groups and engaging in cooperative hunting behavior. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect – They are listed under Appendix II of CITES, which restricts but does not fully prohibit trade. Statement 2 is correct – The Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins provide key habitats for Smooth-Coated Otters in India. Statement 3 is correct – They build burrows along riverbanks for shelter and breeding. Statement 4 is correct – They form large family groups and engage in cooperative hunting. About the Smooth-Coated Otter: Scientific Name: Lutrogale perspicillata Habitat: Found in wetlands, rivers, lakes, mangroves, and estuaries across South and Southeast Asia. Distribution: Native to India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia. Physical Characteristics: Larger than other otter species, with shorter fur and a flattened tail. Has webbed feet for efficient swimming. Primarily carnivorous, feeding on fish, crustaceans, and amphibians. IUCN Status & Conservation IUCN Red List: Vulnerable (VU) due to habitat destruction, poaching, and water pollution. CITES Listing: Appendix II, restricting international trade. Threats: Habitat loss due to wetland degradation. Illegal hunting for fur and pet trade. Decline in fish population impacting food availability. Conservation Measures: Protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (India). Conservation projects focusing on wetland restoration and anti-poaching efforts. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect – They are listed under Appendix II of CITES, which restricts but does not fully prohibit trade. Statement 2 is correct – The Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins provide key habitats for Smooth-Coated Otters in India. Statement 3 is correct – They build burrows along riverbanks for shelter and breeding. Statement 4 is correct – They form large family groups and engage in cooperative hunting. About the Smooth-Coated Otter: Scientific Name: Lutrogale perspicillata Habitat: Found in wetlands, rivers, lakes, mangroves, and estuaries across South and Southeast Asia. Distribution: Native to India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia. Physical Characteristics: Larger than other otter species, with shorter fur and a flattened tail. Has webbed feet for efficient swimming. Primarily carnivorous, feeding on fish, crustaceans, and amphibians. IUCN Status & Conservation IUCN Red List: Vulnerable (VU) due to habitat destruction, poaching, and water pollution. CITES Listing: Appendix II, restricting international trade. Threats: Habitat loss due to wetland degradation. Illegal hunting for fur and pet trade. Decline in fish population impacting food availability. Conservation Measures: Protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (India). Conservation projects focusing on wetland restoration and anti-poaching efforts.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Smooth-Coated Otters and their conservation:

• They are included in Appendix I of CITES, prohibiting international trade of the species.

• The Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins provide major habitats for the species in India.

• Smooth-Coated Otters build extensive burrows along riverbanks for shelter and breeding.

• The species is known for forming large social groups and engaging in cooperative hunting behavior.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: C

Statement 1 is incorrect – They are listed under Appendix II of CITES, which restricts but does not fully prohibit trade.

Statement 2 is correct – The Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins provide key habitats for Smooth-Coated Otters in India.

Statement 3 is correct – They build burrows along riverbanks for shelter and breeding.

Statement 4 is correct – They form large family groups and engage in cooperative hunting.

About the Smooth-Coated Otter:

• Scientific Name: Lutrogale perspicillata

• Habitat: Found in wetlands, rivers, lakes, mangroves, and estuaries across South and Southeast Asia.

• Distribution: Native to India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia.

• Physical Characteristics: Larger than other otter species, with shorter fur and a flattened tail. Has webbed feet for efficient swimming. Primarily carnivorous, feeding on fish, crustaceans, and amphibians.

• Larger than other otter species, with shorter fur and a flattened tail.

• Has webbed feet for efficient swimming.

• Primarily carnivorous, feeding on fish, crustaceans, and amphibians.

IUCN Status & Conservation

• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable (VU) due to habitat destruction, poaching, and water pollution.

• CITES Listing: Appendix II, restricting international trade.

• Threats: Habitat loss due to wetland degradation. Illegal hunting for fur and pet trade. Decline in fish population impacting food availability.

• Habitat loss due to wetland degradation.

• Illegal hunting for fur and pet trade.

• Decline in fish population impacting food availability.

• Conservation Measures: Protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (India). Conservation projects focusing on wetland restoration and anti-poaching efforts.

• Protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (India).

• Conservation projects focusing on wetland restoration and anti-poaching efforts.

Solution: C

Statement 1 is incorrect – They are listed under Appendix II of CITES, which restricts but does not fully prohibit trade.

Statement 2 is correct – The Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins provide key habitats for Smooth-Coated Otters in India.

Statement 3 is correct – They build burrows along riverbanks for shelter and breeding.

Statement 4 is correct – They form large family groups and engage in cooperative hunting.

About the Smooth-Coated Otter:

• Scientific Name: Lutrogale perspicillata

• Habitat: Found in wetlands, rivers, lakes, mangroves, and estuaries across South and Southeast Asia.

• Distribution: Native to India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia.

• Larger than other otter species, with shorter fur and a flattened tail.

• Has webbed feet for efficient swimming.

• Primarily carnivorous, feeding on fish, crustaceans, and amphibians.

IUCN Status & Conservation

• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable (VU) due to habitat destruction, poaching, and water pollution.

• CITES Listing: Appendix II, restricting international trade.

• Threats: Habitat loss due to wetland degradation. Illegal hunting for fur and pet trade. Decline in fish population impacting food availability.

• Habitat loss due to wetland degradation.

• Illegal hunting for fur and pet trade.

• Decline in fish population impacting food availability.

• Conservation Measures: Protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (India). Conservation projects focusing on wetland restoration and anti-poaching efforts.

• Protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (India).

• Conservation projects focusing on wetland restoration and anti-poaching efforts.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s extradition laws: The Extradition Act governs extradition procedures and allows India to seek extradition even without a formal treaty. India has an extradition treaty with the United Nations, allowing it to request extradition from any UN member state. Interpol Red Notices are legally binding requests that mandate extradition. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – The Extradition Act, 1962, allows India to request extradition even in the absence of a formal treaty, based on diplomatic reciprocity. Statement 2 is incorrect – India does not have an extradition treaty with the UN; extradition agreements exist bilaterally between sovereign nations. Statement 3 is incorrect – Interpol Red Notices are not legally binding; they serve as international alerts but do not mandate extradition. About Extradition Treaty: An extradition treaty is a formal agreement between two countries to transfer individuals accused or convicted of serious crimes. It ensures that fugitives cannot evade justice by crossing international borders. Countries with Which India Has an Extradition Treaty India has extradition treaties with 48 countries, including: United States, United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, UAE, France, Germany, Russia, and South Korea. India also has extradition arrangements with 12 additional countries, allowing case-specific extradition. The Extradition Act, 1962: The Extradition Act, 1962, governs extradition procedures in India. It defines how fugitives can be extradited from India and how India can request extradition from other countries. Key Provisions of the Act Applicability: Covers both treaty-based and non-treaty extradition cases. Dual Criminality Principle: The offense must be a crime in both India and the requesting country. Extradition Offenses: Covers terrorism, organized crime, drug trafficking, and financial fraud. Bar on Political Offenses: Individuals cannot be extradited for political offenses. Rule of Specialty: The fugitive can only be tried for the crime they were extradited for. Human Rights Considerations: No extradition if there is a risk of torture or an unfair trial. Nodal Authority for Extradition Ministry of External Affairs (MEA): Processes extradition requests from foreign governments. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): Handles extradition-related investigations. National Investigation Agency (NIA): Pursues cases related to terrorism and national security. Implementation of the Act India initiates extradition through diplomatic channels after verifying legal requirements. The request is forwarded to the foreign country’s legal system for approval. If approved, law enforcement agencies coordinate the fugitive’s transfer to India. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – The Extradition Act, 1962, allows India to request extradition even in the absence of a formal treaty, based on diplomatic reciprocity. Statement 2 is incorrect – India does not have an extradition treaty with the UN; extradition agreements exist bilaterally between sovereign nations. Statement 3 is incorrect – Interpol Red Notices are not legally binding; they serve as international alerts but do not mandate extradition. About Extradition Treaty: An extradition treaty is a formal agreement between two countries to transfer individuals accused or convicted of serious crimes. It ensures that fugitives cannot evade justice by crossing international borders. Countries with Which India Has an Extradition Treaty India has extradition treaties with 48 countries, including: United States, United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, UAE, France, Germany, Russia, and South Korea. India also has extradition arrangements with 12 additional countries, allowing case-specific extradition. The Extradition Act, 1962: The Extradition Act, 1962, governs extradition procedures in India. It defines how fugitives can be extradited from India and how India can request extradition from other countries. Key Provisions of the Act Applicability: Covers both treaty-based and non-treaty extradition cases. Dual Criminality Principle: The offense must be a crime in both India and the requesting country. Extradition Offenses: Covers terrorism, organized crime, drug trafficking, and financial fraud. Bar on Political Offenses: Individuals cannot be extradited for political offenses. Rule of Specialty: The fugitive can only be tried for the crime they were extradited for. Human Rights Considerations: No extradition if there is a risk of torture or an unfair trial. Nodal Authority for Extradition Ministry of External Affairs (MEA): Processes extradition requests from foreign governments. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): Handles extradition-related investigations. National Investigation Agency (NIA): Pursues cases related to terrorism and national security. Implementation of the Act India initiates extradition through diplomatic channels after verifying legal requirements. The request is forwarded to the foreign country’s legal system for approval. If approved, law enforcement agencies coordinate the fugitive’s transfer to India.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s extradition laws:

• The Extradition Act governs extradition procedures and allows India to seek extradition even without a formal treaty.

• India has an extradition treaty with the United Nations, allowing it to request extradition from any UN member state.

• Interpol Red Notices are legally binding requests that mandate extradition.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct – The Extradition Act, 1962, allows India to request extradition even in the absence of a formal treaty, based on diplomatic reciprocity.

Statement 2 is incorrect – India does not have an extradition treaty with the UN; extradition agreements exist bilaterally between sovereign nations.

Statement 3 is incorrect – Interpol Red Notices are not legally binding; they serve as international alerts but do not mandate extradition.

About Extradition Treaty:

• An extradition treaty is a formal agreement between two countries to transfer individuals accused or convicted of serious crimes.

• It ensures that fugitives cannot evade justice by crossing international borders.

Countries with Which India Has an Extradition Treaty

• India has extradition treaties with 48 countries, including: United States, United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, UAE, France, Germany, Russia, and South Korea.

• United States, United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, UAE, France, Germany, Russia, and South Korea.

• India also has extradition arrangements with 12 additional countries, allowing case-specific extradition.

The Extradition Act, 1962:

• The Extradition Act, 1962, governs extradition procedures in India.

• It defines how fugitives can be extradited from India and how India can request extradition from other countries.

Key Provisions of the Act

• Applicability: Covers both treaty-based and non-treaty extradition cases.

• Dual Criminality Principle: The offense must be a crime in both India and the requesting country.

• Extradition Offenses: Covers terrorism, organized crime, drug trafficking, and financial fraud.

• Bar on Political Offenses: Individuals cannot be extradited for political offenses.

• Rule of Specialty: The fugitive can only be tried for the crime they were extradited for.

• Human Rights Considerations: No extradition if there is a risk of torture or an unfair trial.

Nodal Authority for Extradition

• Ministry of External Affairs (MEA): Processes extradition requests from foreign governments.

• Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): Handles extradition-related investigations.

• National Investigation Agency (NIA): Pursues cases related to terrorism and national security.

Implementation of the Act

• India initiates extradition through diplomatic channels after verifying legal requirements.

• The request is forwarded to the foreign country’s legal system for approval.

• If approved, law enforcement agencies coordinate the fugitive’s transfer to India.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct – The Extradition Act, 1962, allows India to request extradition even in the absence of a formal treaty, based on diplomatic reciprocity.

Statement 2 is incorrect – India does not have an extradition treaty with the UN; extradition agreements exist bilaterally between sovereign nations.

Statement 3 is incorrect – Interpol Red Notices are not legally binding; they serve as international alerts but do not mandate extradition.

About Extradition Treaty:

• An extradition treaty is a formal agreement between two countries to transfer individuals accused or convicted of serious crimes.

• It ensures that fugitives cannot evade justice by crossing international borders.

Countries with Which India Has an Extradition Treaty

• India has extradition treaties with 48 countries, including: United States, United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, UAE, France, Germany, Russia, and South Korea.

• United States, United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, UAE, France, Germany, Russia, and South Korea.

• India also has extradition arrangements with 12 additional countries, allowing case-specific extradition.

The Extradition Act, 1962:

• The Extradition Act, 1962, governs extradition procedures in India.

• It defines how fugitives can be extradited from India and how India can request extradition from other countries.

Key Provisions of the Act

• Applicability: Covers both treaty-based and non-treaty extradition cases.

• Dual Criminality Principle: The offense must be a crime in both India and the requesting country.

• Extradition Offenses: Covers terrorism, organized crime, drug trafficking, and financial fraud.

• Bar on Political Offenses: Individuals cannot be extradited for political offenses.

• Rule of Specialty: The fugitive can only be tried for the crime they were extradited for.

• Human Rights Considerations: No extradition if there is a risk of torture or an unfair trial.

Nodal Authority for Extradition

• Ministry of External Affairs (MEA): Processes extradition requests from foreign governments.

• Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): Handles extradition-related investigations.

• National Investigation Agency (NIA): Pursues cases related to terrorism and national security.

Implementation of the Act

• India initiates extradition through diplomatic channels after verifying legal requirements.

• The request is forwarded to the foreign country’s legal system for approval.

• If approved, law enforcement agencies coordinate the fugitive’s transfer to India.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Vanuatu: Vanuatu is located in the Pacific Ring of Fire, making it prone to frequent volcanic eruptions and earthquakes. The country follows a strict policy of neutrality, refusing diplomatic relations with China or the United States. The economy of Vanuatu is primarily based on agriculture, tourism, and offshore financial services. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – Vanuatu is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, experiencing frequent volcanic eruptions, earthquakes, and cyclones. Statement 2 is incorrect – Vanuatu maintains diplomatic relations with both China and the U.S.; China is a major economic partner. Statement 3 is correct – Vanuatu’s economy relies on agriculture (coconuts, kava), tourism, and offshore financial services. About Vanuatu: Geographical Location Vanuatu is an island nation in the South Pacific Ocean, situated approximately 1,750 km east of Australia. It consists of 83 volcanic islands, covering a total land area of 12,189 sq. km. Capital: Port Vila Neighboring Countries: Australia, Fiji, New Caledonia, and Solomon Islands. Geographical Features Major Islands: Efate, Espiritu Santo, Malekula, Tanna, Pentecost. Volcanic Activity: Home to active volcanoes like Mount Yasur (Tanna) and Ambae Volcano. Climate: Tropical climate with frequent cyclones and earthquakes due to its location in the Pacific Ring of Fire. Marine Ecosystem: Rich in coral reefs, deep-sea fisheries, and marine biodiversity. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – Vanuatu is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, experiencing frequent volcanic eruptions, earthquakes, and cyclones. Statement 2 is incorrect – Vanuatu maintains diplomatic relations with both China and the U.S.; China is a major economic partner. Statement 3 is correct – Vanuatu’s economy relies on agriculture (coconuts, kava), tourism, and offshore financial services. About Vanuatu: Geographical Location Vanuatu is an island nation in the South Pacific Ocean, situated approximately 1,750 km east of Australia. It consists of 83 volcanic islands, covering a total land area of 12,189 sq. km. Capital: Port Vila Neighboring Countries: Australia, Fiji, New Caledonia, and Solomon Islands. Geographical Features Major Islands: Efate, Espiritu Santo, Malekula, Tanna, Pentecost. Volcanic Activity: Home to active volcanoes like Mount Yasur (Tanna) and Ambae Volcano. Climate: Tropical climate with frequent cyclones and earthquakes due to its location in the Pacific Ring of Fire. Marine Ecosystem: Rich in coral reefs, deep-sea fisheries, and marine biodiversity.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Vanuatu:

• Vanuatu is located in the Pacific Ring of Fire, making it prone to frequent volcanic eruptions and earthquakes.

• The country follows a strict policy of neutrality, refusing diplomatic relations with China or the United States.

• The economy of Vanuatu is primarily based on agriculture, tourism, and offshore financial services.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct – Vanuatu is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, experiencing frequent volcanic eruptions, earthquakes, and cyclones.

Statement 2 is incorrect – Vanuatu maintains diplomatic relations with both China and the U.S.; China is a major economic partner.

Statement 3 is correct – Vanuatu’s economy relies on agriculture (coconuts, kava), tourism, and offshore financial services.

About Vanuatu:

Geographical Location

• Vanuatu is an island nation in the South Pacific Ocean, situated approximately 1,750 km east of Australia.

• It consists of 83 volcanic islands, covering a total land area of 12,189 sq. km.

• Capital: Port Vila

• Neighboring Countries: Australia, Fiji, New Caledonia, and Solomon Islands.

Geographical Features

• Major Islands: Efate, Espiritu Santo, Malekula, Tanna, Pentecost.

• Volcanic Activity: Home to active volcanoes like Mount Yasur (Tanna) and Ambae Volcano.

• Climate: Tropical climate with frequent cyclones and earthquakes due to its location in the Pacific Ring of Fire.

• Marine Ecosystem: Rich in coral reefs, deep-sea fisheries, and marine biodiversity.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct – Vanuatu is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, experiencing frequent volcanic eruptions, earthquakes, and cyclones.

Statement 2 is incorrect – Vanuatu maintains diplomatic relations with both China and the U.S.; China is a major economic partner.

Statement 3 is correct – Vanuatu’s economy relies on agriculture (coconuts, kava), tourism, and offshore financial services.

About Vanuatu:

Geographical Location

• Vanuatu is an island nation in the South Pacific Ocean, situated approximately 1,750 km east of Australia.

• It consists of 83 volcanic islands, covering a total land area of 12,189 sq. km.

• Capital: Port Vila

• Neighboring Countries: Australia, Fiji, New Caledonia, and Solomon Islands.

Geographical Features

• Major Islands: Efate, Espiritu Santo, Malekula, Tanna, Pentecost.

• Volcanic Activity: Home to active volcanoes like Mount Yasur (Tanna) and Ambae Volcano.

• Climate: Tropical climate with frequent cyclones and earthquakes due to its location in the Pacific Ring of Fire.

• Marine Ecosystem: Rich in coral reefs, deep-sea fisheries, and marine biodiversity.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following is the primary objective of the Revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP) (2024-26)? (a) Providing direct cash transfers to livestock farmers for veterinary expenses (b) Developing a nationwide digital database for tracking livestock health using blockchain technology (c) Promoting indigenous livestock breeds by limiting the use of imported genetic material (d) Eradicating economically significant livestock diseases through vaccination, surveillance, and treatment Correct Solution: D Option d is correct – LHDCP aims to control and eradicate major livestock diseases like Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Brucellosis, and Classical Swine Fever (CSF). Option a is incorrect – LHDCP focuses on disease control, not direct cash transfers. Option c is incorrect – Breed improvement is not a core focus of LHDCP; it falls under other schemes like Rashtriya Gokul Mission. Option b is incorrect – While digital tracking exists under INAPH (Information Network for Animal Productivity and Health), blockchain-based tracking is not yet implemented. About Revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP): What is LHDCP? A centrally sponsored scheme aimed at improving livestock health through vaccination, disease control, and veterinary infrastructure enhancement. It ensures higher productivity, economic growth for farmers, and disease prevention in livestock. Developed By: Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying. Aim: To prevent, control, and eradicate major livestock diseases through vaccination, surveillance, and veterinary services. To improve veterinary healthcare accessibility via Mobile Veterinary Units (MVUs). Diseases Covered: Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Brucellosis, Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR), Classical Swine Fever (CSF), Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD), Anthrax, Rabies, and other livestock diseases. Key Features: National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP): Focuses on FMD and Brucellosis eradication through mass vaccination. Critical Animal Disease Control Programme (CADCP): Targets PPR and CSF through 100% vaccination coverage. Mobile Veterinary Units (MVUs): Doorstep veterinary care through customized vehicles with diagnostic and treatment facilities. Pashu Aushadhi Initiative: ₹75 crore allocated for providing affordable generic veterinary medicines. Strengthening Veterinary Infrastructure: Upgrading veterinary hospitals, dispensaries, and diagnostic labs. Surveillance & Disease Reporting: Strengthening real-time disease monitoring via the Information Network for Animal Productivity and Health (INAPH). Public Awareness & Capacity Building: Training farmers and veterinarians on disease prevention and biosecurity measures. Central-State Fund Sharing: 60:40 for states, 90:10 for Northeast & Himalayan states, 100% for UTs. Incorrect Solution: D Option d is correct – LHDCP aims to control and eradicate major livestock diseases like Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Brucellosis, and Classical Swine Fever (CSF). Option a is incorrect – LHDCP focuses on disease control, not direct cash transfers. Option c is incorrect – Breed improvement is not a core focus of LHDCP; it falls under other schemes like Rashtriya Gokul Mission. Option b is incorrect – While digital tracking exists under INAPH (Information Network for Animal Productivity and Health), blockchain-based tracking is not yet implemented. About Revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP): What is LHDCP? A centrally sponsored scheme aimed at improving livestock health through vaccination, disease control, and veterinary infrastructure enhancement. It ensures higher productivity, economic growth for farmers, and disease prevention in livestock. Developed By: Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying. Aim: To prevent, control, and eradicate major livestock diseases through vaccination, surveillance, and veterinary services. To improve veterinary healthcare accessibility via Mobile Veterinary Units (MVUs). Diseases Covered: Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Brucellosis, Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR), Classical Swine Fever (CSF), Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD), Anthrax, Rabies, and other livestock diseases. Key Features: National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP): Focuses on FMD and Brucellosis eradication through mass vaccination. Critical Animal Disease Control Programme (CADCP): Targets PPR and CSF through 100% vaccination coverage. Mobile Veterinary Units (MVUs): Doorstep veterinary care through customized vehicles with diagnostic and treatment facilities. Pashu Aushadhi Initiative: ₹75 crore allocated for providing affordable generic veterinary medicines. Strengthening Veterinary Infrastructure: Upgrading veterinary hospitals, dispensaries, and diagnostic labs. Surveillance & Disease Reporting: Strengthening real-time disease monitoring via the Information Network for Animal Productivity and Health (INAPH). Public Awareness & Capacity Building: Training farmers and veterinarians on disease prevention and biosecurity measures. Central-State Fund Sharing: 60:40 for states, 90:10 for Northeast & Himalayan states, 100% for UTs.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following is the primary objective of the Revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP) (2024-26)?

• (a) Providing direct cash transfers to livestock farmers for veterinary expenses

• (b) Developing a nationwide digital database for tracking livestock health using blockchain technology

• (c) Promoting indigenous livestock breeds by limiting the use of imported genetic material

• (d) Eradicating economically significant livestock diseases through vaccination, surveillance, and treatment

Solution: D

Option d is correct – LHDCP aims to control and eradicate major livestock diseases like Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Brucellosis, and Classical Swine Fever (CSF).

Option a is incorrect – LHDCP focuses on disease control, not direct cash transfers.

Option c is incorrect – Breed improvement is not a core focus of LHDCP; it falls under other schemes like Rashtriya Gokul Mission.

Option b is incorrect – While digital tracking exists under INAPH (Information Network for Animal Productivity and Health), blockchain-based tracking is not yet implemented.

About Revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP):

What is LHDCP?

• A centrally sponsored scheme aimed at improving livestock health through vaccination, disease control, and veterinary infrastructure enhancement.

• It ensures higher productivity, economic growth for farmers, and disease prevention in livestock.

Developed By: Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying.

• To prevent, control, and eradicate major livestock diseases through vaccination, surveillance, and veterinary services.

• To improve veterinary healthcare accessibility via Mobile Veterinary Units (MVUs).

Diseases Covered:

• Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Brucellosis, Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR), Classical Swine Fever (CSF), Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD), Anthrax, Rabies, and other livestock diseases.

Key Features:

• National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP): Focuses on FMD and Brucellosis eradication through mass vaccination.

• Critical Animal Disease Control Programme (CADCP): Targets PPR and CSF through 100% vaccination coverage.

• Mobile Veterinary Units (MVUs): Doorstep veterinary care through customized vehicles with diagnostic and treatment facilities.

• Pashu Aushadhi Initiative: ₹75 crore allocated for providing affordable generic veterinary medicines.

• Strengthening Veterinary Infrastructure: Upgrading veterinary hospitals, dispensaries, and diagnostic labs.

• Surveillance & Disease Reporting: Strengthening real-time disease monitoring via the Information Network for Animal Productivity and Health (INAPH).

• Public Awareness & Capacity Building: Training farmers and veterinarians on disease prevention and biosecurity measures.

• Central-State Fund Sharing: 60:40 for states, 90:10 for Northeast & Himalayan states, 100% for UTs.