UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 11 July 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC): The UNCRC was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1989. The UNCRC applies only to children under the age of 16. The UNCRC does not include provisions for the protection of children from economic exploitation. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct. The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) is a globally recognized international agreement adopted in 1989 and enforced in 1990, with 54 articles outlining children’s rights and governmental responsibilities. Ratified by all UN members except the United States, it ensures children’s fundamental rights, including the Right to life, education, protection from abuse, the right to be heard, and a relationship with parents. The core principles include non-discrimination, the right to life, survival, and development, the best interests of the child, and respect for the child’s views. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct. The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) is a globally recognized international agreement adopted in 1989 and enforced in 1990, with 54 articles outlining children’s rights and governmental responsibilities. Ratified by all UN members except the United States, it ensures children’s fundamental rights, including the Right to life, education, protection from abuse, the right to be heard, and a relationship with parents. The core principles include non-discrimination, the right to life, survival, and development, the best interests of the child, and respect for the child’s views. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC):

• The UNCRC was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1989. The UNCRC applies only to children under the age of 16. The UNCRC does not include provisions for the protection of children from economic exploitation.

• The UNCRC was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1989.

• The UNCRC applies only to children under the age of 16.

• The UNCRC does not include provisions for the protection of children from economic exploitation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Only statement 1 is correct.

• The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) is a globally recognized international agreement adopted in 1989 and enforced in 1990, with 54 articles outlining children’s rights and governmental responsibilities. Ratified by all UN members except the United States, it ensures children’s fundamental rights, including the Right to life, education, protection from abuse, the right to be heard, and a relationship with parents.

• The core principles include non-discrimination, the right to life, survival, and development, the best interests of the child, and respect for the child’s views.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Only statement 1 is correct.

• The core principles include non-discrimination, the right to life, survival, and development, the best interests of the child, and respect for the child’s views.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Frictional unemployment: It is the result of workers transitioning between jobs. It is a sign of a weak economy. It typically involves a short duration of unemployment. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is Correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when workers are temporarily unemployed while transitioning between jobs. This is a normal part of a healthy labor market as workers move to positions that better match their skills and preferences. S2 is Incorrect: Frictional unemployment is not necessarily a sign of a weak economy. It is a natural part of the job search process and can occur even in strong economies as people change jobs or enter the workforce for the first time. S3 is Correct: Frictional unemployment typically involves a short duration of unemployment as it relates to the time needed for individuals to find new employment that matches their skills and preferences. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is Correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when workers are temporarily unemployed while transitioning between jobs. This is a normal part of a healthy labor market as workers move to positions that better match their skills and preferences. S2 is Incorrect: Frictional unemployment is not necessarily a sign of a weak economy. It is a natural part of the job search process and can occur even in strong economies as people change jobs or enter the workforce for the first time. S3 is Correct: Frictional unemployment typically involves a short duration of unemployment as it relates to the time needed for individuals to find new employment that matches their skills and preferences. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Frictional unemployment:

• It is the result of workers transitioning between jobs. It is a sign of a weak economy. It typically involves a short duration of unemployment.

• It is the result of workers transitioning between jobs.

• It is a sign of a weak economy.

• It typically involves a short duration of unemployment.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• S1 is Correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when workers are temporarily unemployed while transitioning between jobs. This is a normal part of a healthy labor market as workers move to positions that better match their skills and preferences.

• S2 is Incorrect: Frictional unemployment is not necessarily a sign of a weak economy. It is a natural part of the job search process and can occur even in strong economies as people change jobs or enter the workforce for the first time.

• S3 is Correct: Frictional unemployment typically involves a short duration of unemployment as it relates to the time needed for individuals to find new employment that matches their skills and preferences.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Lakhudiyar Cave in Uttarakhand is famous for its Neolithic rock art. The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra are renowned for their intricate Buddhist paintings. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Scientists have discovered the world’s oldest-known cave painting in the Leang Karampuang cave on the Indonesian island of Sulawesi. Cave paintings in India: The Ajanta Caves: These are located in Maharashtra and are famous for their detailed and vibrant Buddhist paintings, which span from the 2nd century BCE to 480 CE. The Lakhudiyar Cave: Located in Uttarakhand, this site is notable for its Neolithic rock art, depicting various aspects of prehistoric human and animal life. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Scientists have discovered the world’s oldest-known cave painting in the Leang Karampuang cave on the Indonesian island of Sulawesi. Cave paintings in India: The Ajanta Caves: These are located in Maharashtra and are famous for their detailed and vibrant Buddhist paintings, which span from the 2nd century BCE to 480 CE. The Lakhudiyar Cave: Located in Uttarakhand, this site is notable for its Neolithic rock art, depicting various aspects of prehistoric human and animal life. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Lakhudiyar Cave in Uttarakhand is famous for its Neolithic rock art. The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra are renowned for their intricate Buddhist paintings.

• The Lakhudiyar Cave in Uttarakhand is famous for its Neolithic rock art.

• The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra are renowned for their intricate Buddhist paintings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: Scientists have discovered the world’s oldest-known cave painting in the Leang Karampuang cave on the Indonesian island of Sulawesi.

• Cave paintings in India: The Ajanta Caves: These are located in Maharashtra and are famous for their detailed and vibrant Buddhist paintings, which span from the 2nd century BCE to 480 CE. The Lakhudiyar Cave: Located in Uttarakhand, this site is notable for its Neolithic rock art, depicting various aspects of prehistoric human and animal life.

• The Ajanta Caves: These are located in Maharashtra and are famous for their detailed and vibrant Buddhist paintings, which span from the 2nd century BCE to 480 CE.

• The Lakhudiyar Cave: Located in Uttarakhand, this site is notable for its Neolithic rock art, depicting various aspects of prehistoric human and animal life.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: Scientists have discovered the world’s oldest-known cave painting in the Leang Karampuang cave on the Indonesian island of Sulawesi.

• The Ajanta Caves: These are located in Maharashtra and are famous for their detailed and vibrant Buddhist paintings, which span from the 2nd century BCE to 480 CE.

• The Lakhudiyar Cave: Located in Uttarakhand, this site is notable for its Neolithic rock art, depicting various aspects of prehistoric human and animal life.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following languages have been granted classical status in India? Malayalam Telugu Odia Bengali Hindi Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Central government is set to revise the criteria for granting classical language status, affecting languages like Marathi, which has been seeking this status for over a decade. Currently, six languages have classical status: Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia. The criteria for classical language status include high antiquity, a valuable body of ancient literature, original literary tradition, and distinctness from modern forms. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Central government is set to revise the criteria for granting classical language status, affecting languages like Marathi, which has been seeking this status for over a decade. Currently, six languages have classical status: Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia. The criteria for classical language status include high antiquity, a valuable body of ancient literature, original literary tradition, and distinctness from modern forms. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 4. Question

Which of the following languages have been granted classical status in India?

• Malayalam Telugu Odia Bengali Hindi

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 3, 4 and 5 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

• Context: The Central government is set to revise the criteria for granting classical language status, affecting languages like Marathi, which has been seeking this status for over a decade.

• Currently, six languages have classical status: Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia.

• The criteria for classical language status include high antiquity, a valuable body of ancient literature, original literary tradition, and distinctness from modern forms.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: The Central government is set to revise the criteria for granting classical language status, affecting languages like Marathi, which has been seeking this status for over a decade.

• Currently, six languages have classical status: Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia.

• The criteria for classical language status include high antiquity, a valuable body of ancient literature, original literary tradition, and distinctness from modern forms.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Minorities (NCM): It was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. It consists of a Chairperson and six other members. It is responsible for safeguarding the rights of only religious minorities in India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The National Commission for Minorities took initiative to discuss the implementation and registration of Sikh marriages under the Anand Marriage Act with 18 States/UTs. S1 is Correct. The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. This Act provides the statutory basis for the formation and functioning of the Commission. S2 is Correct. The NCM consists of a Chairperson and six other members, who are appointed by the Central Government. S3 is Incorrect. The NCM is responsible for safeguarding the rights of various minorities in India, not just religious minorities. This includes linguistic, cultural, and other types of minorities. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The National Commission for Minorities took initiative to discuss the implementation and registration of Sikh marriages under the Anand Marriage Act with 18 States/UTs. S1 is Correct. The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. This Act provides the statutory basis for the formation and functioning of the Commission. S2 is Correct. The NCM consists of a Chairperson and six other members, who are appointed by the Central Government. S3 is Incorrect. The NCM is responsible for safeguarding the rights of various minorities in India, not just religious minorities. This includes linguistic, cultural, and other types of minorities. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Minorities (NCM):

• It was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. It consists of a Chairperson and six other members. It is responsible for safeguarding the rights of only religious minorities in India.

• It was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.

• It consists of a Chairperson and six other members.

• It is responsible for safeguarding the rights of only religious minorities in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: The National Commission for Minorities took initiative to discuss the implementation and registration of Sikh marriages under the Anand Marriage Act with 18 States/UTs.

• S1 is Correct. The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. This Act provides the statutory basis for the formation and functioning of the Commission.

• S2 is Correct. The NCM consists of a Chairperson and six other members, who are appointed by the Central Government.

• S3 is Incorrect. The NCM is responsible for safeguarding the rights of various minorities in India, not just religious minorities. This includes linguistic, cultural, and other types of minorities.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: The National Commission for Minorities took initiative to discuss the implementation and registration of Sikh marriages under the Anand Marriage Act with 18 States/UTs.

• S2 is Correct. The NCM consists of a Chairperson and six other members, who are appointed by the Central Government.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Zombie start-ups are companies that: (a) Have been acquired by larger corporations but continue to operate under their original name. (b) Are no longer operational but still exist on paper. (c) Have enough funding to continue operations but lack significant growth or innovation. (d) Have been declared bankrupt but continue to operate in a limited capacity. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: About Zombie Start-ups: “Zombie start-ups” refer to companies that, while technically still in operation, are struggling to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue. These businesses are often stuck in a state of stagnation, unable to attract further investment or reach profitability, yet they continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: About Zombie Start-ups: “Zombie start-ups” refer to companies that, while technically still in operation, are struggling to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue. These businesses are often stuck in a state of stagnation, unable to attract further investment or reach profitability, yet they continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 6. Question

Zombie start-ups are companies that:

• (a) Have been acquired by larger corporations but continue to operate under their original name.

• (b) Are no longer operational but still exist on paper.

• (c) Have enough funding to continue operations but lack significant growth or innovation.

• (d) Have been declared bankrupt but continue to operate in a limited capacity.

Explanation: About Zombie Start-ups:

• “Zombie start-ups” refer to companies that, while technically still in operation, are struggling to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue.

• These businesses are often stuck in a state of stagnation, unable to attract further investment or reach profitability, yet they continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation: About Zombie Start-ups:

• “Zombie start-ups” refer to companies that, while technically still in operation, are struggling to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which statement accurately describes the function of the brake system in a car? (a) To convert kinetic energy into electrical energy to stop the vehicle. (b) To convert kinetic energy into thermal energy to stop the vehicle. (c) It uses hydraulic fluid to cool the engine. (d) It uses air pressure to inflate the tires. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Regenerative braking in electric vehicles is a system that converts kinetic energy from the wheels into a storable form of energy, increasing efficiency. Traditional braking methods, such as disc and induction brakes, convert kinetic energy to heat. In regenerative braking, the electric motor that propels the vehicle acts as a generator during braking, converting mechanical energy back to electrical energy, which is then stored in the vehicle’s battery. The brake system in a car primarily functions to stop or slow down the vehicle by converting kinetic energy into thermal energy. When the driver applies the brakes, the brake pads or shoes press against the rotating discs or drums attached to the wheels. This friction generates heat, thereby converting the vehicle’s kinetic energy into thermal energy, effectively slowing down or stopping the car. This process is crucial for safe driving and effective vehicle control. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Regenerative braking in electric vehicles is a system that converts kinetic energy from the wheels into a storable form of energy, increasing efficiency. Traditional braking methods, such as disc and induction brakes, convert kinetic energy to heat. In regenerative braking, the electric motor that propels the vehicle acts as a generator during braking, converting mechanical energy back to electrical energy, which is then stored in the vehicle’s battery. The brake system in a car primarily functions to stop or slow down the vehicle by converting kinetic energy into thermal energy. When the driver applies the brakes, the brake pads or shoes press against the rotating discs or drums attached to the wheels. This friction generates heat, thereby converting the vehicle’s kinetic energy into thermal energy, effectively slowing down or stopping the car. This process is crucial for safe driving and effective vehicle control. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 7. Question

Which statement accurately describes the function of the brake system in a car?

• (a) To convert kinetic energy into electrical energy to stop the vehicle.

• (b) To convert kinetic energy into thermal energy to stop the vehicle.

• (c) It uses hydraulic fluid to cool the engine.

• (d) It uses air pressure to inflate the tires.

Explanation:

• Context: Regenerative braking in electric vehicles is a system that converts kinetic energy from the wheels into a storable form of energy, increasing efficiency. Traditional braking methods, such as disc and induction brakes, convert kinetic energy to heat. In regenerative braking, the electric motor that propels the vehicle acts as a generator during braking, converting mechanical energy back to electrical energy, which is then stored in the vehicle’s battery.

• Traditional braking methods, such as disc and induction brakes, convert kinetic energy to heat.

• In regenerative braking, the electric motor that propels the vehicle acts as a generator during braking, converting mechanical energy back to electrical energy, which is then stored in the vehicle’s battery.

• The brake system in a car primarily functions to stop or slow down the vehicle by converting kinetic energy into thermal energy. When the driver applies the brakes, the brake pads or shoes press against the rotating discs or drums attached to the wheels. This friction generates heat, thereby converting the vehicle’s kinetic energy into thermal energy, effectively slowing down or stopping the car. This process is crucial for safe driving and effective vehicle control.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Traditional braking methods, such as disc and induction brakes, convert kinetic energy to heat.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS): UAS refers exclusively to military drones used for combat missions. UAS includes the aircraft, the ground-based controller, and the communication system. UAS can be used for various applications including agriculture, surveillance, and disaster management. UAS operations are always autonomous and do not require human intervention. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2, and 4 only (d) 2, 3, and 4 only Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is incorrect because UAS is not limited to military drones. It encompasses a wide range of unmanned aircraft used for various purposes, including civilian and commercial applications. S2 is correct. UAS includes the unmanned aircraft, the ground-based controller, and the communication system between the two. S3 is correct. UAS can be used for diverse applications such as agriculture (e.g., crop monitoring), surveillance (e.g., border security), and disaster management (e.g., search and rescue operations). S4 is incorrect because UAS operations can be either autonomous or remotely piloted. Many UAS operations require human intervention and control. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is incorrect because UAS is not limited to military drones. It encompasses a wide range of unmanned aircraft used for various purposes, including civilian and commercial applications. S2 is correct. UAS includes the unmanned aircraft, the ground-based controller, and the communication system between the two. S3 is correct. UAS can be used for diverse applications such as agriculture (e.g., crop monitoring), surveillance (e.g., border security), and disaster management (e.g., search and rescue operations). S4 is incorrect because UAS operations can be either autonomous or remotely piloted. Many UAS operations require human intervention and control. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS):

• UAS refers exclusively to military drones used for combat missions. UAS includes the aircraft, the ground-based controller, and the communication system. UAS can be used for various applications including agriculture, surveillance, and disaster management. UAS operations are always autonomous and do not require human intervention.

• UAS refers exclusively to military drones used for combat missions.

• UAS includes the aircraft, the ground-based controller, and the communication system.

• UAS can be used for various applications including agriculture, surveillance, and disaster management.

• UAS operations are always autonomous and do not require human intervention.

Which of the following statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 4 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2, and 4 only

• (d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

• S1 is incorrect because UAS is not limited to military drones. It encompasses a wide range of unmanned aircraft used for various purposes, including civilian and commercial applications.

• S2 is correct. UAS includes the unmanned aircraft, the ground-based controller, and the communication system between the two.

• S3 is correct. UAS can be used for diverse applications such as agriculture (e.g., crop monitoring), surveillance (e.g., border security), and disaster management (e.g., search and rescue operations).

• S4 is incorrect because UAS operations can be either autonomous or remotely piloted. Many UAS operations require human intervention and control.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation:

• S1 is incorrect because UAS is not limited to military drones. It encompasses a wide range of unmanned aircraft used for various purposes, including civilian and commercial applications.

• S2 is correct. UAS includes the unmanned aircraft, the ground-based controller, and the communication system between the two.

• S4 is incorrect because UAS operations can be either autonomous or remotely piloted. Many UAS operations require human intervention and control.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the ‘Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement’: It focuses solely on the conservation of marine genetic resources. It includes provisions for marine protected areas (MPAs) but does not address capacity-building or technology transfer. It allows for unrestricted fishing activities in areas beyond national jurisdiction. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: The ‘Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement’ is a comprehensive international treaty under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It aims to ensure the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction. Key aspects of the agreement include: Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs): The BBNJ Agreement addresses the conservation and sustainable use of marine genetic resources, including the equitable sharing of benefits derived from their utilization. Marine Protected Areas (MPAs): The agreement includes provisions for the establishment and management of marine protected areas to conserve biodiversity and ensure the sustainable use of marine resources. Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs): It mandates conducting environmental impact assessments for activities that may have significant adverse impacts on marine biodiversity. Capacity-Building and Technology Transfer: The BBNJ Agreement emphasizes the importance of capacity-building and the transfer of marine technology to developing countries to enable them to participate effectively in the conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: The ‘Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement’ is a comprehensive international treaty under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It aims to ensure the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction. Key aspects of the agreement include: Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs): The BBNJ Agreement addresses the conservation and sustainable use of marine genetic resources, including the equitable sharing of benefits derived from their utilization. Marine Protected Areas (MPAs): The agreement includes provisions for the establishment and management of marine protected areas to conserve biodiversity and ensure the sustainable use of marine resources. Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs): It mandates conducting environmental impact assessments for activities that may have significant adverse impacts on marine biodiversity. Capacity-Building and Technology Transfer: The BBNJ Agreement emphasizes the importance of capacity-building and the transfer of marine technology to developing countries to enable them to participate effectively in the conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the ‘Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement’:

• It focuses solely on the conservation of marine genetic resources. It includes provisions for marine protected areas (MPAs) but does not address capacity-building or technology transfer. It allows for unrestricted fishing activities in areas beyond national jurisdiction.

• It focuses solely on the conservation of marine genetic resources.

• It includes provisions for marine protected areas (MPAs) but does not address capacity-building or technology transfer.

• It allows for unrestricted fishing activities in areas beyond national jurisdiction.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• The ‘Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement’ is a comprehensive international treaty under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It aims to ensure the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction. Key aspects of the agreement include: Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs): The BBNJ Agreement addresses the conservation and sustainable use of marine genetic resources, including the equitable sharing of benefits derived from their utilization. Marine Protected Areas (MPAs): The agreement includes provisions for the establishment and management of marine protected areas to conserve biodiversity and ensure the sustainable use of marine resources. Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs): It mandates conducting environmental impact assessments for activities that may have significant adverse impacts on marine biodiversity.

• Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs): The BBNJ Agreement addresses the conservation and sustainable use of marine genetic resources, including the equitable sharing of benefits derived from their utilization.

• Marine Protected Areas (MPAs): The agreement includes provisions for the establishment and management of marine protected areas to conserve biodiversity and ensure the sustainable use of marine resources.

• Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs): It mandates conducting environmental impact assessments for activities that may have significant adverse impacts on marine biodiversity.

• Capacity-Building and Technology Transfer: The BBNJ Agreement emphasizes the importance of capacity-building and the transfer of marine technology to developing countries to enable them to participate effectively in the conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs): It mandates conducting environmental impact assessments for activities that may have significant adverse impacts on marine biodiversity.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about genome editing is correct? (a) CRISPR-Cas9 is the only genome editing technology available. (b) Genome editing can be used to correct genetic defects. (c) TALENs and ZFNs are types of genome editing tools that do not involve DNA recognition. (d) Off-target effects are not a concern in genome editing. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies (Kufos) is set to launch a genome editing mission to enhance the breeding and seed production of pearl spot fish. Genome editing technologies, such as CRISPR-Cas9, TALENs (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases), and ZFNs (Zinc Finger Nucleases), have the potential to correct genetic defects by precisely modifying DNA sequences. CRISPR-Cas9 is one of the most widely used genome editing tools, but it is not the only one. TALENs and ZFNs are also important tools that rely on DNA recognition to induce specific changes in the genome. Off-target effects are a concern in genome editing because unintended modifications to the genome can occur, potentially leading to undesired consequences. Therefore, option B is correct because genome editing can indeed be used to correct genetic defects, whereas the other statements are incorrect or misleading. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies (Kufos) is set to launch a genome editing mission to enhance the breeding and seed production of pearl spot fish. Genome editing technologies, such as CRISPR-Cas9, TALENs (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases), and ZFNs (Zinc Finger Nucleases), have the potential to correct genetic defects by precisely modifying DNA sequences. CRISPR-Cas9 is one of the most widely used genome editing tools, but it is not the only one. TALENs and ZFNs are also important tools that rely on DNA recognition to induce specific changes in the genome. Off-target effects are a concern in genome editing because unintended modifications to the genome can occur, potentially leading to undesired consequences. Therefore, option B is correct because genome editing can indeed be used to correct genetic defects, whereas the other statements are incorrect or misleading. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

#### 10. Question

Which of the following statements about genome editing is correct?

• (a) CRISPR-Cas9 is the only genome editing technology available.

• (b) Genome editing can be used to correct genetic defects.

• (c) TALENs and ZFNs are types of genome editing tools that do not involve DNA recognition.

• (d) Off-target effects are not a concern in genome editing.

Explanation:

• Context: The Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies (Kufos) is set to launch a genome editing mission to enhance the breeding and seed production of pearl spot fish.

• Genome editing technologies, such as CRISPR-Cas9, TALENs (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases), and ZFNs (Zinc Finger Nucleases), have the potential to correct genetic defects by precisely modifying DNA sequences. CRISPR-Cas9 is one of the most widely used genome editing tools, but it is not the only one. TALENs and ZFNs are also important tools that rely on DNA recognition to induce specific changes in the genome. Off-target effects are a concern in genome editing because unintended modifications to the genome can occur, potentially leading to undesired consequences.

• CRISPR-Cas9 is one of the most widely used genome editing tools, but it is not the only one. TALENs and ZFNs are also important tools that rely on DNA recognition to induce specific changes in the genome.

• Off-target effects are a concern in genome editing because unintended modifications to the genome can occur, potentially leading to undesired consequences.

• Therefore, option B is correct because genome editing can indeed be used to correct genetic defects, whereas the other statements are incorrect or misleading.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: The Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies (Kufos) is set to launch a genome editing mission to enhance the breeding and seed production of pearl spot fish.

• Off-target effects are a concern in genome editing because unintended modifications to the genome can occur, potentially leading to undesired consequences.

• Therefore, option B is correct because genome editing can indeed be used to correct genetic defects, whereas the other statements are incorrect or misleading.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/10/upsc-current-affairs-10-july-2024/

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