UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 11 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Mangrove clam (Geloina erosa), consider the following statements: It is a large-sized bivalve primarily found in the organic-rich muddy substrates of intertidal mangrove zones. It is a stenohaline species that can only survive in high-salinity marine environments. Its burrowing behaviour contributes to ecosystem resilience by enhancing nutrient cycling and stabilizing sediments. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Geloina erosa, commonly known as the mud clam or “Kandal Kakka,” is one of the world’s largest mangrove clams, reaching up to 10 cm in shell width. It thrives in the intertidal zones of mangrove and estuarine ecosystems across South and Southeast Asia. Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is known for its ability to tolerate a wide salinity range, from brackish water to near-freshwater environments, making it a euryhaline rather than a stenohaline species. Statement 3 is correct. These clams are ecosystem stabilizers. As deep-burrowing, semi-infaunal organisms, they play a crucial role in recycling nutrients and improving water quality through filter-feeding. Their presence strengthens the benthic-mangrove linkage, making the ecosystem more resilient to environmental changes. The ICAR-CMFRI’s recent success in induced breeding of this species is a significant scientific milestone for estuarine aquaculture and mangrove restoration. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Geloina erosa, commonly known as the mud clam or “Kandal Kakka,” is one of the world’s largest mangrove clams, reaching up to 10 cm in shell width. It thrives in the intertidal zones of mangrove and estuarine ecosystems across South and Southeast Asia. Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is known for its ability to tolerate a wide salinity range, from brackish water to near-freshwater environments, making it a euryhaline rather than a stenohaline species. Statement 3 is correct. These clams are ecosystem stabilizers. As deep-burrowing, semi-infaunal organisms, they play a crucial role in recycling nutrients and improving water quality through filter-feeding. Their presence strengthens the benthic-mangrove linkage, making the ecosystem more resilient to environmental changes. The ICAR-CMFRI’s recent success in induced breeding of this species is a significant scientific milestone for estuarine aquaculture and mangrove restoration.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Mangrove clam (Geloina erosa), consider the following statements:

• It is a large-sized bivalve primarily found in the organic-rich muddy substrates of intertidal mangrove zones.

• It is a stenohaline species that can only survive in high-salinity marine environments.

• Its burrowing behaviour contributes to ecosystem resilience by enhancing nutrient cycling and stabilizing sediments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Geloina erosa, commonly known as the mud clam or “Kandal Kakka,” is one of the world’s largest mangrove clams, reaching up to 10 cm in shell width. It thrives in the intertidal zones of mangrove and estuarine ecosystems across South and Southeast Asia.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is known for its ability to tolerate a wide salinity range, from brackish water to near-freshwater environments, making it a euryhaline rather than a stenohaline species.

• Statement 3 is correct. These clams are ecosystem stabilizers. As deep-burrowing, semi-infaunal organisms, they play a crucial role in recycling nutrients and improving water quality through filter-feeding. Their presence strengthens the benthic-mangrove linkage, making the ecosystem more resilient to environmental changes.

• The ICAR-CMFRI’s recent success in induced breeding of this species is a significant scientific milestone for estuarine aquaculture and mangrove restoration.

Solution: B

• The ICAR-CMFRI’s recent success in induced breeding of this species is a significant scientific milestone for estuarine aquaculture and mangrove restoration.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2025: It is an annual publication of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) in collaboration with the World Bank. The index evaluates countries based on four primary pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact. India’s performance in 2025 shows that its network readiness is significantly lower than expected for its income level. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The NRI is prepared and published by the Portulans Institute, an independent non-profit research institute based in Washington, D.C. Statement 2 is correct. The index framework is built on four pillars: Technology (infrastructure and access), People (skills and inclusion), Governance (regulation and trust), and Impact (economic and social outcomes). Each pillar is further broken down into specific indicators like AI research and broadband penetration. Statement 3 is incorrect. The 2025 report specifically highlights that India’s network readiness exceeds expectations for its income level. In fact, India is ranked 2nd among lower-middle-income countries. India has shown strong growth, climbing to the 45th rank globally, and leads in specific sub-indicators such as AI scientific publications and annual investment in telecommunication services. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The NRI is prepared and published by the Portulans Institute, an independent non-profit research institute based in Washington, D.C. Statement 2 is correct. The index framework is built on four pillars: Technology (infrastructure and access), People (skills and inclusion), Governance (regulation and trust), and Impact (economic and social outcomes). Each pillar is further broken down into specific indicators like AI research and broadband penetration. Statement 3 is incorrect. The 2025 report specifically highlights that India’s network readiness exceeds expectations for its income level. In fact, India is ranked 2nd among lower-middle-income countries. India has shown strong growth, climbing to the 45th rank globally, and leads in specific sub-indicators such as AI scientific publications and annual investment in telecommunication services.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2025:

• It is an annual publication of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) in collaboration with the World Bank.

• The index evaluates countries based on four primary pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact.

• India’s performance in 2025 shows that its network readiness is significantly lower than expected for its income level.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NRI is prepared and published by the Portulans Institute, an independent non-profit research institute based in Washington, D.C.

• Statement 2 is correct. The index framework is built on four pillars: Technology (infrastructure and access), People (skills and inclusion), Governance (regulation and trust), and Impact (economic and social outcomes). Each pillar is further broken down into specific indicators like AI research and broadband penetration.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The 2025 report specifically highlights that India’s network readiness exceeds expectations for its income level. In fact, India is ranked 2nd among lower-middle-income countries. India has shown strong growth, climbing to the 45th rank globally, and leads in specific sub-indicators such as AI scientific publications and annual investment in telecommunication services.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NRI is prepared and published by the Portulans Institute, an independent non-profit research institute based in Washington, D.C.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points In the context of Indian elections, consider the following: Statement-I: Form 7 of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, allows for the objection to the inclusion of a name in the electoral roll. Statement-II: Under the 2022 amendment, only a person whose name is registered in the same polling booth can file an objection against another voter. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. Form 7 is the statutory mechanism used to object to the inclusion or seek deletion of a name from the electoral roll. Common grounds include death, duplication, or shifting of residence. Statement-II is incorrect. Following the 2022 amendment, the scope of Form 7 was expanded. Now, any registered elector of the constituency (not just the same booth) can file an objection against the inclusion of a name in the roll of that constituency. This change was intended to increase transparency but has recently led to controversies regarding bulk deletions. The process involves strict physical verification by the Booth Level Officer (BLO) and a hearing by the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO). Filing a false declaration in Form 7 is a punishable offense under Section 32 of the RP Act, 1950, carrying potential imprisonment. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. Form 7 is the statutory mechanism used to object to the inclusion or seek deletion of a name from the electoral roll. Common grounds include death, duplication, or shifting of residence. Statement-II is incorrect. Following the 2022 amendment, the scope of Form 7 was expanded. Now, any registered elector of the constituency (not just the same booth) can file an objection against the inclusion of a name in the roll of that constituency. This change was intended to increase transparency but has recently led to controversies regarding bulk deletions. The process involves strict physical verification by the Booth Level Officer (BLO) and a hearing by the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO). Filing a false declaration in Form 7 is a punishable offense under Section 32 of the RP Act, 1950, carrying potential imprisonment.

#### 3. Question

In the context of Indian elections, consider the following:

Statement-I: Form 7 of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, allows for the objection to the inclusion of a name in the electoral roll.

Statement-II: Under the 2022 amendment, only a person whose name is registered in the same polling booth can file an objection against another voter.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. Form 7 is the statutory mechanism used to object to the inclusion or seek deletion of a name from the electoral roll. Common grounds include death, duplication, or shifting of residence.

• Statement-II is incorrect. Following the 2022 amendment, the scope of Form 7 was expanded. Now, any registered elector of the constituency (not just the same booth) can file an objection against the inclusion of a name in the roll of that constituency. This change was intended to increase transparency but has recently led to controversies regarding bulk deletions.

The process involves strict physical verification by the Booth Level Officer (BLO) and a hearing by the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO). Filing a false declaration in Form 7 is a punishable offense under Section 32 of the RP Act, 1950, carrying potential imprisonment.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately describe the Kimberley Process (KP)? It is a United Nations-led initiative where only government entities are members. It aims to prevent “conflict diamonds” from entering the mainstream rough diamond market. India has been selected to chair the Kimberley Process starting January 2026. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kimberley Process is a tripartite initiative involving governments, the diamond industry, and civil society. It is not a UN-only body, though it was established following UN Security Council resolutions. Statement 2 is correct. The primary goal is to eliminate “conflict diamonds”—rough diamonds used by rebel movements to finance wars against legitimate governments. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) ensures that all exports are accompanied by a certificate proving they are conflict-free. Statement 3 is correct. India has been selected to assume the Chairpersonship of the KP from January 1, 2026. This will be India’s third time leading the global initiative. Today, the KP covers 60 participants (with the EU as one) and accounts for over 99% of the global rough diamond trade, successfully reducing the illicit trade to negligible levels. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kimberley Process is a tripartite initiative involving governments, the diamond industry, and civil society. It is not a UN-only body, though it was established following UN Security Council resolutions. Statement 2 is correct. The primary goal is to eliminate “conflict diamonds”—rough diamonds used by rebel movements to finance wars against legitimate governments. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) ensures that all exports are accompanied by a certificate proving they are conflict-free. Statement 3 is correct. India has been selected to assume the Chairpersonship of the KP from January 1, 2026. This will be India’s third time leading the global initiative. Today, the KP covers 60 participants (with the EU as one) and accounts for over 99% of the global rough diamond trade, successfully reducing the illicit trade to negligible levels.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements accurately describe the Kimberley Process (KP)?

• It is a United Nations-led initiative where only government entities are members.

• It aims to prevent “conflict diamonds” from entering the mainstream rough diamond market.

• India has been selected to chair the Kimberley Process starting January 2026.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kimberley Process is a tripartite initiative involving governments, the diamond industry, and civil society. It is not a UN-only body, though it was established following UN Security Council resolutions.

• Statement 2 is correct. The primary goal is to eliminate “conflict diamonds”—rough diamonds used by rebel movements to finance wars against legitimate governments. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) ensures that all exports are accompanied by a certificate proving they are conflict-free.

Statement 3 is correct. India has been selected to assume the Chairpersonship of the KP from January 1, 2026. This will be India’s third time leading the global initiative. Today, the KP covers 60 participants (with the EU as one) and accounts for over 99% of the global rough diamond trade, successfully reducing the illicit trade to negligible levels.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to “Lyriothemis keralensis”, a species recently discovered in Kerala, consider the following statements: It is a species of dragonfly endemic to the Western Ghats. It displays sexual dimorphism, with males being blood-red and females being yellow. The species is unique because its entire life cycle, including the larval stage, is spent in rubber plantations. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Lyriothemis keralensis is a newly described dragonfly species (Odonata) that is endemic to Kerala, specifically within the Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot. Statement 2 is correct. The species shows clear sexual dimorphism: males are a striking blood-red with black markings, while females are yellow with black markings. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the adults are found in shaded rubber and pineapple plantations, their life cycle is not restricted to these terrestrial areas. Like other dragonflies, they have an aquatic larval stage. The adults are only visible during the Southwest monsoon (May–August), while the rest of the year is spent as larvae in vegetated pools or irrigation canals. This discovery is significant as it demonstrates how human-modified landscapes can still support unique, undiscovered biodiversity, although it raises concerns since these areas often lack formal protection. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Lyriothemis keralensis is a newly described dragonfly species (Odonata) that is endemic to Kerala, specifically within the Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot. Statement 2 is correct. The species shows clear sexual dimorphism: males are a striking blood-red with black markings, while females are yellow with black markings. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the adults are found in shaded rubber and pineapple plantations, their life cycle is not restricted to these terrestrial areas. Like other dragonflies, they have an aquatic larval stage. The adults are only visible during the Southwest monsoon (May–August), while the rest of the year is spent as larvae in vegetated pools or irrigation canals. This discovery is significant as it demonstrates how human-modified landscapes can still support unique, undiscovered biodiversity, although it raises concerns since these areas often lack formal protection.

#### 5. Question

With reference to “Lyriothemis keralensis”, a species recently discovered in Kerala, consider the following statements:

• It is a species of dragonfly endemic to the Western Ghats.

• It displays sexual dimorphism, with males being blood-red and females being yellow.

• The species is unique because its entire life cycle, including the larval stage, is spent in rubber plantations.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Lyriothemis keralensis is a newly described dragonfly species (Odonata) that is endemic to Kerala, specifically within the Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot.

• Statement 2 is correct. The species shows clear sexual dimorphism: males are a striking blood-red with black markings, while females are yellow with black markings.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the adults are found in shaded rubber and pineapple plantations, their life cycle is not restricted to these terrestrial areas. Like other dragonflies, they have an aquatic larval stage. The adults are only visible during the Southwest monsoon (May–August), while the rest of the year is spent as larvae in vegetated pools or irrigation canals.

This discovery is significant as it demonstrates how human-modified landscapes can still support unique, undiscovered biodiversity, although it raises concerns since these areas often lack formal protection.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct. The species shows clear sexual dimorphism: males are a striking blood-red with black markings, while females are yellow with black markings.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following geographical features of Seychelles: It is a republic consisting of both granitic, mountainous islands and low-lying coralline atolls. The archipelago is located in the Northern Hemisphere, just above the Equator in the Arabian Sea. Aldabra Atoll, a UNESCO World Heritage site, is part of this island nation. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Seychelles is a Small Island Developing State (SIDS) comprising two distinct groups: the Mahé group (over 40 mountainous, granitic islands) and the Outer Islands (over 70 flat, coralline atolls). Statement 2 is incorrect. Seychelles is located in the Southern Hemisphere (between 4°–11° S latitudes) and is situated in the western Indian Ocean, not the Arabian Sea. It lies northeast of Madagascar and east of Kenya. Statement 3 is correct. Seychelles is home to two UNESCO World Heritage Sites: the Aldabra Atoll and the Vallée de Mai National Park. Recently, India and Seychelles announced the “SESEL” Joint Vision, marking 50 years of diplomatic ties. This vision emphasizes maritime security, digital infrastructure, and climate resilience, reinforcing Seychelles as a key pillar in India’s MAHASAGAR vision for the Indian Ocean Region. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Seychelles is a Small Island Developing State (SIDS) comprising two distinct groups: the Mahé group (over 40 mountainous, granitic islands) and the Outer Islands (over 70 flat, coralline atolls). Statement 2 is incorrect. Seychelles is located in the Southern Hemisphere (between 4°–11° S latitudes) and is situated in the western Indian Ocean, not the Arabian Sea. It lies northeast of Madagascar and east of Kenya. Statement 3 is correct. Seychelles is home to two UNESCO World Heritage Sites: the Aldabra Atoll and the Vallée de Mai National Park. Recently, India and Seychelles announced the “SESEL” Joint Vision, marking 50 years of diplomatic ties. This vision emphasizes maritime security, digital infrastructure, and climate resilience, reinforcing Seychelles as a key pillar in India’s MAHASAGAR vision for the Indian Ocean Region.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following geographical features of Seychelles:

• It is a republic consisting of both granitic, mountainous islands and low-lying coralline atolls.

• The archipelago is located in the Northern Hemisphere, just above the Equator in the Arabian Sea.

• Aldabra Atoll, a UNESCO World Heritage site, is part of this island nation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Seychelles is a Small Island Developing State (SIDS) comprising two distinct groups: the Mahé group (over 40 mountainous, granitic islands) and the Outer Islands (over 70 flat, coralline atolls).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Seychelles is located in the Southern Hemisphere (between 4°–11° S latitudes) and is situated in the western Indian Ocean, not the Arabian Sea. It lies northeast of Madagascar and east of Kenya.

Statement 3 is correct. Seychelles is home to two UNESCO World Heritage Sites: the Aldabra Atoll and the Vallée de Mai National Park. Recently, India and Seychelles announced the “SESEL” Joint Vision, marking 50 years of diplomatic ties. This vision emphasizes maritime security, digital infrastructure, and climate resilience, reinforcing Seychelles as a key pillar in India’s MAHASAGAR vision for the Indian Ocean Region.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Match the Following: Phenomenon (Col 1) Atmosphere Layer (Col 2) Typical Impact (Col 3) I. Tropospheric Polar Vortex A. Lower Atmosphere 1. Direct Weather Events II. Stratospheric Polar Vortex B. Higher Atmosphere 2. Strongest in Winter Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) I-B-2 and II-A-1 (b) I-B-1 and II-A-2 (c) I-A-2 and II-B-1 (d) I-A-1 and II-B-2 Correct Solution: D The Polar Vortex exists in two distinct layers of the atmosphere. The Tropospheric Polar Vortex (I) resides in the lower atmosphere (A), where our weather occurs, and its movements are directly responsible for the cold snaps and storms (1) we experience at the surface. The Stratospheric Polar Vortex (II) exists in the higher atmosphere (B) and is generally strongest during the winter (2). When the stratospheric vortex is disrupted by events like Sudden Stratospheric Warming, it can influence the tropospheric vortex below, leading to a wavy jet stream. This interaction causes extreme cold surges in mid-latitude regions like North America and Europe. Incorrect Solution: D The Polar Vortex exists in two distinct layers of the atmosphere. The Tropospheric Polar Vortex (I) resides in the lower atmosphere (A), where our weather occurs, and its movements are directly responsible for the cold snaps and storms (1) we experience at the surface. The Stratospheric Polar Vortex (II) exists in the higher atmosphere (B) and is generally strongest during the winter (2). When the stratospheric vortex is disrupted by events like Sudden Stratospheric Warming, it can influence the tropospheric vortex below, leading to a wavy jet stream. This interaction causes extreme cold surges in mid-latitude regions like North America and Europe.

#### 7. Question

Match the Following:

Phenomenon (Col 1) | Atmosphere Layer (Col 2) | Typical Impact (Col 3)

I. Tropospheric Polar Vortex | A. Lower Atmosphere | 1. Direct Weather Events

II. Stratospheric Polar Vortex | B. Higher Atmosphere | 2. Strongest in Winter

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) I-B-2 and II-A-1

• (b) I-B-1 and II-A-2

• (c) I-A-2 and II-B-1

• (d) I-A-1 and II-B-2

Solution: D

The Polar Vortex exists in two distinct layers of the atmosphere.

The Tropospheric Polar Vortex (I) resides in the lower atmosphere (A), where our weather occurs, and its movements are directly responsible for the cold snaps and storms (1) we experience at the surface.

The Stratospheric Polar Vortex (II) exists in the higher atmosphere (B) and is generally strongest during the winter (2). When the stratospheric vortex is disrupted by events like Sudden Stratospheric Warming, it can influence the tropospheric vortex below, leading to a wavy jet stream. This interaction causes extreme cold surges in mid-latitude regions like North America and Europe.

Solution: D

The Polar Vortex exists in two distinct layers of the atmosphere.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Regarding Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), consider the following statements: They operate on the principle of mutual help and local participation. The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 decreased the RBI’s powers over UCB governance. UCBs primarily serve small borrowers, traders, and MSMEs in urban areas. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; UCBs are member-owned and function on co-operative principles like mutual help and democratic control. Statement 3 is correct, as their core mission is providing credit to MSMEs, small traders, and salaried employees who may be excluded from mainstream commercial banking. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 actually increased and strengthened the RBI’s powers over UCBs, particularly regarding their management, audit, and resolution. This was done to address governance failures and protect depositors’ interests. The recent proposal to reopen licensing reflects a shift towards a more regulated and professionalized co-operative banking sector. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; UCBs are member-owned and function on co-operative principles like mutual help and democratic control. Statement 3 is correct, as their core mission is providing credit to MSMEs, small traders, and salaried employees who may be excluded from mainstream commercial banking. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 actually increased and strengthened the RBI’s powers over UCBs, particularly regarding their management, audit, and resolution. This was done to address governance failures and protect depositors’ interests. The recent proposal to reopen licensing reflects a shift towards a more regulated and professionalized co-operative banking sector.

#### 8. Question

Regarding Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), consider the following statements:

• They operate on the principle of mutual help and local participation.

• The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 decreased the RBI’s powers over UCB governance.

• UCBs primarily serve small borrowers, traders, and MSMEs in urban areas.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct; UCBs are member-owned and function on co-operative principles like mutual help and democratic control.

• Statement 3 is correct, as their core mission is providing credit to MSMEs, small traders, and salaried employees who may be excluded from mainstream commercial banking.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 actually increased and strengthened the RBI’s powers over UCBs, particularly regarding their management, audit, and resolution. This was done to address governance failures and protect depositors’ interests. The recent proposal to reopen licensing reflects a shift towards a more regulated and professionalized co-operative banking sector.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct; UCBs are member-owned and function on co-operative principles like mutual help and democratic control.

• Statement 3 is correct, as their core mission is providing credit to MSMEs, small traders, and salaried employees who may be excluded from mainstream commercial banking.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which country recently proposed the first Reading of the ‘Antarctic Activities and Environmental Protection Law’ to its national legislature? (a) Russia (b) India (c) China (d) Australia Correct Solution: C The government of China submitted the draft Antarctic Activities and Environmental Protection Law to the National People’s Congress (NPC) Standing Committee in December 2025. This legislative move is intended to provide a comprehensive binding legal framework for all Chinese engagement in Antarctica. It shifts the management of polar activities from simple policy guidelines to formal domestic law. The law is particularly significant given China’s expanding interests in Antarctic tourism and shipping. By regulating these activities domestically, China aims to demonstrate its commitment to the Antarctic Treaty System and peaceful environmental protection while asserting its role in global governance. Incorrect Solution: C The government of China submitted the draft Antarctic Activities and Environmental Protection Law to the National People’s Congress (NPC) Standing Committee in December 2025. This legislative move is intended to provide a comprehensive binding legal framework for all Chinese engagement in Antarctica. It shifts the management of polar activities from simple policy guidelines to formal domestic law. The law is particularly significant given China’s expanding interests in Antarctic tourism and shipping. By regulating these activities domestically, China aims to demonstrate its commitment to the Antarctic Treaty System and peaceful environmental protection while asserting its role in global governance.

#### 9. Question

Which country recently proposed the first Reading of the ‘Antarctic Activities and Environmental Protection Law’ to its national legislature?

• (a) Russia

• (d) Australia

Solution: C

The government of China submitted the draft Antarctic Activities and Environmental Protection Law to the National People’s Congress (NPC) Standing Committee in December 2025. This legislative move is intended to provide a comprehensive binding legal framework for all Chinese engagement in Antarctica. It shifts the management of polar activities from simple policy guidelines to formal domestic law. The law is particularly significant given China’s expanding interests in Antarctic tourism and shipping. By regulating these activities domestically, China aims to demonstrate its commitment to the Antarctic Treaty System and peaceful environmental protection while asserting its role in global governance.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the National Commission for Women (NCW), consider the following statements: It is a constitutional body established under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act. The Commission has the power to inspect jails and remand homes where women are kept in custody. The Chairperson and all members are nominated by the President of India. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Only Statement 2 is correct. The National Commission for Women (NCW) is not a constitutional body; it is a statutory body established on 31 January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. Its creation was based on the recommendations of the Committee on the Status of Women in India (CSWI) and the National Perspective Plan for Women. Under Section 10 of the Act, the Commission is mandated to inspect jails, remand homes, or other places of custody where women are kept, to ensure their rights are protected. Regarding its structure, the Chairperson and five members are nominated by the Central Government, not the President. The law mandates that at least one member each must belong to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Commission functions as a watchdog for women’s rights, possessing the powers of a civil court in matters of summoning witnesses and requisitioning documents. It acts as an advisory body to the government on legislative and policy matters affecting women and can take suo motu notice of matters relating to the deprivation of women’s rights. Incorrect Solution: A Only Statement 2 is correct. The National Commission for Women (NCW) is not a constitutional body; it is a statutory body established on 31 January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. Its creation was based on the recommendations of the Committee on the Status of Women in India (CSWI) and the National Perspective Plan for Women. Under Section 10 of the Act, the Commission is mandated to inspect jails, remand homes, or other places of custody where women are kept, to ensure their rights are protected. Regarding its structure, the Chairperson and five members are nominated by the Central Government, not the President. The law mandates that at least one member each must belong to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Commission functions as a watchdog for women’s rights, possessing the powers of a civil court in matters of summoning witnesses and requisitioning documents. It acts as an advisory body to the government on legislative and policy matters affecting women and can take suo motu notice of matters relating to the deprivation of women’s rights.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the National Commission for Women (NCW), consider the following statements:

• It is a constitutional body established under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act.

• The Commission has the power to inspect jails and remand homes where women are kept in custody.

• The Chairperson and all members are nominated by the President of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Only Statement 2 is correct.

• The National Commission for Women (NCW) is not a constitutional body; it is a statutory body established on 31 January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. Its creation was based on the recommendations of the Committee on the Status of Women in India (CSWI) and the National Perspective Plan for Women. Under Section 10 of the Act, the Commission is mandated to inspect jails, remand homes, or other places of custody where women are kept, to ensure their rights are protected.

Regarding its structure, the Chairperson and five members are nominated by the Central Government, not the President. The law mandates that at least one member each must belong to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Commission functions as a watchdog for women’s rights, possessing the powers of a civil court in matters of summoning witnesses and requisitioning documents. It acts as an advisory body to the government on legislative and policy matters affecting women and can take suo motu notice of matters relating to the deprivation of women’s rights.

Solution: A

Only Statement 2 is correct.

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