UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 11 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points In the context of India’s Diet Paradox, consider the following statements: Statement I: Despite rising incomes and increased spending on animal foods and perishables, ultra-processed foods have become “daily essentials” in both rural and urban India, leading to a health crisis. Statement II: The price elasticity of demand for processed foods has dropped by 90% since 1999, which indicates that consumers treat them as essential goods rather than as mere indulgences. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement I is correct. Despite diversification (rising income/spending on milk/vegetables), dependence on ultra-processed foods has normalized due to time poverty, transitioning them from “treats” to “essentials”. Statement II is correct. The 90% decline in price elasticity means that even with price hikes, the demand for processed foods does not drop significantly, proving their status as “essential goods” driven by convenience. Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. The drastic drop in price elasticity (Statement II) signifies that processed foods have become essential goods, explaining why their consumption persists and normalizes as ‘daily essentials’ (Statement I), even as incomes rise and healthier options become affordable. This demonstrates a structural prioritization of convenience over price or nutrition Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement I is correct. Despite diversification (rising income/spending on milk/vegetables), dependence on ultra-processed foods has normalized due to time poverty, transitioning them from “treats” to “essentials”. Statement II is correct. The 90% decline in price elasticity means that even with price hikes, the demand for processed foods does not drop significantly, proving their status as “essential goods” driven by convenience. Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. The drastic drop in price elasticity (Statement II) signifies that processed foods have become essential goods, explaining why their consumption persists and normalizes as ‘daily essentials’ (Statement I), even as incomes rise and healthier options become affordable. This demonstrates a structural prioritization of convenience over price or nutrition

#### 1. Question

In the context of India’s Diet Paradox, consider the following statements:

Statement I: Despite rising incomes and increased spending on animal foods and perishables, ultra-processed foods have become “daily essentials” in both rural and urban India, leading to a health crisis.

Statement II: The price elasticity of demand for processed foods has dropped by 90% since 1999, which indicates that consumers treat them as essential goods rather than as mere indulgences.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Despite diversification (rising income/spending on milk/vegetables), dependence on ultra-processed foods has normalized due to time poverty, transitioning them from “treats” to “essentials”.

Statement II is correct. The 90% decline in price elasticity means that even with price hikes, the demand for processed foods does not drop significantly, proving their status as “essential goods” driven by convenience.

Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. The drastic drop in price elasticity (Statement II) signifies that processed foods have become essential goods, explaining why their consumption persists and normalizes as ‘daily essentials’ (Statement I), even as incomes rise and healthier options become affordable. This demonstrates a structural prioritization of convenience over price or nutrition

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points ‘Operation Hinterland Brew’, recently in the news, is an operation conducted by which of the following agencies/bodies? (a) Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) to destroy opium cultivation in tribal areas. (b) Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) to bust clandestine drug manufacturing units in remote regions. (c) National Investigation Agency (NIA) to target terrorist funding through synthetic drug trafficking. (d) Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) to intercept drug smuggling along the India-Nepal border. Correct Solution: B Explanation: Operation Hinterland Brew is a targeted anti-narcotics operation conducted by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI). Its specific aim is to identify and destroy clandestine drug manufacturing units operating in remote or rural regions (the ‘Hinterland’). The operation is part of the broader national effort under the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan. Hence, option B is the correct answer. Significance: Prevents large-scale circulation of high-purity synthetic narcotics. Disrupts organised drug networks using rural areas as camouflage. Strengthens India’s enforcement credibility under the NDPS Act, 1985. Supports national health and security goals by curbing the synthetic drug ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Operation Hinterland Brew is a targeted anti-narcotics operation conducted by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI). Its specific aim is to identify and destroy clandestine drug manufacturing units operating in remote or rural regions (the ‘Hinterland’). The operation is part of the broader national effort under the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan. Hence, option B is the correct answer. Significance: Prevents large-scale circulation of high-purity synthetic narcotics. Disrupts organised drug networks using rural areas as camouflage. Strengthens India’s enforcement credibility under the NDPS Act, 1985. Supports national health and security goals by curbing the synthetic drug ecosystem.

#### 2. Question

‘Operation Hinterland Brew’, recently in the news, is an operation conducted by which of the following agencies/bodies?

• (a) Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) to destroy opium cultivation in tribal areas.

• (b) Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) to bust clandestine drug manufacturing units in remote regions.

• (c) National Investigation Agency (NIA) to target terrorist funding through synthetic drug trafficking.

• (d) Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) to intercept drug smuggling along the India-Nepal border.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Operation Hinterland Brew is a targeted anti-narcotics operation conducted by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI). Its specific aim is to identify and destroy clandestine drug manufacturing units operating in remote or rural regions (the ‘Hinterland’). The operation is part of the broader national effort under the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Significance:

• Prevents large-scale circulation of high-purity synthetic narcotics.

• Disrupts organised drug networks using rural areas as camouflage.

• Strengthens India’s enforcement credibility under the NDPS Act, 1985.

• Supports national health and security goals by curbing the synthetic drug ecosystem.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Significance:

• Prevents large-scale circulation of high-purity synthetic narcotics.

• Disrupts organised drug networks using rural areas as camouflage.

• Strengthens India’s enforcement credibility under the NDPS Act, 1985.

• Supports national health and security goals by curbing the synthetic drug ecosystem.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to ‘The Unit’, a pilot gold-backed digital trade currency being speculated for BRICS, consider the following statements: It is designed to replace the domestic national currencies of BRICS member states. Transactions are designed to be run on an open-source, permissionless blockchain like Ethereum to maximize public transparency. Member countries will be required to pool their domestic gold reserves in an offshore trust to back the currency. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Explanation: “Statement 1 is incorrect. The Unit is explicitly a cross-border settlement tool, not a replacement for domestic national currencies. Replacing domestic currencies would lead to massive disruptions and a loss of monetary sovereignty.” Statement 2 is incorrect. A major central bank- or state-backed digital currency, especially one intended for geopolitical trade settlement, would almost certainly be built on a permissioned, closed ledger (a private Central Bank Digital Currency – CBDC style system). This allows member central banks to control compliance, monitor transactions for illicit finance, and maintain security/privacy. An open-source, permissionless blockchain (like Ethereum or Bitcoin) lacks the required control and confidentiality for sovereign monetary operations. Statement 3 is incorrect. Requiring countries to pool their entire (or large portion of their) domestic gold reserves into an offshore trust would be a major compromise of sovereign asset control. Member states would realistically contribute only a portion of their reserves to a multilateral mechanism sufficient to stabilize the ‘Unit’. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: “Statement 1 is incorrect. The Unit is explicitly a cross-border settlement tool, not a replacement for domestic national currencies. Replacing domestic currencies would lead to massive disruptions and a loss of monetary sovereignty.” Statement 2 is incorrect. A major central bank- or state-backed digital currency, especially one intended for geopolitical trade settlement, would almost certainly be built on a permissioned, closed ledger (a private Central Bank Digital Currency – CBDC style system). This allows member central banks to control compliance, monitor transactions for illicit finance, and maintain security/privacy. An open-source, permissionless blockchain (like Ethereum or Bitcoin) lacks the required control and confidentiality for sovereign monetary operations. Statement 3 is incorrect. Requiring countries to pool their entire (or large portion of their) domestic gold reserves into an offshore trust would be a major compromise of sovereign asset control. Member states would realistically contribute only a portion of their reserves to a multilateral mechanism sufficient to stabilize the ‘Unit’.

#### 3. Question

With reference to ‘The Unit’, a pilot gold-backed digital trade currency being speculated for BRICS, consider the following statements:

• It is designed to replace the domestic national currencies of BRICS member states.

• Transactions are designed to be run on an open-source, permissionless blockchain like Ethereum to maximize public transparency.

• Member countries will be required to pool their domestic gold reserves in an offshore trust to back the currency.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

Explanation:

“Statement 1 is incorrect. The Unit is explicitly a cross-border settlement tool, not a replacement for domestic national currencies. Replacing domestic currencies would lead to massive disruptions and a loss of monetary sovereignty.”

Statement 2 is incorrect. A major central bank- or state-backed digital currency, especially one intended for geopolitical trade settlement, would almost certainly be built on a permissioned, closed ledger (a private Central Bank Digital Currency – CBDC style system). This allows member central banks to control compliance, monitor transactions for illicit finance, and maintain security/privacy. An open-source, permissionless blockchain (like Ethereum or Bitcoin) lacks the required control and confidentiality for sovereign monetary operations.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Requiring countries to pool their entire (or large portion of their) domestic gold reserves into an offshore trust would be a major compromise of sovereign asset control. Member states would realistically contribute only a portion of their reserves to a multilateral mechanism sufficient to stabilize the ‘Unit’.

Solution: D

Explanation:

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about C. Rajagopalachari (Rajaji): He was the first and only Indian Governor-General of India. He successfully led the Vedaranyam Salt March, the Tamil equivalent of Gandhi’s Dandi March. He was the founder of the Swatantra Party, which was a conservative and pro-market political party. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Rajaji was the first and only Indian Governor-General of India , holding the office from 1948 until India became a republic in 1950. Statement 2 is correct. During the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, Rajaji led the Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha in Madras Presidency (present-day Tamil Nadu). This march covered a distance of about 240 km from Tiruchirappalli to Vedaranyam on the coast, culminating in the illegal collection of salt, making it the most significant parallel event to the Dandi March in the South. Statement 3 is correct. He founded the Swatantra Party (1959) , which was India’s first major liberal-conservative, pro-market party, advocating for reduced government control and free enterprise. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Rajaji was the first and only Indian Governor-General of India , holding the office from 1948 until India became a republic in 1950. Statement 2 is correct. During the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, Rajaji led the Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha in Madras Presidency (present-day Tamil Nadu). This march covered a distance of about 240 km from Tiruchirappalli to Vedaranyam on the coast, culminating in the illegal collection of salt, making it the most significant parallel event to the Dandi March in the South. Statement 3 is correct. He founded the Swatantra Party (1959) , which was India’s first major liberal-conservative, pro-market party, advocating for reduced government control and free enterprise.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about C. Rajagopalachari (Rajaji):

• He was the first and only Indian Governor-General of India.

• He successfully led the Vedaranyam Salt March, the Tamil equivalent of Gandhi’s Dandi March.

• He was the founder of the Swatantra Party, which was a conservative and pro-market political party.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Rajaji was the first and only Indian Governor-General of India , holding the office from 1948 until India became a republic in 1950.

Statement 2 is correct. During the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, Rajaji led the Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha in Madras Presidency (present-day Tamil Nadu). This march covered a distance of about 240 km from Tiruchirappalli to Vedaranyam on the coast, culminating in the illegal collection of salt, making it the most significant parallel event to the Dandi March in the South.

Statement 3 is correct. He founded the Swatantra Party (1959) , which was India’s first major liberal-conservative, pro-market party, advocating for reduced government control and free enterprise.

Solution: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Rajaji was the first and only Indian Governor-General of India , holding the office from 1948 until India became a republic in 1950.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Boreendo musical instrument: It is native to the Sindh province of Pakistan, with ethnomusicologists noting similar variants existing in the Kutch region of India. The sound production is controlled by manipulating three to five finger holes and by changing the angle of the mouth over the air inlet. The instrument is traditionally crafted by male potters and then aesthetically decorated with natural motifs primarily by the women of the community. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is Correct: The instrument is native to Sindh (specifically the Tharparkar region) and its variants have been noted in neighboring Kutch, Gujarat, India, due to historical interaction between pastoral and potter communities across the border. Statement 2 is Correct: The instrument is a globular or oval aerophone (wind instrument) with a single air inlet (mouth hole) and typically three to five finger holes on its body. Its characteristic wistful, melancholic sound is produced by blowing across the mouth hole while manipulating the finger holes and changing the angle of the mouth over the inlet to achieve microtonal variations and glissandos. Statement 3 is Correct: The crafting process is highly traditional and gender-specific. It is primarily made by male potters (Kumbhars) who fire the clay to create the sturdy, resonant body. The subsequent aesthetic decoration, involving traditional patterns and natural motifs (like flowers, animals, or geometric designs), is typically and skillfully carried out by the women of the community, making it a collective community art form. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is Correct: The instrument is native to Sindh (specifically the Tharparkar region) and its variants have been noted in neighboring Kutch, Gujarat, India, due to historical interaction between pastoral and potter communities across the border. Statement 2 is Correct: The instrument is a globular or oval aerophone (wind instrument) with a single air inlet (mouth hole) and typically three to five finger holes on its body. Its characteristic wistful, melancholic sound is produced by blowing across the mouth hole while manipulating the finger holes and changing the angle of the mouth over the inlet to achieve microtonal variations and glissandos. Statement 3 is Correct: The crafting process is highly traditional and gender-specific. It is primarily made by male potters (Kumbhars) who fire the clay to create the sturdy, resonant body. The subsequent aesthetic decoration, involving traditional patterns and natural motifs (like flowers, animals, or geometric designs), is typically and skillfully carried out by the women of the community, making it a collective community art form.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Boreendo musical instrument:

• It is native to the Sindh province of Pakistan, with ethnomusicologists noting similar variants existing in the Kutch region of India.

• The sound production is controlled by manipulating three to five finger holes and by changing the angle of the mouth over the air inlet.

• The instrument is traditionally crafted by male potters and then aesthetically decorated with natural motifs primarily by the women of the community.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is Correct: The instrument is native to Sindh (specifically the Tharparkar region) and its variants have been noted in neighboring Kutch, Gujarat, India, due to historical interaction between pastoral and potter communities across the border.

• Statement 2 is Correct: The instrument is a globular or oval aerophone (wind instrument) with a single air inlet (mouth hole) and typically three to five finger holes on its body. Its characteristic wistful, melancholic sound is produced by blowing across the mouth hole while manipulating the finger holes and changing the angle of the mouth over the inlet to achieve microtonal variations and glissandos.

• Statement 3 is Correct: The crafting process is highly traditional and gender-specific. It is primarily made by male potters (Kumbhars) who fire the clay to create the sturdy, resonant body. The subsequent aesthetic decoration, involving traditional patterns and natural motifs (like flowers, animals, or geometric designs), is typically and skillfully carried out by the women of the community, making it a collective community art form.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Match List-I (Constituent Assembly Committee) with List-II (Chairman): List-I (Committee) List-II (Chairman) A. Union Powers Committee 1. B.R. Ambedkar B. Rules Committee 2. Sardar Patel C. Drafting Committee 3. Jawaharlal Nehru D. Provincial Constitution Committee 4. Rajendra Prasad Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 Correct Solution: A Explanation: The governance structure and foundational principles of the Constitution were largely shaped by the reports submitted by the various committees. A. Union Powers Committee: Chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru (3). This committee was key in defining the central authority’s legislative scope. B. Rules Committee: Chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4). As the President of the Assembly, he logically headed the committee that defined the Assembly’s internal procedures. C. Drafting Committee: Chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (1), who is recognized as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution. D. Provincial Constitution Committee: Chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (2). His role in integrating the provinces made him the ideal choice to frame their constitutional structure. The correct matches are A-3, B-4, C-1, and D-2. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: The governance structure and foundational principles of the Constitution were largely shaped by the reports submitted by the various committees. A. Union Powers Committee: Chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru (3). This committee was key in defining the central authority’s legislative scope. B. Rules Committee: Chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4). As the President of the Assembly, he logically headed the committee that defined the Assembly’s internal procedures. C. Drafting Committee: Chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (1), who is recognized as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution. D. Provincial Constitution Committee: Chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (2). His role in integrating the provinces made him the ideal choice to frame their constitutional structure. The correct matches are A-3, B-4, C-1, and D-2.

#### 6. Question

Match List-I (Constituent Assembly Committee) with List-II (Chairman):

List-I (Committee) | List-II (Chairman)

A. Union Powers Committee | 1. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Rules Committee | 2. Sardar Patel

C. Drafting Committee | 3. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Provincial Constitution Committee | 4. Rajendra Prasad

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

• (b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

• (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

• (d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

Solution: A

Explanation:

The governance structure and foundational principles of the Constitution were largely shaped by the reports submitted by the various committees.

• A. Union Powers Committee: Chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru (3). This committee was key in defining the central authority’s legislative scope.

• B. Rules Committee: Chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4). As the President of the Assembly, he logically headed the committee that defined the Assembly’s internal procedures.

• C. Drafting Committee: Chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (1), who is recognized as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.

• D. Provincial Constitution Committee: Chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (2). His role in integrating the provinces made him the ideal choice to frame their constitutional structure.

The correct matches are A-3, B-4, C-1, and D-2.

Solution: A

Explanation:

The governance structure and foundational principles of the Constitution were largely shaped by the reports submitted by the various committees.

• A. Union Powers Committee: Chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru (3). This committee was key in defining the central authority’s legislative scope.

• B. Rules Committee: Chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4). As the President of the Assembly, he logically headed the committee that defined the Assembly’s internal procedures.

• C. Drafting Committee: Chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (1), who is recognized as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.

• D. Provincial Constitution Committee: Chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (2). His role in integrating the provinces made him the ideal choice to frame their constitutional structure.

The correct matches are A-3, B-4, C-1, and D-2.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements: The 20th Conference of the Parties (CoP20) was hosted by India, where a major decision was taken to ban all international trade in all species listed in Appendix II. In the CoP20, India successfully listed the oceanic whitetip shark and all manta and devil rays in CITES Appendix I. CITES operates through three Appendices, where Appendix III lists species threatened with extinction that are or may be affected by trade. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None Correct Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. CoP20 was hosted by Uzbekistan (Samarkand). CITES is a treaty that regulates international trade, not bans all trade in Appendix II species. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the oceanic whitetip shark and all manta/devil rays were added to Appendix I, this was a decision by the Parties, not a specific listing action by India. India’s prominent role was opposing the EU proposal to list guggul in Appendix II. Statement 3 is incorrect. Appendix III lists species threatened with extinction is incorrect. That definition belongs to Appendix I (e.g., tigers, gorillas), where commercial trade is essentially banned. CITES’s Appendix III lists species that are protected in at least one country, and that country has formally asked other CITES member nations for assistance in controlling international trade. This is a mechanism for unilateral protection. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. CoP20 was hosted by Uzbekistan (Samarkand). CITES is a treaty that regulates international trade, not bans all trade in Appendix II species. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the oceanic whitetip shark and all manta/devil rays were added to Appendix I, this was a decision by the Parties, not a specific listing action by India. India’s prominent role was opposing the EU proposal to list guggul in Appendix II. Statement 3 is incorrect. Appendix III lists species threatened with extinction is incorrect. That definition belongs to Appendix I (e.g., tigers, gorillas), where commercial trade is essentially banned. CITES’s Appendix III lists species that are protected in at least one country, and that country has formally asked other CITES member nations for assistance in controlling international trade. This is a mechanism for unilateral protection.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements:

• The 20th Conference of the Parties (CoP20) was hosted by India, where a major decision was taken to ban all international trade in all species listed in Appendix II.

• In the CoP20, India successfully listed the oceanic whitetip shark and all manta and devil rays in CITES Appendix I.

• CITES operates through three Appendices, where Appendix III lists species threatened with extinction that are or may be affected by trade.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. CoP20 was hosted by Uzbekistan (Samarkand). CITES is a treaty that regulates international trade, not bans all trade in Appendix II species.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the oceanic whitetip shark and all manta/devil rays were added to Appendix I, this was a decision by the Parties, not a specific listing action by India. India’s prominent role was opposing the EU proposal to list guggul in Appendix II.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Appendix III lists species threatened with extinction is incorrect. That definition belongs to Appendix I (e.g., tigers, gorillas), where commercial trade is essentially banned. CITES’s Appendix III lists species that are protected in at least one country, and that country has formally asked other CITES member nations for assistance in controlling international trade. This is a mechanism for unilateral protection.

Solution: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. CoP20 was hosted by Uzbekistan (Samarkand). CITES is a treaty that regulates international trade, not bans all trade in Appendix II species.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Malaysia Laos Myanmar Thailand Vietnam How many of the countries given above share a land border with Cambodia? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: B Explanation: Cambodia is located on the Indochina Peninsula and is bordered by only three countries. The bordering countries are: Laos: To the North/Northeast. Thailand: To the West/Northwest. Vietnam: To the East/Southeast. The countries that do not share a land border are: Malaysia (1): Located far to the south, bordering Thailand, but not Cambodia. Myanmar (3): Located to the west of Thailand, separated from Cambodia by Thailand and Laos. Therefore, only three of the five countries listed share a land border with Cambodia. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Cambodia is located on the Indochina Peninsula and is bordered by only three countries. The bordering countries are: Laos: To the North/Northeast. Thailand: To the West/Northwest. Vietnam: To the East/Southeast. The countries that do not share a land border are: Malaysia (1): Located far to the south, bordering Thailand, but not Cambodia. Myanmar (3): Located to the west of Thailand, separated from Cambodia by Thailand and Laos. Therefore, only three of the five countries listed share a land border with Cambodia.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following countries:

How many of the countries given above share a land border with Cambodia?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: B

Explanation:

Cambodia is located on the Indochina Peninsula and is bordered by only three countries.

The bordering countries are:

• Laos: To the North/Northeast.

• Thailand: To the West/Northwest.

• Vietnam: To the East/Southeast.

The countries that do not share a land border are:

• Malaysia (1): Located far to the south, bordering Thailand, but not Cambodia.

• Myanmar (3): Located to the west of Thailand, separated from Cambodia by Thailand and Laos.

Therefore, only three of the five countries listed share a land border with Cambodia.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Cambodia is located on the Indochina Peninsula and is bordered by only three countries.

The bordering countries are:

• Laos: To the North/Northeast.

• Thailand: To the West/Northwest.

• Vietnam: To the East/Southeast.

The countries that do not share a land border are:

• Malaysia (1): Located far to the south, bordering Thailand, but not Cambodia.

• Myanmar (3): Located to the west of Thailand, separated from Cambodia by Thailand and Laos.

Therefore, only three of the five countries listed share a land border with Cambodia.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following constitutional figures temporarily chaired the first session of the Constituent Assembly of India on December 9, 1946, following the French practice? (a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha (d) Rajendra Prasad Correct Solution: C Explanation: The first session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on December 9, 1946. Following the French practice of appointing the oldest member as the temporary president, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha temporarily chaired this first session. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was later elected as the permanent President. This session marked the beginning of the monumental task of drafting the Constitution. Historical Evolution: Initially 389 members (292 Provincial, 93 Princely States, 4 Chief Commissioners’ Provinces). After Partition (Mountbatten Plan, June 1947), Pakistan formed its own Assembly; Indian membership reduced to 299. Drafting completed in 2 years, 11 months, 17 days; Constitution adopted on November 26, 1949 and enforced on January 26, 1950. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: The first session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on December 9, 1946. Following the French practice of appointing the oldest member as the temporary president, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha temporarily chaired this first session. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was later elected as the permanent President. This session marked the beginning of the monumental task of drafting the Constitution. Historical Evolution: Initially 389 members (292 Provincial, 93 Princely States, 4 Chief Commissioners’ Provinces). After Partition (Mountbatten Plan, June 1947), Pakistan formed its own Assembly; Indian membership reduced to 299. Drafting completed in 2 years, 11 months, 17 days; Constitution adopted on November 26, 1949 and enforced on January 26, 1950.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following constitutional figures temporarily chaired the first session of the Constituent Assembly of India on December 9, 1946, following the French practice?

• (a) B.R. Ambedkar

• (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

• (c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

• (d) Rajendra Prasad

Solution: C

Explanation:

The first session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on December 9, 1946. Following the French practice of appointing the oldest member as the temporary president, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha temporarily chaired this first session. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was later elected as the permanent President. This session marked the beginning of the monumental task of drafting the Constitution.

Historical Evolution:

• Initially 389 members (292 Provincial, 93 Princely States, 4 Chief Commissioners’ Provinces).

• After Partition (Mountbatten Plan, June 1947), Pakistan formed its own Assembly; Indian membership reduced to 299.

• Drafting completed in 2 years, 11 months, 17 days; Constitution adopted on November 26, 1949 and enforced on January 26, 1950.

Solution: C

Explanation:

Historical Evolution:

• Initially 389 members (292 Provincial, 93 Princely States, 4 Chief Commissioners’ Provinces).

• After Partition (Mountbatten Plan, June 1947), Pakistan formed its own Assembly; Indian membership reduced to 299.

• Drafting completed in 2 years, 11 months, 17 days; Constitution adopted on November 26, 1949 and enforced on January 26, 1950.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA): Its Statute was adopted in 1956 and came into force in 1957. The IAEA functions independently of the United Nations system. One of its key functions is to manage nuclear and radiological emergencies through its Incident and Emergency Centre (IEC). How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Statute of the IAEA was adopted on 23 October 1956 and came into force on 29 July 1957. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the IAEA functions with operational independence, it is an autonomous organization within the United Nations system and reports to both the UN General Assembly and the Security Council. Statement 3 is correct. A key function is emergency response through its Incident and Emergency Centre (IEC), which coordinates global preparedness and response to nuclear or radiological incidents Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Statute of the IAEA was adopted on 23 October 1956 and came into force on 29 July 1957. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the IAEA functions with operational independence, it is an autonomous organization within the United Nations system and reports to both the UN General Assembly and the Security Council. Statement 3 is correct. A key function is emergency response through its Incident and Emergency Centre (IEC), which coordinates global preparedness and response to nuclear or radiological incidents

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):

• Its Statute was adopted in 1956 and came into force in 1957.

• The IAEA functions independently of the United Nations system.

• One of its key functions is to manage nuclear and radiological emergencies through its Incident and Emergency Centre (IEC).

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Statute of the IAEA was adopted on 23 October 1956 and came into force on 29 July 1957.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the IAEA functions with operational independence, it is an autonomous organization within the United Nations system and reports to both the UN General Assembly and the Security Council.

Statement 3 is correct. A key function is emergency response through its Incident and Emergency Centre (IEC), which coordinates global preparedness and response to nuclear or radiological incidents

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Statute of the IAEA was adopted on 23 October 1956 and came into force on 29 July 1957.

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