UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 11 August 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), which of the following statements is correct? (a) The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development. (b) The scheme provides free LPG connections to all rural households. (c) The identification of beneficiaries is primarily based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data. (d) The scheme was launched in 2018. Correct Solution: C Statement (a) is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG). Statement (b) is incorrect. The scheme provides deposit-free LPG connections, not entirely free connections, and it is targeted at women from economically weaker households, not all rural households. The primary objective is to make clean cooking fuel accessible to those who cannot afford the initial connection cost. Statement (c) is correct. The identification of eligible BPL families is done on the basis of Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 This ensures that the benefits of the scheme are targeted towards the most deserving households. Statement (d) is incorrect. The scheme was launched in May 2016 in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh. Incorrect Solution: C Statement (a) is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG). Statement (b) is incorrect. The scheme provides deposit-free LPG connections, not entirely free connections, and it is targeted at women from economically weaker households, not all rural households. The primary objective is to make clean cooking fuel accessible to those who cannot afford the initial connection cost. Statement (c) is correct. The identification of eligible BPL families is done on the basis of Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 This ensures that the benefits of the scheme are targeted towards the most deserving households. Statement (d) is incorrect. The scheme was launched in May 2016 in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.

• (b) The scheme provides free LPG connections to all rural households.

• (c) The identification of beneficiaries is primarily based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.

• (d) The scheme was launched in 2018.

Solution: C

• Statement (a) is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG).

• Statement (b) is incorrect. The scheme provides deposit-free LPG connections, not entirely free connections, and it is targeted at women from economically weaker households, not all rural households. The primary objective is to make clean cooking fuel accessible to those who cannot afford the initial connection cost.

• Statement (c) is correct. The identification of eligible BPL families is done on the basis of Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 This ensures that the benefits of the scheme are targeted towards the most deserving households.

Statement (d) is incorrect. The scheme was launched in May 2016 in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh.

Solution: C

• Statement (a) is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG).

Statement (d) is incorrect. The scheme was launched in May 2016 in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to India’s planned Third Launch Pad (TLP) at Sriharikota, consider the following statements: The TLP is being developed primarily to support the operational continuity of the PSLV program. One of the key objectives of the TLP is to provide strategic redundancy for launching heavy-lift and human spaceflight missions. The development of the TLP involves the participation of private sector players and MSMEs. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Third Launch Pad (TLP) is designed specifically for next-generation rockets, such as the Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV), not for the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). The NGLV is envisioned to be a much larger and more powerful rocket. Statement 2 is correct. A crucial objective of the TLP is to provide strategic redundancy. Currently, heavy-lift rockets like the LVM3 can only be launched from a single pad. The TLP will serve as a backup, preventing mission disruptions in case of any issues with the existing pad and ensuring continuity for critical missions like Gaganyaan. Statement 3 is correct. The project incorporates a “Make in India” push, with significant involvement of private players and Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the development of its infrastructure. This approach aims to boost the domestic space manufacturing ecosystem and enhance national capabilities. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Third Launch Pad (TLP) is designed specifically for next-generation rockets, such as the Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV), not for the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). The NGLV is envisioned to be a much larger and more powerful rocket. Statement 2 is correct. A crucial objective of the TLP is to provide strategic redundancy. Currently, heavy-lift rockets like the LVM3 can only be launched from a single pad. The TLP will serve as a backup, preventing mission disruptions in case of any issues with the existing pad and ensuring continuity for critical missions like Gaganyaan. Statement 3 is correct. The project incorporates a “Make in India” push, with significant involvement of private players and Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the development of its infrastructure. This approach aims to boost the domestic space manufacturing ecosystem and enhance national capabilities.

#### 2. Question

With reference to India’s planned Third Launch Pad (TLP) at Sriharikota, consider the following statements:

• The TLP is being developed primarily to support the operational continuity of the PSLV program.

• One of the key objectives of the TLP is to provide strategic redundancy for launching heavy-lift and human spaceflight missions.

• The development of the TLP involves the participation of private sector players and MSMEs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Third Launch Pad (TLP) is designed specifically for next-generation rockets, such as the Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV), not for the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). The NGLV is envisioned to be a much larger and more powerful rocket.

• Statement 2 is correct. A crucial objective of the TLP is to provide strategic redundancy. Currently, heavy-lift rockets like the LVM3 can only be launched from a single pad. The TLP will serve as a backup, preventing mission disruptions in case of any issues with the existing pad and ensuring continuity for critical missions like Gaganyaan.

• Statement 3 is correct. The project incorporates a “Make in India” push, with significant involvement of private players and Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the development of its infrastructure. This approach aims to boost the domestic space manufacturing ecosystem and enhance national capabilities.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the FAO Food Price Index (FFPI): It is a monthly measure of changes in the domestic retail prices of a basket of food commodities. The index tracks five commodity groups: cereals, vegetable oils, dairy, meat, and sugar. The weights used in the composite index are based on average export shares from the period 2014–2016. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The FFPI measures changes in international export prices, not domestic retail or wholesale prices. It serves as a global benchmark for food price trends. Statement 2 is correct. The index is composed of the average of five commodity group price indices: cereals, vegetable oils, dairy, meat, and sugar. Statement 3 is correct. The methodology was revised, and the index now uses average export shares from 2014–2016 as weights. This ensures the index accurately reflects the structure of the global food trade. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The FFPI measures changes in international export prices, not domestic retail or wholesale prices. It serves as a global benchmark for food price trends. Statement 2 is correct. The index is composed of the average of five commodity group price indices: cereals, vegetable oils, dairy, meat, and sugar. Statement 3 is correct. The methodology was revised, and the index now uses average export shares from 2014–2016 as weights. This ensures the index accurately reflects the structure of the global food trade.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the FAO Food Price Index (FFPI):

• It is a monthly measure of changes in the domestic retail prices of a basket of food commodities.

• The index tracks five commodity groups: cereals, vegetable oils, dairy, meat, and sugar.

• The weights used in the composite index are based on average export shares from the period 2014–2016.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The FFPI measures changes in international export prices, not domestic retail or wholesale prices. It serves as a global benchmark for food price trends.

• Statement 2 is correct. The index is composed of the average of five commodity group price indices: cereals, vegetable oils, dairy, meat, and sugar.

• Statement 3 is correct. The methodology was revised, and the index now uses average export shares from 2014–2016 as weights. This ensures the index accurately reflects the structure of the global food trade.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The FFPI measures changes in international export prices, not domestic retail or wholesale prices. It serves as a global benchmark for food price trends.

• Statement 2 is correct. The index is composed of the average of five commodity group price indices: cereals, vegetable oils, dairy, meat, and sugar.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Sea of Galilee: It is a saltwater lake located entirely within Syrian territory. The recent red coloration of the lake has been attributed to industrial chemical spills. The lake is primarily fed by the Yarmouk River. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea of Galilee is a freshwater lake, not saltwater, and it is located in northern Israel, though bordered by the Golan Heights to the east. Statement 2 is incorrect. The red color was caused by a natural phenomenon: a bloom of the green algae Botryococcus braunii. This alga produces red carotenoid pigments as a protective response to high sunlight exposure, a condition exacerbated by climate change and rising temperatures, not industrial spills. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sea of Galilee is fed mainly by the Jordan River. The Yarmouk River is a tributary that forms a boundary to the southeast of the lake. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea of Galilee is a freshwater lake, not saltwater, and it is located in northern Israel, though bordered by the Golan Heights to the east. Statement 2 is incorrect. The red color was caused by a natural phenomenon: a bloom of the green algae Botryococcus braunii. This alga produces red carotenoid pigments as a protective response to high sunlight exposure, a condition exacerbated by climate change and rising temperatures, not industrial spills. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sea of Galilee is fed mainly by the Jordan River. The Yarmouk River is a tributary that forms a boundary to the southeast of the lake.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the Sea of Galilee:

• It is a saltwater lake located entirely within Syrian territory.

• The recent red coloration of the lake has been attributed to industrial chemical spills.

• The lake is primarily fed by the Yarmouk River.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea of Galilee is a freshwater lake, not saltwater, and it is located in northern Israel, though bordered by the Golan Heights to the east.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The red color was caused by a natural phenomenon: a bloom of the green algae Botryococcus braunii. This alga produces red carotenoid pigments as a protective response to high sunlight exposure, a condition exacerbated by climate change and rising temperatures, not industrial spills.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sea of Galilee is fed mainly by the Jordan River. The Yarmouk River is a tributary that forms a boundary to the southeast of the lake.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sea of Galilee is a freshwater lake, not saltwater, and it is located in northern Israel, though bordered by the Golan Heights to the east.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sea of Galilee is fed mainly by the Jordan River. The Yarmouk River is a tributary that forms a boundary to the southeast of the lake.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the S.H.I.N.E. (Science, Health and Innovation for Nextgen Explorers) initiative: It is a scholarship program for students pursuing postgraduate studies in biomedical research. The initiative is a collaboration between the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the Ministry of Education. The program aims to inspire school students to pursue careers in health and biomedical research through outreach activities. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. S.H.I.N.E. (Science, Health and Innovation for Nextgen Explorers) is not a scholarship program but a nationwide science outreach programme. It focuses on engagement and inspiration rather than financial aid. Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative is organized by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in collaboration with the Department of Health Research (DHR), not the Ministry of Education. The focus is specifically on health and medical science. Statement 3 is correct. The primary aim of the S.H.I.N.E. initiative is to spark curiosity and inspire school students (grades 9-12) to consider careers in health and biomedical research. It achieves this through immersive experiences like lab tours, interactions with scientists, and demonstrations. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. S.H.I.N.E. (Science, Health and Innovation for Nextgen Explorers) is not a scholarship program but a nationwide science outreach programme. It focuses on engagement and inspiration rather than financial aid. Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative is organized by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in collaboration with the Department of Health Research (DHR), not the Ministry of Education. The focus is specifically on health and medical science. Statement 3 is correct. The primary aim of the S.H.I.N.E. initiative is to spark curiosity and inspire school students (grades 9-12) to consider careers in health and biomedical research. It achieves this through immersive experiences like lab tours, interactions with scientists, and demonstrations.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the S.H.I.N.E. (Science, Health and Innovation for Nextgen Explorers) initiative:

• It is a scholarship program for students pursuing postgraduate studies in biomedical research.

• The initiative is a collaboration between the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the Ministry of Education.

• The program aims to inspire school students to pursue careers in health and biomedical research through outreach activities.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. S.H.I.N.E. (Science, Health and Innovation for Nextgen Explorers) is not a scholarship program but a nationwide science outreach programme. It focuses on engagement and inspiration rather than financial aid.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative is organized by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in collaboration with the Department of Health Research (DHR), not the Ministry of Education. The focus is specifically on health and medical science.

• Statement 3 is correct. The primary aim of the S.H.I.N.E. initiative is to spark curiosity and inspire school students (grades 9-12) to consider careers in health and biomedical research. It achieves this through immersive experiences like lab tours, interactions with scientists, and demonstrations.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) scheme: Statement-I: The SASCI scheme is an example of cooperative federalism in action. Statement-II: Under the scheme, the central government provides financial assistance, while the state governments are empowered to propose, manage, and execute the tourism development projects. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The SASCI scheme for tourism exemplifies cooperative federalism, a governance model where the central and state governments work together in partnership. Statement-II is also correct and provides the direct explanation for Statement-I. The structure of the scheme defines the collaborative roles: the Centre’s role is to provide financial assistance (as part of its ‘Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment’ initiative), while the States are given the autonomy and responsibility to lead the projects. This includes identifying iconic sites, preparing project proposals, and managing the implementation on the ground. This division of responsibility and partnership between the Centre and States is the very definition of cooperative federalism. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The SASCI scheme for tourism exemplifies cooperative federalism, a governance model where the central and state governments work together in partnership. Statement-II is also correct and provides the direct explanation for Statement-I. The structure of the scheme defines the collaborative roles: the Centre’s role is to provide financial assistance (as part of its ‘Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment’ initiative), while the States are given the autonomy and responsibility to lead the projects. This includes identifying iconic sites, preparing project proposals, and managing the implementation on the ground. This division of responsibility and partnership between the Centre and States is the very definition of cooperative federalism. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) scheme:

Statement-I: The SASCI scheme is an example of cooperative federalism in action.

Statement-II: Under the scheme, the central government provides financial assistance, while the state governments are empowered to propose, manage, and execute the tourism development projects.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The SASCI scheme for tourism exemplifies cooperative federalism, a governance model where the central and state governments work together in partnership.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the direct explanation for Statement-I.

• The structure of the scheme defines the collaborative roles: the Centre’s role is to provide financial assistance (as part of its ‘Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment’ initiative), while the States are given the autonomy and responsibility to lead the projects. This includes identifying iconic sites, preparing project proposals, and managing the implementation on the ground. This division of responsibility and partnership between the Centre and States is the very definition of cooperative federalism.

• Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The SASCI scheme for tourism exemplifies cooperative federalism, a governance model where the central and state governments work together in partnership.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the direct explanation for Statement-I.

• Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions related to the office of the Vice President of India: Article 63 mandates the office of the Vice President. Article 64 states that the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Lok Sabha. Article 65 allows the Vice President to act as President during a casual vacancy. Article 68 prescribes that the Vice President shall continue in office until a successor assumes charge, even after the expiration of the five-year term. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 63 of the Constitution of India explicitly states, “There shall be a Vice-President of India.” Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 64 specifies that the Vice President shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), not the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The Lok Sabha is presided over by the Speaker. Statement 3 is correct. Article 65 outlines the functions of the Vice President, including the provision that he or she shall act as President in the event of a casual vacancy in the office of the President by reason of death, resignation, or removal. Statement 4 is correct. Article 67(c) contains a proviso stating that the Vice President, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, shall continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office. This ensures there is no gap in the office. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 63 of the Constitution of India explicitly states, “There shall be a Vice-President of India.” Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 64 specifies that the Vice President shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), not the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The Lok Sabha is presided over by the Speaker. Statement 3 is correct. Article 65 outlines the functions of the Vice President, including the provision that he or she shall act as President in the event of a casual vacancy in the office of the President by reason of death, resignation, or removal. Statement 4 is correct. Article 67(c) contains a proviso stating that the Vice President, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, shall continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office. This ensures there is no gap in the office.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions related to the office of the Vice President of India:

• Article 63 mandates the office of the Vice President.

• Article 64 states that the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Lok Sabha.

• Article 65 allows the Vice President to act as President during a casual vacancy.

• Article 68 prescribes that the Vice President shall continue in office until a successor assumes charge, even after the expiration of the five-year term.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 63 of the Constitution of India explicitly states, “There shall be a Vice-President of India.”

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 64 specifies that the Vice President shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), not the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The Lok Sabha is presided over by the Speaker.

• Statement 3 is correct. Article 65 outlines the functions of the Vice President, including the provision that he or she shall act as President in the event of a casual vacancy in the office of the President by reason of death, resignation, or removal.

• Statement 4 is correct. Article 67(c) contains a proviso stating that the Vice President, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, shall continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office. This ensures there is no gap in the office.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 63 of the Constitution of India explicitly states, “There shall be a Vice-President of India.”

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The imposition of President’s Rule in a state can be extended beyond one year only if a National Emergency is in operation. Statement-II: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced safeguards to prevent the misuse of Article 356 for political purposes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The extension of President’s Rule beyond one year requires one of two conditions to be met, not just a National Emergency. The two conditions laid down by the 44th Amendment Act are: A proclamation of National Emergency is in operation in the whole of India or in the whole or any part of the state. The Election Commission certifies that the continuation of the President’s rule is necessary on account of difficulties in holding general elections to the legislative assembly of the state concerned. Statement-II is correct. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, was a significant piece of legislation aimed at reversing some of the distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment. It introduced several safeguards to prevent the misuse of power by the executive, including the provisions related to the extension of President’s Rule beyond one year. These provisions were specifically designed to curb the practice of extending central rule in states for political reasons by making it subject to stringent conditions, thereby strengthening the federal structure of the Constitution. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The extension of President’s Rule beyond one year requires one of two conditions to be met, not just a National Emergency. The two conditions laid down by the 44th Amendment Act are: A proclamation of National Emergency is in operation in the whole of India or in the whole or any part of the state. The Election Commission certifies that the continuation of the President’s rule is necessary on account of difficulties in holding general elections to the legislative assembly of the state concerned. Statement-II is correct. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, was a significant piece of legislation aimed at reversing some of the distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment. It introduced several safeguards to prevent the misuse of power by the executive, including the provisions related to the extension of President’s Rule beyond one year. These provisions were specifically designed to curb the practice of extending central rule in states for political reasons by making it subject to stringent conditions, thereby strengthening the federal structure of the Constitution.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The imposition of President’s Rule in a state can be extended beyond one year only if a National Emergency is in operation.

Statement-II: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced safeguards to prevent the misuse of Article 356 for political purposes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

Statement-I is incorrect. The extension of President’s Rule beyond one year requires one of two conditions to be met, not just a National Emergency. The two conditions laid down by the 44th Amendment Act are:

• A proclamation of National Emergency is in operation in the whole of India or in the whole or any part of the state.

• The Election Commission certifies that the continuation of the President’s rule is necessary on account of difficulties in holding general elections to the legislative assembly of the state concerned.

Statement-II is correct. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, was a significant piece of legislation aimed at reversing some of the distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment. It introduced several safeguards to prevent the misuse of power by the executive, including the provisions related to the extension of President’s Rule beyond one year. These provisions were specifically designed to curb the practice of extending central rule in states for political reasons by making it subject to stringent conditions, thereby strengthening the federal structure of the Constitution.

Solution: D

• A proclamation of National Emergency is in operation in the whole of India or in the whole or any part of the state.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Nilgiri Tahr. Statement-I: The synchronized bi-annual survey of the Nilgiri Tahr is conducted exclusively by the Tamil Nadu Forest Department. Statement-II: The habitat of the Nilgiri Tahr is confined to the montane grasslands of the Anamalai Tiger Reserve and Mukurthi National Park. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The synchronized survey for the Nilgiri Tahr is a collaborative effort. It is conducted jointly by the Forest Departments of both Tamil Nadu and Kerala. This is because the habitat of the species spans across the border of these two states in the Southern Western Ghats. A coordinated survey is essential to get an accurate population estimate across its entire range and avoid double-counting. Statement-II is incorrect. While the Anamalai Tiger Reserve and Mukurthi National Park are crucial habitats with high population densities of the Nilgiri Tahr, its habitat is not confined exclusively to these two areas. The species is found across a 400 km stretch of the Southern Western Ghats, from the Nilgiri Hills down to the Kanyakumari hills, encompassing several other forest divisions and protected areas in both Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The synchronized survey for the Nilgiri Tahr is a collaborative effort. It is conducted jointly by the Forest Departments of both Tamil Nadu and Kerala. This is because the habitat of the species spans across the border of these two states in the Southern Western Ghats. A coordinated survey is essential to get an accurate population estimate across its entire range and avoid double-counting. Statement-II is incorrect. While the Anamalai Tiger Reserve and Mukurthi National Park are crucial habitats with high population densities of the Nilgiri Tahr, its habitat is not confined exclusively to these two areas. The species is found across a 400 km stretch of the Southern Western Ghats, from the Nilgiri Hills down to the Kanyakumari hills, encompassing several other forest divisions and protected areas in both Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Nilgiri Tahr.

Statement-I: The synchronized bi-annual survey of the Nilgiri Tahr is conducted exclusively by the Tamil Nadu Forest Department.

Statement-II: The habitat of the Nilgiri Tahr is confined to the montane grasslands of the Anamalai Tiger Reserve and Mukurthi National Park.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. The synchronized survey for the Nilgiri Tahr is a collaborative effort. It is conducted jointly by the Forest Departments of both Tamil Nadu and Kerala. This is because the habitat of the species spans across the border of these two states in the Southern Western Ghats. A coordinated survey is essential to get an accurate population estimate across its entire range and avoid double-counting.

• Statement-II is incorrect. While the Anamalai Tiger Reserve and Mukurthi National Park are crucial habitats with high population densities of the Nilgiri Tahr, its habitat is not confined exclusively to these two areas. The species is found across a 400 km stretch of the Southern Western Ghats, from the Nilgiri Hills down to the Kanyakumari hills, encompassing several other forest divisions and protected areas in both Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding cloudbursts and their contributing factors: An increase in global atmospheric temperatures allows the atmosphere to hold more water vapour, potentially increasing the intensity of rainfall events. Lightning activity within cumulonimbus clouds can inhibit the process of droplet coalescence, leading to a delay in rainfall and allowing more moisture to accumulate. The presence of aerosols like black carbon in the Himalayas reduces cloud density, thereby decreasing the likelihood of cloudbursts. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. According to the principles of thermodynamics, specifically the Clausius-Clapeyron relation, a warmer atmosphere has a higher capacity to hold moisture. For every 1°C rise in temperature, the atmosphere can hold approximately 7% more water vapour. This increased moisture content provides more “fuel” for precipitation, enhancing the potential for extreme, short-duration rainfall events like cloudbursts, especially during the monsoon season. Statement 2 is correct. Research suggests a complex relationship between lightning and rainfall. Intense electrical activity within towering cumulonimbus clouds can create electrical disturbances that inhibit the process of droplet coalescence (the merging of smaller water droplets to form larger raindrops). This delay in the release of rain allows the cloud to continue accumulating a massive volume of water, held aloft by strong updrafts. When the updrafts weaken, this huge volume of water is released suddenly, resulting in a cloudburst. Statement 3 is incorrect. Aerosols like black carbon, originating from sources such as forest fires and pollution, act as Cloud Condensation Nuclei (CCN). Instead of reducing cloud density, these particles increase the number of cloud droplets, which can lead to denser clouds. In the Himalayan region, this altered cloud microphysics, combined with orographic pressure, can actually contribute to conditions that are more favorable for cloudburst-like events, not decrease their likelihood. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. According to the principles of thermodynamics, specifically the Clausius-Clapeyron relation, a warmer atmosphere has a higher capacity to hold moisture. For every 1°C rise in temperature, the atmosphere can hold approximately 7% more water vapour. This increased moisture content provides more “fuel” for precipitation, enhancing the potential for extreme, short-duration rainfall events like cloudbursts, especially during the monsoon season. Statement 2 is correct. Research suggests a complex relationship between lightning and rainfall. Intense electrical activity within towering cumulonimbus clouds can create electrical disturbances that inhibit the process of droplet coalescence (the merging of smaller water droplets to form larger raindrops). This delay in the release of rain allows the cloud to continue accumulating a massive volume of water, held aloft by strong updrafts. When the updrafts weaken, this huge volume of water is released suddenly, resulting in a cloudburst. Statement 3 is incorrect. Aerosols like black carbon, originating from sources such as forest fires and pollution, act as Cloud Condensation Nuclei (CCN). Instead of reducing cloud density, these particles increase the number of cloud droplets, which can lead to denser clouds. In the Himalayan region, this altered cloud microphysics, combined with orographic pressure, can actually contribute to conditions that are more favorable for cloudburst-like events, not decrease their likelihood.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding cloudbursts and their contributing factors:

• An increase in global atmospheric temperatures allows the atmosphere to hold more water vapour, potentially increasing the intensity of rainfall events.

• Lightning activity within cumulonimbus clouds can inhibit the process of droplet coalescence, leading to a delay in rainfall and allowing more moisture to accumulate.

• The presence of aerosols like black carbon in the Himalayas reduces cloud density, thereby decreasing the likelihood of cloudbursts.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. According to the principles of thermodynamics, specifically the Clausius-Clapeyron relation, a warmer atmosphere has a higher capacity to hold moisture. For every 1°C rise in temperature, the atmosphere can hold approximately 7% more water vapour. This increased moisture content provides more “fuel” for precipitation, enhancing the potential for extreme, short-duration rainfall events like cloudbursts, especially during the monsoon season.

• Statement 2 is correct. Research suggests a complex relationship between lightning and rainfall. Intense electrical activity within towering cumulonimbus clouds can create electrical disturbances that inhibit the process of droplet coalescence (the merging of smaller water droplets to form larger raindrops). This delay in the release of rain allows the cloud to continue accumulating a massive volume of water, held aloft by strong updrafts. When the updrafts weaken, this huge volume of water is released suddenly, resulting in a cloudburst.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Aerosols like black carbon, originating from sources such as forest fires and pollution, act as Cloud Condensation Nuclei (CCN). Instead of reducing cloud density, these particles increase the number of cloud droplets, which can lead to denser clouds. In the Himalayan region, this altered cloud microphysics, combined with orographic pressure, can actually contribute to conditions that are more favorable for cloudburst-like events, not decrease their likelihood.

Solution: B

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