UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 10 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which one of the following is a significant technical limitation particularly pronounced for satellite internet constellations using Ka-band and V-band frequencies, despite their potential for high data throughput? (a) Extremely high latency making them unsuitable for real-time applications. (b) Inability to provide coverage over oceanic regions and remote deserts. (c) Increased vulnerability to signal degradation due to atmospheric precipitation (rain fade). (d) The necessity for very large, fixed user terminals unsuitable for mobile use. Correct Solution: c) (a) Extremely high latency is characteristic of Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellites, not Low Earth Orbit (LEO) constellations which primarily use Ka-band and are developing V-band. LEO constellations like Starlink and Project Kuiper are designed for low latency (20-40 ms). So, this is incorrect. (b) LEO satellite constellations are specifically designed to provide global coverage, including over oceanic regions and remote deserts, which are often underserved by terrestrial infrastructure. So, this is incorrect. (c) Increased vulnerability to signal degradation due to atmospheric precipitation, commonly known as “rain fade,” is a well-known issue for higher frequency bands like Ka-band (26.5–40 GHz) and V-band (40–75 GHz). These frequencies offer larger bandwidth and thus higher data throughput, but their shorter wavelengths are more susceptible to absorption and scattering by raindrops, snow, and heavy clouds. This can lead to temporary service disruptions or reduced performance during adverse weather conditions. While techniques like adaptive coding and modulation (ACM) exist to mitigate this, the vulnerability remains a significant challenge. (d) While the first generation of user terminals for some satellite internet services were relatively bulky, advancements are leading to smaller and more portable terminals. Moreover, the limitation is not primarily about terminal size being unsuitable for mobile use, but about inherent signal propagation characteristics of these frequency bands. Incorrect Solution: c) (a) Extremely high latency is characteristic of Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellites, not Low Earth Orbit (LEO) constellations which primarily use Ka-band and are developing V-band. LEO constellations like Starlink and Project Kuiper are designed for low latency (20-40 ms). So, this is incorrect. (b) LEO satellite constellations are specifically designed to provide global coverage, including over oceanic regions and remote deserts, which are often underserved by terrestrial infrastructure. So, this is incorrect. (c) Increased vulnerability to signal degradation due to atmospheric precipitation, commonly known as “rain fade,” is a well-known issue for higher frequency bands like Ka-band (26.5–40 GHz) and V-band (40–75 GHz). These frequencies offer larger bandwidth and thus higher data throughput, but their shorter wavelengths are more susceptible to absorption and scattering by raindrops, snow, and heavy clouds. This can lead to temporary service disruptions or reduced performance during adverse weather conditions. While techniques like adaptive coding and modulation (ACM) exist to mitigate this, the vulnerability remains a significant challenge. (d) While the first generation of user terminals for some satellite internet services were relatively bulky, advancements are leading to smaller and more portable terminals. Moreover, the limitation is not primarily about terminal size being unsuitable for mobile use, but about inherent signal propagation characteristics of these frequency bands.

#### 1. Question

Which one of the following is a significant technical limitation particularly pronounced for satellite internet constellations using Ka-band and V-band frequencies, despite their potential for high data throughput?

• (a) Extremely high latency making them unsuitable for real-time applications.

• (b) Inability to provide coverage over oceanic regions and remote deserts.

• (c) Increased vulnerability to signal degradation due to atmospheric precipitation (rain fade).

• (d) The necessity for very large, fixed user terminals unsuitable for mobile use.

Solution: c)

(a) Extremely high latency is characteristic of Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellites, not Low Earth Orbit (LEO) constellations which primarily use Ka-band and are developing V-band. LEO constellations like Starlink and Project Kuiper are designed for low latency (20-40 ms). So, this is incorrect.

(b) LEO satellite constellations are specifically designed to provide global coverage, including over oceanic regions and remote deserts, which are often underserved by terrestrial infrastructure. So, this is incorrect.

(c) Increased vulnerability to signal degradation due to atmospheric precipitation, commonly known as “rain fade,” is a well-known issue for higher frequency bands like Ka-band (26.5–40 GHz) and V-band (40–75 GHz). These frequencies offer larger bandwidth and thus higher data throughput, but their shorter wavelengths are more susceptible to absorption and scattering by raindrops, snow, and heavy clouds. This can lead to temporary service disruptions or reduced performance during adverse weather conditions. While techniques like adaptive coding and modulation (ACM) exist to mitigate this, the vulnerability remains a significant challenge.

(d) While the first generation of user terminals for some satellite internet services were relatively bulky, advancements are leading to smaller and more portable terminals. Moreover, the limitation is not primarily about terminal size being unsuitable for mobile use, but about inherent signal propagation characteristics of these frequency bands.

Solution: c)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which one of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of the Bandhavgarh National Park? (a) Presence of extensive alpine meadows above the tree line. (b) Its formation as a deltaic region at the confluence of two major perennial rivers. (c) The historical significance of its fort, with archaeological remains linked to the Ramayana. (d) A unique mangrove ecosystem adapted to its inland saline wetlands. Correct Solution: c) (a) The park is located in the Vindhya ranges and is characterized by dry deciduous forests. There is no mention of alpine meadows, which are typically found at much higher altitudes in Himalayan regions, not in the central Indian highlands where Bandhavgarh is situated. So, this is incorrect. (b) “No major rivers flow through the park, but seasonal streams and rivulets support local biodiversity.” This contradicts the idea of it being a deltaic region formed by major perennial rivers. So, this is incorrect. (c) “The Bandhavgarh Fort, believed to date back to Treta Yuga… Once the hunting grounds of the Maharaja of Rewa, the region is rich in archaeological remains and legends from the Ramayana.” This clearly points to the deep historical and mythological significance of the fort within the park as a distinguishing characteristic. (d) Mangrove ecosystems are characteristic of coastal, saline, or brackish water environments. Bandhavgarh is an inland park with dry deciduous forests. There is no mention of saline wetlands or mangrove ecosystems. So, this is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: c) (a) The park is located in the Vindhya ranges and is characterized by dry deciduous forests. There is no mention of alpine meadows, which are typically found at much higher altitudes in Himalayan regions, not in the central Indian highlands where Bandhavgarh is situated. So, this is incorrect. (b) “No major rivers flow through the park, but seasonal streams and rivulets support local biodiversity.” This contradicts the idea of it being a deltaic region formed by major perennial rivers. So, this is incorrect. (c) “The Bandhavgarh Fort, believed to date back to Treta Yuga… Once the hunting grounds of the Maharaja of Rewa, the region is rich in archaeological remains and legends from the Ramayana.” This clearly points to the deep historical and mythological significance of the fort within the park as a distinguishing characteristic. (d) Mangrove ecosystems are characteristic of coastal, saline, or brackish water environments. Bandhavgarh is an inland park with dry deciduous forests. There is no mention of saline wetlands or mangrove ecosystems. So, this is incorrect.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of the Bandhavgarh National Park?

• (a) Presence of extensive alpine meadows above the tree line.

• (b) Its formation as a deltaic region at the confluence of two major perennial rivers.

• (c) The historical significance of its fort, with archaeological remains linked to the Ramayana.

• (d) A unique mangrove ecosystem adapted to its inland saline wetlands.

Solution: c)

(a) The park is located in the Vindhya ranges and is characterized by dry deciduous forests. There is no mention of alpine meadows, which are typically found at much higher altitudes in Himalayan regions, not in the central Indian highlands where Bandhavgarh is situated. So, this is incorrect.

(b) “No major rivers flow through the park, but seasonal streams and rivulets support local biodiversity.” This contradicts the idea of it being a deltaic region formed by major perennial rivers. So, this is incorrect.

(c) “The Bandhavgarh Fort, believed to date back to Treta Yuga… Once the hunting grounds of the Maharaja of Rewa, the region is rich in archaeological remains and legends from the Ramayana.” This clearly points to the deep historical and mythological significance of the fort within the park as a distinguishing characteristic.

(d) Mangrove ecosystems are characteristic of coastal, saline, or brackish water environments. Bandhavgarh is an inland park with dry deciduous forests. There is no mention of saline wetlands or mangrove ecosystems. So, this is incorrect.

Solution: c)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB): Statement-I: The NSAB is designed to bridge the gap between governmental decision-making structures and external domain expertise in national security. Statement-II: The composition of the NSAB, which includes retired military officials, diplomats, academics, and scientists, reflects its objective to provide diverse and non-partisan strategic perspectives to the National Security Council. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. One of the key functions and rationales for the establishment of the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) is to integrate external expertise with the government’s internal security assessment and policy formulation processes. It aims to provide a platform for seasoned experts from outside the formal government structure to offer long-term strategic thinking and independent analysis, thereby bridging any potential gap between governmental perspectives and broader academic, technical, or experiential knowledge available in the country. Statement-II is correct. The NSAB’s composition is deliberately diverse, drawing members from various fields such as retired military officials, former diplomats, intelligence agency veterans, academics, scientists, and members of civil society. This eclectic mix is intended to ensure that the advice tendered to the National Security Council (NSC) is well-rounded, benefits from a wide range of specialized knowledge and experiences, and is non-partisan in nature. The inclusion of individuals who are not part of the active government machinery allows for more candid and potentially unconventional perspectives. Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. One of the key functions and rationales for the establishment of the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) is to integrate external expertise with the government’s internal security assessment and policy formulation processes. It aims to provide a platform for seasoned experts from outside the formal government structure to offer long-term strategic thinking and independent analysis, thereby bridging any potential gap between governmental perspectives and broader academic, technical, or experiential knowledge available in the country. Statement-II is correct. The NSAB’s composition is deliberately diverse, drawing members from various fields such as retired military officials, former diplomats, intelligence agency veterans, academics, scientists, and members of civil society. This eclectic mix is intended to ensure that the advice tendered to the National Security Council (NSC) is well-rounded, benefits from a wide range of specialized knowledge and experiences, and is non-partisan in nature. The inclusion of individuals who are not part of the active government machinery allows for more candid and potentially unconventional perspectives. Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB):

Statement-I: The NSAB is designed to bridge the gap between governmental decision-making structures and external domain expertise in national security.

Statement-II: The composition of the NSAB, which includes retired military officials, diplomats, academics, and scientists, reflects its objective to provide diverse and non-partisan strategic perspectives to the National Security Council.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

Statement-I is correct. One of the key functions and rationales for the establishment of the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) is to integrate external expertise with the government’s internal security assessment and policy formulation processes. It aims to provide a platform for seasoned experts from outside the formal government structure to offer long-term strategic thinking and independent analysis, thereby bridging any potential gap between governmental perspectives and broader academic, technical, or experiential knowledge available in the country.

Statement-II is correct. The NSAB’s composition is deliberately diverse, drawing members from various fields such as retired military officials, former diplomats, intelligence agency veterans, academics, scientists, and members of civil society. This eclectic mix is intended to ensure that the advice tendered to the National Security Council (NSC) is well-rounded, benefits from a wide range of specialized knowledge and experiences, and is non-partisan in nature. The inclusion of individuals who are not part of the active government machinery allows for more candid and potentially unconventional perspectives.

Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: a)

Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane: Statement-I: The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the constitutionally guaranteed minimum price that sugar mills must pay to sugarcane farmers, and its non-payment can lead to judicial intervention. Statement-II: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) determines the FRP based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which considers factors such as the cost of production, recovery rate, and ensuring a reasonable profit margin for farmers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is a statutory minimum price, not a constitutionally guaranteed price. It is governed under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. While non-payment is a legal offense and can lead to penalties (like interest payment or license cancellation for mills) and farmers can seek legal recourse, the guarantee stems from statutory provisions rather than a direct constitutional mandate for FRP itself. The Constitution provides a broad framework for economic justice and agricultural welfare, but FRP’s specific mechanism is statutory. Statement-II is correct. The process of fixing the FRP involves recommendations from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). The CACP considers various factors in formulating its recommendations, including the cost of sugarcane production (often based on A2+FL methodology, which includes actual paid-out costs plus imputed value of family labour), the returns to farmers from alternative crops, the fair price for consumers, the international price situation, and importantly, the recovery rate of sugar from sugarcane. The CACP aims to ensure a reasonable profit margin for farmers. These recommendations are then considered by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), headed by the Prime Minister, which takes the final decision on the FRP to be announced for the sugar season. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is a statutory minimum price, not a constitutionally guaranteed price. It is governed under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. While non-payment is a legal offense and can lead to penalties (like interest payment or license cancellation for mills) and farmers can seek legal recourse, the guarantee stems from statutory provisions rather than a direct constitutional mandate for FRP itself. The Constitution provides a broad framework for economic justice and agricultural welfare, but FRP’s specific mechanism is statutory. Statement-II is correct. The process of fixing the FRP involves recommendations from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). The CACP considers various factors in formulating its recommendations, including the cost of sugarcane production (often based on A2+FL methodology, which includes actual paid-out costs plus imputed value of family labour), the returns to farmers from alternative crops, the fair price for consumers, the international price situation, and importantly, the recovery rate of sugar from sugarcane. The CACP aims to ensure a reasonable profit margin for farmers. These recommendations are then considered by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), headed by the Prime Minister, which takes the final decision on the FRP to be announced for the sugar season.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane:

Statement-I: The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the constitutionally guaranteed minimum price that sugar mills must pay to sugarcane farmers, and its non-payment can lead to judicial intervention.

Statement-II: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) determines the FRP based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which considers factors such as the cost of production, recovery rate, and ensuring a reasonable profit margin for farmers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

Statement-I is incorrect. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is a statutory minimum price, not a constitutionally guaranteed price. It is governed under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. While non-payment is a legal offense and can lead to penalties (like interest payment or license cancellation for mills) and farmers can seek legal recourse, the guarantee stems from statutory provisions rather than a direct constitutional mandate for FRP itself. The Constitution provides a broad framework for economic justice and agricultural welfare, but FRP’s specific mechanism is statutory.

Statement-II is correct. The process of fixing the FRP involves recommendations from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). The CACP considers various factors in formulating its recommendations, including the cost of sugarcane production (often based on A2+FL methodology, which includes actual paid-out costs plus imputed value of family labour), the returns to farmers from alternative crops, the fair price for consumers, the international price situation, and importantly, the recovery rate of sugar from sugarcane. The CACP aims to ensure a reasonable profit margin for farmers. These recommendations are then considered by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), headed by the Prime Minister, which takes the final decision on the FRP to be announced for the sugar season.

Solution: d)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding “Operation Hawk”: The primary focus of Operation Hawk is to dismantle cyber networks involved in online child sexual exploitation and abuse material (CSAM) trafficking with international links. All arrests under Operation Hawk are exclusively made under the provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The explicit aim of Operation Hawk is to identify, target, and prosecute individuals and networks involved in online child sexual exploitation, including the creation, distribution, and trafficking of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), sexual extortion (sextortion), and intimidation of minors, particularly those with international digital footprints. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act is a key legislation under which action is taken in cases of child sexual exploitation, arrests and legal action under Operation Hawk can also be invoked under relevant sections of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) (e.g., for obscenity, criminal intimidation, extortion) and the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 (e.g., for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form, child pornography). The choice of legal provisions depends on the specific nature of the offenses committed. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The explicit aim of Operation Hawk is to identify, target, and prosecute individuals and networks involved in online child sexual exploitation, including the creation, distribution, and trafficking of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), sexual extortion (sextortion), and intimidation of minors, particularly those with international digital footprints. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act is a key legislation under which action is taken in cases of child sexual exploitation, arrests and legal action under Operation Hawk can also be invoked under relevant sections of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) (e.g., for obscenity, criminal intimidation, extortion) and the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 (e.g., for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form, child pornography). The choice of legal provisions depends on the specific nature of the offenses committed.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding “Operation Hawk”:

• The primary focus of Operation Hawk is to dismantle cyber networks involved in online child sexual exploitation and abuse material (CSAM) trafficking with international links.

• All arrests under Operation Hawk are exclusively made under the provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. The explicit aim of Operation Hawk is to identify, target, and prosecute individuals and networks involved in online child sexual exploitation, including the creation, distribution, and trafficking of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), sexual extortion (sextortion), and intimidation of minors, particularly those with international digital footprints.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act is a key legislation under which action is taken in cases of child sexual exploitation, arrests and legal action under Operation Hawk can also be invoked under relevant sections of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) (e.g., for obscenity, criminal intimidation, extortion) and the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 (e.g., for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form, child pornography). The choice of legal provisions depends on the specific nature of the offenses committed.

Solution: b)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which one of the following best describes the primary reason for the persistent water crisis in the Bundelkhand region, often disproportionately burdening women and girls? a) The complete absence of any perennial rivers and reliance solely on monsoon-fed tanks. b) Excessive industrial water consumption depleting groundwater resources across all districts. c) The region's historical focus on diamond mining, leading to widespread contamination of surface water sources. d) A combination of erratic rainfall patterns, challenging hydrogeological conditions limiting groundwater recharge and accessibility. Correct Solution: d) The persistent water crisis in Bundelkhand is a complex issue stemming from multiple interconnected factors. Statement (d) provides the most comprehensive explanation. The region experiences erratic rainfall, with frequent droughts and uneven distribution, making rain-fed agriculture precarious and stressing water resources. Hydrogeologically, Bundelkhand’s terrain, characterized by hard rock formations and limited aquifer recharge capacity in many areas, makes groundwater extraction difficult and unsustainable in the long run. While rivers like Ken and Betwa flow through the region, their deep gorges limit easy access for irrigation. Furthermore, inadequate water harvesting structures, poor maintenance of existing water bodies, and inefficient water management practices exacerbate the scarcity. This crisis disproportionately affects women and girls, who traditionally bear the responsibility of fetching water, often travelling long distances, which impacts their health, education, and overall well-being. Incorrect Solution: d) The persistent water crisis in Bundelkhand is a complex issue stemming from multiple interconnected factors. Statement (d) provides the most comprehensive explanation. The region experiences erratic rainfall, with frequent droughts and uneven distribution, making rain-fed agriculture precarious and stressing water resources. Hydrogeologically, Bundelkhand’s terrain, characterized by hard rock formations and limited aquifer recharge capacity in many areas, makes groundwater extraction difficult and unsustainable in the long run. While rivers like Ken and Betwa flow through the region, their deep gorges limit easy access for irrigation. Furthermore, inadequate water harvesting structures, poor maintenance of existing water bodies, and inefficient water management practices exacerbate the scarcity. This crisis disproportionately affects women and girls, who traditionally bear the responsibility of fetching water, often travelling long distances, which impacts their health, education, and overall well-being.

#### 6. Question

Which one of the following best describes the primary reason for the persistent water crisis in the Bundelkhand region, often disproportionately burdening women and girls?

• a) The complete absence of any perennial rivers and reliance solely on monsoon-fed tanks.

• b) Excessive industrial water consumption depleting groundwater resources across all districts.

• c) The region's historical focus on diamond mining, leading to widespread contamination of surface water sources.

• d) A combination of erratic rainfall patterns, challenging hydrogeological conditions limiting groundwater recharge and accessibility.

Solution: d)

The persistent water crisis in Bundelkhand is a complex issue stemming from multiple interconnected factors.

Statement (d) provides the most comprehensive explanation. The region experiences erratic rainfall, with frequent droughts and uneven distribution, making rain-fed agriculture precarious and stressing water resources. Hydrogeologically, Bundelkhand’s terrain, characterized by hard rock formations and limited aquifer recharge capacity in many areas, makes groundwater extraction difficult and unsustainable in the long run. While rivers like Ken and Betwa flow through the region, their deep gorges limit easy access for irrigation. Furthermore, inadequate water harvesting structures, poor maintenance of existing water bodies, and inefficient water management practices exacerbate the scarcity. This crisis disproportionately affects women and girls, who traditionally bear the responsibility of fetching water, often travelling long distances, which impacts their health, education, and overall well-being.

Solution: d)

The persistent water crisis in Bundelkhand is a complex issue stemming from multiple interconnected factors.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Depot Darpan portal Statement-I: The Depot Darpan portal aims to enhance food security by ensuring quality storage for food grains distributed under the National Food Security Act (NFSA). Statement-II: The portal incorporates smart technology integration, including CO₂ and phosphine gas monitoring, humidity and temperature sensors, and fire hazard detection, to maintain optimal storage conditions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. One of the primary significances of the Depot Darpan portal is to enhance food security. It achieves this by ensuring the quality storage of food grains that are distributed to over 80 crore beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act (NFSA). Proper storage is crucial to prevent spoilage and maintain the nutritional value of grains. Statement-II is correct. The Depot Darpan portal features smart technology integration to achieve its objectives. This includes critical monitoring systems such as CO₂ and phosphine gas monitoring (important for pest control and grain health), humidity and temperature sensors (to maintain optimal storage environments), and fire hazard detection systems. These technologies are vital for maintaining the quality of stored food grains. Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. One of the primary significances of the Depot Darpan portal is to enhance food security. It achieves this by ensuring the quality storage of food grains that are distributed to over 80 crore beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act (NFSA). Proper storage is crucial to prevent spoilage and maintain the nutritional value of grains. Statement-II is correct. The Depot Darpan portal features smart technology integration to achieve its objectives. This includes critical monitoring systems such as CO₂ and phosphine gas monitoring (important for pest control and grain health), humidity and temperature sensors (to maintain optimal storage environments), and fire hazard detection systems. These technologies are vital for maintaining the quality of stored food grains. Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Depot Darpan portal

Statement-I: The Depot Darpan portal aims to enhance food security by ensuring quality storage for food grains distributed under the National Food Security Act (NFSA).

Statement-II: The portal incorporates smart technology integration, including CO₂ and phosphine gas monitoring, humidity and temperature sensors, and fire hazard detection, to maintain optimal storage conditions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

Statement-I is correct. One of the primary significances of the Depot Darpan portal is to enhance food security. It achieves this by ensuring the quality storage of food grains that are distributed to over 80 crore beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act (NFSA). Proper storage is crucial to prevent spoilage and maintain the nutritional value of grains.

Statement-II is correct. The Depot Darpan portal features smart technology integration to achieve its objectives. This includes critical monitoring systems such as CO₂ and phosphine gas monitoring (important for pest control and grain health), humidity and temperature sensors (to maintain optimal storage environments), and fire hazard detection systems. These technologies are vital for maintaining the quality of stored food grains.

Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: a)

Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC), consider the following statements: NCRTC is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament. It is solely owned and funded by the Government of India through the Ministry of Railways. One of its core objectives is to ensure last-mile integration and station area development for the Namo Bharat corridors. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC) was incorporated on 21st August 2013 under the Companies Act, 1956. It is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), not a statutory body established directly by an Act of Parliament. Statutory bodies are typically created by specific legislation defining their powers and functions. Statement 2 is incorrect. NCRTC is a joint venture company. It involves the Government of India and the State Governments of Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. While it operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), it is not solely owned or funded by the Government of India, nor is it under the Ministry of Railways for ownership. Statement 3 is correct. Among the functions of NCRTC is to ensure last-mile integration, station area development, and smart mobility services for the Namo Bharat (RRTS) corridors. This holistic approach to urban transport planning aims to make the rapid rail system more accessible and effective by connecting it seamlessly with other modes of transport and developing the areas around stations. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC) was incorporated on 21st August 2013 under the Companies Act, 1956. It is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), not a statutory body established directly by an Act of Parliament. Statutory bodies are typically created by specific legislation defining their powers and functions. Statement 2 is incorrect. NCRTC is a joint venture company. It involves the Government of India and the State Governments of Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. While it operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), it is not solely owned or funded by the Government of India, nor is it under the Ministry of Railways for ownership. Statement 3 is correct. Among the functions of NCRTC is to ensure last-mile integration, station area development, and smart mobility services for the Namo Bharat (RRTS) corridors. This holistic approach to urban transport planning aims to make the rapid rail system more accessible and effective by connecting it seamlessly with other modes of transport and developing the areas around stations.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC), consider the following statements:

• NCRTC is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament.

• It is solely owned and funded by the Government of India through the Ministry of Railways.

• One of its core objectives is to ensure last-mile integration and station area development for the Namo Bharat corridors.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC) was incorporated on 21st August 2013 under the Companies Act, 1956. It is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), not a statutory body established directly by an Act of Parliament. Statutory bodies are typically created by specific legislation defining their powers and functions.

Statement 2 is incorrect. NCRTC is a joint venture company. It involves the Government of India and the State Governments of Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. While it operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), it is not solely owned or funded by the Government of India, nor is it under the Ministry of Railways for ownership.

Statement 3 is correct. Among the functions of NCRTC is to ensure last-mile integration, station area development, and smart mobility services for the Namo Bharat (RRTS) corridors. This holistic approach to urban transport planning aims to make the rapid rail system more accessible and effective by connecting it seamlessly with other modes of transport and developing the areas around stations.

Solution: b)

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Satavahana Dynasty: Gautamiputra Satakarni was described as ‘Ekabrahmana’ and was known for performing the Ashvamedha sacrifice. The Satavahanas were the first rulers in India to issue portrait coins, which predominantly featured legends in Sanskrit. The administrative framework of the Satavahanas included a system where Senapatis (military chiefs) also acted as provincial governors. The Gatha Saptashati, a collection of love poems, was authored by Simuka, the founder of the dynasty. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Gautamiputra Satakarni was indeed described as ‘Ekabrahmana’ (the unique Brahmana) and the “destroyer of Kshatriya pride,” it was Satakarni I who is noted for performing the Ashvamedha sacrifice and conquering Kalinga. Gautamiputra Satakarni is renowned for defeating the Shakas, particularly Nahapana. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Satavahanas were indeed among the first native Indian rulers to issue portrait coins. However, the legends on these coins were predominantly in Prakrit, the administrative language of the dynasty, inscribed using the Brahmi script. Sanskrit was not the primary language for their coin legends. Statement 3 is correct. The Satavahana administrative framework featured a system where Senapatis (military chiefs) were appointed as provincial governors. This arrangement helped in controlling semi-Brahmanised tribal regions by blending civil and military administration, indicating a degree of decentralized governance under military oversight in certain areas. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Gatha Saptashati, a famous collection of 700 Prakrit love poems, was authored by King Hala, another prominent Satavahana ruler, not Simuka. Simuka was the founder of the dynasty and is credited with building Jain and Buddhist temples. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Gautamiputra Satakarni was indeed described as ‘Ekabrahmana’ (the unique Brahmana) and the “destroyer of Kshatriya pride,” it was Satakarni I who is noted for performing the Ashvamedha sacrifice and conquering Kalinga. Gautamiputra Satakarni is renowned for defeating the Shakas, particularly Nahapana. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Satavahanas were indeed among the first native Indian rulers to issue portrait coins. However, the legends on these coins were predominantly in Prakrit, the administrative language of the dynasty, inscribed using the Brahmi script. Sanskrit was not the primary language for their coin legends. Statement 3 is correct. The Satavahana administrative framework featured a system where Senapatis (military chiefs) were appointed as provincial governors. This arrangement helped in controlling semi-Brahmanised tribal regions by blending civil and military administration, indicating a degree of decentralized governance under military oversight in certain areas. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Gatha Saptashati, a famous collection of 700 Prakrit love poems, was authored by King Hala, another prominent Satavahana ruler, not Simuka. Simuka was the founder of the dynasty and is credited with building Jain and Buddhist temples.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the Satavahana Dynasty:

• Gautamiputra Satakarni was described as ‘Ekabrahmana’ and was known for performing the Ashvamedha sacrifice.

• The Satavahanas were the first rulers in India to issue portrait coins, which predominantly featured legends in Sanskrit.

• The administrative framework of the Satavahanas included a system where Senapatis (military chiefs) also acted as provincial governors.

• The Gatha Saptashati, a collection of love poems, was authored by Simuka, the founder of the dynasty.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect. While Gautamiputra Satakarni was indeed described as ‘Ekabrahmana’ (the unique Brahmana) and the “destroyer of Kshatriya pride,” it was Satakarni I who is noted for performing the Ashvamedha sacrifice and conquering Kalinga. Gautamiputra Satakarni is renowned for defeating the Shakas, particularly Nahapana.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Satavahanas were indeed among the first native Indian rulers to issue portrait coins. However, the legends on these coins were predominantly in Prakrit, the administrative language of the dynasty, inscribed using the Brahmi script. Sanskrit was not the primary language for their coin legends.

Statement 3 is correct. The Satavahana administrative framework featured a system where Senapatis (military chiefs) were appointed as provincial governors. This arrangement helped in controlling semi-Brahmanised tribal regions by blending civil and military administration, indicating a degree of decentralized governance under military oversight in certain areas.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The Gatha Saptashati, a famous collection of 700 Prakrit love poems, was authored by King Hala, another prominent Satavahana ruler, not Simuka. Simuka was the founder of the dynasty and is credited with building Jain and Buddhist temples.

Solution: a)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which one of the following is a distinctive historical fact associated with the area now part of the Palamu Tiger Reserve? (a) It was the site of the first-ever discovery of a new tiger subspecies in India. (b) It hosted the world's first formal tiger census based on pugmark identification. (c) It was the exclusive hunting ground for the Mughal emperors during the 17th century. (d) It is the only tiger reserve in India where the white tiger was first documented in its natural habitat. Correct Solution: b) The Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR) holds a significant place in the history of tiger conservation in India. The area that now constitutes PTR was the site of the world’s first tiger census based on pugmark identification, conducted in 1932. This pioneering census was led by J.W. Nicholson. This fact highlights the region’s long historical association with tiger monitoring and conservation efforts, predating even Project Tiger. Option (a) is incorrect; while PTR has rich biodiversity, the first discovery of a new tiger subspecies is not a specific distinction. Option (c) is incorrect; while various rulers had hunting grounds, PTR is not specifically noted as an exclusive Mughal hunting ground in this context. Option (d) is incorrect. The first documented white tiger was found in Rewa, Madhya Pradesh, not Palamu. Incorrect Solution: b) The Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR) holds a significant place in the history of tiger conservation in India. The area that now constitutes PTR was the site of the world’s first tiger census based on pugmark identification, conducted in 1932. This pioneering census was led by J.W. Nicholson. This fact highlights the region’s long historical association with tiger monitoring and conservation efforts, predating even Project Tiger. Option (a) is incorrect; while PTR has rich biodiversity, the first discovery of a new tiger subspecies is not a specific distinction. Option (c) is incorrect; while various rulers had hunting grounds, PTR is not specifically noted as an exclusive Mughal hunting ground in this context. Option (d) is incorrect. The first documented white tiger was found in Rewa, Madhya Pradesh, not Palamu.

#### 10. Question

Which one of the following is a distinctive historical fact associated with the area now part of the Palamu Tiger Reserve?

• (a) It was the site of the first-ever discovery of a new tiger subspecies in India.

• (b) It hosted the world's first formal tiger census based on pugmark identification.

• (c) It was the exclusive hunting ground for the Mughal emperors during the 17th century.

• (d) It is the only tiger reserve in India where the white tiger was first documented in its natural habitat.

Solution: b)

The Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR) holds a significant place in the history of tiger conservation in India. The area that now constitutes PTR was the site of the world’s first tiger census based on pugmark identification, conducted in 1932. This pioneering census was led by J.W. Nicholson. This fact highlights the region’s long historical association with tiger monitoring and conservation efforts, predating even Project Tiger.

Option (a) is incorrect; while PTR has rich biodiversity, the first discovery of a new tiger subspecies is not a specific distinction.

Option (c) is incorrect; while various rulers had hunting grounds, PTR is not specifically noted as an exclusive Mughal hunting ground in this context.

Option (d) is incorrect. The first documented white tiger was found in Rewa, Madhya Pradesh, not Palamu.

Solution: b)

Option (a) is incorrect; while PTR has rich biodiversity, the first discovery of a new tiger subspecies is not a specific distinction.

Option (c) is incorrect; while various rulers had hunting grounds, PTR is not specifically noted as an exclusive Mughal hunting ground in this context.

Option (d) is incorrect. The first documented white tiger was found in Rewa, Madhya Pradesh, not Palamu.

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