UPSC Current Affairs Quiz :10 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding The Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017: The Act empowers the High Courts of all coastal states and union territories with maritime jurisdiction. It allows for legal action to be initiated directly against a vessel, a concept known as action in rem. The jurisdiction under this Act covers claims related to damage caused to the marine environment. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Act did not grant admiralty jurisdiction to the High Courts of all coastal states. It significantly expanded the jurisdiction beyond the colonial-era High Courts of Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras. However, it specifically extended this power to the High Courts of Karnataka, Gujarat, Orissa, Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh (including Telangana). It was a selective expansion, not a universal one for every coastal state. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of admiralty law, which is codified in this Act, is the provision for action in rem. This allows a claimant to file a suit and, if necessary, arrest the vessel itself to secure their claim, irrespective of who the owner is at that moment. This is distinct from an action in personam, which is directed against the owner. Statement 3 is correct. The Act explicitly includes “loss or damage caused to the environment or threat of such damage” as a maritime claim under Section 4. This is a crucial provision that empowers entities, including state governments, to seek compensation for marine pollution and ecological damage, as seen in the case of the Kerala government’s suit. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Act did not grant admiralty jurisdiction to the High Courts of all coastal states. It significantly expanded the jurisdiction beyond the colonial-era High Courts of Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras. However, it specifically extended this power to the High Courts of Karnataka, Gujarat, Orissa, Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh (including Telangana). It was a selective expansion, not a universal one for every coastal state. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of admiralty law, which is codified in this Act, is the provision for action in rem. This allows a claimant to file a suit and, if necessary, arrest the vessel itself to secure their claim, irrespective of who the owner is at that moment. This is distinct from an action in personam, which is directed against the owner. Statement 3 is correct. The Act explicitly includes “loss or damage caused to the environment or threat of such damage” as a maritime claim under Section 4. This is a crucial provision that empowers entities, including state governments, to seek compensation for marine pollution and ecological damage, as seen in the case of the Kerala government’s suit.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding The Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017:

• The Act empowers the High Courts of all coastal states and union territories with maritime jurisdiction.

• It allows for legal action to be initiated directly against a vessel, a concept known as action in rem.

• The jurisdiction under this Act covers claims related to damage caused to the marine environment.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Act did not grant admiralty jurisdiction to the High Courts of all coastal states. It significantly expanded the jurisdiction beyond the colonial-era High Courts of Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras. However, it specifically extended this power to the High Courts of Karnataka, Gujarat, Orissa, Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh (including Telangana). It was a selective expansion, not a universal one for every coastal state.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of admiralty law, which is codified in this Act, is the provision for action in rem. This allows a claimant to file a suit and, if necessary, arrest the vessel itself to secure their claim, irrespective of who the owner is at that moment. This is distinct from an action in personam, which is directed against the owner.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Act explicitly includes “loss or damage caused to the environment or threat of such damage” as a maritime claim under Section 4. This is a crucial provision that empowers entities, including state governments, to seek compensation for marine pollution and ecological damage, as seen in the case of the Kerala government’s suit.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kharai camels: They are a single-humped dromedary breed found exclusively in the Kutch region of Gujarat. Their diet is primarily based on saline vegetation, including mangroves, which they access by swimming. The pastoralist communities traditionally associated with rearing these camels are known as Maldharis. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Kutch region is their primary habitat, Kharai camels are not found exclusively Their distribution extends to other coastal parts of Gujarat, such as Devbhoomi Dwarka and Jamnagar districts. Statement 2 is correct. This is the most distinctive characteristic of the Kharai camel. Its name, derived from the Gujarati word ‘khara’ (salty), reflects its unique adaptation to saline environments. Its ability to swim considerable distances (up to 3 km) to graze on mangrove islands is a remarkable specialization not seen in other camel breeds. Statement 3 is correct. The Kharai camels are intrinsically linked to the pastoralist communities of Gujarat. The Maldharis, which translates to “owner of livestock,” are the traditional rearers of these camels. Among the Maldharis, the Rabari and Fakirani Jat communities are particularly known for managing these swimming camels. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Kutch region is their primary habitat, Kharai camels are not found exclusively Their distribution extends to other coastal parts of Gujarat, such as Devbhoomi Dwarka and Jamnagar districts. Statement 2 is correct. This is the most distinctive characteristic of the Kharai camel. Its name, derived from the Gujarati word ‘khara’ (salty), reflects its unique adaptation to saline environments. Its ability to swim considerable distances (up to 3 km) to graze on mangrove islands is a remarkable specialization not seen in other camel breeds. Statement 3 is correct. The Kharai camels are intrinsically linked to the pastoralist communities of Gujarat. The Maldharis, which translates to “owner of livestock,” are the traditional rearers of these camels. Among the Maldharis, the Rabari and Fakirani Jat communities are particularly known for managing these swimming camels.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Kharai camels:

• They are a single-humped dromedary breed found exclusively in the Kutch region of Gujarat.

• Their diet is primarily based on saline vegetation, including mangroves, which they access by swimming.

• The pastoralist communities traditionally associated with rearing these camels are known as Maldharis.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Kutch region is their primary habitat, Kharai camels are not found exclusively Their distribution extends to other coastal parts of Gujarat, such as Devbhoomi Dwarka and Jamnagar districts.

• Statement 2 is correct. This is the most distinctive characteristic of the Kharai camel. Its name, derived from the Gujarati word ‘khara’ (salty), reflects its unique adaptation to saline environments. Its ability to swim considerable distances (up to 3 km) to graze on mangrove islands is a remarkable specialization not seen in other camel breeds.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Kharai camels are intrinsically linked to the pastoralist communities of Gujarat. The Maldharis, which translates to “owner of livestock,” are the traditional rearers of these camels. Among the Maldharis, the Rabari and Fakirani Jat communities are particularly known for managing these swimming camels.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Accelerator Mass Spectrometry (AMS) Dating: The technique requires the sample material to be converted into benzene before analysis. Its high precision allows it to be used for dating materials up to a million years old. The process involves using magnetic fields to separate carbon isotopes based on their mass-to-charge ratio. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. In modern AMS dating, the standard procedure is to convert the pre-treated sample material into graphite, not benzene. The solid graphite target is then bombarded with a cesium beam to produce carbon ions for acceleration. Benzene was used in older liquid scintillation counting methods. Statement 2 is incorrect. AMS is a form of radiocarbon dating, which is based on the decay of Carbon-14. Carbon-14 has a half-life of approximately 5,730 years. This makes the method effective for dating materials up to about 50,000 to 60,000 years old. It is not suitable for dating objects that are millions of years old, for which other radiometric methods (like Potassium-Argon or Uranium-Lead dating) are used. Statement 3 is correct. This accurately describes a critical step in the AMS process. After the carbon ions are accelerated, they pass through a powerful magnet. The magnetic field deflects the ions based on their momentum (which is related to their mass-to-charge ratio), effectively separating the rare Carbon-14 isotopes from the much more abundant Carbon-12 and Carbon-13 isotopes, allowing them to be counted individually. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. In modern AMS dating, the standard procedure is to convert the pre-treated sample material into graphite, not benzene. The solid graphite target is then bombarded with a cesium beam to produce carbon ions for acceleration. Benzene was used in older liquid scintillation counting methods. Statement 2 is incorrect. AMS is a form of radiocarbon dating, which is based on the decay of Carbon-14. Carbon-14 has a half-life of approximately 5,730 years. This makes the method effective for dating materials up to about 50,000 to 60,000 years old. It is not suitable for dating objects that are millions of years old, for which other radiometric methods (like Potassium-Argon or Uranium-Lead dating) are used. Statement 3 is correct. This accurately describes a critical step in the AMS process. After the carbon ions are accelerated, they pass through a powerful magnet. The magnetic field deflects the ions based on their momentum (which is related to their mass-to-charge ratio), effectively separating the rare Carbon-14 isotopes from the much more abundant Carbon-12 and Carbon-13 isotopes, allowing them to be counted individually.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about Accelerator Mass Spectrometry (AMS) Dating:

• The technique requires the sample material to be converted into benzene before analysis.

• Its high precision allows it to be used for dating materials up to a million years old.

• The process involves using magnetic fields to separate carbon isotopes based on their mass-to-charge ratio.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. In modern AMS dating, the standard procedure is to convert the pre-treated sample material into graphite, not benzene. The solid graphite target is then bombarded with a cesium beam to produce carbon ions for acceleration. Benzene was used in older liquid scintillation counting methods.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. AMS is a form of radiocarbon dating, which is based on the decay of Carbon-14. Carbon-14 has a half-life of approximately 5,730 years. This makes the method effective for dating materials up to about 50,000 to 60,000 years old. It is not suitable for dating objects that are millions of years old, for which other radiometric methods (like Potassium-Argon or Uranium-Lead dating) are used.

• Statement 3 is correct. This accurately describes a critical step in the AMS process. After the carbon ions are accelerated, they pass through a powerful magnet. The magnetic field deflects the ions based on their momentum (which is related to their mass-to-charge ratio), effectively separating the rare Carbon-14 isotopes from the much more abundant Carbon-12 and Carbon-13 isotopes, allowing them to be counted individually.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross, consider the following statements: It is the highest civilian honour of Brazil, conferred upon both Brazilian citizens and foreign dignitaries. The order was originally established by Emperor Pedro I to commemorate Brazil’s independence. The President of Brazil is the ex officio Grand Master of the Order. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross is Brazil’s highest civilian award exclusively for foreign dignitaries. It is not awarded to Brazilian citizens. Statement 2 is correct. The order has imperial roots, having been founded by Emperor Pedro I on December 1, 1822, to celebrate Brazil’s independence from Portugal and his own coronation. It was later re-established as a republican order in 1932. Statement 3 is correct. As per the protocol of the order, the serving President of the Federative Republic of Brazil acts as the Grand Master and is responsible for conferring the award upon deserving foreign heads of state and other eminent personalities. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross is Brazil’s highest civilian award exclusively for foreign dignitaries. It is not awarded to Brazilian citizens. Statement 2 is correct. The order has imperial roots, having been founded by Emperor Pedro I on December 1, 1822, to celebrate Brazil’s independence from Portugal and his own coronation. It was later re-established as a republican order in 1932. Statement 3 is correct. As per the protocol of the order, the serving President of the Federative Republic of Brazil acts as the Grand Master and is responsible for conferring the award upon deserving foreign heads of state and other eminent personalities.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross, consider the following statements:

• It is the highest civilian honour of Brazil, conferred upon both Brazilian citizens and foreign dignitaries.

• The order was originally established by Emperor Pedro I to commemorate Brazil’s independence.

• The President of Brazil is the ex officio Grand Master of the Order.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross is Brazil’s highest civilian award exclusively for foreign dignitaries. It is not awarded to Brazilian citizens.

• Statement 2 is correct. The order has imperial roots, having been founded by Emperor Pedro I on December 1, 1822, to celebrate Brazil’s independence from Portugal and his own coronation. It was later re-established as a republican order in 1932.

• Statement 3 is correct. As per the protocol of the order, the serving President of the Federative Republic of Brazil acts as the Grand Master and is responsible for conferring the award upon deserving foreign heads of state and other eminent personalities.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Coartem Baby: It is the first-ever vaccine developed specifically for preventing malaria in newborns. The drug was developed through a partnership between the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Serum Institute of India. It is designed for infants weighing up to 10 kg. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. Coartem Baby is a treatment drug, not a vaccine. It is used to cure malaria in infants who are already infected. It is based on the artemether-lumefantrine combination therapy. Malaria vaccines (like RTS,S and R21) are for prevention, not treatment, and have different target age groups. Statement 2 is incorrect. Coartem Baby was developed by the pharmaceutical company Novartis in partnership with the non-profit organization Medicines for Malaria Venture (MMV). Neither the WHO nor the Serum Institute of India were the primary developers, although WHO supports such initiatives. Statement 3 is incorrect. The drug is specifically formulated and clinically tested for a very vulnerable and narrowly defined group: infants weighing between 2 kg and 5 kg (or under 6 months of age). The 10 kg upper limit is incorrect and applies to older pediatric formulations. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. Coartem Baby is a treatment drug, not a vaccine. It is used to cure malaria in infants who are already infected. It is based on the artemether-lumefantrine combination therapy. Malaria vaccines (like RTS,S and R21) are for prevention, not treatment, and have different target age groups. Statement 2 is incorrect. Coartem Baby was developed by the pharmaceutical company Novartis in partnership with the non-profit organization Medicines for Malaria Venture (MMV). Neither the WHO nor the Serum Institute of India were the primary developers, although WHO supports such initiatives. Statement 3 is incorrect. The drug is specifically formulated and clinically tested for a very vulnerable and narrowly defined group: infants weighing between 2 kg and 5 kg (or under 6 months of age). The 10 kg upper limit is incorrect and applies to older pediatric formulations.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Coartem Baby:

• It is the first-ever vaccine developed specifically for preventing malaria in newborns.

• The drug was developed through a partnership between the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Serum Institute of India.

• It is designed for infants weighing up to 10 kg.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Coartem Baby is a treatment drug, not a vaccine. It is used to cure malaria in infants who are already infected. It is based on the artemether-lumefantrine combination therapy. Malaria vaccines (like RTS,S and R21) are for prevention, not treatment, and have different target age groups.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Coartem Baby was developed by the pharmaceutical company Novartis in partnership with the non-profit organization Medicines for Malaria Venture (MMV). Neither the WHO nor the Serum Institute of India were the primary developers, although WHO supports such initiatives.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The drug is specifically formulated and clinically tested for a very vulnerable and narrowly defined group: infants weighing between 2 kg and 5 kg (or under 6 months of age). The 10 kg upper limit is incorrect and applies to older pediatric formulations.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points The Indian Army is set to induct the indigenous ATAGS, which is a significant part of its artillery modernization. This gun is a towed howitzer. Which of the following is a key tactical advantage that a future “Mounted Gun System (MGS)” variant based on the ATAGS platform would offer over the current towed version? (a) Increased firing range beyond 50 km. (b) Ability to fire a wider variety of ammunition. (c) Enhanced "shoot and scoot" capability. (d) Reduced crew requirement due to full automation. Correct Solution: C A towed gun like the current ATAGS needs a separate prime mover (a truck) to transport it. After firing, it must be hitched back to the truck to move, which takes time. A Mounted Gun System (MGS) integrates the gun onto a high-mobility truck chassis. This means the gun and its transport are a single unit. Option (c) is correct. The primary advantage of an MGS is its “shoot and scoot” It can drive to a location, fire its rounds quickly, and then immediately drive away to a new position before the enemy can pinpoint its location and return fire (counter-battery fire). This vastly increases its survivability on a modern battlefield compared to a towed gun, which is slower to redeploy. Incorrect Solution: C A towed gun like the current ATAGS needs a separate prime mover (a truck) to transport it. After firing, it must be hitched back to the truck to move, which takes time. A Mounted Gun System (MGS) integrates the gun onto a high-mobility truck chassis. This means the gun and its transport are a single unit. Option (c) is correct. The primary advantage of an MGS is its “shoot and scoot” It can drive to a location, fire its rounds quickly, and then immediately drive away to a new position before the enemy can pinpoint its location and return fire (counter-battery fire). This vastly increases its survivability on a modern battlefield compared to a towed gun, which is slower to redeploy.

#### 6. Question

The Indian Army is set to induct the indigenous ATAGS, which is a significant part of its artillery modernization. This gun is a towed howitzer. Which of the following is a key tactical advantage that a future “Mounted Gun System (MGS)” variant based on the ATAGS platform would offer over the current towed version?

• (a) Increased firing range beyond 50 km.

• (b) Ability to fire a wider variety of ammunition.

• (c) Enhanced "shoot and scoot" capability.

• (d) Reduced crew requirement due to full automation.

Solution: C

• A towed gun like the current ATAGS needs a separate prime mover (a truck) to transport it. After firing, it must be hitched back to the truck to move, which takes time.

• A Mounted Gun System (MGS) integrates the gun onto a high-mobility truck chassis. This means the gun and its transport are a single unit.

• Option (c) is correct. The primary advantage of an MGS is its “shoot and scoot” It can drive to a location, fire its rounds quickly, and then immediately drive away to a new position before the enemy can pinpoint its location and return fire (counter-battery fire). This vastly increases its survivability on a modern battlefield compared to a towed gun, which is slower to redeploy.

Solution: C

• A towed gun like the current ATAGS needs a separate prime mover (a truck) to transport it. After firing, it must be hitched back to the truck to move, which takes time.

• A Mounted Gun System (MGS) integrates the gun onto a high-mobility truck chassis. This means the gun and its transport are a single unit.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following geographical features related to Bulgaria: The Danube River forms its entire northern border with Romania. The Balkan Mountains run through the country, dividing it into northern and southern regions. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Danube River forms most of Bulgaria’s northern border with Romania, but not the entire The easternmost part of the border is a land boundary before reaching the Black Sea. Statement 2 is correct. The Balkan Mountains, also known as Stara Planina, are a dominant geographical feature of Bulgaria. They stretch across the center of the country from west to east, acting as a climatic and geographical divide between the Danubian Plain in the north and the Thracian Plain in the south. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Danube River forms most of Bulgaria’s northern border with Romania, but not the entire The easternmost part of the border is a land boundary before reaching the Black Sea. Statement 2 is correct. The Balkan Mountains, also known as Stara Planina, are a dominant geographical feature of Bulgaria. They stretch across the center of the country from west to east, acting as a climatic and geographical divide between the Danubian Plain in the north and the Thracian Plain in the south.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following geographical features related to Bulgaria:

• The Danube River forms its entire northern border with Romania.

• The Balkan Mountains run through the country, dividing it into northern and southern regions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Danube River forms most of Bulgaria’s northern border with Romania, but not the entire The easternmost part of the border is a land boundary before reaching the Black Sea.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Balkan Mountains, also known as Stara Planina, are a dominant geographical feature of Bulgaria. They stretch across the center of the country from west to east, acting as a climatic and geographical divide between the Danubian Plain in the north and the Thracian Plain in the south.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Operation Deep Manifest’: It was a tri-service military operation to secure India’s maritime trade routes. The operation was launched by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. A key method used in the operation was tracking shipping records to uncover false declarations of origin. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: ‘Operation Deep Manifest’ was not a military operation. It was a civil law enforcement operation focused on customs and trade regulations. It was aimed at tackling illicit trade and economic infiltration, not military security of sea lanes. Statement 2 is incorrect: The operation was launched by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI). The DRI functions under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), which comes under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Statement 3 is correct: The success of ‘Operation Deep Manifest’ relied heavily on intelligence and forensic analysis. The DRI employed techniques like document forensics, which involved meticulously tracking shipping records and manifests. This allowed them to identify discrepancies, reveal false declarations of origin and expose complex smuggling tactics like dual-port routing. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: ‘Operation Deep Manifest’ was not a military operation. It was a civil law enforcement operation focused on customs and trade regulations. It was aimed at tackling illicit trade and economic infiltration, not military security of sea lanes. Statement 2 is incorrect: The operation was launched by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI). The DRI functions under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), which comes under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Statement 3 is correct: The success of ‘Operation Deep Manifest’ relied heavily on intelligence and forensic analysis. The DRI employed techniques like document forensics, which involved meticulously tracking shipping records and manifests. This allowed them to identify discrepancies, reveal false declarations of origin and expose complex smuggling tactics like dual-port routing.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Operation Deep Manifest’:

• It was a tri-service military operation to secure India’s maritime trade routes.

• The operation was launched by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• A key method used in the operation was tracking shipping records to uncover false declarations of origin.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: ‘Operation Deep Manifest’ was not a military operation. It was a civil law enforcement operation focused on customs and trade regulations. It was aimed at tackling illicit trade and economic infiltration, not military security of sea lanes.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The operation was launched by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI). The DRI functions under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), which comes under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Statement 3 is correct: The success of ‘Operation Deep Manifest’ relied heavily on intelligence and forensic analysis. The DRI employed techniques like document forensics, which involved meticulously tracking shipping records and manifests. This allowed them to identify discrepancies, reveal false declarations of origin and expose complex smuggling tactics like dual-port routing.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Despite the Kolhapuri chappal having a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, Indian artisans find it difficult to prevent unauthorized imitation of their designs by large international firms. Statement II: Intellectual property frameworks, including GI laws, are structured to protect collective and traditional knowledge more effectively than individual, novel inventions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The existence of a GI tag, while protecting the name “Kolhapuri,” does not automatically prevent the copying of the design itself, especially when the protected name is not used. This poses a significant challenge for the artisan communities. Statement-II is incorrect. The modern intellectual property frameworks (like patents and copyrights) are primarily designed to protect individual, novel, and inventive works. They struggle to accommodate collective, traditional, and evolving knowledge held by communities, which often lacks a single identifiable ‘inventor’ and documented ‘novelty’. GI law is a partial solution but, as seen, has its own limitations. The system is inherently biased towards individual ownership, not community heritage. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The existence of a GI tag, while protecting the name “Kolhapuri,” does not automatically prevent the copying of the design itself, especially when the protected name is not used. This poses a significant challenge for the artisan communities. Statement-II is incorrect. The modern intellectual property frameworks (like patents and copyrights) are primarily designed to protect individual, novel, and inventive works. They struggle to accommodate collective, traditional, and evolving knowledge held by communities, which often lacks a single identifiable ‘inventor’ and documented ‘novelty’. GI law is a partial solution but, as seen, has its own limitations. The system is inherently biased towards individual ownership, not community heritage.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Despite the Kolhapuri chappal having a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, Indian artisans find it difficult to prevent unauthorized imitation of their designs by large international firms.

Statement II: Intellectual property frameworks, including GI laws, are structured to protect collective and traditional knowledge more effectively than individual, novel inventions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. The existence of a GI tag, while protecting the name “Kolhapuri,” does not automatically prevent the copying of the design itself, especially when the protected name is not used. This poses a significant challenge for the artisan communities.

Statement-II is incorrect. The modern intellectual property frameworks (like patents and copyrights) are primarily designed to protect individual, novel, and inventive works. They struggle to accommodate collective, traditional, and evolving knowledge held by communities, which often lacks a single identifiable ‘inventor’ and documented ‘novelty’. GI law is a partial solution but, as seen, has its own limitations. The system is inherently biased towards individual ownership, not community heritage.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The recent reappearance of the Dhole (Asiatic Wild Dog) in the Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong Landscape is ecologically significant primarily because: (a) The dhole is a keystone species that exclusively preys on invasive species, thereby restoring native flora. (b) It is the first time a carnivorous species has ever been recorded in the Kaziranga National Park. (c) The dhole's return confirms that the landscape is now completely free from fragmentation and human disturbance. (d) Its presence indicates the successful re-establishment of a social carnivore that plays a vital role in maintaining the balance of prey populations. Correct Solution: D (d) is the most accurate and significant reason. The dhole is a social carnivore and an important predator. Its return and establishment in a landscape indicate that the habitat is healthy enough to support such a species at a higher trophic level. This implies a sufficient prey base and large, relatively undisturbed areas for them to hunt. Their role in regulating the populations of herbivores (like deer and wild pig) is crucial for maintaining the overall health and balance of the forest ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: D (d) is the most accurate and significant reason. The dhole is a social carnivore and an important predator. Its return and establishment in a landscape indicate that the habitat is healthy enough to support such a species at a higher trophic level. This implies a sufficient prey base and large, relatively undisturbed areas for them to hunt. Their role in regulating the populations of herbivores (like deer and wild pig) is crucial for maintaining the overall health and balance of the forest ecosystem.

#### 10. Question

The recent reappearance of the Dhole (Asiatic Wild Dog) in the Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong Landscape is ecologically significant primarily because:

• (a) The dhole is a keystone species that exclusively preys on invasive species, thereby restoring native flora.

• (b) It is the first time a carnivorous species has ever been recorded in the Kaziranga National Park.

• (c) The dhole's return confirms that the landscape is now completely free from fragmentation and human disturbance.

• (d) Its presence indicates the successful re-establishment of a social carnivore that plays a vital role in maintaining the balance of prey populations.

Solution: D

(d) is the most accurate and significant reason. The dhole is a social carnivore and an important predator. Its return and establishment in a landscape indicate that the habitat is healthy enough to support such a species at a higher trophic level. This implies a sufficient prey base and large, relatively undisturbed areas for them to hunt. Their role in regulating the populations of herbivores (like deer and wild pig) is crucial for maintaining the overall health and balance of the forest ecosystem.

Solution: D

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