UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 10 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about Orangutans is incorrect? (a) Orangutans have a very slow reproductive rate, with females giving birth only once every 6-8 years. (b) All three species of orangutans are listed as 'Critically Endangered' on the IUCN Red List. (c) The Tapanuli Orangutan is the most recently discovered and the most abundant species of orangutan. (d) They are the only great apes found in Asia. Correct Solution: C Statement (a) is correct. The slow reproductive cycle of orangutans is a major factor hindering their population recovery. Statement (b) is also correct. All three recognized species of orangutans – the Bornean, Sumatran, and Tapanuli orangutans – are classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ by the IUCN, primarily due to habitat loss and poaching. Statement (c) is incorrect. While the Tapanuli Orangutan is the most recently discovered species (in 2017), it is also the rarest, with a population of fewer than 1,000 individuals, making it highly vulnerable to extinction. Statement (d) is correct; orangutans are the only great apes found in Asia, with their habitat restricted to the rainforests of Borneo and Sumatra. Incorrect Solution: C Statement (a) is correct. The slow reproductive cycle of orangutans is a major factor hindering their population recovery. Statement (b) is also correct. All three recognized species of orangutans – the Bornean, Sumatran, and Tapanuli orangutans – are classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ by the IUCN, primarily due to habitat loss and poaching. Statement (c) is incorrect. While the Tapanuli Orangutan is the most recently discovered species (in 2017), it is also the rarest, with a population of fewer than 1,000 individuals, making it highly vulnerable to extinction. Statement (d) is correct; orangutans are the only great apes found in Asia, with their habitat restricted to the rainforests of Borneo and Sumatra.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following statements about Orangutans is incorrect?

• (a) Orangutans have a very slow reproductive rate, with females giving birth only once every 6-8 years.

• (b) All three species of orangutans are listed as 'Critically Endangered' on the IUCN Red List.

• (c) The Tapanuli Orangutan is the most recently discovered and the most abundant species of orangutan.

• (d) They are the only great apes found in Asia.

Solution: C

• Statement (a) is correct. The slow reproductive cycle of orangutans is a major factor hindering their population recovery.

• Statement (b) is also correct. All three recognized species of orangutans – the Bornean, Sumatran, and Tapanuli orangutans – are classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ by the IUCN, primarily due to habitat loss and poaching.

• Statement (c) is incorrect. While the Tapanuli Orangutan is the most recently discovered species (in 2017), it is also the rarest, with a population of fewer than 1,000 individuals, making it highly vulnerable to extinction.

• Statement (d) is correct; orangutans are the only great apes found in Asia, with their habitat restricted to the rainforests of Borneo and Sumatra.

Solution: C

• Statement (a) is correct. The slow reproductive cycle of orangutans is a major factor hindering their population recovery.

• Statement (d) is correct; orangutans are the only great apes found in Asia, with their habitat restricted to the rainforests of Borneo and Sumatra.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With respect to soaps and detergents, which of the following statements is/are correct? Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids, while detergents are primarily derived from petrochemicals. Detergents are more effective cleaning agents in hard water compared to soaps. The manufacturing process of both soaps and detergents involves a step called ‘saponification’. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Soaps are produced from natural sources like vegetable oils or animal fats, and are chemically sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids. In contrast, detergents are synthetic cleaning agents, with their primary raw materials being hydrocarbons derived from petroleum. Statement 2 is also correct. Soaps react with the calcium and magnesium ions present in hard water to form an insoluble precipitate (scum), which reduces their cleaning efficiency. Detergents, on the other hand, do not form such precipitates and thus maintain their cleaning action in hard water. Statement 3 is incorrect. Saponification is the chemical reaction used to produce soap, where fats or oils react with an alkali (like NaOH). The manufacturing process for detergents involves different chemical reactions, such as sulphonation, and does not use the saponification process. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Soaps are produced from natural sources like vegetable oils or animal fats, and are chemically sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids. In contrast, detergents are synthetic cleaning agents, with their primary raw materials being hydrocarbons derived from petroleum. Statement 2 is also correct. Soaps react with the calcium and magnesium ions present in hard water to form an insoluble precipitate (scum), which reduces their cleaning efficiency. Detergents, on the other hand, do not form such precipitates and thus maintain their cleaning action in hard water. Statement 3 is incorrect. Saponification is the chemical reaction used to produce soap, where fats or oils react with an alkali (like NaOH). The manufacturing process for detergents involves different chemical reactions, such as sulphonation, and does not use the saponification process.

#### 2. Question

With respect to soaps and detergents, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids, while detergents are primarily derived from petrochemicals.

• Detergents are more effective cleaning agents in hard water compared to soaps.

• The manufacturing process of both soaps and detergents involves a step called ‘saponification’.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Soaps are produced from natural sources like vegetable oils or animal fats, and are chemically sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids. In contrast, detergents are synthetic cleaning agents, with their primary raw materials being hydrocarbons derived from petroleum.

• Statement 2 is also correct. Soaps react with the calcium and magnesium ions present in hard water to form an insoluble precipitate (scum), which reduces their cleaning efficiency. Detergents, on the other hand, do not form such precipitates and thus maintain their cleaning action in hard water.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Saponification is the chemical reaction used to produce soap, where fats or oils react with an alkali (like NaOH). The manufacturing process for detergents involves different chemical reactions, such as sulphonation, and does not use the saponification process.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Saltwater Crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), consider the following statements. It is the largest living reptile and is found exclusively in the Sundarbans of India. The species is an apex predator and plays a crucial role in maintaining the ecological balance of its habitat. The Bhagabatpur Crocodile Project was a successful conservation and breeding program for this species. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Sundarbans is a major habitat for the saltwater crocodile in India, it is not found exclusively there. The species is also found in the swamplands of Odisha and the coastal areas of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Statement 2 is correct. The saltwater crocodile is an apex predator in its ecosystem. By preying on a variety of animals and scavenging on carcasses, it helps in regulating prey populations and keeping the aquatic environment clean, thus playing a vital role in maintaining ecological balance. Statement 3 is also correct. The Bhagabatpur Crocodile Project, initiated in 1976, was a pioneering conservation effort in West Bengal. It served as a breeding and rearing center for saltwater crocodiles, and successfully released a significant number of individuals back into the wild over several decades, contributing to the recovery of the species’ population in the Sundarbans. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Sundarbans is a major habitat for the saltwater crocodile in India, it is not found exclusively there. The species is also found in the swamplands of Odisha and the coastal areas of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Statement 2 is correct. The saltwater crocodile is an apex predator in its ecosystem. By preying on a variety of animals and scavenging on carcasses, it helps in regulating prey populations and keeping the aquatic environment clean, thus playing a vital role in maintaining ecological balance. Statement 3 is also correct. The Bhagabatpur Crocodile Project, initiated in 1976, was a pioneering conservation effort in West Bengal. It served as a breeding and rearing center for saltwater crocodiles, and successfully released a significant number of individuals back into the wild over several decades, contributing to the recovery of the species’ population in the Sundarbans.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Saltwater Crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), consider the following statements.

• It is the largest living reptile and is found exclusively in the Sundarbans of India.

• The species is an apex predator and plays a crucial role in maintaining the ecological balance of its habitat.

• The Bhagabatpur Crocodile Project was a successful conservation and breeding program for this species.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Sundarbans is a major habitat for the saltwater crocodile in India, it is not found exclusively there. The species is also found in the swamplands of Odisha and the coastal areas of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

• Statement 2 is correct. The saltwater crocodile is an apex predator in its ecosystem. By preying on a variety of animals and scavenging on carcasses, it helps in regulating prey populations and keeping the aquatic environment clean, thus playing a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.

Statement 3 is also correct. The Bhagabatpur Crocodile Project, initiated in 1976, was a pioneering conservation effort in West Bengal. It served as a breeding and rearing center for saltwater crocodiles, and successfully released a significant number of individuals back into the wild over several decades, contributing to the recovery of the species’ population in the Sundarbans.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Mithi River: It is a perennial river that originates from the overflow of Vihar Lake and Powai Lake. The river flows through the heart of Mumbai and empties into the Arabian Sea at Mahim Creek. Due to extensive conservation efforts, the river is now one of the cleanest urban rivers in India. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mithi River is a seasonal river, not a perennial one. Its flow is largely dependent on monsoon rains and the overflow from Vihar and Powai lakes. Statement 2 is correct. The river’s course takes it through several prominent suburbs of Mumbai, and it ultimately drains into the Arabian Sea at Mahim Creek. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mithi River is highly polluted due to the discharge of untreated sewage, industrial effluents, and the dumping of solid waste. Encroachments along its banks have further degraded the river and reduced its carrying capacity, making the surrounding areas vulnerable to flooding during heavy rainfall. While there have been efforts to clean up the river, it remains a significant environmental challenge for the city of Mumbai. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mithi River is a seasonal river, not a perennial one. Its flow is largely dependent on monsoon rains and the overflow from Vihar and Powai lakes. Statement 2 is correct. The river’s course takes it through several prominent suburbs of Mumbai, and it ultimately drains into the Arabian Sea at Mahim Creek. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mithi River is highly polluted due to the discharge of untreated sewage, industrial effluents, and the dumping of solid waste. Encroachments along its banks have further degraded the river and reduced its carrying capacity, making the surrounding areas vulnerable to flooding during heavy rainfall. While there have been efforts to clean up the river, it remains a significant environmental challenge for the city of Mumbai.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the Mithi River:

• It is a perennial river that originates from the overflow of Vihar Lake and Powai Lake.

• The river flows through the heart of Mumbai and empties into the Arabian Sea at Mahim Creek.

• Due to extensive conservation efforts, the river is now one of the cleanest urban rivers in India.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mithi River is a seasonal river, not a perennial one. Its flow is largely dependent on monsoon rains and the overflow from Vihar and Powai lakes.

• Statement 2 is correct. The river’s course takes it through several prominent suburbs of Mumbai, and it ultimately drains into the Arabian Sea at Mahim Creek.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mithi River is highly polluted due to the discharge of untreated sewage, industrial effluents, and the dumping of solid waste. Encroachments along its banks have further degraded the river and reduced its carrying capacity, making the surrounding areas vulnerable to flooding during heavy rainfall. While there have been efforts to clean up the river, it remains a significant environmental challenge for the city of Mumbai.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mithi River is a seasonal river, not a perennial one. Its flow is largely dependent on monsoon rains and the overflow from Vihar and Powai lakes.

• Statement 2 is correct. The river’s course takes it through several prominent suburbs of Mumbai, and it ultimately drains into the Arabian Sea at Mahim Creek.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Match the following: List I (Term) List II (Description) A. Surfactant 1. A substance that increases the cleaning efficiency of detergents in hard water B. Builder 2. A chemical that helps to break down stains caused by proteins C. Enzyme 3. A compound that reduces the surface tension of water, allowing it to wet surfaces more effectively Select the correct answer code: (a) 2 A-3, B-2, C-1 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2 (c) A-2, B-1, C-3 (d) A-3, B-1, C- Correct Solution: D Surfactant (A) is correctly matched with description 3. Surfactants (surface-active agents) are the primary cleaning agents in detergents. They have a molecular structure with a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) tail. This allows them to reduce the surface tension of water and help in the removal of dirt and grease. Builder (B) is correctly matched with description 1. Builders are added to detergents to enhance their cleaning efficiency, especially in hard water. They work by sequestering or precipitating the calcium and magnesium ions that cause water hardness, preventing them from interfering with the action of the surfactant. Enzyme (C) is correctly matched with description 2. Modern detergents often contain enzymes to break down specific types of stains. For example, proteases break down protein-based stains like blood and egg, while amylases work on starch-based stains. Incorrect Solution: D Surfactant (A) is correctly matched with description 3. Surfactants (surface-active agents) are the primary cleaning agents in detergents. They have a molecular structure with a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) tail. This allows them to reduce the surface tension of water and help in the removal of dirt and grease. Builder (B) is correctly matched with description 1. Builders are added to detergents to enhance their cleaning efficiency, especially in hard water. They work by sequestering or precipitating the calcium and magnesium ions that cause water hardness, preventing them from interfering with the action of the surfactant. Enzyme (C) is correctly matched with description 2. Modern detergents often contain enzymes to break down specific types of stains. For example, proteases break down protein-based stains like blood and egg, while amylases work on starch-based stains.

#### 5. Question

Match the following:

List I (Term) | List II (Description)

A. Surfactant | 1. A substance that increases the cleaning efficiency of detergents in hard water

B. Builder | 2. A chemical that helps to break down stains caused by proteins

C. Enzyme | 3. A compound that reduces the surface tension of water, allowing it to wet surfaces more effectively

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) 2 A-3, B-2, C-1

• (b) A-1, B-3, C-2

• (c) A-2, B-1, C-3

• (d) A-3, B-1, C-

Solution: D

• Surfactant (A) is correctly matched with description 3. Surfactants (surface-active agents) are the primary cleaning agents in detergents. They have a molecular structure with a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) tail. This allows them to reduce the surface tension of water and help in the removal of dirt and grease.

• Builder (B) is correctly matched with description 1. Builders are added to detergents to enhance their cleaning efficiency, especially in hard water. They work by sequestering or precipitating the calcium and magnesium ions that cause water hardness, preventing them from interfering with the action of the surfactant.

Enzyme (C) is correctly matched with description 2. Modern detergents often contain enzymes to break down specific types of stains. For example, proteases break down protein-based stains like blood and egg, while amylases work on starch-based stains.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the brain-eating amoeba, Naegleria fowleri: It is a single-celled organism that can survive in soil and dust. The initial symptoms of the infection are often mistaken for common illnesses like the flu. The survival rate from the infection is high due to the availability of effective antiviral treatments. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. While Naegleria fowleri is primarily an aquatic organism found in warm freshwater, it has also been detected in soil and dust, indicating its ability to survive in different environments. Statement 2 is also correct. The early symptoms of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM), such as headache, fever, nausea, and vomiting, are non-specific and can be easily confused with more common viral or bacterial infections. This often leads to a delay in diagnosis, which is a critical factor in the disease’s high mortality rate. Statement 3 is incorrect. The survival rate from PAM is extremely low, typically around 3% worldwide. There is no single effective cure, and treatment usually involves a combination of antifungal and antibiotic drugs. The term ‘antiviral’ is also incorrect as the causative agent is an amoeba, not a virus. Early detection and aggressive treatment are crucial for any chance of survival. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. While Naegleria fowleri is primarily an aquatic organism found in warm freshwater, it has also been detected in soil and dust, indicating its ability to survive in different environments. Statement 2 is also correct. The early symptoms of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM), such as headache, fever, nausea, and vomiting, are non-specific and can be easily confused with more common viral or bacterial infections. This often leads to a delay in diagnosis, which is a critical factor in the disease’s high mortality rate. Statement 3 is incorrect. The survival rate from PAM is extremely low, typically around 3% worldwide. There is no single effective cure, and treatment usually involves a combination of antifungal and antibiotic drugs. The term ‘antiviral’ is also incorrect as the causative agent is an amoeba, not a virus. Early detection and aggressive treatment are crucial for any chance of survival.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the brain-eating amoeba, Naegleria fowleri:

• It is a single-celled organism that can survive in soil and dust.

• The initial symptoms of the infection are often mistaken for common illnesses like the flu.

• The survival rate from the infection is high due to the availability of effective antiviral treatments.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. While Naegleria fowleri is primarily an aquatic organism found in warm freshwater, it has also been detected in soil and dust, indicating its ability to survive in different environments.

• Statement 2 is also correct. The early symptoms of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM), such as headache, fever, nausea, and vomiting, are non-specific and can be easily confused with more common viral or bacterial infections. This often leads to a delay in diagnosis, which is a critical factor in the disease’s high mortality rate.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The survival rate from PAM is extremely low, typically around 3% worldwide. There is no single effective cure, and treatment usually involves a combination of antifungal and antibiotic drugs. The term ‘antiviral’ is also incorrect as the causative agent is an amoeba, not a virus. Early detection and aggressive treatment are crucial for any chance of survival.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the Outer Space Treaty (OST) of 1967, consider the following statements: The treaty designates outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, as a global common, preventing any nation from claiming sovereignty over them. It restricts the placement of nuclear weapons in orbit around the Earth but permits the establishment of military bases on celestial bodies for non-aggressive purposes. A signatory state is internationally responsible for national activities in outer space, whether carried out by governmental agencies or by non-governmental entities. The treaty makes a launching state liable for damage caused by its space object on Earth, in air space, or in outer space. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Article II of the OST explicitly states that outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means. This embodies the “common heritage of mankind” Statement 2 is incorrect. Article IV of the OST contains a comprehensive prohibition. It not only forbids placing nuclear weapons or any other kinds of weapons of mass destruction in orbit but also explicitly states that the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes. The establishment of military bases, installations, and fortifications is expressly forbidden. Statement 3 is correct. Article VI establishes the principle of state responsibility. It makes states internationally responsible for all national space activities, irrespective of whether they are conducted by government agencies or private companies. This ensures accountability for all actors under a state’s jurisdiction. Statement 4 is correct. Article VII outlines the liability clause. A State Party that launches or procures the launching of an object into outer space is internationally liable for damage caused by such object or its component parts. This liability extends to damage caused on the Earth, in air space, or in outer space. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Article II of the OST explicitly states that outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means. This embodies the “common heritage of mankind” Statement 2 is incorrect. Article IV of the OST contains a comprehensive prohibition. It not only forbids placing nuclear weapons or any other kinds of weapons of mass destruction in orbit but also explicitly states that the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes. The establishment of military bases, installations, and fortifications is expressly forbidden. Statement 3 is correct. Article VI establishes the principle of state responsibility. It makes states internationally responsible for all national space activities, irrespective of whether they are conducted by government agencies or private companies. This ensures accountability for all actors under a state’s jurisdiction. Statement 4 is correct. Article VII outlines the liability clause. A State Party that launches or procures the launching of an object into outer space is internationally liable for damage caused by such object or its component parts. This liability extends to damage caused on the Earth, in air space, or in outer space.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the Outer Space Treaty (OST) of 1967, consider the following statements:

• The treaty designates outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, as a global common, preventing any nation from claiming sovereignty over them.

• It restricts the placement of nuclear weapons in orbit around the Earth but permits the establishment of military bases on celestial bodies for non-aggressive purposes.

• A signatory state is internationally responsible for national activities in outer space, whether carried out by governmental agencies or by non-governmental entities.

• The treaty makes a launching state liable for damage caused by its space object on Earth, in air space, or in outer space.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Article II of the OST explicitly states that outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means. This embodies the “common heritage of mankind”

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Article IV of the OST contains a comprehensive prohibition. It not only forbids placing nuclear weapons or any other kinds of weapons of mass destruction in orbit but also explicitly states that the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes. The establishment of military bases, installations, and fortifications is expressly forbidden.

• Statement 3 is correct. Article VI establishes the principle of state responsibility. It makes states internationally responsible for all national space activities, irrespective of whether they are conducted by government agencies or private companies. This ensures accountability for all actors under a state’s jurisdiction.

Statement 4 is correct. Article VII outlines the liability clause. A State Party that launches or procures the launching of an object into outer space is internationally liable for damage caused by such object or its component parts. This liability extends to damage caused on the Earth, in air space, or in outer space.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: It was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are completely immune from judicial review. The Supreme Court’s judgment in the R. Coelho case held that all laws in the Ninth Schedule are subject to judicial review. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951, along with Article 31B, to protect land reform laws from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the original intent of the Ninth Schedule was to provide blanket immunity to the laws placed within it, the Supreme Court has, over time, curtailed this immunity. The landmark judgment in the R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) case established that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution. Therefore, the immunity is not absolute. Statement 3 is incorrect. The I.R. Coelho judgment did not subject all laws in the Ninth Schedule to judicial review. It drew a distinction between laws inserted before and after the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment (April 24, 1973). Only the laws inserted after this date are subject to the test of the basic structure doctrine. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951, along with Article 31B, to protect land reform laws from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the original intent of the Ninth Schedule was to provide blanket immunity to the laws placed within it, the Supreme Court has, over time, curtailed this immunity. The landmark judgment in the R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) case established that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution. Therefore, the immunity is not absolute. Statement 3 is incorrect. The I.R. Coelho judgment did not subject all laws in the Ninth Schedule to judicial review. It drew a distinction between laws inserted before and after the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment (April 24, 1973). Only the laws inserted after this date are subject to the test of the basic structure doctrine.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

• It was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951.

• Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are completely immune from judicial review.

• The Supreme Court’s judgment in the R. Coelho case held that all laws in the Ninth Schedule are subject to judicial review.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951, along with Article 31B, to protect land reform laws from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the original intent of the Ninth Schedule was to provide blanket immunity to the laws placed within it, the Supreme Court has, over time, curtailed this immunity. The landmark judgment in the R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) case established that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution. Therefore, the immunity is not absolute.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The I.R. Coelho judgment did not subject all laws in the Ninth Schedule to judicial review. It drew a distinction between laws inserted before and after the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment (April 24, 1973). Only the laws inserted after this date are subject to the test of the basic structure doctrine.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following sets regarding Bengali women revolutionaries: Revolutionary Primary Action Nature of Contribution 1. Bina Das Attempted to assassinate Governor Stanley Jackson Intellectual and Armed Protest 2. Kamala Das Gupta Participated in the Chittagong Armoury Raid Covert Resistance and Logistics 3. Matangini Hazra Led a Quit India procession in Tamluk Grassroots Mobilisation How many of the sets given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Set 1 is correctly matched. Bina Das’s attempt to assassinate Governor Stanley Jackson at her convocation was a direct act of armed protest. This was complemented by her intellectual defiance, such as wearing khadi and writing about banned books, making her a symbol of both forms of resistance. Set 2 is incorrectly matched. While Kamala Das Gupta was a key member of the Jugantar group involved in covert resistance and logistics like smuggling arms, the Chittagong Armoury Raid is primarily associated with Kalpana Datta and Surya Sen. Kamala Das Gupta’s role was different, focusing on maintaining underground networks. Set 3 is correctly matched. Matangini Hazra, an elderly widow known as “Gandhi Buri,” became a powerful symbol of grassroots mobilisation. Her leadership of a Quit India Movement procession, while holding the national flag until she was shot dead, exemplified popular, non-elite participation in the freedom struggle. Incorrect Solution: B Set 1 is correctly matched. Bina Das’s attempt to assassinate Governor Stanley Jackson at her convocation was a direct act of armed protest. This was complemented by her intellectual defiance, such as wearing khadi and writing about banned books, making her a symbol of both forms of resistance. Set 2 is incorrectly matched. While Kamala Das Gupta was a key member of the Jugantar group involved in covert resistance and logistics like smuggling arms, the Chittagong Armoury Raid is primarily associated with Kalpana Datta and Surya Sen. Kamala Das Gupta’s role was different, focusing on maintaining underground networks. Set 3 is correctly matched. Matangini Hazra, an elderly widow known as “Gandhi Buri,” became a powerful symbol of grassroots mobilisation. Her leadership of a Quit India Movement procession, while holding the national flag until she was shot dead, exemplified popular, non-elite participation in the freedom struggle.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following sets regarding Bengali women revolutionaries:

Revolutionary | Primary Action | Nature of Contribution

1.Bina Das | Attempted to assassinate Governor Stanley Jackson | Intellectual and Armed Protest
2.Kamala Das Gupta | Participated in the Chittagong Armoury Raid | Covert Resistance and Logistics
3.Matangini Hazra | Led a Quit India procession in Tamluk | Grassroots Mobilisation

How many of the sets given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Set 1 is correctly matched. Bina Das’s attempt to assassinate Governor Stanley Jackson at her convocation was a direct act of armed protest. This was complemented by her intellectual defiance, such as wearing khadi and writing about banned books, making her a symbol of both forms of resistance.

• Set 2 is incorrectly matched. While Kamala Das Gupta was a key member of the Jugantar group involved in covert resistance and logistics like smuggling arms, the Chittagong Armoury Raid is primarily associated with Kalpana Datta and Surya Sen. Kamala Das Gupta’s role was different, focusing on maintaining underground networks.

• Set 3 is correctly matched. Matangini Hazra, an elderly widow known as “Gandhi Buri,” became a powerful symbol of grassroots mobilisation. Her leadership of a Quit India Movement procession, while holding the national flag until she was shot dead, exemplified popular, non-elite participation in the freedom struggle.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). Statement-I: The adoption of Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) in India faces significant challenges despite its environmental benefits. Statement-II: SAF is currently more cost-effective and easier to produce on a large scale than conventional jet fuel. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The adoption of SAF in India faces several challenges, including its high cost, the difficulty in collecting feedstock from dispersed sources, and resistance from airlines due to fears of increased fuel costs. These hurdles need to be addressed for the widespread adoption of SAF. Statement-II is incorrect. SAF is currently nearly three times costlier than conventional jet fuel. The production of SAF also faces challenges in scaling up to meet the demands of the aviation industry. The high cost and production challenges are major impediments to its adoption, not facilitators. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The adoption of SAF in India faces several challenges, including its high cost, the difficulty in collecting feedstock from dispersed sources, and resistance from airlines due to fears of increased fuel costs. These hurdles need to be addressed for the widespread adoption of SAF. Statement-II is incorrect. SAF is currently nearly three times costlier than conventional jet fuel. The production of SAF also faces challenges in scaling up to meet the demands of the aviation industry. The high cost and production challenges are major impediments to its adoption, not facilitators.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF).

Statement-I: The adoption of Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) in India faces significant challenges despite its environmental benefits.

Statement-II: SAF is currently more cost-effective and easier to produce on a large scale than conventional jet fuel.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. The adoption of SAF in India faces several challenges, including its high cost, the difficulty in collecting feedstock from dispersed sources, and resistance from airlines due to fears of increased fuel costs. These hurdles need to be addressed for the widespread adoption of SAF.

Statement-II is incorrect. SAF is currently nearly three times costlier than conventional jet fuel. The production of SAF also faces challenges in scaling up to meet the demands of the aviation industry. The high cost and production challenges are major impediments to its adoption, not facilitators.

Solution: C

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