UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 10 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the recent fire tragedies in India, which one of the following provisions is correctly outlined in Part 4 of National Building Code (NBC) 2016? (a) It mandates the installation of fire lifts only for buildings exceeding 75 meters in height. (b) It places the sole legal liability for fire safety non-compliance on the building owner, exempting municipal officials. (c) It specifies detailed provisions for Fire and Life Safety, including mandatory sprinklers for specific occupancy types and fire alarms in all public buildings. (d) It is a central government statute that supersedes all state-level municipal fire safety bylaws, ensuring uniformity across India. Correct Solution: C Explanation: The National Building Code (NBC) 2016 Part 4 provides comprehensive and detailed provisions for Fire and Life Safety across various structures. This includes requirements for exit access, structural stability during a fire, and the installation of active and passive fire protection systems. Specifically, it mandates fire detection systems, sprinklers for certain occupancy types (like high-rise residential buildings above 15m and all hospitals), and fire alarms in public buildings. Option (a) is incorrect; NBC 2016 requires fire lifts for high-rise buildings (generally above 15m), not just those over 75m. Option (b) is incorrect; while owners are responsible, the issue highlights a governance deficit and the need for liability frameworks for municipal/electrical inspectors. Option (d) is incorrect because ‘Fire Services’ is currently a municipal function (12th Schedule), and the NBC is a model code, not a central statute that automatically supersedes state laws, though states adopt it. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: The National Building Code (NBC) 2016 Part 4 provides comprehensive and detailed provisions for Fire and Life Safety across various structures. This includes requirements for exit access, structural stability during a fire, and the installation of active and passive fire protection systems. Specifically, it mandates fire detection systems, sprinklers for certain occupancy types (like high-rise residential buildings above 15m and all hospitals), and fire alarms in public buildings. Option (a) is incorrect; NBC 2016 requires fire lifts for high-rise buildings (generally above 15m), not just those over 75m. Option (b) is incorrect; while owners are responsible, the issue highlights a governance deficit and the need for liability frameworks for municipal/electrical inspectors. Option (d) is incorrect because ‘Fire Services’ is currently a municipal function (12th Schedule), and the NBC is a model code, not a central statute that automatically supersedes state laws, though states adopt it.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the recent fire tragedies in India, which one of the following provisions is correctly outlined in Part 4 of National Building Code (NBC) 2016?

• (a) It mandates the installation of fire lifts only for buildings exceeding 75 meters in height.

• (b) It places the sole legal liability for fire safety non-compliance on the building owner, exempting municipal officials.

• (c) It specifies detailed provisions for Fire and Life Safety, including mandatory sprinklers for specific occupancy types and fire alarms in all public buildings.

• (d) It is a central government statute that supersedes all state-level municipal fire safety bylaws, ensuring uniformity across India.

Solution: C

Explanation:

The National Building Code (NBC) 2016 Part 4 provides comprehensive and detailed provisions for Fire and Life Safety across various structures. This includes requirements for exit access, structural stability during a fire, and the installation of active and passive fire protection systems.

Specifically, it mandates fire detection systems, sprinklers for certain occupancy types (like high-rise residential buildings above 15m and all hospitals), and fire alarms in public buildings.

Option (a) is incorrect; NBC 2016 requires fire lifts for high-rise buildings (generally above 15m), not just those over 75m.

Option (b) is incorrect; while owners are responsible, the issue highlights a governance deficit and the need for liability frameworks for municipal/electrical inspectors.

Option (d) is incorrect because ‘Fire Services’ is currently a municipal function (12th Schedule), and the NBC is a model code, not a central statute that automatically supersedes state laws, though states adopt it.

Solution: C

Explanation:

Option (a) is incorrect; NBC 2016 requires fire lifts for high-rise buildings (generally above 15m), not just those over 75m.

Option (b) is incorrect; while owners are responsible, the issue highlights a governance deficit and the need for liability frameworks for municipal/electrical inspectors.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), consider the following statements: It was established with a corpus of ₹50,000 crore to primarily fund research in premier institutions like IITs and IISc. The core objective of ANRF is to transition India from a ‘service-based economy’ to an ‘innovation hub’ by boosting R&D. Its scope includes supporting research projects across universities and colleges, broadening the research ecosystem beyond elite institutions. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Explanation: The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), established by the ANRF Act 2023, is a landmark initiative aimed at transforming India’s research landscape. Statement 1 is incorrect: While the ANRF has a corpus of ₹50,000 crore over five years, its funding is specifically targeted at non-elite institutions as well, to broaden the research base. The goal is to expand the reach of funding to state universities and private institutions, not to primarily fund IITs/IISc. Statement 2 is correct: ANRF’s mandate is to promote R&D and innovation across India, strengthen research capacity, foster links among academia, industry, government, and thereby help build an innovation-driven ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct: A key feature is its focus on funding research in universities and colleges, explicitly aiming to democratize research access and move beyond the traditional monopoly of elite institutions. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), established by the ANRF Act 2023, is a landmark initiative aimed at transforming India’s research landscape. Statement 1 is incorrect: While the ANRF has a corpus of ₹50,000 crore over five years, its funding is specifically targeted at non-elite institutions as well, to broaden the research base. The goal is to expand the reach of funding to state universities and private institutions, not to primarily fund IITs/IISc. Statement 2 is correct: ANRF’s mandate is to promote R&D and innovation across India, strengthen research capacity, foster links among academia, industry, government, and thereby help build an innovation-driven ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct: A key feature is its focus on funding research in universities and colleges, explicitly aiming to democratize research access and move beyond the traditional monopoly of elite institutions.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), consider the following statements:

• It was established with a corpus of ₹50,000 crore to primarily fund research in premier institutions like IITs and IISc.

• The core objective of ANRF is to transition India from a ‘service-based economy’ to an ‘innovation hub’ by boosting R&D.

• Its scope includes supporting research projects across universities and colleges, broadening the research ecosystem beyond elite institutions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Explanation:

The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), established by the ANRF Act 2023, is a landmark initiative aimed at transforming India’s research landscape.

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the ANRF has a corpus of ₹50,000 crore over five years, its funding is specifically targeted at non-elite institutions as well, to broaden the research base. The goal is to expand the reach of funding to state universities and private institutions, not to primarily fund IITs/IISc.

Statement 2 is correct: ANRF’s mandate is to promote R&D and innovation across India, strengthen research capacity, foster links among academia, industry, government, and thereby help build an innovation-driven ecosystem.

Statement 3 is correct: A key feature is its focus on funding research in universities and colleges, explicitly aiming to democratize research access and move beyond the traditional monopoly of elite institutions.

Solution: B

Explanation:

The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), established by the ANRF Act 2023, is a landmark initiative aimed at transforming India’s research landscape.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the 2nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine scheduled in India: The Summit is co-hosted by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Ministry of Ayush, Government of India. The principal aim is to create a regulatory framework to restrict traditional medicine within national boundaries and prevent commercialization. The WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC) in Jamnagar, Gujarat, is supporting the organization of this event. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: 2nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine: A high-level global health summit convened by the WHO to advance traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine through scientific validation and policy collaboration. Theme (2025): “Restoring balance: The science and practice of health and well-being.” Statement 1 is correct: The Summit is co-hosted by WHO and the Ministry of Ayush. Statement 2 is incorrect: The aim is not to restrict traditional medicine, but rather to advance its integration into national healthcare systems through scientific validation, policy collaboration, and the creation of a decade-long roadmap. It promotes, not prevents, safe and equitable integration. Statement 3 is correct: The event is supported by the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC), which was established in Jamnagar, Gujarat, in partnership with the Government of India, bolstering India’s role in this field. Thus, only two statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: 2nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine: A high-level global health summit convened by the WHO to advance traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine through scientific validation and policy collaboration. Theme (2025): “Restoring balance: The science and practice of health and well-being.” Statement 1 is correct: The Summit is co-hosted by WHO and the Ministry of Ayush. Statement 2 is incorrect: The aim is not to restrict traditional medicine, but rather to advance its integration into national healthcare systems through scientific validation, policy collaboration, and the creation of a decade-long roadmap. It promotes, not prevents, safe and equitable integration. Statement 3 is correct: The event is supported by the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC), which was established in Jamnagar, Gujarat, in partnership with the Government of India, bolstering India’s role in this field. Thus, only two statements are correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the 2nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine scheduled in India:

• The Summit is co-hosted by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Ministry of Ayush, Government of India.

• The principal aim is to create a regulatory framework to restrict traditional medicine within national boundaries and prevent commercialization.

• The WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC) in Jamnagar, Gujarat, is supporting the organization of this event.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation:

2nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine:

• A high-level global health summit convened by the WHO to advance traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine through scientific validation and policy collaboration.

Theme (2025): “Restoring balance: The science and practice of health and well-being.”

Statement 1 is correct: The Summit is co-hosted by WHO and the Ministry of Ayush.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The aim is not to restrict traditional medicine, but rather to advance its integration into national healthcare systems through scientific validation, policy collaboration, and the creation of a decade-long roadmap. It promotes, not prevents, safe and equitable integration.

Statement 3 is correct: The event is supported by the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC), which was established in Jamnagar, Gujarat, in partnership with the Government of India, bolstering India’s role in this field.

Thus, only two statements are correct.

Solution: B

Explanation:

2nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine:

• A high-level global health summit convened by the WHO to advance traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine through scientific validation and policy collaboration.

Theme (2025): “Restoring balance: The science and practice of health and well-being.”

Statement 1 is correct: The Summit is co-hosted by WHO and the Ministry of Ayush.

Thus, only two statements are correct.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the technology and security features of UPI: A UPI PIN is an 8-digit secret code, mandatory for all transactions, generated only through the bank’s ATM. The system uses Near-Field Communication (NFC) technology to authenticate and settle every transaction instantly. For a UPI transaction to be successful, both the payer’s and the payee’s banks must be based in India. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. A UPI PIN is typically a 4-digit or 6-digit number, not a mandatory 8-digit one. It can be set up or changed directly through the UPI application using the linked account’s Debit Card details, not necessarily through an ATM. Statement 2 is incorrect. UPI primarily relies on the internet/mobile network for communication and uses SMS-based two-factor authentication (at the time of registration/linking) and the UPI PIN for transaction authentication. It does not rely on NFC for core transaction processing and settlement. Statement 3 is incorrect. While UPI is an Indian system, recent developments like UPI-PayNow linkage (with Singapore) have enabled cross-border transactions, meaning the payee’s bank can be outside India. Therefore, all three statements are incorrect. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. A UPI PIN is typically a 4-digit or 6-digit number, not a mandatory 8-digit one. It can be set up or changed directly through the UPI application using the linked account’s Debit Card details, not necessarily through an ATM. Statement 2 is incorrect. UPI primarily relies on the internet/mobile network for communication and uses SMS-based two-factor authentication (at the time of registration/linking) and the UPI PIN for transaction authentication. It does not rely on NFC for core transaction processing and settlement. Statement 3 is incorrect. While UPI is an Indian system, recent developments like UPI-PayNow linkage (with Singapore) have enabled cross-border transactions, meaning the payee’s bank can be outside India. Therefore, all three statements are incorrect.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the technology and security features of UPI:

• A UPI PIN is an 8-digit secret code, mandatory for all transactions, generated only through the bank’s ATM.

• The system uses Near-Field Communication (NFC) technology to authenticate and settle every transaction instantly.

• For a UPI transaction to be successful, both the payer’s and the payee’s banks must be based in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. A UPI PIN is typically a 4-digit or 6-digit number, not a mandatory 8-digit one. It can be set up or changed directly through the UPI application using the linked account’s Debit Card details, not necessarily through an ATM.

Statement 2 is incorrect. UPI primarily relies on the internet/mobile network for communication and uses SMS-based two-factor authentication (at the time of registration/linking) and the UPI PIN for transaction authentication. It does not rely on NFC for core transaction processing and settlement.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While UPI is an Indian system, recent developments like UPI-PayNow linkage (with Singapore) have enabled cross-border transactions, meaning the payee’s bank can be outside India.

Therefore, all three statements are incorrect.

Solution: D

Explanation:

Therefore, all three statements are incorrect.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the invasive species Senna spectabilis: It is an invasive species native to South America. It spreads rapidly through its prolific seed dispersal, suppressing the growth of indigenous grass and shrub species. Its dense canopy significantly decreases sunlight penetration, thereby altering the micro-habitat of the forest floor. It has been designated as a ‘weed of national significance’ by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Explanation: Senna spectabilis is a major environmental concern, particularly in biodiversity hotspots like the Western Ghats. Origin: Native to: South & Central America (Brazil, Argentina, Paraguay, Bolivia, Peru, Venezuela). In India, it has aggressively invaded Nilgiris, Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam, Anaikatty and other Western Ghats ecosystems. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: It is native to South America and is highly invasive. Its rapid, prolific seed dispersal mechanism allows it to quickly colonize degraded or open forest areas. It forms a dense, tall canopy that dramatically reduces sunlight penetration, which is detrimental to the survival of native, shade-intolerant plant species, including fodder grasses and endemic undergrowth. Statement 4 is incorrect: While it is a significant environmental threat, the term ‘weed of national significance’ is primarily used in countries like Australia. The Indian government manages invasive species under various guidelines, but this specific designation is not typically used by the MoEFCC for this species. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Senna spectabilis is a major environmental concern, particularly in biodiversity hotspots like the Western Ghats. Origin: Native to: South & Central America (Brazil, Argentina, Paraguay, Bolivia, Peru, Venezuela). In India, it has aggressively invaded Nilgiris, Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam, Anaikatty and other Western Ghats ecosystems. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: It is native to South America and is highly invasive. Its rapid, prolific seed dispersal mechanism allows it to quickly colonize degraded or open forest areas. It forms a dense, tall canopy that dramatically reduces sunlight penetration, which is detrimental to the survival of native, shade-intolerant plant species, including fodder grasses and endemic undergrowth. Statement 4 is incorrect: While it is a significant environmental threat, the term ‘weed of national significance’ is primarily used in countries like Australia. The Indian government manages invasive species under various guidelines, but this specific designation is not typically used by the MoEFCC for this species.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the invasive species Senna spectabilis:

• It is an invasive species native to South America.

• It spreads rapidly through its prolific seed dispersal, suppressing the growth of indigenous grass and shrub species.

• Its dense canopy significantly decreases sunlight penetration, thereby altering the micro-habitat of the forest floor.

• It has been designated as a ‘weed of national significance’ by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 4 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

Explanation:

Senna spectabilis is a major environmental concern, particularly in biodiversity hotspots like the Western Ghats.

Origin:

• Native to: South & Central America (Brazil, Argentina, Paraguay, Bolivia, Peru, Venezuela).

• In India, it has aggressively invaded Nilgiris, Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam, Anaikatty and other Western Ghats ecosystems.

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct:

It is native to South America and is highly invasive.

Its rapid, prolific seed dispersal mechanism allows it to quickly colonize degraded or open forest areas.

It forms a dense, tall canopy that dramatically reduces sunlight penetration, which is detrimental to the survival of native, shade-intolerant plant species, including fodder grasses and endemic undergrowth.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While it is a significant environmental threat, the term ‘weed of national significance’ is primarily used in countries like Australia. The Indian government manages invasive species under various guidelines, but this specific designation is not typically used by the MoEFCC for this species.

Solution: C

Explanation:

Senna spectabilis is a major environmental concern, particularly in biodiversity hotspots like the Western Ghats.

Origin:

• Native to: South & Central America (Brazil, Argentina, Paraguay, Bolivia, Peru, Venezuela).

• In India, it has aggressively invaded Nilgiris, Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam, Anaikatty and other Western Ghats ecosystems.

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct:

It is native to South America and is highly invasive.

Its rapid, prolific seed dispersal mechanism allows it to quickly colonize degraded or open forest areas.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With regard to the practice of Dumping in international trade, consider the following statements: Dumping occurs when a firm sells goods in a foreign country at a price that is less than its domestic selling price or cost of production. The Government of India imposes Anti-Dumping Duty (ADD) on products to protect domestic consumers from foreign-made goods priced artificially low. The imposition of ADD is a multilateral decision taken collectively by the member states of the World Trade Organization (WTO). How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Explanation: Criteria to Determine Dumping – A product is considered dumped if: Export price < domestic market price of the exporting country; or Domestic price unavailable, then compare export price with: Price in a third-country market, or Exporter’s average production cost. Statement 1 is correct: Dumping is defined as an unfair trade practice where a company exports a product at a price lower than the price it normally charges in its own home market, or lower than its cost of production. Statement 2 is incorrect: The primary purpose of Anti-Dumping Duty (ADD) is not to protect consumers, but to protect the domestic industry from injury caused by predatory pricing by foreign competitors. Statement 3 is incorrect: The authority to impose ADD rests with the individual importing country (such as India, through the Directorate General of Trade Remedies, DGTR), provided the action complies with the legal framework established under the WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement. It is a unilateral defensive action, not a multilateral decision. Thus, only one statement is correct. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Criteria to Determine Dumping – A product is considered dumped if: Export price < domestic market price of the exporting country; or Domestic price unavailable, then compare export price with: Price in a third-country market, or Exporter’s average production cost. Statement 1 is correct: Dumping is defined as an unfair trade practice where a company exports a product at a price lower than the price it normally charges in its own home market, or lower than its cost of production. Statement 2 is incorrect: The primary purpose of Anti-Dumping Duty (ADD) is not to protect consumers, but to protect the domestic industry from injury caused by predatory pricing by foreign competitors. Statement 3 is incorrect: The authority to impose ADD rests with the individual importing country (such as India, through the Directorate General of Trade Remedies, DGTR), provided the action complies with the legal framework established under the WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement. It is a unilateral defensive action, not a multilateral decision. Thus, only one statement is correct.

#### 6. Question

With regard to the practice of Dumping in international trade, consider the following statements:

• Dumping occurs when a firm sells goods in a foreign country at a price that is less than its domestic selling price or cost of production.

• The Government of India imposes Anti-Dumping Duty (ADD) on products to protect domestic consumers from foreign-made goods priced artificially low.

• The imposition of ADD is a multilateral decision taken collectively by the member states of the World Trade Organization (WTO).

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Explanation:

Criteria to Determine Dumping – A product is considered dumped if:

• Export price < domestic market price of the exporting country; or

• Domestic price unavailable, then compare export price with: Price in a third-country market, or Exporter’s average production cost.

• Price in a third-country market, or

• Exporter’s average production cost.

Statement 1 is correct: Dumping is defined as an unfair trade practice where a company exports a product at a price lower than the price it normally charges in its own home market, or lower than its cost of production.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The primary purpose of Anti-Dumping Duty (ADD) is not to protect consumers, but to protect the domestic industry from injury caused by predatory pricing by foreign competitors.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The authority to impose ADD rests with the individual importing country (such as India, through the Directorate General of Trade Remedies, DGTR), provided the action complies with the legal framework established under the WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement. It is a unilateral defensive action, not a multilateral decision.

Thus, only one statement is correct.

Solution: A

Explanation:

Criteria to Determine Dumping – A product is considered dumped if:

• Export price < domestic market price of the exporting country; or

• Domestic price unavailable, then compare export price with: Price in a third-country market, or Exporter’s average production cost.

• Price in a third-country market, or

• Exporter’s average production cost.

Thus, only one statement is correct.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which among the following Indian cities have been included in the UNESCO Global Network of Learning Cities (GNLC)? Kochi (Kerala) Bhubaneswar (Odisha) Mysuru (Karnataka) Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None Correct Solution: D Explanation: The GNLC is an international network promoting lifelong learning in cities. The inclusion of these cities signifies their efforts to mobilize resources in every sector to promote inclusive learning. India and the Global Learning Cities Network: India has three GNLC cities (2022 cohort): Warangal (Telangana) Thrissur (Kerala) Nilambur (Kerala) History: Established in 2013, GNLC has grown rapidly and today includes 425 cities from 91 countries, supporting lifelong learning opportunities for nearly 500 million people. It forms part of UNESCO’s Education 2030 agenda and the SDG-4 mandate. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: The GNLC is an international network promoting lifelong learning in cities. The inclusion of these cities signifies their efforts to mobilize resources in every sector to promote inclusive learning. India and the Global Learning Cities Network: India has three GNLC cities (2022 cohort): Warangal (Telangana) Thrissur (Kerala) Nilambur (Kerala) History: Established in 2013, GNLC has grown rapidly and today includes 425 cities from 91 countries, supporting lifelong learning opportunities for nearly 500 million people. It forms part of UNESCO’s Education 2030 agenda and the SDG-4 mandate.

#### 7. Question

Which among the following Indian cities have been included in the UNESCO Global Network of Learning Cities (GNLC)?

• Kochi (Kerala)

• Bhubaneswar (Odisha)

• Mysuru (Karnataka)

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Explanation:

The GNLC is an international network promoting lifelong learning in cities. The inclusion of these cities signifies their efforts to mobilize resources in every sector to promote inclusive learning.

India and the Global Learning Cities Network:

• India has three GNLC cities (2022 cohort):

• Warangal (Telangana) Thrissur (Kerala) Nilambur (Kerala)

• Warangal (Telangana)

• Thrissur (Kerala)

• Nilambur (Kerala)

• Established in 2013, GNLC has grown rapidly and today includes 425 cities from 91 countries, supporting lifelong learning opportunities for nearly 500 million people.

• It forms part of UNESCO’s Education 2030 agenda and the SDG-4 mandate.

Solution: D

Explanation:

The GNLC is an international network promoting lifelong learning in cities. The inclusion of these cities signifies their efforts to mobilize resources in every sector to promote inclusive learning.

India and the Global Learning Cities Network:

• India has three GNLC cities (2022 cohort):

• Warangal (Telangana) Thrissur (Kerala) Nilambur (Kerala)

• Warangal (Telangana)

• Thrissur (Kerala)

• Nilambur (Kerala)

• Established in 2013, GNLC has grown rapidly and today includes 425 cities from 91 countries, supporting lifelong learning opportunities for nearly 500 million people.

• It forms part of UNESCO’s Education 2030 agenda and the SDG-4 mandate.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Match List-I (Power/Function of the Chief Justice of India) with List-II (Relevant Constitutional Article/Description): List-I (Power/Function of CJI) List-II (Relevant Constitutional Article/Description) A. Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court 1. Article 143 B. Advisory Jurisdiction 2. Master of the Roster C. Allocation of cases to Benches 3. Article 124(2) D. Appointment of CJI by President 4. Article 146 Select the correct answer using code below: a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 Correct Solution: C Explanation: Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court: The CJI has administrative authority over the Supreme Court, which includes the appointment of its officers and servants. This is governed by Article 146 of the Constitution. This matches with description 4. Advisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court, headed by the CJI, has advisory jurisdiction to give its opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance referred to it by the President. This is provided under Article 143 of the Constitution. This matches with description 1. Allocation of cases to Benches: The CJI is the ‘Master of the Roster’ and has the exclusive power to constitute benches and allocate cases. This matches with description 2. Appointment of CJI by President: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India under the provisions of Article 124(2) of the Constitution. This matches with description 3. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court: The CJI has administrative authority over the Supreme Court, which includes the appointment of its officers and servants. This is governed by Article 146 of the Constitution. This matches with description 4. Advisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court, headed by the CJI, has advisory jurisdiction to give its opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance referred to it by the President. This is provided under Article 143 of the Constitution. This matches with description 1. Allocation of cases to Benches: The CJI is the ‘Master of the Roster’ and has the exclusive power to constitute benches and allocate cases. This matches with description 2. Appointment of CJI by President: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India under the provisions of Article 124(2) of the Constitution. This matches with description 3.

#### 8. Question

Match List-I (Power/Function of the Chief Justice of India) with List-II (Relevant Constitutional Article/Description):

List-I (Power/Function of CJI) | List-II (Relevant Constitutional Article/Description)

A. Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court | 1. Article 143

B. Advisory Jurisdiction | 2. Master of the Roster

C. Allocation of cases to Benches | 3. Article 124(2)

D. Appointment of CJI by President | 4. Article 146

Select the correct answer using code below:

• a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

• b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

• c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

• d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court: The CJI has administrative authority over the Supreme Court, which includes the appointment of its officers and servants. This is governed by Article 146 of the Constitution. This matches with description 4.

• Advisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court, headed by the CJI, has advisory jurisdiction to give its opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance referred to it by the President. This is provided under Article 143 of the Constitution. This matches with description 1.

• Allocation of cases to Benches: The CJI is the ‘Master of the Roster’ and has the exclusive power to constitute benches and allocate cases. This matches with description 2.

• Appointment of CJI by President: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India under the provisions of Article 124(2) of the Constitution. This matches with description 3.

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Allocation of cases to Benches: The CJI is the ‘Master of the Roster’ and has the exclusive power to constitute benches and allocate cases. This matches with description 2.

• Appointment of CJI by President: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India under the provisions of Article 124(2) of the Constitution. This matches with description 3.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the health hazards of trans fats: They contribute to weight gain mainly because they are low in energy density compared to other fats. Consumption of trans fats can impair insulin sensitivity, thereby increasing the risk of type 2 diabetes. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Explanation: Trans fats are known to raise Bad Cholesterol (LDL) levels and simultaneously lower Good Cholesterol (HDL) levels, which is detrimental to cardiovascular health as HDL helps remove excess cholesterol. Statement 1 is incorrect. Trans fats are energy-dense (9 kcal/g), similar to other fats. Their contribution to weight gain is due to this high energy density and their presence in many processed, calorie-rich foods, not because they are low in energy. Statement 2 is correct. Prolonged consumption of trans fats can impair insulin sensitivity, which is a key factor in the development of type 2 diabetes. This is a significant metabolic health hazard associated with these fats. Industrially produced trans fats are typically found in partially hydrogenated oils (PHOs) used in fried and processed foods (like biscuits, cakes, margarine, vanaspati ghee), baked goods, and some cooking fats, not in fresh fruits and vegetables. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Trans fats are known to raise Bad Cholesterol (LDL) levels and simultaneously lower Good Cholesterol (HDL) levels, which is detrimental to cardiovascular health as HDL helps remove excess cholesterol. Statement 1 is incorrect. Trans fats are energy-dense (9 kcal/g), similar to other fats. Their contribution to weight gain is due to this high energy density and their presence in many processed, calorie-rich foods, not because they are low in energy. Statement 2 is correct. Prolonged consumption of trans fats can impair insulin sensitivity, which is a key factor in the development of type 2 diabetes. This is a significant metabolic health hazard associated with these fats. Industrially produced trans fats are typically found in partially hydrogenated oils (PHOs) used in fried and processed foods (like biscuits, cakes, margarine, vanaspati ghee), baked goods, and some cooking fats, not in fresh fruits and vegetables.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the health hazards of trans fats:

• They contribute to weight gain mainly because they are low in energy density compared to other fats.

• Consumption of trans fats can impair insulin sensitivity, thereby increasing the risk of type 2 diabetes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Trans fats are known to raise Bad Cholesterol (LDL) levels and simultaneously lower Good Cholesterol (HDL) levels, which is detrimental to cardiovascular health as HDL helps remove excess cholesterol.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Trans fats are energy-dense (9 kcal/g), similar to other fats. Their contribution to weight gain is due to this high energy density and their presence in many processed, calorie-rich foods, not because they are low in energy.

• Statement 2 is correct. Prolonged consumption of trans fats can impair insulin sensitivity, which is a key factor in the development of type 2 diabetes. This is a significant metabolic health hazard associated with these fats.

• Industrially produced trans fats are typically found in partially hydrogenated oils (PHOs) used in fried and processed foods (like biscuits, cakes, margarine, vanaspati ghee), baked goods, and some cooking fats, not in fresh fruits and vegetables.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the Nile River, which has been in the news due to regional disputes, consider the following statements: The White Nile is considered the principal source of the Nile River, originating from Lake Victoria. The river flows into the Mediterranean Sea, forming one of the world’s largest deltas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Nile River has two major tributaries: the White Nile and the Blue Nile. The White Nile, generally considered the longer and principal source, originates in the Great Lakes region of Central Africa, with its source identified as Lake Victoria. The Blue Nile, originating from Lake Tana in Ethiopia, contributes the majority of the water volume. Statement 2 is correct. The Nile River is the longest river in the world (or second-longest after the Amazon). It flows northwards through 11 countries before emptying into the Mediterranean Sea, where it forms a massive and historically fertile delta. The Nile Delta in Egypt is one of the largest river deltas in the world, supporting dense population, agriculture, and ecosystems. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Nile River has two major tributaries: the White Nile and the Blue Nile. The White Nile, generally considered the longer and principal source, originates in the Great Lakes region of Central Africa, with its source identified as Lake Victoria. The Blue Nile, originating from Lake Tana in Ethiopia, contributes the majority of the water volume. Statement 2 is correct. The Nile River is the longest river in the world (or second-longest after the Amazon). It flows northwards through 11 countries before emptying into the Mediterranean Sea, where it forms a massive and historically fertile delta. The Nile Delta in Egypt is one of the largest river deltas in the world, supporting dense population, agriculture, and ecosystems.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the Nile River, which has been in the news due to regional disputes, consider the following statements:

• The White Nile is considered the principal source of the Nile River, originating from Lake Victoria.

• The river flows into the Mediterranean Sea, forming one of the world’s largest deltas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Nile River has two major tributaries: the White Nile and the Blue Nile. The White Nile, generally considered the longer and principal source, originates in the Great Lakes region of Central Africa, with its source identified as Lake Victoria. The Blue Nile, originating from Lake Tana in Ethiopia, contributes the majority of the water volume.

Statement 2 is correct. The Nile River is the longest river in the world (or second-longest after the Amazon). It flows northwards through 11 countries before emptying into the Mediterranean Sea, where it forms a massive and historically fertile delta.

The Nile Delta in Egypt is one of the largest river deltas in the world, supporting dense population, agriculture, and ecosystems.

Solution: C

Explanation:

The Nile Delta in Egypt is one of the largest river deltas in the world, supporting dense population, agriculture, and ecosystems.

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