UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 1 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to atmospheric pollutants, consider the following statements: Secondary pollutants are those emitted directly from identifiable sources such as vehicular exhaust or industrial chimneys. The formation of secondary particulate matter (PM2.5) is primarily influenced by atmospheric conditions like humidity and sunlight. Ammonium sulfate and ammonium nitrate are examples of secondary pollutants formed through chemical reactions in the atmosphere. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. Pollutants emitted directly from identifiable sources such as vehicle exhausts, power plants, or industrial chimneys are called primary pollutants (for example, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and particulate matter emitted at source). Secondary pollutants, in contrast, are not emitted directly. They are formed in the atmosphere through physical and chemical transformations involving primary pollutants. Statement 2 is correct. The formation of secondary PM2.5 depends heavily on atmospheric conditions. Sunlight drives photochemical reactions (especially involving nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds), while humidity influences aqueous-phase reactions in clouds and aerosols. Temperature, stagnation, and atmospheric residence time further control how efficiently gases are converted into fine particulate matter, making meteorology a critical determinant of secondary pollution episodes. Statement 3 is correct. Ammonium sulfate and ammonium nitrate are classic examples of secondary inorganic aerosols. They form when ammonia reacts with sulfuric acid and nitric acid in the atmosphere—acids that themselves are generated from sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides through oxidation processes. These compounds constitute a major fraction of PM2.5 in many regions, especially during winter smog events. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. Pollutants emitted directly from identifiable sources such as vehicle exhausts, power plants, or industrial chimneys are called primary pollutants (for example, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and particulate matter emitted at source). Secondary pollutants, in contrast, are not emitted directly. They are formed in the atmosphere through physical and chemical transformations involving primary pollutants. Statement 2 is correct. The formation of secondary PM2.5 depends heavily on atmospheric conditions. Sunlight drives photochemical reactions (especially involving nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds), while humidity influences aqueous-phase reactions in clouds and aerosols. Temperature, stagnation, and atmospheric residence time further control how efficiently gases are converted into fine particulate matter, making meteorology a critical determinant of secondary pollution episodes. Statement 3 is correct. Ammonium sulfate and ammonium nitrate are classic examples of secondary inorganic aerosols. They form when ammonia reacts with sulfuric acid and nitric acid in the atmosphere—acids that themselves are generated from sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides through oxidation processes. These compounds constitute a major fraction of PM2.5 in many regions, especially during winter smog events.

#### 1. Question

With reference to atmospheric pollutants, consider the following statements:

• Secondary pollutants are those emitted directly from identifiable sources such as vehicular exhaust or industrial chimneys.

• The formation of secondary particulate matter (PM2.5) is primarily influenced by atmospheric conditions like humidity and sunlight.

• Ammonium sulfate and ammonium nitrate are examples of secondary pollutants formed through chemical reactions in the atmosphere.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Pollutants emitted directly from identifiable sources such as vehicle exhausts, power plants, or industrial chimneys are called primary pollutants (for example, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, and particulate matter emitted at source). Secondary pollutants, in contrast, are not emitted directly. They are formed in the atmosphere through physical and chemical transformations involving primary pollutants.

• Statement 2 is correct. The formation of secondary PM2.5 depends heavily on atmospheric conditions. Sunlight drives photochemical reactions (especially involving nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds), while humidity influences aqueous-phase reactions in clouds and aerosols. Temperature, stagnation, and atmospheric residence time further control how efficiently gases are converted into fine particulate matter, making meteorology a critical determinant of secondary pollution episodes.

• Statement 3 is correct. Ammonium sulfate and ammonium nitrate are classic examples of secondary inorganic aerosols. They form when ammonia reacts with sulfuric acid and nitric acid in the atmosphere—acids that themselves are generated from sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides through oxidation processes. These compounds constitute a major fraction of PM2.5 in many regions, especially during winter smog events.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points In the context of the global economy and industrial applications, consider the following statements about Copper: Copper is characterized by having the highest electrical and thermal conductivity among all known metallic elements. It is considered a critical mineral in India due to the country’s high dependence on imports for copper concentrate. Copper possesses antimicrobial properties, making it useful in healthcare environments. It is an essential component in the manufacturing of both brass and bronze alloys. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While copper has excellent conductivity, it is second to silver, which holds the highest electrical and thermal conductivity. Statement 2 is correct. India has recognized copper as a critical mineral because it depends on imports for over 90% of its copper concentrate Statement 3 is correct. Copper is naturally antimicrobial, which allows it to be used on medical surfaces to reduce the spread of infections. Statement 4 is correct. Copper is the primary base for brass (Copper + Zinc) and bronze (Copper + Tin). Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While copper has excellent conductivity, it is second to silver, which holds the highest electrical and thermal conductivity. Statement 2 is correct. India has recognized copper as a critical mineral because it depends on imports for over 90% of its copper concentrate Statement 3 is correct. Copper is naturally antimicrobial, which allows it to be used on medical surfaces to reduce the spread of infections. Statement 4 is correct. Copper is the primary base for brass (Copper + Zinc) and bronze (Copper + Tin).

#### 2. Question

In the context of the global economy and industrial applications, consider the following statements about Copper:

• Copper is characterized by having the highest electrical and thermal conductivity among all known metallic elements.

• It is considered a critical mineral in India due to the country’s high dependence on imports for copper concentrate.

• Copper possesses antimicrobial properties, making it useful in healthcare environments.

• It is an essential component in the manufacturing of both brass and bronze alloys.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While copper has excellent conductivity, it is second to silver, which holds the highest electrical and thermal conductivity.

• Statement 2 is correct. India has recognized copper as a critical mineral because it depends on imports for over 90% of its copper concentrate

• Statement 3 is correct. Copper is naturally antimicrobial, which allows it to be used on medical surfaces to reduce the spread of infections.

• Statement 4 is correct. Copper is the primary base for brass (Copper + Zinc) and bronze (Copper + Tin).

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While copper has excellent conductivity, it is second to silver, which holds the highest electrical and thermal conductivity.

• Statement 2 is correct. India has recognized copper as a critical mineral because it depends on imports for over 90% of its copper concentrate

• Statement 3 is correct. Copper is naturally antimicrobial, which allows it to be used on medical surfaces to reduce the spread of infections.

• Statement 4 is correct. Copper is the primary base for brass (Copper + Zinc) and bronze (Copper + Tin).

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “Justice Mission 2025”: It was a joint military exercise conducted by the QUAD nations to ensure freedom of navigation in the Taiwan Strait. The exercise involved simulated blockade operations and precision strikes against maritime targets. It took place in the waters both to the north and south of Taiwan. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. “Justice Mission 2025” was a unilateral exercise by China’s People’s Liberation Army (PLA), not a QUAD exercise. It was intended as a deterrent signal against Taiwan. Statement 2 is correct. The drills were high-intensity and designed to simulate blockades and precision strikes on ports. Statement 3 is correct. The manoeuvres were strategically positioned around the island, covering both northern and southern maritime sectors to demonstrate total isolation capability. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. “Justice Mission 2025” was a unilateral exercise by China’s People’s Liberation Army (PLA), not a QUAD exercise. It was intended as a deterrent signal against Taiwan. Statement 2 is correct. The drills were high-intensity and designed to simulate blockades and precision strikes on ports. Statement 3 is correct. The manoeuvres were strategically positioned around the island, covering both northern and southern maritime sectors to demonstrate total isolation capability.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “Justice Mission 2025”:

• It was a joint military exercise conducted by the QUAD nations to ensure freedom of navigation in the Taiwan Strait.

• The exercise involved simulated blockade operations and precision strikes against maritime targets.

• It took place in the waters both to the north and south of Taiwan.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. “Justice Mission 2025” was a unilateral exercise by China’s People’s Liberation Army (PLA), not a QUAD exercise. It was intended as a deterrent signal against Taiwan.

• Statement 2 is correct. The drills were high-intensity and designed to simulate blockades and precision strikes on ports.

• Statement 3 is correct. The manoeuvres were strategically positioned around the island, covering both northern and southern maritime sectors to demonstrate total isolation capability.

Solution: D

• Statement 2 is correct. The drills were high-intensity and designed to simulate blockades and precision strikes on ports.

• Statement 3 is correct. The manoeuvres were strategically positioned around the island, covering both northern and southern maritime sectors to demonstrate total isolation capability.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Copper production and resources: Chile and Peru are among the world’s major producers of copper. Copper is almost completely recyclable without any loss in its physical or chemical quality. In India, the majority of copper demand is met through domestic mining of copper ore. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Chile and Peru are globally dominant in copper production, followed by countries like DR Congo and China. Statement 2 is correct. One of the most sustainable features of copper is that it is almost completely recyclable with no degradation in quality, making it vital for the circular economy. Statement 3 is incorrect. India has a major policy blind spot here; it is heavily dependent (over 90%) on imported copper concentrate, despite being a significant consumer of the metal. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Chile and Peru are globally dominant in copper production, followed by countries like DR Congo and China. Statement 2 is correct. One of the most sustainable features of copper is that it is almost completely recyclable with no degradation in quality, making it vital for the circular economy. Statement 3 is incorrect. India has a major policy blind spot here; it is heavily dependent (over 90%) on imported copper concentrate, despite being a significant consumer of the metal.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about Copper production and resources:

• Chile and Peru are among the world’s major producers of copper.

• Copper is almost completely recyclable without any loss in its physical or chemical quality.

• In India, the majority of copper demand is met through domestic mining of copper ore.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Chile and Peru are globally dominant in copper production, followed by countries like DR Congo and China.

• Statement 2 is correct. One of the most sustainable features of copper is that it is almost completely recyclable with no degradation in quality, making it vital for the circular economy.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. India has a major policy blind spot here; it is heavily dependent (over 90%) on imported copper concentrate, despite being a significant consumer of the metal.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Chile and Peru are globally dominant in copper production, followed by countries like DR Congo and China.

• Statement 2 is correct. One of the most sustainable features of copper is that it is almost completely recyclable with no degradation in quality, making it vital for the circular economy.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary: It is situated in the Kaimur Range, covering parts of both Kaimur and Rohtas districts. The sanctuary is primarily characterized by Tropical Moist Deciduous forests. It contains prehistoric cave paintings and megalithic sites. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The sanctuary is located in the southwestern part of Bihar, spanning the Kaimur and Rohtas Statement 2 is incorrect. The forest types are diverse, including Tropical Dry Mixed Deciduous forests, Dry Sal forests, and even Bamboo brakes. Statement 3 is correct. The region is a major archaeological site, home to prehistoric cave paintings, fossils, and megaliths, adding cultural value to its ecological importance. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The sanctuary is located in the southwestern part of Bihar, spanning the Kaimur and Rohtas Statement 2 is incorrect. The forest types are diverse, including Tropical Dry Mixed Deciduous forests, Dry Sal forests, and even Bamboo brakes. Statement 3 is correct. The region is a major archaeological site, home to prehistoric cave paintings, fossils, and megaliths, adding cultural value to its ecological importance.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary:

• It is situated in the Kaimur Range, covering parts of both Kaimur and Rohtas districts.

• The sanctuary is primarily characterized by Tropical Moist Deciduous forests.

• It contains prehistoric cave paintings and megalithic sites.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The sanctuary is located in the southwestern part of Bihar, spanning the Kaimur and Rohtas

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The forest types are diverse, including Tropical Dry Mixed Deciduous forests, Dry Sal forests, and even Bamboo brakes.

• Statement 3 is correct. The region is a major archaeological site, home to prehistoric cave paintings, fossils, and megaliths, adding cultural value to its ecological importance.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The sanctuary is located in the southwestern part of Bihar, spanning the Kaimur and Rohtas

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The forest types are diverse, including Tropical Dry Mixed Deciduous forests, Dry Sal forests, and even Bamboo brakes.

• Statement 3 is correct. The region is a major archaeological site, home to prehistoric cave paintings, fossils, and megaliths, adding cultural value to its ecological importance.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to Candida auris, consider the following: It is primarily transmitted through contaminated medical equipment like catheters. It can persist on inanimate surfaces for prolonged periods. Healthy individuals are at the highest risk of developing invasive infections. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Transmission often occurs via invasive medical devices like ventilators or catheters in hospital settings. Statement 2 is correct. Unlike many pathogens that die quickly outside a host, auris is hardy and persists on surfaces and human skin for a long time. Statement 3 is incorrect. The highest risk is for hospitalized and immunocompromised patients, not healthy individuals, though healthy people can be asymptomatic colonizers (carriers). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Transmission often occurs via invasive medical devices like ventilators or catheters in hospital settings. Statement 2 is correct. Unlike many pathogens that die quickly outside a host, auris is hardy and persists on surfaces and human skin for a long time. Statement 3 is incorrect. The highest risk is for hospitalized and immunocompromised patients, not healthy individuals, though healthy people can be asymptomatic colonizers (carriers).

#### 6. Question

With reference to Candida auris, consider the following:

• It is primarily transmitted through contaminated medical equipment like catheters.

• It can persist on inanimate surfaces for prolonged periods.

• Healthy individuals are at the highest risk of developing invasive infections.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Transmission often occurs via invasive medical devices like ventilators or catheters in hospital settings.

• Statement 2 is correct. Unlike many pathogens that die quickly outside a host, auris is hardy and persists on surfaces and human skin for a long time.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The highest risk is for hospitalized and immunocompromised patients, not healthy individuals, though healthy people can be asymptomatic colonizers (carriers).

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Transmission often occurs via invasive medical devices like ventilators or catheters in hospital settings.

• Statement 2 is correct. Unlike many pathogens that die quickly outside a host, auris is hardy and persists on surfaces and human skin for a long time.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the “Surface Lid” effect in the Southern Ocean Carbon Anomaly? a) The formation of thick sea ice that physically blocks ships and sensors. b) The accumulation of plastic debris that reflects solar radiation. c) An increase in phytoplankton blooms that "cover" the ocean surface. d) A layer of fresh, buoyant water that prevents deep, CO₂-rich water from outgassing. Correct Solution: D The “Surface Lid” is a metaphorical term for enhanced vertical stratification. In the Southern Ocean, the anomaly is caused by two factors: intensified winds (which pull deep, carbon-rich water up) and increased freshwater (from melting glaciers and rain). Normally, the upwelled water would release its CO₂ into the air. However, the freshwater is less salty and lighter, so it sits on top of the denser, saltier deep water. This creates a stable layer—the “lid”—that separates the deep water from the atmosphere. Even though the carbon-rich water is pushed upward by winds, it gets stuck about 100–200 metres below the surface. This prevents the CO₂ from escaping, allowing the ocean to continue acting as a net carbon sink. This physical trapping is a key reason why the Southern Ocean is performing differently than what many global climate models had initially predicted. Incorrect Solution: D The “Surface Lid” is a metaphorical term for enhanced vertical stratification. In the Southern Ocean, the anomaly is caused by two factors: intensified winds (which pull deep, carbon-rich water up) and increased freshwater (from melting glaciers and rain). Normally, the upwelled water would release its CO₂ into the air. However, the freshwater is less salty and lighter, so it sits on top of the denser, saltier deep water. This creates a stable layer—the “lid”—that separates the deep water from the atmosphere. Even though the carbon-rich water is pushed upward by winds, it gets stuck about 100–200 metres below the surface. This prevents the CO₂ from escaping, allowing the ocean to continue acting as a net carbon sink. This physical trapping is a key reason why the Southern Ocean is performing differently than what many global climate models had initially predicted.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following best describes the “Surface Lid” effect in the Southern Ocean Carbon Anomaly?

• a) The formation of thick sea ice that physically blocks ships and sensors.

• b) The accumulation of plastic debris that reflects solar radiation.

• c) An increase in phytoplankton blooms that "cover" the ocean surface.

• d) A layer of fresh, buoyant water that prevents deep, CO₂-rich water from outgassing.

Solution: D

• The “Surface Lid” is a metaphorical term for enhanced vertical stratification. In the Southern Ocean, the anomaly is caused by two factors: intensified winds (which pull deep, carbon-rich water up) and increased freshwater (from melting glaciers and rain). Normally, the upwelled water would release its CO₂ into the air.

• However, the freshwater is less salty and lighter, so it sits on top of the denser, saltier deep water. This creates a stable layer—the “lid”—that separates the deep water from the atmosphere. Even though the carbon-rich water is pushed upward by winds, it gets stuck about 100–200 metres below the surface.

• This prevents the CO₂ from escaping, allowing the ocean to continue acting as a net carbon sink. This physical trapping is a key reason why the Southern Ocean is performing differently than what many global climate models had initially predicted.

Solution: D

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has the power to impose financial penalties on coaching institutes for publishing misleading advertisements. Statement-II: The Act defines a misleading advertisement as one that conceals material facts or makes false claims likely to mislead the consumer. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct as the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is the executive arm established under the 2019 Act to protect the collective interests of consumers. It has recently taken stringent actions, such as imposing an ₹11 lakh penalty on UPSC coaching institutes for deceptive claims regarding selection results. Statement-II is also correct and provides the legal basis for the CCPA’s action. Under Section 2(28) of the Act, a misleading advertisement is explicitly defined to include false descriptions of goods/services, false guarantees, and the concealment of material information. Therefore, Statement-II explains why the CCPA has the jurisdiction to penalize institutes: their actions fall under the legal definition of “misleading” as per the statute. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct as the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is the executive arm established under the 2019 Act to protect the collective interests of consumers. It has recently taken stringent actions, such as imposing an ₹11 lakh penalty on UPSC coaching institutes for deceptive claims regarding selection results. Statement-II is also correct and provides the legal basis for the CCPA’s action. Under Section 2(28) of the Act, a misleading advertisement is explicitly defined to include false descriptions of goods/services, false guarantees, and the concealment of material information. Therefore, Statement-II explains why the CCPA has the jurisdiction to penalize institutes: their actions fall under the legal definition of “misleading” as per the statute.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has the power to impose financial penalties on coaching institutes for publishing misleading advertisements.

Statement-II: The Act defines a misleading advertisement as one that conceals material facts or makes false claims likely to mislead the consumer.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct as the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is the executive arm established under the 2019 Act to protect the collective interests of consumers. It has recently taken stringent actions, such as imposing an ₹11 lakh penalty on UPSC coaching institutes for deceptive claims regarding selection results.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the legal basis for the CCPA’s action. Under Section 2(28) of the Act, a misleading advertisement is explicitly defined to include false descriptions of goods/services, false guarantees, and the concealment of material information.

• Therefore, Statement-II explains why the CCPA has the jurisdiction to penalize institutes: their actions fall under the legal definition of “misleading” as per the statute.

Solution: A

• Therefore, Statement-II explains why the CCPA has the jurisdiction to penalize institutes: their actions fall under the legal definition of “misleading” as per the statute.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Village Defence Guards (VDGs) in Jammu & Kashmir: VDGs are armed civilian groups that replaced the earlier Village Defence Committees (VDCs). The members of VDGs are primarily identified from among the local panchayats and include ex-servicemen. The operational control of VDGs lies with the Ministry of Home Affairs through the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF). How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; the VDG scheme was approved in 2022 to restructure and replace the 1995 VDC system. Statement 2 is correct as the groups consist of local volunteers, including ex-servicemen and trained civilians, ensuring they have knowledge of the local terrain. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the CRPF or Army provides training, the operational control of VDGs lies with the District Superintendent of Police (SSP/SP). This ensures they are integrated into the local police security grid. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; the VDG scheme was approved in 2022 to restructure and replace the 1995 VDC system. Statement 2 is correct as the groups consist of local volunteers, including ex-servicemen and trained civilians, ensuring they have knowledge of the local terrain. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the CRPF or Army provides training, the operational control of VDGs lies with the District Superintendent of Police (SSP/SP). This ensures they are integrated into the local police security grid.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Village Defence Guards (VDGs) in Jammu & Kashmir:

• VDGs are armed civilian groups that replaced the earlier Village Defence Committees (VDCs).

• The members of VDGs are primarily identified from among the local panchayats and include ex-servicemen.

• The operational control of VDGs lies with the Ministry of Home Affairs through the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct; the VDG scheme was approved in 2022 to restructure and replace the 1995 VDC system.

• Statement 2 is correct as the groups consist of local volunteers, including ex-servicemen and trained civilians, ensuring they have knowledge of the local terrain.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because while the CRPF or Army provides training, the operational control of VDGs lies with the District Superintendent of Police (SSP/SP). This ensures they are integrated into the local police security grid.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct; the VDG scheme was approved in 2022 to restructure and replace the 1995 VDC system.

• Statement 2 is correct as the groups consist of local volunteers, including ex-servicemen and trained civilians, ensuring they have knowledge of the local terrain.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY): It is a Central Sector Scheme where 100% of the funding is provided by the Union Government. The monitoring of road quality is institutionalized through a single-tier system managed by National Quality Monitors. The scheme encourages the use of “Green Technologies” like fly ash and waste plastic in road construction. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because PMGSY is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, not a Central Sector Scheme. This means the funding is shared between the Centre and the States (usually in a 60:40 ratio for general states and 90:10 for Himalayan and NE states). Statement 2 is incorrect because the quality assurance mechanism is a three-tier system, not single-tier. The first tier is the executing agency itself, the second tier involves State Quality Monitors (SQM), and the third tier consists of independent National Quality Monitors (NQM). This ensures transparency and durability. Statement 3 is correct; the scheme has a strong focus on sustainability. It mandates the use of non-conventional materials like waste plastic, cold mix technology, geo-textiles, and fly ash to reduce the carbon footprint and enhance climate resilience. This “green” approach is a key feature of the later phases of PMGSY, aiming to integrate infrastructure dev4elopment with environmental conservation. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because PMGSY is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, not a Central Sector Scheme. This means the funding is shared between the Centre and the States (usually in a 60:40 ratio for general states and 90:10 for Himalayan and NE states). Statement 2 is incorrect because the quality assurance mechanism is a three-tier system, not single-tier. The first tier is the executing agency itself, the second tier involves State Quality Monitors (SQM), and the third tier consists of independent National Quality Monitors (NQM). This ensures transparency and durability. Statement 3 is correct; the scheme has a strong focus on sustainability. It mandates the use of non-conventional materials like waste plastic, cold mix technology, geo-textiles, and fly ash to reduce the carbon footprint and enhance climate resilience. This “green” approach is a key feature of the later phases of PMGSY, aiming to integrate infrastructure dev4elopment with environmental conservation.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY):

• It is a Central Sector Scheme where 100% of the funding is provided by the Union Government.

• The monitoring of road quality is institutionalized through a single-tier system managed by National Quality Monitors.

• The scheme encourages the use of “Green Technologies” like fly ash and waste plastic in road construction.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because PMGSY is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, not a Central Sector Scheme. This means the funding is shared between the Centre and the States (usually in a 60:40 ratio for general states and 90:10 for Himalayan and NE states).

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the quality assurance mechanism is a three-tier system, not single-tier. The first tier is the executing agency itself, the second tier involves State Quality Monitors (SQM), and the third tier consists of independent National Quality Monitors (NQM). This ensures transparency and durability.

• Statement 3 is correct; the scheme has a strong focus on sustainability. It mandates the use of non-conventional materials like waste plastic, cold mix technology, geo-textiles, and fly ash to reduce the carbon footprint and enhance climate resilience. This “green” approach is a key feature of the later phases of PMGSY, aiming to integrate infrastructure dev4elopment with environmental conservation.

Solution: A

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