UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 1 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements regarding Madhvacharya: He was a contemporary of Shankaracharya and propagated the philosophy of Kevaladvaita. His philosophy posits that the difference between the soul (Jiva) and God (Ishvara) is natural, eternal, and real. He founded the Udupi Krishna Mutt and established the Ashta Mathas tradition. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Madhvacharya (13th Century CE) was not a contemporary of Shankaracharya (8th Century CE). While Shankaracharya propounded Advaita (Non-dualism) or Kevaladvaita, Madhvacharya was the chief proponent of Dvaita (Dualism) or Tattvavāda. Statement 2 is correct: His philosophy is based on Realist Dualism. He propounded the concept of Pancha-Bheda (Five Eternal Distinctions), one of which is the difference between God and Soul. According to him, this difference is not illusory (Maya) but is natural, eternal, and real. Statement 3 is correct: Madhvacharya established the Udupi Krishna Mutt in Karnataka. He also instituted the Ashta Mathas (eight monasteries) to conduct daily worship of Lord Krishna by rotation, a tradition that continues to this day. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Madhvacharya (13th Century CE) was not a contemporary of Shankaracharya (8th Century CE). While Shankaracharya propounded Advaita (Non-dualism) or Kevaladvaita, Madhvacharya was the chief proponent of Dvaita (Dualism) or Tattvavāda. Statement 2 is correct: His philosophy is based on Realist Dualism. He propounded the concept of Pancha-Bheda (Five Eternal Distinctions), one of which is the difference between God and Soul. According to him, this difference is not illusory (Maya) but is natural, eternal, and real. Statement 3 is correct: Madhvacharya established the Udupi Krishna Mutt in Karnataka. He also instituted the Ashta Mathas (eight monasteries) to conduct daily worship of Lord Krishna by rotation, a tradition that continues to this day.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements regarding Madhvacharya:

• He was a contemporary of Shankaracharya and propagated the philosophy of Kevaladvaita.

• His philosophy posits that the difference between the soul (Jiva) and God (Ishvara) is natural, eternal, and real.

• He founded the Udupi Krishna Mutt and established the Ashta Mathas tradition.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Madhvacharya (13th Century CE) was not a contemporary of Shankaracharya (8th Century CE). While Shankaracharya propounded Advaita (Non-dualism) or Kevaladvaita, Madhvacharya was the chief proponent of Dvaita (Dualism) or Tattvavāda.

• Statement 2 is correct: His philosophy is based on Realist Dualism. He propounded the concept of Pancha-Bheda (Five Eternal Distinctions), one of which is the difference between God and Soul. According to him, this difference is not illusory (Maya) but is natural, eternal, and real.

• Statement 3 is correct: Madhvacharya established the Udupi Krishna Mutt in Karnataka. He also instituted the Ashta Mathas (eight monasteries) to conduct daily worship of Lord Krishna by rotation, a tradition that continues to this day.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Indian Stock Market history, consider the following statements: The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) was the first stock exchange in Asia to launch screen-based trading system. The S&P BSE Sensex comprises 50 large-cap stocks, whereas the Nifty 50 comprises 30 large-cap stocks. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: BSE is Asia’s oldest stock exchange (established in 1875). The BSE operated with an open-cry floor trading system for over a century. It launched BOLT (BSE On-Line Trading) only in 1995, following the competitive pressure from the NSE. Statement 2 is incorrect: The indices are swapped in the statement. The S&P BSE Sensex tracks the performance of 30 large-cap stocks. The Nifty 50, which is the flagship index of the NSE, tracks 50 large-cap stocks. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: BSE is Asia’s oldest stock exchange (established in 1875). The BSE operated with an open-cry floor trading system for over a century. It launched BOLT (BSE On-Line Trading) only in 1995, following the competitive pressure from the NSE. Statement 2 is incorrect: The indices are swapped in the statement. The S&P BSE Sensex tracks the performance of 30 large-cap stocks. The Nifty 50, which is the flagship index of the NSE, tracks 50 large-cap stocks.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Indian Stock Market history, consider the following statements:

• The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) was the first stock exchange in Asia to launch screen-based trading system.

• The S&P BSE Sensex comprises 50 large-cap stocks, whereas the Nifty 50 comprises 30 large-cap stocks.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Statement 1 is incorrect: BSE is Asia’s oldest stock exchange (established in 1875). The BSE operated with an open-cry floor trading system for over a century. It launched BOLT (BSE On-Line Trading) only in 1995, following the competitive pressure from the NSE.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The indices are swapped in the statement. The S&P BSE Sensex tracks the performance of 30 large-cap stocks. The Nifty 50, which is the flagship index of the NSE, tracks 50 large-cap stocks.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘India Revised Earthquake Design Code, 2025’, consider the following statements: It has introduced a new seismic Zone VI, placing the entire Himalayan arc in this highest-risk category. The code mandates that cities lying on the border of two seismic zones must be classified under the lower-risk zone to reduce construction costs. It acknowledges for the first time that ruptures from the Himalayan Frontal Thrust may extend southwards to populated foothill regions. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The revised code (IS 1893: 2025) has radically updated the zonation map. It has introduced a Zone VI (highest risk) for the first time and placed the entire Himalayan arc (from J&K-Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh) in this zone due to consistent and extreme tectonic stress. Statement 2 is incorrect: The new code prioritizes safety over cost. It stipulates that if a city or town lies on the border of two seismic zones, it defaults to the higher-risk zone. This auto-upgrade moves away from arbitrary administrative lines to reflect geological realities. Statement 3 is correct: The revised code incorporates scientific modeling of fault segments. It specifically acknowledges that ruptures from the Himalayan Frontal Thrust (HFT) may not be contained within the mountains but could propagate southwards to populated foothill regions (e.g., near Mohand/Dehradun), thereby expanding the risk area beyond what was previously estimated. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The revised code (IS 1893: 2025) has radically updated the zonation map. It has introduced a Zone VI (highest risk) for the first time and placed the entire Himalayan arc (from J&K-Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh) in this zone due to consistent and extreme tectonic stress. Statement 2 is incorrect: The new code prioritizes safety over cost. It stipulates that if a city or town lies on the border of two seismic zones, it defaults to the higher-risk zone. This auto-upgrade moves away from arbitrary administrative lines to reflect geological realities. Statement 3 is correct: The revised code incorporates scientific modeling of fault segments. It specifically acknowledges that ruptures from the Himalayan Frontal Thrust (HFT) may not be contained within the mountains but could propagate southwards to populated foothill regions (e.g., near Mohand/Dehradun), thereby expanding the risk area beyond what was previously estimated.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the ‘India Revised Earthquake Design Code, 2025’, consider the following statements:

• It has introduced a new seismic Zone VI, placing the entire Himalayan arc in this highest-risk category.

• The code mandates that cities lying on the border of two seismic zones must be classified under the lower-risk zone to reduce construction costs.

• It acknowledges for the first time that ruptures from the Himalayan Frontal Thrust may extend southwards to populated foothill regions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: The revised code (IS 1893: 2025) has radically updated the zonation map. It has introduced a Zone VI (highest risk) for the first time and placed the entire Himalayan arc (from J&K-Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh) in this zone due to consistent and extreme tectonic stress.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The new code prioritizes safety over cost. It stipulates that if a city or town lies on the border of two seismic zones, it defaults to the higher-risk zone. This auto-upgrade moves away from arbitrary administrative lines to reflect geological realities.

• Statement 3 is correct: The revised code incorporates scientific modeling of fault segments. It specifically acknowledges that ruptures from the Himalayan Frontal Thrust (HFT) may not be contained within the mountains but could propagate southwards to populated foothill regions (e.g., near Mohand/Dehradun), thereby expanding the risk area beyond what was previously estimated.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding recent operations and defence systems: Operation/System Context/Purpose 1. Operation Sagar Bandhu Humanitarian assistance to Sri Lanka post-Cyclone Ditwah 2. S-500 Prometey Indigenous anti-drone system developed by DRDO 3. Vision MAHASAGAR Maritime cooperation framework for the Indian Ocean Region How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched: Operation Sagar Bandhu was launched by the Government of India to provide rapid Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) to Sri Lanka following the devastation caused by Cyclone Ditwah. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The S-500 Prometey is not an indigenous DRDO system. It is Russia’s most advanced next-generation surface-to-air and anti-space defence system, developed by Almaz-Antey. India is discussing potential interest in it, but it is of Russian origin. Pair 3 is correctly matched: The relief efforts under Operation Sagar Bandhu align with India’s Vision MAHASAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region), which is a maritime cooperation framework aimed at strengthening security and humanitarian ties in the Indian Ocean Region. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched: Operation Sagar Bandhu was launched by the Government of India to provide rapid Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) to Sri Lanka following the devastation caused by Cyclone Ditwah. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The S-500 Prometey is not an indigenous DRDO system. It is Russia’s most advanced next-generation surface-to-air and anti-space defence system, developed by Almaz-Antey. India is discussing potential interest in it, but it is of Russian origin. Pair 3 is correctly matched: The relief efforts under Operation Sagar Bandhu align with India’s Vision MAHASAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region), which is a maritime cooperation framework aimed at strengthening security and humanitarian ties in the Indian Ocean Region.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding recent operations and defence systems:

| Operation/System | Context/Purpose

1.| Operation Sagar Bandhu | Humanitarian assistance to Sri Lanka post-Cyclone Ditwah
2.| S-500 Prometey | Indigenous anti-drone system developed by DRDO
3.| Vision MAHASAGAR | Maritime cooperation framework for the Indian Ocean Region

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Operation Sagar Bandhu was launched by the Government of India to provide rapid Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) to Sri Lanka following the devastation caused by Cyclone Ditwah.

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The S-500 Prometey is not an indigenous DRDO system. It is Russia’s most advanced next-generation surface-to-air and anti-space defence system, developed by Almaz-Antey. India is discussing potential interest in it, but it is of Russian origin.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The relief efforts under Operation Sagar Bandhu align with India’s Vision MAHASAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region), which is a maritime cooperation framework aimed at strengthening security and humanitarian ties in the Indian Ocean Region.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Paradip Port has consistently been one of the top performing major ports in India, handling the highest cargo volume among East Coast ports. Statement-II: Paradip Port is an artificial lagoon harbour located at the confluence of the Godavari River and the Bay of Bengal. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct: Paradip Port is a key deep-water port on the Eastern coast. It has achieved the fastest-ever 100 MMT cargo throughput and has crossed the 100 MMT mark for the 9th consecutive year. It is recognized as one of the top-performing Major Ports in India. Statement-II is incorrect: While Paradip Port is an artificial, deep-water port, it is located at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha, not the Godavari River (which is in Andhra Pradesh). Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct: Paradip Port is a key deep-water port on the Eastern coast. It has achieved the fastest-ever 100 MMT cargo throughput and has crossed the 100 MMT mark for the 9th consecutive year. It is recognized as one of the top-performing Major Ports in India. Statement-II is incorrect: While Paradip Port is an artificial, deep-water port, it is located at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha, not the Godavari River (which is in Andhra Pradesh).

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Paradip Port has consistently been one of the top performing major ports in India, handling the highest cargo volume among East Coast ports.

Statement-II: Paradip Port is an artificial lagoon harbour located at the confluence of the Godavari River and the Bay of Bengal.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct: Paradip Port is a key deep-water port on the Eastern coast. It has achieved the fastest-ever 100 MMT cargo throughput and has crossed the 100 MMT mark for the 9th consecutive year. It is recognized as one of the top-performing Major Ports in India.

• Statement-II is incorrect: While Paradip Port is an artificial, deep-water port, it is located at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha, not the Godavari River (which is in Andhra Pradesh).

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the 1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025: It was hosted exclusively by India across three different states. The ball used in the tournament is a white plastic ball with metal bearings inside to produce sound. In the B1 category (fully blind), batters are allowed a runner, and every run scored by them counts as double. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The tournament was co-hosted by India and Sri Lanka. While matches were played in Delhi and Bengaluru (India), the final was held in Colombo (Sri Lanka). Statement 2 is correct: To accommodate visual impairment, the equipment is specialized. The ball is a white plastic ball containing metal bearings (ball bearings) that create a rattling sound, allowing players to track it audibly. Statement 3 is correct: The rules of blind cricket distinguish between categories. B1 players are fully blind. To level the playing field, B1 batters are permitted to use a runner, and to incentivize their contribution, every run they score off the bat is counted as double (e.g., a single counts as 2, a boundary counts as 8). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The tournament was co-hosted by India and Sri Lanka. While matches were played in Delhi and Bengaluru (India), the final was held in Colombo (Sri Lanka). Statement 2 is correct: To accommodate visual impairment, the equipment is specialized. The ball is a white plastic ball containing metal bearings (ball bearings) that create a rattling sound, allowing players to track it audibly. Statement 3 is correct: The rules of blind cricket distinguish between categories. B1 players are fully blind. To level the playing field, B1 batters are permitted to use a runner, and to incentivize their contribution, every run they score off the bat is counted as double (e.g., a single counts as 2, a boundary counts as 8).

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the 1st Blind Women’s T20 World Cup 2025:

• It was hosted exclusively by India across three different states.

• The ball used in the tournament is a white plastic ball with metal bearings inside to produce sound.

• In the B1 category (fully blind), batters are allowed a runner, and every run scored by them counts as double.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The tournament was co-hosted by India and Sri Lanka. While matches were played in Delhi and Bengaluru (India), the final was held in Colombo (Sri Lanka).

• Statement 2 is correct: To accommodate visual impairment, the equipment is specialized. The ball is a white plastic ball containing metal bearings (ball bearings) that create a rattling sound, allowing players to track it audibly.

• Statement 3 is correct: The rules of blind cricket distinguish between categories. B1 players are fully blind. To level the playing field, B1 batters are permitted to use a runner, and to incentivize their contribution, every run they score off the bat is counted as double (e.g., a single counts as 2, a boundary counts as 8).

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The tournament was co-hosted by India and Sri Lanka. While matches were played in Delhi and Bengaluru (India), the final was held in Colombo (Sri Lanka).

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points In the context of the ‘Ashta Mathas’ of Udupi, consider the following statements: They were established by Madhvacharya to propagate the Advaita philosophy. The rotation of worship rights (Paryaya) among these Mathas is a unique tradition associated with the Udupi Krishna Mutt. Madhvacharya is believed to have been initiated into Sannyasa by Achyutapreksha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: While Madhvacharya established the Ashta Mathas, he did so to propagate Dvaita (Dualism), not Advaita. He was a staunch critic of Advaita. Statement 2 is correct: The Ashta Mathas (eight monasteries) share the responsibility of worshipping Lord Krishna at the Udupi Mutt in a cyclic rotation known as the Paryaya Statement 3 is correct: As a teenager, Madhvacharya (then named Vasudeva) was initiated into Sannyasa by his guru Achyutapreksha, who gave him the name Purna Prajna. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: While Madhvacharya established the Ashta Mathas, he did so to propagate Dvaita (Dualism), not Advaita. He was a staunch critic of Advaita. Statement 2 is correct: The Ashta Mathas (eight monasteries) share the responsibility of worshipping Lord Krishna at the Udupi Mutt in a cyclic rotation known as the Paryaya Statement 3 is correct: As a teenager, Madhvacharya (then named Vasudeva) was initiated into Sannyasa by his guru Achyutapreksha, who gave him the name Purna Prajna.

#### 7. Question

In the context of the ‘Ashta Mathas’ of Udupi, consider the following statements:

• They were established by Madhvacharya to propagate the Advaita philosophy.

• The rotation of worship rights (Paryaya) among these Mathas is a unique tradition associated with the Udupi Krishna Mutt.

• Madhvacharya is believed to have been initiated into Sannyasa by Achyutapreksha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: While Madhvacharya established the Ashta Mathas, he did so to propagate Dvaita (Dualism), not Advaita. He was a staunch critic of Advaita.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Ashta Mathas (eight monasteries) share the responsibility of worshipping Lord Krishna at the Udupi Mutt in a cyclic rotation known as the Paryaya

• Statement 3 is correct: As a teenager, Madhvacharya (then named Vasudeva) was initiated into Sannyasa by his guru Achyutapreksha, who gave him the name Purna Prajna.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: While Madhvacharya established the Ashta Mathas, he did so to propagate Dvaita (Dualism), not Advaita. He was a staunch critic of Advaita.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Ashta Mathas (eight monasteries) share the responsibility of worshipping Lord Krishna at the Udupi Mutt in a cyclic rotation known as the Paryaya

• Statement 3 is correct: As a teenager, Madhvacharya (then named Vasudeva) was initiated into Sannyasa by his guru Achyutapreksha, who gave him the name Purna Prajna.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Paradip Port: It was the first Major Port on the East Coast to be commissioned after Independence. It is governed by the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963. Its foundation stone was laid by Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Paradip was declared the 8th Major Port of India in 1966 and was the first Major Port on the East Coast to be commissioned after India gained Independence. Statement 2 is correct: It operates as an autonomous body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, governed by a Board of Trustees. Statement 3 is incorrect: The foundation stone of the port was laid by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on 3 January 1962, not Lal Bahadur Shastri. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Paradip was declared the 8th Major Port of India in 1966 and was the first Major Port on the East Coast to be commissioned after India gained Independence. Statement 2 is correct: It operates as an autonomous body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, governed by a Board of Trustees. Statement 3 is incorrect: The foundation stone of the port was laid by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on 3 January 1962, not Lal Bahadur Shastri.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Paradip Port:

• It was the first Major Port on the East Coast to be commissioned after Independence.

• It is governed by the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963.

• Its foundation stone was laid by Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: Paradip was declared the 8th Major Port of India in 1966 and was the first Major Port on the East Coast to be commissioned after India gained Independence.

• Statement 2 is correct: It operates as an autonomous body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, governed by a Board of Trustees.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The foundation stone of the port was laid by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on 3 January 1962, not Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: Paradip was declared the 8th Major Port of India in 1966 and was the first Major Port on the East Coast to be commissioned after India gained Independence.

• Statement 2 is correct: It operates as an autonomous body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, governed by a Board of Trustees.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The foundation stone of the port was laid by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on 3 January 1962, not Lal Bahadur Shastri.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes the significance of the rice varieties Pusa DST-1 and DRR Dhan 100 Kamala? (a) They are the first genetically modified (GM) rice varieties to be commercially released in India without field trials. (b) They represent India’s first successful gene-edited rice lines evaluated under a national blind-coded trial protocol. (c) They are traditional organic varieties preserved by indigenous communities and recently recognized by ICAR. (d) They are hybrid varieties developed exclusively for export to European markets to meet strict residue limits. Correct Solution: B Their primary significance is that they are “India’s first successful gene-edited rice lines evaluated under a national protocol” (AICRPR blind-coded trials). Option (a) is incorrect because they are “gene-edited”. Option (c) is incorrect as they are developed using “advanced precision breeding techniques” by ICAR institutes, not just traditional preservation. Option (d) is incorrect as Pusa DST-1 is for southern states and DRR Dhan 100 is for yield improvement; export is not the primary context mentioned. Incorrect Solution: B Their primary significance is that they are “India’s first successful gene-edited rice lines evaluated under a national protocol” (AICRPR blind-coded trials). Option (a) is incorrect because they are “gene-edited”. Option (c) is incorrect as they are developed using “advanced precision breeding techniques” by ICAR institutes, not just traditional preservation. Option (d) is incorrect as Pusa DST-1 is for southern states and DRR Dhan 100 is for yield improvement; export is not the primary context mentioned.

#### 9. Question

Which one of the following statements best describes the significance of the rice varieties Pusa DST-1 and DRR Dhan 100 Kamala?

• (a) They are the first genetically modified (GM) rice varieties to be commercially released in India without field trials.

• (b) They represent India’s first successful gene-edited rice lines evaluated under a national blind-coded trial protocol.

• (c) They are traditional organic varieties preserved by indigenous communities and recently recognized by ICAR.

• (d) They are hybrid varieties developed exclusively for export to European markets to meet strict residue limits.

Solution: B

Their primary significance is that they are “India’s first successful gene-edited rice lines evaluated under a national protocol” (AICRPR blind-coded trials). Option (a) is incorrect because they are “gene-edited”. Option (c) is incorrect as they are developed using “advanced precision breeding techniques” by ICAR institutes, not just traditional preservation. Option (d) is incorrect as Pusa DST-1 is for southern states and DRR Dhan 100 is for yield improvement; export is not the primary context mentioned.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points “Rare-earth oxides -> Metals -> Alloys -> Sintered Magnets” The sequence given above represents the value chain targeted by which one of the following initiatives? (a) National Mission on Transformative Mobility and Battery Storage (b) Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (c) Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Advanced Chemistry Cell (d) FAME India Phase II Correct Solution: B The sequence explicitly describes the integrated manufacturing covered under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (REPM). The scheme supports the “full rare-earth value chain under one roof,” enabling the conversion of raw rare-earth oxides into metals, processing them into alloys, and finally producing high-performance NdFeB sintered magnets. While other schemes relate to mobility or batteries, this specific metallurgical value chain is unique to the REPM scheme. Incorrect Solution: B The sequence explicitly describes the integrated manufacturing covered under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (REPM). The scheme supports the “full rare-earth value chain under one roof,” enabling the conversion of raw rare-earth oxides into metals, processing them into alloys, and finally producing high-performance NdFeB sintered magnets. While other schemes relate to mobility or batteries, this specific metallurgical value chain is unique to the REPM scheme.

#### 10. Question

“Rare-earth oxides -> Metals -> Alloys -> Sintered Magnets”

The sequence given above represents the value chain targeted by which one of the following initiatives?

• (a) National Mission on Transformative Mobility and Battery Storage

• (b) Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets

• (c) Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Advanced Chemistry Cell

• (d) FAME India Phase II

Solution: B

The sequence explicitly describes the integrated manufacturing covered under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (REPM). The scheme supports the “full rare-earth value chain under one roof,” enabling the conversion of raw rare-earth oxides into metals, processing them into alloys, and finally producing high-performance NdFeB sintered magnets. While other schemes relate to mobility or batteries, this specific metallurgical value chain is unique to the REPM scheme.

Solution: B

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