UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 1 April 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Match the term with its correct description: Term Description A. Xenotransplantation 1. A gene-editing tool for modifying animal DNA B. Auxiliary transplant 2. Partial functional support without full replacement C. CRISPR 3. Organ transplantation from one species to another Select the correct answer code: a) A-1, B-2, C-3 b) A-2, B-1, C-3 c) A-1, B-3, C-2 d) A-3, B-2, C-1 Correct Solution: d) Xenotransplantation (A-3) refers to the transplantation of living cells, tissues, or organs from one species into another, most commonly from animals like pigs into humans. It holds potential to address the global shortage of human organ donors, though it poses risks like immune rejection and cross-species disease transmission. Auxiliary transplant (B-2) is a technique where a partial organ (commonly liver) is transplanted to provide functional support without removing the recipient’s native organ. This method is often used when the native organ may still have potential for regeneration or partial recovery, allowing a safety net for critical cases. CRISPR (C-1) stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats. It is a precise gene-editing technology used to modify the DNA of donor animals in xenotransplantation. Incorrect Solution: d) Xenotransplantation (A-3) refers to the transplantation of living cells, tissues, or organs from one species into another, most commonly from animals like pigs into humans. It holds potential to address the global shortage of human organ donors, though it poses risks like immune rejection and cross-species disease transmission. Auxiliary transplant (B-2) is a technique where a partial organ (commonly liver) is transplanted to provide functional support without removing the recipient’s native organ. This method is often used when the native organ may still have potential for regeneration or partial recovery, allowing a safety net for critical cases. CRISPR (C-1) stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats. It is a precise gene-editing technology used to modify the DNA of donor animals in xenotransplantation.

#### 1. Question

Match the term with its correct description:

Term | Description

A. Xenotransplantation | 1. A gene-editing tool for modifying animal DNA

B. Auxiliary transplant | 2. Partial functional support without full replacement

C. CRISPR | 3. Organ transplantation from one species to another

Select the correct answer code:

• a) A-1, B-2, C-3

• b) A-2, B-1, C-3

• c) A-1, B-3, C-2

• d) A-3, B-2, C-1

Solution: d)

• Xenotransplantation (A-3) refers to the transplantation of living cells, tissues, or organs from one species into another, most commonly from animals like pigs into humans. It holds potential to address the global shortage of human organ donors, though it poses risks like immune rejection and cross-species disease transmission.

• Auxiliary transplant (B-2) is a technique where a partial organ (commonly liver) is transplanted to provide functional support without removing the recipient’s native organ. This method is often used when the native organ may still have potential for regeneration or partial recovery, allowing a safety net for critical cases.

CRISPR (C-1) stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats. It is a precise gene-editing technology used to modify the DNA of donor animals in xenotransplantation.

Solution: d)

CRISPR (C-1) stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats. It is a precise gene-editing technology used to modify the DNA of donor animals in xenotransplantation.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Match the Indian disaster relief operations with their respective contexts: Operation Context A. Operation Brahma 1. Nepal earthquake response, 2015 B. Operation Maitri 2. Earthquake relief in Myanmar, 2025 C. Operation Dost 3. Flood and cyclone relief in Sri Lanka D. Operation Sahayata 4. Earthquake response in Turkey and Syria, 2023 Select the correct code: a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 Correct Solution: b) A-2: Operation Brahma was launched in 2025 following the 7 magnitude earthquake in Mandalay, Myanmar. India dispatched C-130J aircraft with relief supplies, search and rescue teams, and medical personnel, reinforcing its Act East and Neighbourhood First policies. B-1: Operation Maitri was India’s extensive humanitarian response to the 2015 Nepal earthquake, involving military and civilian agencies. India was the first responder, highlighting its regional leadership in Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR). C-4: Operation Dost was launched in 2023 to aid Turkey and Syria after a devastating earthquake. India sent medical teams, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) units, and field hospitals, showcasing India’s global outreach in disaster relief. D-3: Operation Sahayata was undertaken to support Sri Lanka during its flood and cyclone crises, emphasizing India’s commitment to immediate neighbourhood assistance. Incorrect Solution: b) A-2: Operation Brahma was launched in 2025 following the 7 magnitude earthquake in Mandalay, Myanmar. India dispatched C-130J aircraft with relief supplies, search and rescue teams, and medical personnel, reinforcing its Act East and Neighbourhood First policies. B-1: Operation Maitri was India’s extensive humanitarian response to the 2015 Nepal earthquake, involving military and civilian agencies. India was the first responder, highlighting its regional leadership in Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR). C-4: Operation Dost was launched in 2023 to aid Turkey and Syria after a devastating earthquake. India sent medical teams, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) units, and field hospitals, showcasing India’s global outreach in disaster relief. D-3: Operation Sahayata was undertaken to support Sri Lanka during its flood and cyclone crises, emphasizing India’s commitment to immediate neighbourhood assistance.

#### 2. Question

Match the Indian disaster relief operations with their respective contexts:

Operation | Context

A. Operation Brahma | 1. Nepal earthquake response, 2015

B. Operation Maitri | 2. Earthquake relief in Myanmar, 2025

C. Operation Dost | 3. Flood and cyclone relief in Sri Lanka

D. Operation Sahayata | 4. Earthquake response in Turkey and Syria, 2023

Select the correct code:

• a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

• b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

• c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

• d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Solution: b)

• A-2: Operation Brahma was launched in 2025 following the 7 magnitude earthquake in Mandalay, Myanmar. India dispatched C-130J aircraft with relief supplies, search and rescue teams, and medical personnel, reinforcing its Act East and Neighbourhood First policies.

• B-1: Operation Maitri was India’s extensive humanitarian response to the 2015 Nepal earthquake, involving military and civilian agencies. India was the first responder, highlighting its regional leadership in Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR).

• C-4: Operation Dost was launched in 2023 to aid Turkey and Syria after a devastating earthquake. India sent medical teams, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) units, and field hospitals, showcasing India’s global outreach in disaster relief.

D-3: Operation Sahayata was undertaken to support Sri Lanka during its flood and cyclone crises, emphasizing India’s commitment to immediate neighbourhood assistance.

Solution: b)

D-3: Operation Sahayata was undertaken to support Sri Lanka during its flood and cyclone crises, emphasizing India’s commitment to immediate neighbourhood assistance.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about heatwaves in India: IMD defines a heatwave only when the maximum temperature exceeds 45°C, regardless of baseline averages. The Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) is unrelated to humidity and focuses only on solar radiation. Heatwave-related mortality often disproportionately affects urban informal workers and elderly populations. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. IMD classifies a heatwave when the maximum temperature reaches ≥40°C in plains, ≥30°C in hills, and is ≥4.5°C above normal. For severe heatwaves, it may exceed 45°C, but the threshold is not absolute. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) is a composite index that considers temperature, humidity, solar radiation, and wind speed, making it essential for assessing heat stress. Statement 3 is correct. Studies show that heatwaves disproportionately affect vulnerable groups — such as urban informal workers, elderly, and people with pre-existing illnesses. These populations lack access to cooling, hydration, and often live in dense, poorly ventilated housing. Mortality patterns during heatwaves (e.g., Ahmedabad 2010, Odisha 1998) validate this vulnerability. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. IMD classifies a heatwave when the maximum temperature reaches ≥40°C in plains, ≥30°C in hills, and is ≥4.5°C above normal. For severe heatwaves, it may exceed 45°C, but the threshold is not absolute. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) is a composite index that considers temperature, humidity, solar radiation, and wind speed, making it essential for assessing heat stress. Statement 3 is correct. Studies show that heatwaves disproportionately affect vulnerable groups — such as urban informal workers, elderly, and people with pre-existing illnesses. These populations lack access to cooling, hydration, and often live in dense, poorly ventilated housing. Mortality patterns during heatwaves (e.g., Ahmedabad 2010, Odisha 1998) validate this vulnerability.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about heatwaves in India:

• IMD defines a heatwave only when the maximum temperature exceeds 45°C, regardless of baseline averages.

• The Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) is unrelated to humidity and focuses only on solar radiation.

• Heatwave-related mortality often disproportionately affects urban informal workers and elderly populations.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. IMD classifies a heatwave when the maximum temperature reaches ≥40°C in plains, ≥30°C in hills, and is ≥4.5°C above normal. For severe heatwaves, it may exceed 45°C, but the threshold is not absolute.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) is a composite index that considers temperature, humidity, solar radiation, and wind speed, making it essential for assessing heat stress.

Statement 3 is correct. Studies show that heatwaves disproportionately affect vulnerable groups — such as urban informal workers, elderly, and people with pre-existing illnesses. These populations lack access to cooling, hydration, and often live in dense, poorly ventilated housing. Mortality patterns during heatwaves (e.g., Ahmedabad 2010, Odisha 1998) validate this vulnerability.

Solution: a)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS): Only national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be declared as BHS. A BHS can be proposed by local Panchayats or Biodiversity Management Committees. A site must contain endemic or threatened species to qualify as a BHS. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. BHS can be any ecologically or culturally significant site, including sacred groves, community forests, agricultural landscapes, or wetlands. They do not need to be protected areas under the Wildlife Protection Act. Statement 2 is correct. According to Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, State Biodiversity Boards may initiate proposals for BHS status, but often the initial proposal comes from Panchayats or local Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs). This bottom-up process empowers communities. Statement 3 is correct. Endemism, rarity, ecological sensitivity, or cultural and spiritual value are key criteria. While endemic species increase a site’s importance, even sacred groves that serve as pollinator corridors or support soil fertility (as in Kasampatty) may qualify. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. BHS can be any ecologically or culturally significant site, including sacred groves, community forests, agricultural landscapes, or wetlands. They do not need to be protected areas under the Wildlife Protection Act. Statement 2 is correct. According to Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, State Biodiversity Boards may initiate proposals for BHS status, but often the initial proposal comes from Panchayats or local Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs). This bottom-up process empowers communities. Statement 3 is correct. Endemism, rarity, ecological sensitivity, or cultural and spiritual value are key criteria. While endemic species increase a site’s importance, even sacred groves that serve as pollinator corridors or support soil fertility (as in Kasampatty) may qualify.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS):

• Only national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be declared as BHS.

• A BHS can be proposed by local Panchayats or Biodiversity Management Committees.

• A site must contain endemic or threatened species to qualify as a BHS.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. BHS can be any ecologically or culturally significant site, including sacred groves, community forests, agricultural landscapes, or wetlands. They do not need to be protected areas under the Wildlife Protection Act.

• Statement 2 is correct. According to Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, State Biodiversity Boards may initiate proposals for BHS status, but often the initial proposal comes from Panchayats or local Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs). This bottom-up process empowers communities.

Statement 3 is correct. Endemism, rarity, ecological sensitivity, or cultural and spiritual value are key criteria. While endemic species increase a site’s importance, even sacred groves that serve as pollinator corridors or support soil fertility (as in Kasampatty) may qualify.

Solution: b)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Myanmar’s geography. Myanmar shares a maritime boundary with India in the Andaman Sea. Myanmar shares its longest international land border with Thailand. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. India and Myanmar share a maritime boundary in the Andaman Sea, with strategic naval importance, particularly in light of India’s Indo-Pacific strategy and concerns over Chinese activity in the region. Statement 2 is incorrect. Myanmar shares its longest land border with China, not Thailand. It also borders India, Bangladesh, Laos, and Thailand, but the China-Myanmar boundary (over 2,000 km) is the most extensive. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. India and Myanmar share a maritime boundary in the Andaman Sea, with strategic naval importance, particularly in light of India’s Indo-Pacific strategy and concerns over Chinese activity in the region. Statement 2 is incorrect. Myanmar shares its longest land border with China, not Thailand. It also borders India, Bangladesh, Laos, and Thailand, but the China-Myanmar boundary (over 2,000 km) is the most extensive.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about Myanmar’s geography.

• Myanmar shares a maritime boundary with India in the Andaman Sea.

• Myanmar shares its longest international land border with Thailand.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct. India and Myanmar share a maritime boundary in the Andaman Sea, with strategic naval importance, particularly in light of India’s Indo-Pacific strategy and concerns over Chinese activity in the region.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Myanmar shares its longest land border with China, not Thailand. It also borders India, Bangladesh, Laos, and Thailand, but the China-Myanmar boundary (over 2,000 km) is the most extensive.

Solution: a)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about judicial asset declaration and transparency in India are correct? The RTI Act explicitly excludes judges from its definition of “public authority.” The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill proposed making asset declarations public and mandatory. Select the correct answer code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Judges are not excluded from the RTI Act’s definition of public authority. In fact, the Supreme Court ruled in 2010 and reaffirmed in 2019 that the CJI’s office is a public authority, and judicial offices fall within RTI’s scope. Statement 2 is correct. The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, 2010 proposed making it mandatory for judges to declare their assets publicly. It also included a code of conduct, but the bill lapsed and never became law. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Judges are not excluded from the RTI Act’s definition of public authority. In fact, the Supreme Court ruled in 2010 and reaffirmed in 2019 that the CJI’s office is a public authority, and judicial offices fall within RTI’s scope. Statement 2 is correct. The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, 2010 proposed making it mandatory for judges to declare their assets publicly. It also included a code of conduct, but the bill lapsed and never became law.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following statements about judicial asset declaration and transparency in India are correct?

• The RTI Act explicitly excludes judges from its definition of “public authority.”

• The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill proposed making asset declarations public and mandatory.

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. Judges are not excluded from the RTI Act’s definition of public authority. In fact, the Supreme Court ruled in 2010 and reaffirmed in 2019 that the CJI’s office is a public authority, and judicial offices fall within RTI’s scope.

Statement 2 is correct. The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, 2010 proposed making it mandatory for judges to declare their assets publicly. It also included a code of conduct, but the bill lapsed and never became law.

Solution: b)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: India’s National Disaster Management Plan classifies heatwaves as a low-priority hazard. Wet bulb temperatures below 30°C are considered dangerous for human survival. All Indian states follow a uniform Heat Action Plan framework. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None Correct Solution: d) All three statements are incorrect: Statement 1 is wrong. Heatwaves are classified as a serious hazard in India’s National Disaster Management Plan. After deadly events like the 2015 heatwave, heatwaves were brought under priority disaster categories by NDMA. Statement 2 is incorrect. A wet bulb temperature of 35°C is considered the upper limit of human survivability. Below 30°C, although uncomfortable, the human body can still manage thermoregulation. Statement 3 is incorrect. India has no uniform national Heat Action Plan. States like Gujarat and Odisha have their own plans, but many states lack localized response mechanisms. NDMA has proposed guidelines, but implementation varies significantly. Incorrect Solution: d) All three statements are incorrect: Statement 1 is wrong. Heatwaves are classified as a serious hazard in India’s National Disaster Management Plan. After deadly events like the 2015 heatwave, heatwaves were brought under priority disaster categories by NDMA. Statement 2 is incorrect. A wet bulb temperature of 35°C is considered the upper limit of human survivability. Below 30°C, although uncomfortable, the human body can still manage thermoregulation. Statement 3 is incorrect. India has no uniform national Heat Action Plan. States like Gujarat and Odisha have their own plans, but many states lack localized response mechanisms. NDMA has proposed guidelines, but implementation varies significantly.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

• India’s National Disaster Management Plan classifies heatwaves as a low-priority hazard.

• Wet bulb temperatures below 30°C are considered dangerous for human survival.

• All Indian states follow a uniform Heat Action Plan framework.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)

All three statements are incorrect:

• Statement 1 is wrong. Heatwaves are classified as a serious hazard in India’s National Disaster Management Plan. After deadly events like the 2015 heatwave, heatwaves were brought under priority disaster categories by NDMA.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. A wet bulb temperature of 35°C is considered the upper limit of human survivability. Below 30°C, although uncomfortable, the human body can still manage thermoregulation.

Statement 3 is incorrect. India has no uniform national Heat Action Plan. States like Gujarat and Odisha have their own plans, but many states lack localized response mechanisms. NDMA has proposed guidelines, but implementation varies significantly.

Solution: d)

All three statements are incorrect:

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Why is the Kasampatty Sacred Grove significant in the context of biodiversity governance in India? a) It is the first private forest reserve in Tamil Nadu under the Forest Rights Act. b) It is the first site declared under the Wildlife Protection Act exclusively for endemic species. c) It is Tamil Nadu’s second Biodiversity Heritage Site declared under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. d) It is a UNESCO-recognized agroforestry landscape. Correct Solution: c) Kasampatty Sacred Grove in Dindigul district, Tamil Nadu, was officially notified as the second Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS) of the state, under Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The first BHS in Tamil Nadu was Arittapatti in Madurai district. These sites are selected for their ecological fragility, rich biodiversity, and cultural significance, often protected by local communities. Kasampatty, also known as Veera Kovil Grove, has both ecological importance—as it supports local pollination networks and wildlife corridors near the Alagarmalai Reserve Forest—and spiritual significance, as the community worships the deity Veeranan The site was proposed for BHS status through community engagement with the Panchayat Council and Tamil Nadu Biodiversity Board. None of the other options are correct: Option a confuses it with FRA provisions, which are unrelated. Option b refers to a different legal framework (Wildlife Protection Act). Option d is factually incorrect. Incorrect Solution: c) Kasampatty Sacred Grove in Dindigul district, Tamil Nadu, was officially notified as the second Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS) of the state, under Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The first BHS in Tamil Nadu was Arittapatti in Madurai district. These sites are selected for their ecological fragility, rich biodiversity, and cultural significance, often protected by local communities. Kasampatty, also known as Veera Kovil Grove, has both ecological importance—as it supports local pollination networks and wildlife corridors near the Alagarmalai Reserve Forest—and spiritual significance, as the community worships the deity Veeranan The site was proposed for BHS status through community engagement with the Panchayat Council and Tamil Nadu Biodiversity Board. None of the other options are correct: Option a confuses it with FRA provisions, which are unrelated. Option b refers to a different legal framework (Wildlife Protection Act). Option d is factually incorrect.

#### 8. Question

Why is the Kasampatty Sacred Grove significant in the context of biodiversity governance in India?

• a) It is the first private forest reserve in Tamil Nadu under the Forest Rights Act.

• b) It is the first site declared under the Wildlife Protection Act exclusively for endemic species.

• c) It is Tamil Nadu’s second Biodiversity Heritage Site declared under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

• d) It is a UNESCO-recognized agroforestry landscape.

Solution: c)

• Kasampatty Sacred Grove in Dindigul district, Tamil Nadu, was officially notified as the second Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS) of the state, under Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The first BHS in Tamil Nadu was Arittapatti in Madurai district. These sites are selected for their ecological fragility, rich biodiversity, and cultural significance, often protected by local communities.

• Kasampatty, also known as Veera Kovil Grove, has both ecological importance—as it supports local pollination networks and wildlife corridors near the Alagarmalai Reserve Forest—and spiritual significance, as the community worships the deity Veeranan The site was proposed for BHS status through community engagement with the Panchayat Council and Tamil Nadu Biodiversity Board.

None of the other options are correct:

• Option a confuses it with FRA provisions, which are unrelated.

• Option b refers to a different legal framework (Wildlife Protection Act).

• Option d is factually incorrect.

Solution: c)

None of the other options are correct:

• Option a confuses it with FRA provisions, which are unrelated.

• Option b refers to a different legal framework (Wildlife Protection Act).

• Option d is factually incorrect.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains why Myanmar is prone to frequent and intense earthquakes? a) It lies entirely on a stable continental shield. b) It is located near the triple junction of the African, Eurasian, and Pacific plates. c) It is traversed by an active strike-slip fault resulting from Indian-Eurasian plate interaction. d) It experiences earthquakes due to extensive volcanic activity across its terrain. Correct Solution: c) Myanmar experiences frequent earthquakes primarily due to its location at the collision boundary between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate. A prominent geological feature here is the Sagaing Fault, a right-lateral strike-slip fault that accommodates the relative motion between these tectonic plates. This fault extends from the eastern Himalayan syntaxis in northern Myanmar down toward the Andaman Sea. The strike-slip nature of the fault means horizontal displacement occurs between blocks of the crust, and stress accumulation over time results in sudden ruptures (earthquakes). The Sagaing Fault has been responsible for major quakes in the region, including those affecting Mandalay and Nay Pyi Taw. Option a is incorrect because Myanmar is not on a tectonically stable shield like Peninsular India. Option b is geographically wrong; the triple junction mentioned is unrelated to Myanmar. Option d is misleading because Myanmar is not a volcanically active zone—the earthquakes are tectonic, not volcanic in origin. Incorrect Solution: c) Myanmar experiences frequent earthquakes primarily due to its location at the collision boundary between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate. A prominent geological feature here is the Sagaing Fault, a right-lateral strike-slip fault that accommodates the relative motion between these tectonic plates. This fault extends from the eastern Himalayan syntaxis in northern Myanmar down toward the Andaman Sea. The strike-slip nature of the fault means horizontal displacement occurs between blocks of the crust, and stress accumulation over time results in sudden ruptures (earthquakes). The Sagaing Fault has been responsible for major quakes in the region, including those affecting Mandalay and Nay Pyi Taw. Option a is incorrect because Myanmar is not on a tectonically stable shield like Peninsular India. Option b is geographically wrong; the triple junction mentioned is unrelated to Myanmar. Option d is misleading because Myanmar is not a volcanically active zone—the earthquakes are tectonic, not volcanic in origin.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following best explains why Myanmar is prone to frequent and intense earthquakes?

• a) It lies entirely on a stable continental shield.

• b) It is located near the triple junction of the African, Eurasian, and Pacific plates.

• c) It is traversed by an active strike-slip fault resulting from Indian-Eurasian plate interaction.

• d) It experiences earthquakes due to extensive volcanic activity across its terrain.

Solution: c)

• Myanmar experiences frequent earthquakes primarily due to its location at the collision boundary between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate. A prominent geological feature here is the Sagaing Fault, a right-lateral strike-slip fault that accommodates the relative motion between these tectonic plates. This fault extends from the eastern Himalayan syntaxis in northern Myanmar down toward the Andaman Sea.

• The strike-slip nature of the fault means horizontal displacement occurs between blocks of the crust, and stress accumulation over time results in sudden ruptures (earthquakes). The Sagaing Fault has been responsible for major quakes in the region, including those affecting Mandalay and Nay Pyi Taw.

Option a is incorrect because Myanmar is not on a tectonically stable shield like Peninsular India. Option b is geographically wrong; the triple junction mentioned is unrelated to Myanmar. Option d is misleading because Myanmar is not a volcanically active zone—the earthquakes are tectonic, not volcanic in origin.

Solution: c)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS): Once declared, BHS are governed under the Forest Rights Act by the Gram Sabha. Sacred groves with spiritual value alone cannot qualify as BHS. State Biodiversity Boards are key institutions involved in declaring BHS. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. BHS are not governed under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), though FRA and BHS may overlap in community-managed landscapes. BHS governance is framed under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, through State Biodiversity Boards and Biodiversity Management Committees. Statement 2 is also incorrect. Sites with only spiritual value, such as sacred groves, can indeed be declared BHS if they also support ecological functions like pollination, microclimate regulation, or endemic flora/fauna. The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is a perfect example. Statement 3 is correct. State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) play a central role in conducting ecological assessments, community consultations, and forwarding proposals to state governments for gazette notification of BHS. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. BHS are not governed under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), though FRA and BHS may overlap in community-managed landscapes. BHS governance is framed under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, through State Biodiversity Boards and Biodiversity Management Committees. Statement 2 is also incorrect. Sites with only spiritual value, such as sacred groves, can indeed be declared BHS if they also support ecological functions like pollination, microclimate regulation, or endemic flora/fauna. The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is a perfect example. Statement 3 is correct. State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) play a central role in conducting ecological assessments, community consultations, and forwarding proposals to state governments for gazette notification of BHS.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS):

• Once declared, BHS are governed under the Forest Rights Act by the Gram Sabha.

• Sacred groves with spiritual value alone cannot qualify as BHS.

• State Biodiversity Boards are key institutions involved in declaring BHS.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. BHS are not governed under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), though FRA and BHS may overlap in community-managed landscapes. BHS governance is framed under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, through State Biodiversity Boards and Biodiversity Management Committees.

• Statement 2 is also incorrect. Sites with only spiritual value, such as sacred groves, can indeed be declared BHS if they also support ecological functions like pollination, microclimate regulation, or endemic flora/fauna. The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is a perfect example.

• Statement 3 is correct. State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) play a central role in conducting ecological assessments, community consultations, and forwarding proposals to state governments for gazette notification of BHS.

Solution: a)

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