UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 02 July 2024
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The President of India has the authority to proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. During a National Emergency, the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended. A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: S1 is correct: The President of India has the authority to proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. This is outlined in Article 352 of the Constitution. S2 is correct: During a National Emergency, the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended. This provision is included in Article 358 of the Constitution. S3 is correct: A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month. This is stipulated in Article 352(4) of the Constitution. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: S1 is correct: The President of India has the authority to proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. This is outlined in Article 352 of the Constitution. S2 is correct: During a National Emergency, the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended. This provision is included in Article 358 of the Constitution. S3 is correct: A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month. This is stipulated in Article 352(4) of the Constitution. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The President of India has the authority to proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. During a National Emergency, the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended. A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.
• The President of India has the authority to proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• During a National Emergency, the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
• A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• S1 is correct: The President of India has the authority to proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. This is outlined in Article 352 of the Constitution.
• S2 is correct: During a National Emergency, the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended. This provision is included in Article 358 of the Constitution.
• S3 is correct: A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month. This is stipulated in Article 352(4) of the Constitution.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• S1 is correct: The President of India has the authority to proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. This is outlined in Article 352 of the Constitution.
• S2 is correct: During a National Emergency, the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended. This provision is included in Article 358 of the Constitution.
• S3 is correct: A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month. This is stipulated in Article 352(4) of the Constitution.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then (a) The Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved (b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament (c) Article 19 is suspended in that state (d) The President can make laws relating to that State Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State (1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation (a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament; Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State (1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation (a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament; Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 2. Question
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then
• (a) The Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved
• (b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament
• (c) Article 19 is suspended in that state
• (d) The President can make laws relating to that State
Explanation:
• Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
• (1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
• (a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
• (1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
• (a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points The ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ is released by which of the following organizations? (a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) (b) World Economic Forum (WEF) (c) International Monetary Fund (IMF) (d) World Bank Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: The Global Gender Gap Index is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF). This index measures gender equality across various countries, assessing gaps in four key areas: economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment. The aim is to provide a comprehensive framework for measuring gender disparities and tracking their progress over time. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: The Global Gender Gap Index is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF). This index measures gender equality across various countries, assessing gaps in four key areas: economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment. The aim is to provide a comprehensive framework for measuring gender disparities and tracking their progress over time. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 3. Question
The ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ is released by which of the following organizations?
• (a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
• (b) World Economic Forum (WEF)
• (c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
• (d) World Bank
Explanation:
• The Global Gender Gap Index is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF). This index measures gender equality across various countries, assessing gaps in four key areas: economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment. The aim is to provide a comprehensive framework for measuring gender disparities and tracking their progress over time.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• The Global Gender Gap Index is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF). This index measures gender equality across various countries, assessing gaps in four key areas: economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment. The aim is to provide a comprehensive framework for measuring gender disparities and tracking their progress over time.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to McMahon Line, consider the following statements: It is the boundary between India and Nepal. It was released during the Simla Convention of 1914. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: The McMahon Line is the boundary between Tibet and British India as agreed in the maps and notes exchanged by the respective plenipotentiaries on 24–25 March 1914 at Delhi, as part of the 1914 Simla Convention. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: The McMahon Line is the boundary between Tibet and British India as agreed in the maps and notes exchanged by the respective plenipotentiaries on 24–25 March 1914 at Delhi, as part of the 1914 Simla Convention. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 4. Question
With reference to McMahon Line, consider the following statements:
• It is the boundary between India and Nepal. It was released during the Simla Convention of 1914.
• It is the boundary between India and Nepal.
• It was released during the Simla Convention of 1914.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• The McMahon Line is the boundary between Tibet and British India as agreed in the maps and notes exchanged by the respective plenipotentiaries on 24–25 March 1914 at Delhi, as part of the 1914 Simla Convention.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• The McMahon Line is the boundary between Tibet and British India as agreed in the maps and notes exchanged by the respective plenipotentiaries on 24–25 March 1914 at Delhi, as part of the 1914 Simla Convention.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The ‘Financial Stability Report (FSR)’ is released by which of the following organizations? (a) World Bank (b) International Monetary Fund (IMF) (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (d) European Central Bank (ECB) Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The latest 29th issue of the Financial Stability Report (FSR) reveals encouraging trends in India’s banking sector as of March-end 2024. Scheduled commercial banks reported a notable decline in their Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPAs) and Net NPA ratios, reaching multi-year lows of 2.8% and 0.6% respectively. About the report: The Financial Stability Report (FSR), issued biannually (every six months) by the RBI, provides a comprehensive assessment of financial stability and the resilience of India’s financial system. Prepared by the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), chaired by the Governor of RBI, the report evaluates risks impacting the financial sector. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The latest 29th issue of the Financial Stability Report (FSR) reveals encouraging trends in India’s banking sector as of March-end 2024. Scheduled commercial banks reported a notable decline in their Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPAs) and Net NPA ratios, reaching multi-year lows of 2.8% and 0.6% respectively. About the report: The Financial Stability Report (FSR), issued biannually (every six months) by the RBI, provides a comprehensive assessment of financial stability and the resilience of India’s financial system. Prepared by the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), chaired by the Governor of RBI, the report evaluates risks impacting the financial sector. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 5. Question
The ‘Financial Stability Report (FSR)’ is released by which of the following organizations?
• (a) World Bank
• (b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
• (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• (d) European Central Bank (ECB)
Explanation:
• The latest 29th issue of the Financial Stability Report (FSR) reveals encouraging trends in India’s banking sector as of March-end 2024.
• Scheduled commercial banks reported a notable decline in their Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPAs) and Net NPA ratios, reaching multi-year lows of 2.8% and 0.6% respectively.
• About the report: The Financial Stability Report (FSR), issued biannually (every six months) by the RBI, provides a comprehensive assessment of financial stability and the resilience of India’s financial system. Prepared by the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), chaired by the Governor of RBI, the report evaluates risks impacting the financial sector.
• The Financial Stability Report (FSR), issued biannually (every six months) by the RBI, provides a comprehensive assessment of financial stability and the resilience of India’s financial system. Prepared by the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), chaired by the Governor of RBI, the report evaluates risks impacting the financial sector.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• The latest 29th issue of the Financial Stability Report (FSR) reveals encouraging trends in India’s banking sector as of March-end 2024.
• Scheduled commercial banks reported a notable decline in their Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPAs) and Net NPA ratios, reaching multi-year lows of 2.8% and 0.6% respectively.
• About the report: The Financial Stability Report (FSR), issued biannually (every six months) by the RBI, provides a comprehensive assessment of financial stability and the resilience of India’s financial system. Prepared by the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), chaired by the Governor of RBI, the report evaluates risks impacting the financial sector.
• The Financial Stability Report (FSR), issued biannually (every six months) by the RBI, provides a comprehensive assessment of financial stability and the resilience of India’s financial system. Prepared by the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), chaired by the Governor of RBI, the report evaluates risks impacting the financial sector.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points The ‘Artificial Intelligence Preparedness Index (AIPI)’ is released by which of the following organizations? (a) World Bank (b) International Monetary Fund (IMF) (c) World Economic Forum (WEF) (d) European Central Bank (ECB) Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) released the AIPI Dashboard, ranking Singapore 1st and India 72nd. The AIPI Dashboard tracks AI readiness in 174 economies based on digital infrastructure, human capital and labour market policies, innovation and economic integration, and regulation and ethics. Countries are categorized as Advanced Economy (AE), Emerging Market Economy (EM), and Low-Income Country (LIC). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) released the AIPI Dashboard, ranking Singapore 1st and India 72nd. The AIPI Dashboard tracks AI readiness in 174 economies based on digital infrastructure, human capital and labour market policies, innovation and economic integration, and regulation and ethics. Countries are categorized as Advanced Economy (AE), Emerging Market Economy (EM), and Low-Income Country (LIC). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 6. Question
The ‘Artificial Intelligence Preparedness Index (AIPI)’ is released by which of the following organizations?
• (a) World Bank
• (b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
• (c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
• (d) European Central Bank (ECB)
Explanation:
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) released the AIPI Dashboard, ranking Singapore 1st and India 72nd.
• The AIPI Dashboard tracks AI readiness in 174 economies based on digital infrastructure, human capital and labour market policies, innovation and economic integration, and regulation and ethics.
• Countries are categorized as Advanced Economy (AE), Emerging Market Economy (EM), and Low-Income Country (LIC).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) released the AIPI Dashboard, ranking Singapore 1st and India 72nd.
• The AIPI Dashboard tracks AI readiness in 174 economies based on digital infrastructure, human capital and labour market policies, innovation and economic integration, and regulation and ethics.
• Countries are categorized as Advanced Economy (AE), Emerging Market Economy (EM), and Low-Income Country (LIC).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), consider the following statements: UNODC was established in 1997 through a merger between the United Nations Drug Control Programme (UNDCP) and the Centre for International Crime Prevention (CICP). The main objectives of UNODC include combating drug trafficking, preventing crime, and addressing issues related to international terrorism. UNODC operates only in developing countries and focuses exclusively on drug-related issues. UNODC provides technical assistance to Member States in the implementation of United Nations conventions and protocols on drug control and crime prevention. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: S1 is correct: UNODC was indeed established in 1997 through the merger of the United Nations Drug Control Programme (UNDCP) and the Centre for International Crime Prevention (CICP). This merger aimed to create a single, unified office to address issues related to drug control and crime prevention more effectively. S2 is correct: The main objectives of UNODC include combating drug trafficking, preventing crime, and addressing issues related to international terrorism. These are key areas of focus for the organization. S3 is incorrect: UNODC operates globally, not just in developing countries. Moreover, its mandate is broader than just drug-related issues. It also addresses crime prevention and international terrorism. S4 is correct: UNODC provides technical assistance to Member States in the implementation of United Nations conventions and protocols on drug control and crime prevention. This includes offering expertise and support to help countries meet their international obligations. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: S1 is correct: UNODC was indeed established in 1997 through the merger of the United Nations Drug Control Programme (UNDCP) and the Centre for International Crime Prevention (CICP). This merger aimed to create a single, unified office to address issues related to drug control and crime prevention more effectively. S2 is correct: The main objectives of UNODC include combating drug trafficking, preventing crime, and addressing issues related to international terrorism. These are key areas of focus for the organization. S3 is incorrect: UNODC operates globally, not just in developing countries. Moreover, its mandate is broader than just drug-related issues. It also addresses crime prevention and international terrorism. S4 is correct: UNODC provides technical assistance to Member States in the implementation of United Nations conventions and protocols on drug control and crime prevention. This includes offering expertise and support to help countries meet their international obligations. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 7. Question
With reference to United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), consider the following statements:
• UNODC was established in 1997 through a merger between the United Nations Drug Control Programme (UNDCP) and the Centre for International Crime Prevention (CICP). The main objectives of UNODC include combating drug trafficking, preventing crime, and addressing issues related to international terrorism. UNODC operates only in developing countries and focuses exclusively on drug-related issues. UNODC provides technical assistance to Member States in the implementation of United Nations conventions and protocols on drug control and crime prevention.
• UNODC was established in 1997 through a merger between the United Nations Drug Control Programme (UNDCP) and the Centre for International Crime Prevention (CICP).
• The main objectives of UNODC include combating drug trafficking, preventing crime, and addressing issues related to international terrorism.
• UNODC operates only in developing countries and focuses exclusively on drug-related issues.
• UNODC provides technical assistance to Member States in the implementation of United Nations conventions and protocols on drug control and crime prevention.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Explanation:
• S1 is correct: UNODC was indeed established in 1997 through the merger of the United Nations Drug Control Programme (UNDCP) and the Centre for International Crime Prevention (CICP). This merger aimed to create a single, unified office to address issues related to drug control and crime prevention more effectively.
• S2 is correct: The main objectives of UNODC include combating drug trafficking, preventing crime, and addressing issues related to international terrorism. These are key areas of focus for the organization.
• S3 is incorrect: UNODC operates globally, not just in developing countries. Moreover, its mandate is broader than just drug-related issues. It also addresses crime prevention and international terrorism.
• S4 is correct: UNODC provides technical assistance to Member States in the implementation of United Nations conventions and protocols on drug control and crime prevention. This includes offering expertise and support to help countries meet their international obligations.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• S1 is correct: UNODC was indeed established in 1997 through the merger of the United Nations Drug Control Programme (UNDCP) and the Centre for International Crime Prevention (CICP). This merger aimed to create a single, unified office to address issues related to drug control and crime prevention more effectively.
• S2 is correct: The main objectives of UNODC include combating drug trafficking, preventing crime, and addressing issues related to international terrorism. These are key areas of focus for the organization.
• S3 is incorrect: UNODC operates globally, not just in developing countries. Moreover, its mandate is broader than just drug-related issues. It also addresses crime prevention and international terrorism.
• S4 is correct: UNODC provides technical assistance to Member States in the implementation of United Nations conventions and protocols on drug control and crime prevention. This includes offering expertise and support to help countries meet their international obligations.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the ‘Bhuvan Panchayat Portal’: The Bhuvan Panchayat Portal is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The portal is designed to help Gram Panchayats plan and monitor their activities using geospatial information. The portal can be used to generate reports on the progress of rural development schemes. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: S1 is correct: The Bhuvan Panchayat Portal is indeed developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). This portal leverages ISRO’s expertise in space technology to provide geospatial information to Gram Panchayats. S2 is correct: The portal is specifically designed to aid Gram Panchayats in planning and monitoring their activities. It uses geospatial information to support decision-making processes at the grassroots level, helping to improve the effectiveness of rural development programs. S3 is correct: The portal includes functionalities for generating reports on the progress of various rural development schemes. This helps in transparency and better monitoring of these schemes by providing detailed insights and updates. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: S1 is correct: The Bhuvan Panchayat Portal is indeed developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). This portal leverages ISRO’s expertise in space technology to provide geospatial information to Gram Panchayats. S2 is correct: The portal is specifically designed to aid Gram Panchayats in planning and monitoring their activities. It uses geospatial information to support decision-making processes at the grassroots level, helping to improve the effectiveness of rural development programs. S3 is correct: The portal includes functionalities for generating reports on the progress of various rural development schemes. This helps in transparency and better monitoring of these schemes by providing detailed insights and updates. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 8. Question
Consider the following statements about the ‘Bhuvan Panchayat Portal’:
• The Bhuvan Panchayat Portal is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The portal is designed to help Gram Panchayats plan and monitor their activities using geospatial information. The portal can be used to generate reports on the progress of rural development schemes.
• The Bhuvan Panchayat Portal is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• The portal is designed to help Gram Panchayats plan and monitor their activities using geospatial information.
• The portal can be used to generate reports on the progress of rural development schemes.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• S1 is correct: The Bhuvan Panchayat Portal is indeed developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). This portal leverages ISRO’s expertise in space technology to provide geospatial information to Gram Panchayats.
• S2 is correct: The portal is specifically designed to aid Gram Panchayats in planning and monitoring their activities. It uses geospatial information to support decision-making processes at the grassroots level, helping to improve the effectiveness of rural development programs.
• S3 is correct: The portal includes functionalities for generating reports on the progress of various rural development schemes. This helps in transparency and better monitoring of these schemes by providing detailed insights and updates.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• S1 is correct: The Bhuvan Panchayat Portal is indeed developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). This portal leverages ISRO’s expertise in space technology to provide geospatial information to Gram Panchayats.
• S2 is correct: The portal is specifically designed to aid Gram Panchayats in planning and monitoring their activities. It uses geospatial information to support decision-making processes at the grassroots level, helping to improve the effectiveness of rural development programs.
• S3 is correct: The portal includes functionalities for generating reports on the progress of various rural development schemes. This helps in transparency and better monitoring of these schemes by providing detailed insights and updates.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC): The INSTC is a multi-modal transportation route linking India, Iran, and Russia. The primary objective of the INSTC is to reduce the time and cost of transporting goods between India and Europe. The INSTC passes through the Southeast Asian region. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal transportation network that connects India, Iran, and Russia with the aim of reducing the time and cost of transporting goods between India and Europe (Statements 1 and 2 are correct). The route primarily passes through Central Asia and the Caucasus region, not Southeast Asia (Statement 3 is incorrect). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal transportation network that connects India, Iran, and Russia with the aim of reducing the time and cost of transporting goods between India and Europe (Statements 1 and 2 are correct). The route primarily passes through Central Asia and the Caucasus region, not Southeast Asia (Statement 3 is incorrect). Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements about International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC):
• The INSTC is a multi-modal transportation route linking India, Iran, and Russia. The primary objective of the INSTC is to reduce the time and cost of transporting goods between India and Europe. The INSTC passes through the Southeast Asian region.
• The INSTC is a multi-modal transportation route linking India, Iran, and Russia.
• The primary objective of the INSTC is to reduce the time and cost of transporting goods between India and Europe.
• The INSTC passes through the Southeast Asian region.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal transportation network that connects India, Iran, and Russia with the aim of reducing the time and cost of transporting goods between India and Europe (Statements 1 and 2 are correct). The route primarily passes through Central Asia and the Caucasus region, not Southeast Asia (Statement 3 is incorrect).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal transportation network that connects India, Iran, and Russia with the aim of reducing the time and cost of transporting goods between India and Europe (Statements 1 and 2 are correct). The route primarily passes through Central Asia and the Caucasus region, not Southeast Asia (Statement 3 is incorrect).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a mechanism used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to provide temporary liquidity support to the central and state governments. The interest rate on WMA is more than the repo rate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: S1 is correct: Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a mechanism used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to provide temporary liquidity support to the central and state governments. S2 is incorrect: Types Normal WMA: A fixed limit is set, and borrowing within this limit is charged at the repo rate. Special WMA: Additional borrowing over and above the normal WMA, backed by the government securities held by the state government. After the state exhausts the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA. The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: S1 is correct: Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a mechanism used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to provide temporary liquidity support to the central and state governments. S2 is incorrect: Types Normal WMA: A fixed limit is set, and borrowing within this limit is charged at the repo rate. Special WMA: Additional borrowing over and above the normal WMA, backed by the government securities held by the state government. After the state exhausts the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA. The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements
• Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a mechanism used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to provide temporary liquidity support to the central and state governments. The interest rate on WMA is more than the repo rate.
• Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a mechanism used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to provide temporary liquidity support to the central and state governments.
• The interest rate on WMA is more than the repo rate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• S1 is correct: Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a mechanism used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to provide temporary liquidity support to the central and state governments.
• S2 is incorrect: Types Normal WMA: A fixed limit is set, and borrowing within this limit is charged at the repo rate. Special WMA: Additional borrowing over and above the normal WMA, backed by the government securities held by the state government. After the state exhausts the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA. The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate.
• Normal WMA: A fixed limit is set, and borrowing within this limit is charged at the repo rate.
• Special WMA: Additional borrowing over and above the normal WMA, backed by the government securities held by the state government. After the state exhausts the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA. The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate.
• After the state exhausts the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA.
• The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
Explanation:
• S1 is correct: Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a mechanism used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to provide temporary liquidity support to the central and state governments.
• S2 is incorrect: Types Normal WMA: A fixed limit is set, and borrowing within this limit is charged at the repo rate. Special WMA: Additional borrowing over and above the normal WMA, backed by the government securities held by the state government. After the state exhausts the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA. The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate.
• Normal WMA: A fixed limit is set, and borrowing within this limit is charged at the repo rate.
• Special WMA: Additional borrowing over and above the normal WMA, backed by the government securities held by the state government. After the state exhausts the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA. The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate.
• After the state exhausts the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA.
• The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/01/upsc-current-affairs-1-july-2024/
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