DAY – 9 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GEOGRAPHY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Sela Pass connects Tawang to the rest of Arunachal Pradesh Diphu Pass connects Arunachal Pradesh with Myanmar Nathu La connects Sikkim with Nepal How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Sela Pass is a high-altitude mountain pass located on the border between Tawang and West Kameng districts in Arunachal Pradesh. It connects the town of Tawang to Dirang and Guwahati, effectively linking Tawang to the rest of Arunachal Pradesh and India. Hence statement 1 is correct Diphu Pass is located on the border of India, China, and Myanmar. It provides a connection between Arunachal Pradesh and Mandalay, Myanmar, serving as an important land commercial route. Hence statement 2 is correct Nathu La is a mountain pass that connects India’s Sikkim state with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region, not Nepal. It is located on the border between Sikkim and Tibet Hence statement 3 is Incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Sela Pass is a high-altitude mountain pass located on the border between Tawang and West Kameng districts in Arunachal Pradesh. It connects the town of Tawang to Dirang and Guwahati, effectively linking Tawang to the rest of Arunachal Pradesh and India. Hence statement 1 is correct Diphu Pass is located on the border of India, China, and Myanmar. It provides a connection between Arunachal Pradesh and Mandalay, Myanmar, serving as an important land commercial route. Hence statement 2 is correct Nathu La is a mountain pass that connects India’s Sikkim state with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region, not Nepal. It is located on the border between Sikkim and Tibet Hence statement 3 is Incorrect

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Sela Pass connects Tawang to the rest of Arunachal Pradesh

• Diphu Pass connects Arunachal Pradesh with Myanmar

• Nathu La connects Sikkim with Nepal

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Sela Pass is a high-altitude mountain pass located on the border between Tawang and West Kameng districts in Arunachal Pradesh. It connects the town of Tawang to Dirang and Guwahati, effectively linking Tawang to the rest of Arunachal Pradesh and India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Diphu Pass is located on the border of India, China, and Myanmar. It provides a connection between Arunachal Pradesh and Mandalay, Myanmar, serving as an important land commercial route.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Nathu La is a mountain pass that connects India’s Sikkim state with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region, not Nepal. It is located on the border between Sikkim and Tibet

Hence statement 3 is Incorrect

Solution: B

Hence statement 1 is correct

Diphu Pass is located on the border of India, China, and Myanmar. It provides a connection between Arunachal Pradesh and Mandalay, Myanmar, serving as an important land commercial route.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Nathu La is a mountain pass that connects India’s Sikkim state with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region, not Nepal. It is located on the border between Sikkim and Tibet

Hence statement 3 is Incorrect

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following Indian states does NOT share a border with Bangladesh? (a) Mizoram (b) Manipur (c) Tripura (d) Meghalaya Correct Solution: B India shares a long and complex border with Bangladesh, spanning multiple states in the northeastern region. This border, approximately 4,096.7 kilometres long, is India’s longest international border. It plays a crucial role in regional geopolitics, trade, and cultural exchange. West Bengal (2,217 km) Tripura (856 km) Meghalaya (443 km) Mizoram (318 km) Assam (262 km) Manipur, while located in northeastern India, does not share a border with Bangladesh. It is landlocked and bordered by other Indian states (Nagaland, Assam, and Mizoram) and Myanmar to the east. Incorrect Solution: B India shares a long and complex border with Bangladesh, spanning multiple states in the northeastern region. This border, approximately 4,096.7 kilometres long, is India’s longest international border. It plays a crucial role in regional geopolitics, trade, and cultural exchange. West Bengal (2,217 km) Tripura (856 km) Meghalaya (443 km) Mizoram (318 km) Assam (262 km) Manipur, while located in northeastern India, does not share a border with Bangladesh. It is landlocked and bordered by other Indian states (Nagaland, Assam, and Mizoram) and Myanmar to the east.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following Indian states does NOT share a border with Bangladesh?

• (a) Mizoram

• (b) Manipur

• (c) Tripura

• (d) Meghalaya

Solution: B

India shares a long and complex border with Bangladesh, spanning multiple states in the northeastern region. This border, approximately 4,096.7 kilometres long, is India’s longest international border. It plays a crucial role in regional geopolitics, trade, and cultural exchange.

• West Bengal (2,217 km)

• Tripura (856 km)

• Meghalaya (443 km)

• Mizoram (318 km)

• Assam (262 km)

Manipur, while located in northeastern India, does not share a border with Bangladesh. It is landlocked and bordered by other Indian states (Nagaland, Assam, and Mizoram) and Myanmar to the east.

Solution: B

• West Bengal (2,217 km)

• Tripura (856 km)

• Meghalaya (443 km)

• Mizoram (318 km)

• Assam (262 km)

Manipur, while located in northeastern India, does not share a border with Bangladesh. It is landlocked and bordered by other Indian states (Nagaland, Assam, and Mizoram) and Myanmar to the east.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points The Blue Mountain Peak, recently in news for environmental concerns, is located in which of the following states of India? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Meghalaya (c) Mizoram (d) Assam Correct Solution: C The Blue Mountain Peak, also known as Phawngpui, is the highest mountain peak in Mizoram, India. It is located in the Phawngpui National Park in the Lawngtlai district of southeastern Mizoram, near the Myanmar border. The peak gets its name “Blue Mountain” from the thin stretch of clouds that often covers it, giving it a bluish appearance from a distance. Recent environmental concerns likely relate to conservation efforts in this ecologically sensitive area, which faces challenges such as protecting biodiversity and managing sustainable tourism. Incorrect Solution: C The Blue Mountain Peak, also known as Phawngpui, is the highest mountain peak in Mizoram, India. It is located in the Phawngpui National Park in the Lawngtlai district of southeastern Mizoram, near the Myanmar border. The peak gets its name “Blue Mountain” from the thin stretch of clouds that often covers it, giving it a bluish appearance from a distance. Recent environmental concerns likely relate to conservation efforts in this ecologically sensitive area, which faces challenges such as protecting biodiversity and managing sustainable tourism.

#### 3. Question

The Blue Mountain Peak, recently in news for environmental concerns, is located in which of the following states of India?

• (a) Tamil Nadu

• (b) Meghalaya

• (c) Mizoram

Solution: C

The Blue Mountain Peak, also known as Phawngpui, is the highest mountain peak in Mizoram, India. It is located in the Phawngpui National Park in the Lawngtlai district of southeastern Mizoram, near the Myanmar border.

The peak gets its name “Blue Mountain” from the thin stretch of clouds that often covers it, giving it a bluish appearance from a distance. Recent environmental concerns likely relate to conservation efforts in this ecologically sensitive area, which faces challenges such as protecting biodiversity and managing sustainable tourism.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to India’s Western Ghats, arrange the following hill stations from North to South: Mahabaleshwar Ooty Kodaikanal Munnar Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-2-4-3 (b) 1-2-3-4 (c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 4-1-2-3 Correct Solution: B The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri range, is a mountain range that runs parallel to India’s western coast, stretching from Gujarat in the north to Tamil Nadu in the south. This UNESCO World Heritage Site is renowned for its rich biodiversity and is home to numerous hill stations that are popular tourist destinations. The correct order of the given hill stations from North to South is: Mahabaleshwar (Maharashtra) – 17.93ON Ooty (Tamil Nadu) – 11.41ON Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu) – 10.23ON Munnar (Kerala) – 10.08ON Mahabaleshwar is located in the Satara district of Maharashtra, making it the northernmost of these hill stations. Ooty (officially Udhagamandalam) is situated in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, followed by Kodaikanal, which is also in Tamil Nadu but further south. Munnar, located in the Idukki district of Kerala, is the southernmost among these hill stations. These hill stations are known for their pleasant climate, scenic beauty, and various attractions, making them popular destinations for tourists seeking respite from the heat of the plains. Incorrect Solution: B The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri range, is a mountain range that runs parallel to India’s western coast, stretching from Gujarat in the north to Tamil Nadu in the south. This UNESCO World Heritage Site is renowned for its rich biodiversity and is home to numerous hill stations that are popular tourist destinations. The correct order of the given hill stations from North to South is: Mahabaleshwar (Maharashtra) – 17.93ON Ooty (Tamil Nadu) – 11.41ON Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu) – 10.23ON Munnar (Kerala) – 10.08ON Mahabaleshwar is located in the Satara district of Maharashtra, making it the northernmost of these hill stations. Ooty (officially Udhagamandalam) is situated in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, followed by Kodaikanal, which is also in Tamil Nadu but further south. Munnar, located in the Idukki district of Kerala, is the southernmost among these hill stations. These hill stations are known for their pleasant climate, scenic beauty, and various attractions, making them popular destinations for tourists seeking respite from the heat of the plains.

#### 4. Question

With reference to India’s Western Ghats, arrange the following hill stations from North to South:

• Mahabaleshwar

• Kodaikanal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1-2-4-3

• (b) 1-2-3-4

• (c) 1-4-2-3

• (d) 4-1-2-3

Solution: B

The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri range, is a mountain range that runs parallel to India’s western coast, stretching from Gujarat in the north to Tamil Nadu in the south. This UNESCO World Heritage Site is renowned for its rich biodiversity and is home to numerous hill stations that are popular tourist destinations.

The correct order of the given hill stations from North to South is:

• Mahabaleshwar (Maharashtra) – 17.93ON

• Ooty (Tamil Nadu) – 11.41ON

• Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu) – 10.23ON

• Munnar (Kerala) – 10.08ON

Mahabaleshwar is located in the Satara district of Maharashtra, making it the northernmost of these hill stations. Ooty (officially Udhagamandalam) is situated in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, followed by Kodaikanal, which is also in Tamil Nadu but further south. Munnar, located in the Idukki district of Kerala, is the southernmost among these hill stations.

These hill stations are known for their pleasant climate, scenic beauty, and various attractions, making them popular destinations for tourists seeking respite from the heat of the plains.

Solution: B

The correct order of the given hill stations from North to South is:

• Mahabaleshwar (Maharashtra) – 17.93ON

• Ooty (Tamil Nadu) – 11.41ON

• Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu) – 10.23ON

• Munnar (Kerala) – 10.08ON

These hill stations are known for their pleasant climate, scenic beauty, and various attractions, making them popular destinations for tourists seeking respite from the heat of the plains.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following regions of India: Sir Creek Doklam Kalapani Dhanushkodi Identify the correct sequence from West to East: (a) 1-3-4-2 (b) 1-4-3-2 (c) 4-1-3-2 (d) 3-2-1-4 Correct Solution: B India shares borders with several countries, and some regions along these borders have been subject to disputes or strategic importance. These areas often make headlines due to geopolitical tensions or ongoing negotiations. Sir Creek: Located on the westernmost border of India, it’s a 96 km strip of water disputed between India and Pakistan in the Rann of Kutch marshlands of Gujarat. Kalapani: This disputed area lies in the eastern part of Uttarakhand state, at the India-Nepal-China tri-junction. Dhanushkodi: While not a disputed area, it’s the southeasternmost tip of Pamban Island in Tamil Nadu, closest to Sri Lanka across the Palk Strait. Doklam: Located at the tri-junction of India, China, and Bhutan in the eastern sector, it was the site of a standoff between Indian and Chinese forces in 2017. This sequence accurately represents the geographical positions of these regions from West to East across India’s international borders Incorrect Solution: B India shares borders with several countries, and some regions along these borders have been subject to disputes or strategic importance. These areas often make headlines due to geopolitical tensions or ongoing negotiations. Sir Creek: Located on the westernmost border of India, it’s a 96 km strip of water disputed between India and Pakistan in the Rann of Kutch marshlands of Gujarat. Kalapani: This disputed area lies in the eastern part of Uttarakhand state, at the India-Nepal-China tri-junction. Dhanushkodi: While not a disputed area, it’s the southeasternmost tip of Pamban Island in Tamil Nadu, closest to Sri Lanka across the Palk Strait. Doklam: Located at the tri-junction of India, China, and Bhutan in the eastern sector, it was the site of a standoff between Indian and Chinese forces in 2017. This sequence accurately represents the geographical positions of these regions from West to East across India’s international borders

#### 5. Question

Consider the following regions of India:

• Dhanushkodi

Identify the correct sequence from West to East:

• (a) 1-3-4-2

• (b) 1-4-3-2

• (c) 4-1-3-2

• (d) 3-2-1-4

Solution: B

India shares borders with several countries, and some regions along these borders have been subject to disputes or strategic importance. These areas often make headlines due to geopolitical tensions or ongoing negotiations.

• Sir Creek: Located on the westernmost border of India, it’s a 96 km strip of water disputed between India and Pakistan in the Rann of Kutch marshlands of Gujarat.

• Kalapani: This disputed area lies in the eastern part of Uttarakhand state, at the India-Nepal-China tri-junction.

• Dhanushkodi: While not a disputed area, it’s the southeasternmost tip of Pamban Island in Tamil Nadu, closest to Sri Lanka across the Palk Strait.

• Doklam: Located at the tri-junction of India, China, and Bhutan in the eastern sector, it was the site of a standoff between Indian and Chinese forces in 2017.

This sequence accurately represents the geographical positions of these regions from West to East across India’s international borders

Solution: B

• Sir Creek: Located on the westernmost border of India, it’s a 96 km strip of water disputed between India and Pakistan in the Rann of Kutch marshlands of Gujarat.

• Kalapani: This disputed area lies in the eastern part of Uttarakhand state, at the India-Nepal-China tri-junction.

• Dhanushkodi: While not a disputed area, it’s the southeasternmost tip of Pamban Island in Tamil Nadu, closest to Sri Lanka across the Palk Strait.

• Doklam: Located at the tri-junction of India, China, and Bhutan in the eastern sector, it was the site of a standoff between Indian and Chinese forces in 2017.

This sequence accurately represents the geographical positions of these regions from West to East across India’s international borders

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points With reference to Indian standard Time (IST) meridian (82°30’ E), consider the following statements: It passes through eight Indian states. It intersects Tropic of cancer in the state of Chhattisgarh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Standard Meridian of India which is 82°30′ East longitude passes through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Tropic of cancer and IST meridian intersect at Koriya district in Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Official time signals are generated by the Time and Frequency Standards Laboratory at the National Physical Laboratory in New Delhi, for both commercial and official use. The signals are based on atomic clocks and are synchronised with the worldwide system of clocks that support the Coordinated Universal Time. Incorrect Solution: B Standard Meridian of India which is 82°30′ East longitude passes through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Tropic of cancer and IST meridian intersect at Koriya district in Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Official time signals are generated by the Time and Frequency Standards Laboratory at the National Physical Laboratory in New Delhi, for both commercial and official use. The signals are based on atomic clocks and are synchronised with the worldwide system of clocks that support the Coordinated Universal Time.

#### 6. Question

With reference to Indian standard Time (IST) meridian (82°30’ E), consider the following statements:

• It passes through eight Indian states.

• It intersects Tropic of cancer in the state of Chhattisgarh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Standard Meridian of India which is 82°30′ East longitude passes through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Tropic of cancer and IST meridian intersect at Koriya district in Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Official time signals are generated by the Time and Frequency Standards Laboratory at the National Physical Laboratory in New Delhi, for both commercial and official use. The signals are based on atomic clocks and are synchronised with the worldwide system of clocks that support the Coordinated Universal Time.

Solution: B

Standard Meridian of India which is 82°30′ East longitude passes through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Tropic of cancer and IST meridian intersect at Koriya district in Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Rosewood, Mahogony and Ebony are the tree species found in which of the following type of forests? (a) Tropical Evergreen forests (b) Tropical moist deciduous (c) Tropical thorn forests (d) Montane forests Correct Solution: A Tropical Evergreen forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22oC. Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Solution: A Tropical Evergreen forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22oC. Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Rosewood, Mahogony and Ebony are the tree species found in which of the following type of forests?

• (a) Tropical Evergreen forests

• (b) Tropical moist deciduous

• (c) Tropical thorn forests

• (d) Montane forests

Solution: A

Tropical Evergreen forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22oC. Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: A

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following tributaries of Brahmaputra River: Dibang Lohit Subansiri Manas Which of the following represents the correct order in which these tributaries join the Brahmaputra, from upstream to downstream? (a) Lohit - Subansiri – Manas-Sankosh (b) Lohit - Sankosh -Manas - Subansiri (c) Subansiri - Sankosh - Lohit - Manas (d) Manas - Subansiri - Lohit – Sankosh Correct Solution: A The Brahmaputra River, one of the major rivers in Asia, flows through Tibet, India, and Bangladesh. It has numerous tributaries that contribute to its massive water volume and play significant roles in the region’s hydrology, ecology, and economy. The Brahmaputra is a trans-boundary river which flows through Southwestern China, Northeastern India, and Bangladesh. It is known as Brahmaputra or Luit in Assamese, Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibetan, the Siang/Dihang River in Arunachali, and Jamuna River in Bengali. Incorrect Solution: A The Brahmaputra River, one of the major rivers in Asia, flows through Tibet, India, and Bangladesh. It has numerous tributaries that contribute to its massive water volume and play significant roles in the region’s hydrology, ecology, and economy. The Brahmaputra is a trans-boundary river which flows through Southwestern China, Northeastern India, and Bangladesh. It is known as Brahmaputra or Luit in Assamese, Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibetan, the Siang/Dihang River in Arunachali, and Jamuna River in Bengali.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following tributaries of Brahmaputra River:

Which of the following represents the correct order in which these tributaries join the Brahmaputra, from upstream to downstream?

• (a) Lohit - Subansiri – Manas-Sankosh

• (b) Lohit - Sankosh -Manas - Subansiri

• (c) Subansiri - Sankosh - Lohit - Manas

• (d) Manas - Subansiri - Lohit – Sankosh

Solution: A

The Brahmaputra River, one of the major rivers in Asia, flows through Tibet, India, and Bangladesh. It has numerous tributaries that contribute to its massive water volume and play significant roles in the region’s hydrology, ecology, and economy.

The Brahmaputra is a trans-boundary river which flows through Southwestern China, Northeastern India, and Bangladesh. It is known as Brahmaputra or Luit in Assamese, Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibetan, the Siang/Dihang River in Arunachali, and Jamuna River in Bengali.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The Pamba River, recently in news due to flooding and environmental concerns, flows through which of the following states? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh Correct Solution: B The Pamba River is the longest river in the Indian state of Kerala after Periyar and Bharathappuzha, and the longest river in the erstwhile former princely state of Travancore. The Sabarimala Temple, dedicated to Lord Ayyappa, is located on the banks of the river Pamba. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Pamba River is the longest river in the Indian state of Kerala after Periyar and Bharathappuzha, and the longest river in the erstwhile former princely state of Travancore. The Sabarimala Temple, dedicated to Lord Ayyappa, is located on the banks of the river Pamba. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

The Pamba River, recently in news due to flooding and environmental concerns, flows through which of the following states?

• (a) Tamil Nadu

• (b) Kerala

• (c) Karnataka

• (d) Andhra Pradesh

Solution: B

The Pamba River is the longest river in the Indian state of Kerala after Periyar and Bharathappuzha, and the longest river in the erstwhile former princely state of Travancore. The Sabarimala Temple, dedicated to Lord Ayyappa, is located on the banks of the river Pamba.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs of dams and the rivers on which they are built: Dam River 1. Srisailam Dam Krishna 2. Jawahar Sagar Dam Chambal 3. Salal Dam Jhelum 4. Sardar Sarovar Dam Narmada How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Dams play a crucial role in water resource management, hydroelectric power generation, and irrigation in India. They are often built on major rivers to harness their potential for various purposes. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River on the border of Mahabubnagar District, Telangana and Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh near Srisailam temple town and is the 2nd largest capacity working hydroelectric station in the country. Hence, pair 1 is correct. The Jawahar Sagar Dam is the third dam in the series of Chambal Valley Projects on the Chambal River, located 29 km upstream of Kota city and 26 km downstream of Rana Pratap Sagar dam. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Salal Dam, also known as Salal Hydroelectric Power Station, is a run-of-the-river hydropower project on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of the Jammu and Kashmir. It was the first hydropower project built by India in Jammu and Kashmir under the Indus Water Treaty regime. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect. The Sardar Sarovar Dam, a concrete gravity dam on the Narmada River in Gujarat, India, is part of the larger Sardar Sarovar Project, a multi-state irrigation and hydroelectric power project benefiting Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan. Hence, pair 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: C Dams play a crucial role in water resource management, hydroelectric power generation, and irrigation in India. They are often built on major rivers to harness their potential for various purposes. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River on the border of Mahabubnagar District, Telangana and Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh near Srisailam temple town and is the 2nd largest capacity working hydroelectric station in the country. Hence, pair 1 is correct. The Jawahar Sagar Dam is the third dam in the series of Chambal Valley Projects on the Chambal River, located 29 km upstream of Kota city and 26 km downstream of Rana Pratap Sagar dam. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Salal Dam, also known as Salal Hydroelectric Power Station, is a run-of-the-river hydropower project on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of the Jammu and Kashmir. It was the first hydropower project built by India in Jammu and Kashmir under the Indus Water Treaty regime. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect. The Sardar Sarovar Dam, a concrete gravity dam on the Narmada River in Gujarat, India, is part of the larger Sardar Sarovar Project, a multi-state irrigation and hydroelectric power project benefiting Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following pairs of dams and the rivers on which they are built:

Dam | River

1.Srisailam Dam | Krishna
2.Jawahar Sagar Dam | Chambal
3.Salal Dam | Jhelum
4.Sardar Sarovar Dam | Narmada

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Dams play a crucial role in water resource management, hydroelectric power generation, and irrigation in India. They are often built on major rivers to harness their potential for various purposes.

The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River on the border of Mahabubnagar District, Telangana and Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh near Srisailam temple town and is the 2nd largest capacity working hydroelectric station in the country.

Hence, pair 1 is correct.

The Jawahar Sagar Dam is the third dam in the series of Chambal Valley Projects on the Chambal River, located 29 km upstream of Kota city and 26 km downstream of Rana Pratap Sagar dam.

Hence, pair 2 is correct.

Salal Dam, also known as Salal Hydroelectric Power Station, is a run-of-the-river hydropower project on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of the Jammu and Kashmir. It was the first hydropower project built by India in Jammu and Kashmir under the Indus Water Treaty regime.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.

The Sardar Sarovar Dam, a concrete gravity dam on the Narmada River in Gujarat, India, is part of the larger Sardar Sarovar Project, a multi-state irrigation and hydroelectric power project benefiting Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.

Hence, pair 4 is correct.

Solution: C

Dams play a crucial role in water resource management, hydroelectric power generation, and irrigation in India. They are often built on major rivers to harness their potential for various purposes.

Hence, pair 1 is correct.

The Jawahar Sagar Dam is the third dam in the series of Chambal Valley Projects on the Chambal River, located 29 km upstream of Kota city and 26 km downstream of Rana Pratap Sagar dam.

Hence, pair 2 is correct.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.

Hence, pair 4 is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: The Himalayan arch is highly prone to earthquakes. Statement – II: The Northward movement of the Indian plate is constantly obstructed by the Eurasian plate from the north. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A The Indian plate is moving at a speed of 1 cm per year towards the north and north eastern direction. This movement of the plate is being constantly obstructed by the Eurasian plate from the north. As a result of this, both the plates are said to be locked with each other resulting in accumulation of energy at different points of time. Excessive accumulation of energy results in building up of stress, which ultimately leads to the breaking up of the lock and sudden release of energy which causes earthquakes along the Himalayan arch. Some most vulnerable states are Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and the Darjeeling and subdivision of West Bengal and all the seven states of the northeast India. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1. Incorrect Solution: A The Indian plate is moving at a speed of 1 cm per year towards the north and north eastern direction. This movement of the plate is being constantly obstructed by the Eurasian plate from the north. As a result of this, both the plates are said to be locked with each other resulting in accumulation of energy at different points of time. Excessive accumulation of energy results in building up of stress, which ultimately leads to the breaking up of the lock and sudden release of energy which causes earthquakes along the Himalayan arch. Some most vulnerable states are Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and the Darjeeling and subdivision of West Bengal and all the seven states of the northeast India. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

The Himalayan arch is highly prone to earthquakes.

Statement – II:

The Northward movement of the Indian plate is constantly obstructed by the Eurasian plate from the north.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• The Indian plate is moving at a speed of 1 cm per year towards the north and north eastern direction.

• This movement of the plate is being constantly obstructed by the Eurasian plate from the north.

• As a result of this, both the plates are said to be locked with each other resulting in accumulation of energy at different points of time.

• Excessive accumulation of energy results in building up of stress, which ultimately leads to the breaking up of the lock and sudden release of energy which causes earthquakes along the Himalayan arch.

• Some most vulnerable states are Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and the Darjeeling and subdivision of West Bengal and all the seven states of the northeast India.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.

Solution: A

• The Indian plate is moving at a speed of 1 cm per year towards the north and north eastern direction.

• This movement of the plate is being constantly obstructed by the Eurasian plate from the north.

• As a result of this, both the plates are said to be locked with each other resulting in accumulation of energy at different points of time.

• Some most vulnerable states are Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and the Darjeeling and subdivision of West Bengal and all the seven states of the northeast India.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Jute Board of India: It is an autonomous body headquartered in New Delhi. It aims to set up Jute Raw Materials Bank (JRMB) to source raw materials directly from jute mills. The Indian Jute Mills Association set up by the board was the first Association of Jute mills in India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Jute Board of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Textiles. It was constituted under the National Jute Board Act 2008. It is headquartered in Kolkata. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Jute Raw Materials Bank will be set up by the board in the clusters across the country in collaboration with agencies who have adequate experience in similar activities and have required storage and selling infrastructure. The bank will source from materials directly from the jute Mills and jute raw material manufacturers at economical rates. Hence statement 2 is correct The history of the Indian Jute Mills Association goes back to 1884 when a few representatives of majority of Indian Jute mills decided to form the Indian Jute Manufacturing Association. In July 1902 the association was named as Indian Jute Mills Association. The Jute Board works in Association with the Jute mills Association. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The Jute Board of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Textiles. It was constituted under the National Jute Board Act 2008. It is headquartered in Kolkata. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Jute Raw Materials Bank will be set up by the board in the clusters across the country in collaboration with agencies who have adequate experience in similar activities and have required storage and selling infrastructure. The bank will source from materials directly from the jute Mills and jute raw material manufacturers at economical rates. Hence statement 2 is correct The history of the Indian Jute Mills Association goes back to 1884 when a few representatives of majority of Indian Jute mills decided to form the Indian Jute Manufacturing Association. In July 1902 the association was named as Indian Jute Mills Association. The Jute Board works in Association with the Jute mills Association. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Jute Board of India:

• It is an autonomous body headquartered in New Delhi.

• It aims to set up Jute Raw Materials Bank (JRMB) to source raw materials directly from jute mills.

• The Indian Jute Mills Association set up by the board was the first Association of Jute mills in India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Jute Board of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Textiles.

• It was constituted under the National Jute Board Act 2008.

• It is headquartered in Kolkata.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Jute Raw Materials Bank will be set up by the board in the clusters across the country in collaboration with agencies who have adequate experience in similar activities and have required storage and selling infrastructure.

• The bank will source from materials directly from the jute Mills and jute raw material manufacturers at economical rates.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The history of the Indian Jute Mills Association goes back to 1884 when a few representatives of majority of Indian Jute mills decided to form the Indian Jute Manufacturing Association.

• In July 1902 the association was named as Indian Jute Mills Association.

• The Jute Board works in Association with the Jute mills Association.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The Jute Board of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Textiles.

• It was constituted under the National Jute Board Act 2008.

• It is headquartered in Kolkata.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The bank will source from materials directly from the jute Mills and jute raw material manufacturers at economical rates.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The history of the Indian Jute Mills Association goes back to 1884 when a few representatives of majority of Indian Jute mills decided to form the Indian Jute Manufacturing Association.

• In July 1902 the association was named as Indian Jute Mills Association.

• The Jute Board works in Association with the Jute mills Association.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Laterite soils are not suitable for cultivation without fertilizers. Statement – II: Laterite soils develop due to intense leaching in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A Laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and high rainfall; these are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and Aluminium compounds are left behind Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that grows well in high temperature. These soils are poor in nitrogen, organic matter, phosphate and calcium while iron oxide and potash are in excess Hence laterite soils are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilizers are required for making the soil fertile for cultivation. The laterites found in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are suitable for crops like cashew nut. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution: A Laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and high rainfall; these are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and Aluminium compounds are left behind Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that grows well in high temperature. These soils are poor in nitrogen, organic matter, phosphate and calcium while iron oxide and potash are in excess Hence laterite soils are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilizers are required for making the soil fertile for cultivation. The laterites found in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are suitable for crops like cashew nut. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

Laterite soils are not suitable for cultivation without fertilizers.

Statement – II:

Laterite soils develop due to intense leaching in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• Laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and high rainfall; these are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.

• With rain lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and Aluminium compounds are left behind

• Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that grows well in high temperature.

• These soils are poor in nitrogen, organic matter, phosphate and calcium while iron oxide and potash are in excess

• Hence laterite soils are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilizers are required for making the soil fertile for cultivation.

• The laterites found in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are suitable for crops like cashew nut.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

Solution: A

• Laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and high rainfall; these are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.

• With rain lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and Aluminium compounds are left behind

• Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that grows well in high temperature.

• These soils are poor in nitrogen, organic matter, phosphate and calcium while iron oxide and potash are in excess

• Hence laterite soils are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilizers are required for making the soil fertile for cultivation.

• The laterites found in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are suitable for crops like cashew nut.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Compared to Robusta, Arabica coffee is lower in caffeine content. Both Arabica and Robusta varieties of coffee are cultivated in India. Since last 3 years, export of coffee from India has increased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Arabica and Robusta are two main varieties of coffee; they differ in taste, caffeine content Arabica is more smooth, sweet in flavour and lower in caffeine content while Robusta has a bold flavour, bitter taste and higher caffeine content. Hence statement 1 is correct Approximately 3/4th of India’s coffee production consists of Arabica and Robusta beans. In India coffee is cultivated in South India mostly. Hence statement 2 is correct India has witnessed an increase in coffee export from $ 719.42 million in FY 2020-21 to $1.29 billion in FY 2023-24. India’s coffee export has grown significantly due to increasing global demand for its rich and unique flavours The Arabica and Robusta coffee are exported primarily as roasted beans. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Arabica and Robusta are two main varieties of coffee; they differ in taste, caffeine content Arabica is more smooth, sweet in flavour and lower in caffeine content while Robusta has a bold flavour, bitter taste and higher caffeine content. Hence statement 1 is correct Approximately 3/4th of India’s coffee production consists of Arabica and Robusta beans. In India coffee is cultivated in South India mostly. Hence statement 2 is correct India has witnessed an increase in coffee export from $ 719.42 million in FY 2020-21 to $1.29 billion in FY 2023-24. India’s coffee export has grown significantly due to increasing global demand for its rich and unique flavours The Arabica and Robusta coffee are exported primarily as roasted beans. Hence statement 3 is correct.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Compared to Robusta, Arabica coffee is lower in caffeine content.

• Both Arabica and Robusta varieties of coffee are cultivated in India.

• Since last 3 years, export of coffee from India has increased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Arabica and Robusta are two main varieties of coffee; they differ in taste, caffeine content

• Arabica is more smooth, sweet in flavour and lower in caffeine content while Robusta has a bold flavour, bitter taste and higher caffeine content.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Approximately 3/4th of India’s coffee production consists of Arabica and Robusta beans.

• In India coffee is cultivated in South India mostly.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• India has witnessed an increase in coffee export from $ 719.42 million in FY 2020-21 to $1.29 billion in FY 2023-24.

• India’s coffee export has grown significantly due to increasing global demand for its rich and unique flavours

• The Arabica and Robusta coffee are exported primarily as roasted beans.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution: D

• Arabica and Robusta are two main varieties of coffee; they differ in taste, caffeine content

• Arabica is more smooth, sweet in flavour and lower in caffeine content while Robusta has a bold flavour, bitter taste and higher caffeine content.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Approximately 3/4th of India’s coffee production consists of Arabica and Robusta beans.

• In India coffee is cultivated in South India mostly.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• India has witnessed an increase in coffee export from $ 719.42 million in FY 2020-21 to $1.29 billion in FY 2023-24.

• India’s coffee export has grown significantly due to increasing global demand for its rich and unique flavours

• The Arabica and Robusta coffee are exported primarily as roasted beans.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points A particular type of forest is characterized by the following features: It is found in warm and humid areas with annual rainfall over 200 cm and mean annual temperature about 22°C; the forests are stratified, with the shrubs, short and tall trees forming the three layers; It is: (a) Moist Deciduous Forest (b) Tropical Evergreen Forest (c) Dry Deciduous Forest (d) Tropical Thorn Forest Correct Solution: B The provided information corresponds to Tropical Evergreen Forest. These forests are found in warm and humid areas with annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22°C. Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above There is no definite time for trees to shade their leaves, flowering and fruition and these forests thus appear green all-round the year. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The provided information corresponds to Tropical Evergreen Forest. These forests are found in warm and humid areas with annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22°C. Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above There is no definite time for trees to shade their leaves, flowering and fruition and these forests thus appear green all-round the year. Hence option B is correct

#### 15. Question

A particular type of forest is characterized by the following features:

It is found in warm and humid areas with annual rainfall over 200 cm and mean annual temperature about 22°C; the forests are stratified, with the shrubs, short and tall trees forming the three layers;

• (a) Moist Deciduous Forest

• (b) Tropical Evergreen Forest

• (c) Dry Deciduous Forest

• (d) Tropical Thorn Forest

Solution: B

• The provided information corresponds to Tropical Evergreen Forest.

• These forests are found in warm and humid areas with annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22°C.

• Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees

• In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above

• There is no definite time for trees to shade their leaves, flowering and fruition and these forests thus appear green all-round the year.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The provided information corresponds to Tropical Evergreen Forest.

• These forests are found in warm and humid areas with annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22°C.

• Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees

• In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above

• There is no definite time for trees to shade their leaves, flowering and fruition and these forests thus appear green all-round the year.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Calcareous concretions are present in both khadar and bhangar soils. Unlike khadar, bhangar enriches soils by depositing fine silts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Alluvial soils are wide spread in northern plains and river valleys in India This soil covers about 40% of the total area of the country These are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers The alluvial soil varies in nature from Sandy loam to clay. In the upper and Middle Ganga plains, two types of alluvial soils are developed- khadar and bhangar. Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium deposited away from flood plains; Both the khadar and bhangar soils contains calcareous concretions or kankars; the sand content of the soil decreases from the west to east. Hence statement 1 is correct Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts. Bhangar is the older alluvium. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Alluvial soils are wide spread in northern plains and river valleys in India This soil covers about 40% of the total area of the country These are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers The alluvial soil varies in nature from Sandy loam to clay. In the upper and Middle Ganga plains, two types of alluvial soils are developed- khadar and bhangar. Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium deposited away from flood plains; Both the khadar and bhangar soils contains calcareous concretions or kankars; the sand content of the soil decreases from the west to east. Hence statement 1 is correct Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts. Bhangar is the older alluvium. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Calcareous concretions are present in both khadar and bhangar soils.

• Unlike khadar, bhangar enriches soils by depositing fine silts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Alluvial soils are wide spread in northern plains and river valleys in India

• This soil covers about 40% of the total area of the country

• These are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers

• The alluvial soil varies in nature from Sandy loam to clay.

• In the upper and Middle Ganga plains, two types of alluvial soils are developed- khadar and bhangar.

• Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium deposited away from flood plains;

• Both the khadar and bhangar soils contains calcareous concretions or kankars; the sand content of the soil decreases from the west to east.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts.

• Bhangar is the older alluvium.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Alluvial soils are wide spread in northern plains and river valleys in India

• This soil covers about 40% of the total area of the country

• These are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers

• The alluvial soil varies in nature from Sandy loam to clay.

• In the upper and Middle Ganga plains, two types of alluvial soils are developed- khadar and bhangar.

• Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium deposited away from flood plains;

• Both the khadar and bhangar soils contains calcareous concretions or kankars; the sand content of the soil decreases from the west to east.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts.

• Bhangar is the older alluvium.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: In July, trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator and blows from Southwest to North East and becomes Southwest monsoon in India. Statement – II: In July the ITCZ is located at the equator. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: C The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low pressure zone located at the equator where the trade winds converge and hence it is a zone where air tends to ascend. In July the ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the gangetic plain), sometimes called the monsoon trough. This monsoon trough encourages the development of thermal low over north and Northwest India. Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40°E and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from Southwest to Northeast due to the coriolis force. It becomes Southwest monsoon. In winter, the ITCZ move Southwards and hence reversal of winds from North East to south and southwest takes place; they are called Northeast monsoon. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low pressure zone located at the equator where the trade winds converge and hence it is a zone where air tends to ascend. In July the ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the gangetic plain), sometimes called the monsoon trough. This monsoon trough encourages the development of thermal low over north and Northwest India. Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40°E and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from Southwest to Northeast due to the coriolis force. It becomes Southwest monsoon. In winter, the ITCZ move Southwards and hence reversal of winds from North East to south and southwest takes place; they are called Northeast monsoon. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

In July, trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator and blows from Southwest to North East and becomes Southwest monsoon in India.

Statement – II:

In July the ITCZ is located at the equator.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: C

• The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low pressure zone located at the equator where the trade winds converge and hence it is a zone where air tends to ascend.

• In July the ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the gangetic plain), sometimes called the monsoon trough.

• This monsoon trough encourages the development of thermal low over north and Northwest India.

• Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40°E and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from Southwest to Northeast due to the coriolis force.

• It becomes Southwest monsoon.

• In winter, the ITCZ move Southwards and hence reversal of winds from North East to south and southwest takes place; they are called Northeast monsoon.

Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: C

• The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low pressure zone located at the equator where the trade winds converge and hence it is a zone where air tends to ascend.

• In July the ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the gangetic plain), sometimes called the monsoon trough.

• This monsoon trough encourages the development of thermal low over north and Northwest India.

• Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40°E and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from Southwest to Northeast due to the coriolis force.

• It becomes Southwest monsoon.

• In winter, the ITCZ move Southwards and hence reversal of winds from North East to south and southwest takes place; they are called Northeast monsoon.

Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Palm oil is derived from the pulp of the fruit of oil palm tree. Crude palm oil can be used in manufacture of green diesel. Palm oil cultivation is limited to North Eastern states of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Palm oil is an edible vegetable oil that is derived from the mesocarp or the reddish pulp of the fruit of oil palms. It is used as cooking oil and in items including cosmetics, processed foods, confectioneries, soaps, shampoo and cleaning products. It can also be used in the crude form in making biodiesel, which is branded as green diesel. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Palm oil is extensively cultivated in South India; the major palm oil producing states of India are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. It is also cultivated in some parts of Northeast India with Mizoram being the first state to introduce palm oil cultivation in the northeast. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Palm oil is an edible vegetable oil that is derived from the mesocarp or the reddish pulp of the fruit of oil palms. It is used as cooking oil and in items including cosmetics, processed foods, confectioneries, soaps, shampoo and cleaning products. It can also be used in the crude form in making biodiesel, which is branded as green diesel. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Palm oil is extensively cultivated in South India; the major palm oil producing states of India are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. It is also cultivated in some parts of Northeast India with Mizoram being the first state to introduce palm oil cultivation in the northeast. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Palm oil is derived from the pulp of the fruit of oil palm tree.

• Crude palm oil can be used in manufacture of green diesel.

• Palm oil cultivation is limited to North Eastern states of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Palm oil is an edible vegetable oil that is derived from the mesocarp or the reddish pulp of the fruit of oil palms.

• It is used as cooking oil and in items including cosmetics, processed foods, confectioneries, soaps, shampoo and cleaning products.

• It can also be used in the crude form in making biodiesel, which is branded as green diesel.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Palm oil is extensively cultivated in South India; the major palm oil producing states of India are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

• It is also cultivated in some parts of Northeast India with Mizoram being the first state to introduce palm oil cultivation in the northeast.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Palm oil is an edible vegetable oil that is derived from the mesocarp or the reddish pulp of the fruit of oil palms.

• It is used as cooking oil and in items including cosmetics, processed foods, confectioneries, soaps, shampoo and cleaning products.

• It can also be used in the crude form in making biodiesel, which is branded as green diesel.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Palm oil is extensively cultivated in South India; the major palm oil producing states of India are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

• It is also cultivated in some parts of Northeast India with Mizoram being the first state to introduce palm oil cultivation in the northeast.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following species of trees: Amaltas Screwpine Rhizophora How many of the above are commonly found in Littoral and Swamp forests in India? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Amaltas or Cassia fistula is native to Indian subcontinent and adopted to wide range of weather conditions across the country. It grows in the sub-Himalayan and outer Himalayan regions, and is common across the Gangetic plains, Central Deccan and Southern States. Hence option 1 is incorrect Littoral forests occur at several places along the coast; Swamp forests are confined to the deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauvery. The important species found in this forest are Sundri, Rhizophora, Screwpine, Palms, etc. Screwpines are often found along sea coasts in marshy areas. Rhizophora is a genus of tropical mangrove tree sometimes called true mangrove; these generally thrive in inter-tidal zones which are inundated by the ocean. They exhibit several adaptations to this type of environment including presence of mangrove free pneumatophores, that allow the plants to absorb oxygen while the roots are in submerged condition. Hence options 2 and 3 are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Amaltas or Cassia fistula is native to Indian subcontinent and adopted to wide range of weather conditions across the country. It grows in the sub-Himalayan and outer Himalayan regions, and is common across the Gangetic plains, Central Deccan and Southern States. Hence option 1 is incorrect Littoral forests occur at several places along the coast; Swamp forests are confined to the deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauvery. The important species found in this forest are Sundri, Rhizophora, Screwpine, Palms, etc. Screwpines are often found along sea coasts in marshy areas. Rhizophora is a genus of tropical mangrove tree sometimes called true mangrove; these generally thrive in inter-tidal zones which are inundated by the ocean. They exhibit several adaptations to this type of environment including presence of mangrove free pneumatophores, that allow the plants to absorb oxygen while the roots are in submerged condition. Hence options 2 and 3 are correct.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following species of trees:

• Rhizophora

How many of the above are commonly found in Littoral and Swamp forests in India?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Amaltas or Cassia fistula is native to Indian subcontinent and adopted to wide range of weather conditions across the country.

• It grows in the sub-Himalayan and outer Himalayan regions, and is common across the Gangetic plains, Central Deccan and Southern States.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

• Littoral forests occur at several places along the coast; Swamp forests are confined to the deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauvery. The important species found in this forest are Sundri, Rhizophora, Screwpine, Palms, etc.

• Screwpines are often found along sea coasts in marshy areas.

• Rhizophora is a genus of tropical mangrove tree sometimes called true mangrove; these generally thrive in inter-tidal zones which are inundated by the ocean. They exhibit several adaptations to this type of environment including presence of mangrove free pneumatophores, that allow the plants to absorb oxygen while the roots are in submerged condition.

Hence options 2 and 3 are correct.

Solution: B

• Amaltas or Cassia fistula is native to Indian subcontinent and adopted to wide range of weather conditions across the country.

• It grows in the sub-Himalayan and outer Himalayan regions, and is common across the Gangetic plains, Central Deccan and Southern States.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

• Screwpines are often found along sea coasts in marshy areas.

Hence options 2 and 3 are correct.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Nor Westers: These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Nor Westers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Nor Westers are harmful evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam Their notorious nature can be understood from the local nomenclature of kal Baisakhi, a calamity of the month of Baishakh or April. Hence statement 1 is correct These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoisila”. Hence statement 2 is correct Other Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season are: Mango Shower: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes. Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas. Loo: Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna. Incorrect Solution: C Nor Westers are harmful evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam Their notorious nature can be understood from the local nomenclature of kal Baisakhi, a calamity of the month of Baishakh or April. Hence statement 1 is correct These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoisila”. Hence statement 2 is correct Other Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season are: Mango Shower: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes. Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas. Loo: Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements Nor Westers:

• These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam.

• Nor Westers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Nor Westers are harmful evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam

• Their notorious nature can be understood from the local nomenclature of kal Baisakhi, a calamity of the month of Baishakh or April.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoisila”.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Other Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season are: Mango Shower: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes. Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas. Loo: Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna.

• Mango Shower: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes.

• Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes.

• Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas.

• Loo: Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna.

Solution: C

• Nor Westers are harmful evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam

• Their notorious nature can be understood from the local nomenclature of kal Baisakhi, a calamity of the month of Baishakh or April.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoisila”.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes.

• Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas.

• Loo: Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: A Money Bill is a specific type of Finance Bill that deals with revenue, expenditure, and other financial matters specified under Article 110(1) of the Constitution. Money Bills can be introduced in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, but must be certified by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. All Money Bills are Financial Bills, but all Financial Bills are not Money Bills. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Money Bills and Financial Bills: Money Bill is a specific type of Financial Bill that deals with matters such as taxes, borrowing, expenditure, and other financial matters mentioned under Article 110(1) of the Constitution. Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and must be certified by the Speaker. They can only be discussed in the Rajya Sabha, but cannot be amended. The Rajya Sabha can only delay the bill for up to 14 days. (Hence Statement 2 is incorrect) Financial Bills are broader and may involve taxation, loans, public expenditure, etc., and can be introduced in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Financial Bills are divided into two categories: Type I: Money Bills that meet the criteria of Article 110(1). Type II: Financial matters not restricted to Article 110, and they follow regular legislative procedures. All Money Bills are Financial Bills, but not all Financial Bills are Money Bills. Money Bills deal with the core financial matters of the government, including taxation and government borrowing, while Financial Bills may cover other fiscal matters. Incorrect Solution: B Money Bills and Financial Bills: Money Bill is a specific type of Financial Bill that deals with matters such as taxes, borrowing, expenditure, and other financial matters mentioned under Article 110(1) of the Constitution. Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and must be certified by the Speaker. They can only be discussed in the Rajya Sabha, but cannot be amended. The Rajya Sabha can only delay the bill for up to 14 days. (Hence Statement 2 is incorrect) Financial Bills are broader and may involve taxation, loans, public expenditure, etc., and can be introduced in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Financial Bills are divided into two categories: Type I: Money Bills that meet the criteria of Article 110(1). Type II: Financial matters not restricted to Article 110, and they follow regular legislative procedures. All Money Bills are Financial Bills, but not all Financial Bills are Money Bills. Money Bills deal with the core financial matters of the government, including taxation and government borrowing, while Financial Bills may cover other fiscal matters.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements:

• A Money Bill is a specific type of Finance Bill that deals with revenue, expenditure, and other financial matters specified under Article 110(1) of the Constitution.

• Money Bills can be introduced in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, but must be certified by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

• All Money Bills are Financial Bills, but all Financial Bills are not Money Bills.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Money Bills and Financial Bills:

• Money Bill is a specific type of Financial Bill that deals with matters such as taxes, borrowing, expenditure, and other financial matters mentioned under Article 110(1) of the Constitution.

• Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and must be certified by the Speaker. They can only be discussed in the Rajya Sabha, but cannot be amended. The Rajya Sabha can only delay the bill for up to 14 days. (Hence Statement 2 is incorrect)

• Financial Bills are broader and may involve taxation, loans, public expenditure, etc., and can be introduced in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

• Financial Bills are divided into two categories: Type I: Money Bills that meet the criteria of Article 110(1). Type II: Financial matters not restricted to Article 110, and they follow regular legislative procedures.

• Type I: Money Bills that meet the criteria of Article 110(1).

• Type II: Financial matters not restricted to Article 110, and they follow regular legislative procedures.

• All Money Bills are Financial Bills, but not all Financial Bills are Money Bills.

• Money Bills deal with the core financial matters of the government, including taxation and government borrowing, while Financial Bills may cover other fiscal matters.

Solution: B

Money Bills and Financial Bills:

• Financial Bills are broader and may involve taxation, loans, public expenditure, etc., and can be introduced in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

• Type I: Money Bills that meet the criteria of Article 110(1).

• Type II: Financial matters not restricted to Article 110, and they follow regular legislative procedures.

• All Money Bills are Financial Bills, but not all Financial Bills are Money Bills.

• Money Bills deal with the core financial matters of the government, including taxation and government borrowing, while Financial Bills may cover other fiscal matters.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points The SDG India Index is a tool used to track the progress of states and Union Territories towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Which of the following institutions in India is responsible for releasing the SDG India Index? (a) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) (b) Ministry of Finance (c) NITI Aayog in collaboration with UNDP (d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change Correct Solution: C SDG India Index 2023-24 The SDG India Index is released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). NITI Aayog tracks the progress of Indian states and Union Territories towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). First launched in December 2018, the index has become the primary tool for monitoring progress on the SDGs in India. It has also fostered competition among the states and UTs by ranking them on the global goals. The index is developed in collaboration with the United Nations in India. It tracks the progress of all states and UTs on 113 indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Incorrect Solution: C SDG India Index 2023-24 The SDG India Index is released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). NITI Aayog tracks the progress of Indian states and Union Territories towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). First launched in December 2018, the index has become the primary tool for monitoring progress on the SDGs in India. It has also fostered competition among the states and UTs by ranking them on the global goals. The index is developed in collaboration with the United Nations in India. It tracks the progress of all states and UTs on 113 indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

#### 22. Question

The SDG India Index is a tool used to track the progress of states and Union Territories towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Which of the following institutions in India is responsible for releasing the SDG India Index?

• (a) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)

• (b) Ministry of Finance

• (c) NITI Aayog in collaboration with UNDP

• (d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Solution: C

SDG India Index 2023-24

• The SDG India Index is released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

• NITI Aayog tracks the progress of Indian states and Union Territories towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

• First launched in December 2018, the index has become the primary tool for monitoring progress on the SDGs in India.

• It has also fostered competition among the states and UTs by ranking them on the global goals.

• The index is developed in collaboration with the United Nations in India.

• It tracks the progress of all states and UTs on 113 indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Solution: C

SDG India Index 2023-24

• The SDG India Index is released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

• NITI Aayog tracks the progress of Indian states and Union Territories towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

• First launched in December 2018, the index has become the primary tool for monitoring progress on the SDGs in India.

• It has also fostered competition among the states and UTs by ranking them on the global goals.

• The index is developed in collaboration with the United Nations in India.

• It tracks the progress of all states and UTs on 113 indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points At which point in Earth’s orbit is it farthest from the Sun? (a) Perihelion (b) Equinox (c) Solstice (d) Aphelion Correct Solution: D Aphelion and Perihelion: Aphelion: Definition: Aphelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is farthest from the Sun. Occurs in early July each year. At Aphelion, Earth is about 152 million kilometers from the Sun. Sunlight intensity at Aphelion is approximately 7% less than at Perihelion. Perihelion: Definition: Perihelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is closest to the Sun. Occurs in early January each year. At Perihelion, Earth is about 147 million kilometers from the Sun. Despite being closer to the Sun, seasonal changes are primarily influenced by Earth’s axial tilt, not by the difference in distances at Aphelion and Perihelion. Seasonal Impact: Earth’s axial tilt (about 23.5 degrees) is the primary cause of seasonal variations. Although Aphelion occurs during the Northern Hemisphere’s summer and Perihelion during the Northern Hemisphere’s winter, the temperature difference caused by Earth’s proximity to the Sun is minimal compared to the effect of axial tilt. Incorrect Solution: D Aphelion and Perihelion: Aphelion: Definition: Aphelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is farthest from the Sun. Occurs in early July each year. At Aphelion, Earth is about 152 million kilometers from the Sun. Sunlight intensity at Aphelion is approximately 7% less than at Perihelion. Perihelion: Definition: Perihelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is closest to the Sun. Occurs in early January each year. At Perihelion, Earth is about 147 million kilometers from the Sun. Despite being closer to the Sun, seasonal changes are primarily influenced by Earth’s axial tilt, not by the difference in distances at Aphelion and Perihelion. Seasonal Impact: Earth’s axial tilt (about 23.5 degrees) is the primary cause of seasonal variations. Although Aphelion occurs during the Northern Hemisphere’s summer and Perihelion during the Northern Hemisphere’s winter, the temperature difference caused by Earth’s proximity to the Sun is minimal compared to the effect of axial tilt.

#### 23. Question

At which point in Earth’s orbit is it farthest from the Sun?

• (a) Perihelion

• (b) Equinox

• (c) Solstice

• (d) Aphelion

Solution: D

Aphelion and Perihelion:

• Aphelion: Definition: Aphelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is farthest from the Sun. Occurs in early July each year. At Aphelion, Earth is about 152 million kilometers from the Sun. Sunlight intensity at Aphelion is approximately 7% less than at Perihelion.

• Definition: Aphelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is farthest from the Sun.

• Occurs in early July each year.

• At Aphelion, Earth is about 152 million kilometers from the Sun.

• Sunlight intensity at Aphelion is approximately 7% less than at Perihelion.

• Perihelion: Definition: Perihelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is closest to the Sun. Occurs in early January each year. At Perihelion, Earth is about 147 million kilometers from the Sun. Despite being closer to the Sun, seasonal changes are primarily influenced by Earth’s axial tilt, not by the difference in distances at Aphelion and Perihelion.

• Definition: Perihelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is closest to the Sun.

• Occurs in early January each year.

• At Perihelion, Earth is about 147 million kilometers from the Sun.

• Despite being closer to the Sun, seasonal changes are primarily influenced by Earth’s axial tilt, not by the difference in distances at Aphelion and Perihelion.

• Seasonal Impact: Earth’s axial tilt (about 23.5 degrees) is the primary cause of seasonal variations. Although Aphelion occurs during the Northern Hemisphere’s summer and Perihelion during the Northern Hemisphere’s winter, the temperature difference caused by Earth’s proximity to the Sun is minimal compared to the effect of axial tilt.

• Earth’s axial tilt (about 23.5 degrees) is the primary cause of seasonal variations.

• Although Aphelion occurs during the Northern Hemisphere’s summer and Perihelion during the Northern Hemisphere’s winter, the temperature difference caused by Earth’s proximity to the Sun is minimal compared to the effect of axial tilt.

Solution: D

Aphelion and Perihelion:

• Definition: Aphelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is farthest from the Sun.

• Occurs in early July each year.

• At Aphelion, Earth is about 152 million kilometers from the Sun.

• Sunlight intensity at Aphelion is approximately 7% less than at Perihelion.

• Definition: Perihelion is the point in Earth’s orbit when it is closest to the Sun.

• Occurs in early January each year.

• At Perihelion, Earth is about 147 million kilometers from the Sun.

• Despite being closer to the Sun, seasonal changes are primarily influenced by Earth’s axial tilt, not by the difference in distances at Aphelion and Perihelion.

• Earth’s axial tilt (about 23.5 degrees) is the primary cause of seasonal variations.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Janaushadhi Kendras are set up under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) to provide affordable generic medicines and improve healthcare accessibility across India. Statement-II: India’s first overseas Jan Aushadi Kendra was inaugurated in Mauritius, as part of the effort to strengthen bilateral health cooperation between India and Mauritius. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Jan Aushadhi Kendra: Jan Aushadhi Kendras are centres that provide affordable generic medicines to the public, making quality healthcare accessible, especially to economically disadvantaged groups. The initiative is supported by the Bureau of Pharma PSUs in India (BPPI) under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP), which aims to reduce the cost burden of medicines for the public. The government has set a target to establish 10,500 Janaushadhi Kendras across India by March 2025 to improve access to essential medicines. India’s first overseas Jan Aushadhi Kendra was inaugurated in Mauritius, marking a step toward stronger bilateral health cooperation between India and Mauritius. The Janaushadhi Kendras provide high-quality generic medicines at prices significantly lower than branded medicines, ensuring affordability. The expansion of Janaushadhi Kendras both domestically and internationally is aimed at improving global access to affordable healthcare. Statement-II describes an expansion of the PMBJP’s reach internationally. While it aligns with the overall goal of improving healthcare accessibility, it is not a direct explanation of the program’s primary function within India, as stated in Statement-I. Hence, Statement-II is an extension of statement-I, not an explanation. Incorrect Solution: B Jan Aushadhi Kendra: Jan Aushadhi Kendras are centres that provide affordable generic medicines to the public, making quality healthcare accessible, especially to economically disadvantaged groups. The initiative is supported by the Bureau of Pharma PSUs in India (BPPI) under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP), which aims to reduce the cost burden of medicines for the public. The government has set a target to establish 10,500 Janaushadhi Kendras across India by March 2025 to improve access to essential medicines. India’s first overseas Jan Aushadhi Kendra was inaugurated in Mauritius, marking a step toward stronger bilateral health cooperation between India and Mauritius. The Janaushadhi Kendras provide high-quality generic medicines at prices significantly lower than branded medicines, ensuring affordability. The expansion of Janaushadhi Kendras both domestically and internationally is aimed at improving global access to affordable healthcare. Statement-II describes an expansion of the PMBJP’s reach internationally. While it aligns with the overall goal of improving healthcare accessibility, it is not a direct explanation of the program’s primary function within India, as stated in Statement-I. Hence, Statement-II is an extension of statement-I, not an explanation.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Janaushadhi Kendras are set up under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) to provide affordable generic medicines and improve healthcare accessibility across India.

Statement-II:

India’s first overseas Jan Aushadi Kendra was inaugurated in Mauritius, as part of the effort to strengthen bilateral health cooperation between India and Mauritius.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

Jan Aushadhi Kendra:

• Jan Aushadhi Kendras are centres that provide affordable generic medicines to the public, making quality healthcare accessible, especially to economically disadvantaged groups.

• The initiative is supported by the Bureau of Pharma PSUs in India (BPPI) under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP), which aims to reduce the cost burden of medicines for the public.

• The government has set a target to establish 10,500 Janaushadhi Kendras across India by March 2025 to improve access to essential medicines.

• India’s first overseas Jan Aushadhi Kendra was inaugurated in Mauritius, marking a step toward stronger bilateral health cooperation between India and Mauritius.

• The Janaushadhi Kendras provide high-quality generic medicines at prices significantly lower than branded medicines, ensuring affordability.

• The expansion of Janaushadhi Kendras both domestically and internationally is aimed at improving global access to affordable healthcare.

• Statement-II describes an expansion of the PMBJP’s reach internationally. While it aligns with the overall goal of improving healthcare accessibility, it is not a direct explanation of the program’s primary function within India, as stated in Statement-I.

Hence, Statement-II is an extension of statement-I, not an explanation.

Solution: B

Jan Aushadhi Kendra:

• Jan Aushadhi Kendras are centres that provide affordable generic medicines to the public, making quality healthcare accessible, especially to economically disadvantaged groups.

• The government has set a target to establish 10,500 Janaushadhi Kendras across India by March 2025 to improve access to essential medicines.

• India’s first overseas Jan Aushadhi Kendra was inaugurated in Mauritius, marking a step toward stronger bilateral health cooperation between India and Mauritius.

• The Janaushadhi Kendras provide high-quality generic medicines at prices significantly lower than branded medicines, ensuring affordability.

• The expansion of Janaushadhi Kendras both domestically and internationally is aimed at improving global access to affordable healthcare.

Hence, Statement-II is an extension of statement-I, not an explanation.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Nile River: The Nile River is one of the longest rivers in the world. The Nile Basin includes parts of Tanzania, Kenya, and Egypt along with several other countries. The Nile forms a delta as it flows into the Mediterranean Sea. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: D Nile River: The Nile River is one of the longest rivers in the world, flowing through northeastern Africa. It is primarily fed by the Blue Nile (originates from Lake Tana in Ethiopia) and the White Nile (originates from Lake Victoria). The Nile Basin spans across several countries, including Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, Congo (DRC), Kenya, and Egypt. The river forms an arcuate delta as it flows into the Mediterranean Sea, creating one of the most fertile regions in the world. The Nile Delta is crucial for agriculture and water supply in Egypt, supporting a large portion of the population. The river provides vital resources for fishing, agriculture, and water supply to the surrounding regions. The Atbara River is another important tributary that contributes to the flow of the Nile. Incorrect Solution: D Nile River: The Nile River is one of the longest rivers in the world, flowing through northeastern Africa. It is primarily fed by the Blue Nile (originates from Lake Tana in Ethiopia) and the White Nile (originates from Lake Victoria). The Nile Basin spans across several countries, including Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, Congo (DRC), Kenya, and Egypt. The river forms an arcuate delta as it flows into the Mediterranean Sea, creating one of the most fertile regions in the world. The Nile Delta is crucial for agriculture and water supply in Egypt, supporting a large portion of the population. The river provides vital resources for fishing, agriculture, and water supply to the surrounding regions. The Atbara River is another important tributary that contributes to the flow of the Nile.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Nile River:

• The Nile River is one of the longest rivers in the world.

• The Nile Basin includes parts of Tanzania, Kenya, and Egypt along with several other countries.

• The Nile forms a delta as it flows into the Mediterranean Sea.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: D

Nile River:

• The Nile River is one of the longest rivers in the world, flowing through northeastern Africa.

• It is primarily fed by the Blue Nile (originates from Lake Tana in Ethiopia) and the White Nile (originates from Lake Victoria).

• The Nile Basin spans across several countries, including Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, Congo (DRC), Kenya, and Egypt.

• The river forms an arcuate delta as it flows into the Mediterranean Sea, creating one of the most fertile regions in the world.

• The Nile Delta is crucial for agriculture and water supply in Egypt, supporting a large portion of the population.

• The river provides vital resources for fishing, agriculture, and water supply to the surrounding regions.

• The Atbara River is another important tributary that contributes to the flow of the Nile.

Solution: D

Nile River:

• The Nile River is one of the longest rivers in the world, flowing through northeastern Africa.

• It is primarily fed by the Blue Nile (originates from Lake Tana in Ethiopia) and the White Nile (originates from Lake Victoria).

• The Nile Basin spans across several countries, including Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, Congo (DRC), Kenya, and Egypt.

• The river forms an arcuate delta as it flows into the Mediterranean Sea, creating one of the most fertile regions in the world.

• The Nile Delta is crucial for agriculture and water supply in Egypt, supporting a large portion of the population.

• The river provides vital resources for fishing, agriculture, and water supply to the surrounding regions.

• The Atbara River is another important tributary that contributes to the flow of the Nile.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Bicyclists on the Roads Cyclists are 15 times more likely to be killed on British roads than car drivers. Some people are of the opinion that in the interests of safety, bicycles should not be allowed on roads. Having both cars and bicycles on the same roads is undeniably very dangerous, and if the bicycle were invented today it is quite probable that it would not be allowed on roads at all. However, the argument that bicycles should not be allowed on roads now is as ridiculous as suggesting that cars should be equally banned, and if you think about it, bicycles have actually been on roads for about fifty years longer than cars anyway. The most effective solution would be to have separate roads for cars and bicycles, and this has been done in many countries with the introduction of bicycle paths either beside or as part of existing roads. Cyclists definitely feel much safer when they ride on a bicycle path. However, to do this for every street and road in existence is completely unfeasible in terms of both space and financial resources and frankly, there probably just aren’t enough cyclists to justify the measure. It is completely understandable why drivers do not appreciate cyclists on the road: they can slow traffic down and often cycle very dangerously and disobey traffic rules. Cyclists should, though, be commended for reducing the number of polluting cars on the road and taking a clean transport option. By keeping fit on a bike, they also keep state health costs down as cyclists tend to be in better shape than people who drive everywhere. So, in a perfect world, it would be wonderful if cars and bikes could be kept apart, but we all know that is just not possible. If the government were to pass a law banning bicycles from roads there would be a national outcry. As much as motorists complain about cyclists, people love cycling. They love the freedom and convenience, the ease in parking, the fact that it costs practically nothing to cycle and that it is just a really healthy way to get around. Bicycles are here to stay! (357 words) Based on the given passage, the following assumptions have been made: Introducing bicycle lanes on road can reduce the number of cyclist accidents and deaths. Governments should encourage more people to start cycling instead of driving. Which of the given assumptions is/are true? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Justification: Statement 1 is true because the passage shows that many countries have implemented cycle lanes for the safety of cyclists to great success. Statement 2 is true because the passage points out the many advantages of cycling over driving as well as the freedom that it encompasses. Hence C is correct. Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Justification: Statement 1 is true because the passage shows that many countries have implemented cycle lanes for the safety of cyclists to great success. Statement 2 is true because the passage points out the many advantages of cycling over driving as well as the freedom that it encompasses. Hence C is correct.

#### 26. Question

Bicyclists on the Roads

Cyclists are 15 times more likely to be killed on British roads than car drivers. Some people are of the opinion that in the interests of safety, bicycles should not be allowed on roads. Having both cars and bicycles on the same roads is undeniably very dangerous, and if the bicycle were invented today it is quite probable that it would not be allowed on roads at all. However, the argument that bicycles should not be allowed on roads now is as ridiculous as suggesting that cars should be equally banned, and if you think about it, bicycles have actually been on roads for about fifty years longer than cars anyway.

The most effective solution would be to have separate roads for cars and bicycles, and this has been done in many countries with the introduction of bicycle paths either beside or as part of existing roads. Cyclists definitely feel much safer when they ride on a bicycle path. However, to do this for every street and road in existence is completely unfeasible in terms of both space and financial resources and frankly, there probably just aren’t enough cyclists to justify the measure.

It is completely understandable why drivers do not appreciate cyclists on the road: they can slow traffic down and often cycle very dangerously and disobey traffic rules. Cyclists should, though, be commended for reducing the number of polluting cars on the road and taking a clean transport option. By keeping fit on a bike, they also keep state health costs down as cyclists tend to be in better shape than people who drive everywhere.

So, in a perfect world, it would be wonderful if cars and bikes could be kept apart, but we all know that is just not possible. If the government were to pass a law banning bicycles from roads there would be a national outcry. As much as motorists complain about cyclists, people love cycling. They love the freedom and convenience, the ease in parking, the fact that it costs practically nothing to cycle and that it is just a really healthy way to get around. Bicycles are here to stay! (357 words)

Based on the given passage, the following assumptions have been made:

• Introducing bicycle lanes on road can reduce the number of cyclist accidents and deaths.

• Governments should encourage more people to start cycling instead of driving.

Which of the given assumptions is/are true?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Justification:

Statement 1 is true because the passage shows that many countries have implemented cycle lanes for the safety of cyclists to great success.

Statement 2 is true because the passage points out the many advantages of cycling over driving as well as the freedom that it encompasses. Hence C is correct.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Justification:

Statement 1 is true because the passage shows that many countries have implemented cycle lanes for the safety of cyclists to great success.

Statement 2 is true because the passage points out the many advantages of cycling over driving as well as the freedom that it encompasses. Hence C is correct.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Based on the following data showing the percentage distribution find the ratio between total number of children who opted for Computer, Dance and Yoga together to total number of children who opted for Swimming, Computer and Music: a) 15/17 b) 12/15 c) 17/18 d) 15/18 Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Answer C) 17/18 Explanation Reqd. ratio = (17 + 16 + 18)/( 13 + 17 + 24) = 51/54 =17/18 Hence, Option C is correct. Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Answer C) 17/18 Explanation Reqd. ratio = (17 + 16 + 18)/( 13 + 17 + 24) = 51/54 =17/18 Hence, Option C is correct.

#### 27. Question

Based on the following data showing the percentage distribution find the ratio between total number of children who opted for Computer, Dance and Yoga together to total number of children who opted for Swimming, Computer and Music:

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Answer C) 17/18

Explanation

Reqd. ratio = (17 + 16 + 18)/( 13 + 17 + 24)

Hence, Option C is correct.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Answer C) 17/18

Explanation

Reqd. ratio = (17 + 16 + 18)/( 13 + 17 + 24)

Hence, Option C is correct.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points A man swimming upstream takes 6 hours to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance swimming downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the man and speed of the stream respectively? a) 5:1 b) 1:5 c) 5:2 d) Cannot be determined Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Answer: A) 5: 1 Let the man’s speed upstream be X and that downstream be Y Then, distance covered upstream in 6 hrs = Distance covered downstream in 4 hr 6×X = 4×Y Y = 3/2 X Required Ratio = [(Y+X)/2]: [(Y-X)/2] =(1/2)[(3X/2) + X]:1/2[(3X/2) – X] = (1/2)(5X/2) : 1/2(1X/2) = (5X/4) : (X/4) = 5 : 1 Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Answer: A) 5: 1 Let the man’s speed upstream be X and that downstream be Y Then, distance covered upstream in 6 hrs = Distance covered downstream in 4 hr 6×X = 4×Y Y = 3/2 X Required Ratio = [(Y+X)/2]: [(Y-X)/2] =(1/2)[(3X/2) + X]:1/2[(3X/2) – X] = (1/2)(5X/2) : 1/2(1X/2) = (5X/4) : (X/4) = 5 : 1

#### 28. Question

A man swimming upstream takes 6 hours to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance swimming downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the man and speed of the stream respectively?

• d) Cannot be determined

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Answer: A) 5: 1

Let the man’s speed upstream be X and that downstream be Y

Then, distance covered upstream in 6 hrs = Distance covered downstream in 4 hr

Required Ratio = [(Y+X)/2]: [(Y-X)/2]

=(1/2)[(3X/2) + X]:1/2[(3X/2) – X]

= (1/2)(5X/2) : 1/2(1X/2)

= (5X/4) : (X/4)

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Answer: A) 5: 1

Let the man’s speed upstream be X and that downstream be Y

Then, distance covered upstream in 6 hrs = Distance covered downstream in 4 hr

Required Ratio = [(Y+X)/2]: [(Y-X)/2]

=(1/2)[(3X/2) + X]:1/2[(3X/2) – X]

= (1/2)(5X/2) : 1/2(1X/2)

= (5X/4) : (X/4)

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points 5 years ago, the age of the father is 3 times the age of his son. 7 years hence, the age of the father and his son is in the ratio of 19:9. The average Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter is 30. The difference between the age of the mother and her daughter is 30. Then find the present age of the daughter? a) 16 years b) 14 years c) 18 years d) 10 years Correct Correct Option: D Justification: Answer d) 10 years 5 years ago, the ratio of age of the father and his son = 3: 1(3x, x) 7 years hence, the ratio of age of the father and his son = 19: 9 According to the question, (3x + 12)/(x + 12) = (19/9) 27x + 108 = 19x + 228 8x = 120 X = 15 The present age of the father and his son = (3x + 5), (x + 5) = 50, 20 The average Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter = 30 Total Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter = 304 = 120 Total present age of the mother and her daughter = 120 – 70 = 50 Let the present age of mother and daughter be A and B, A + B = 50—>(1) A – B = 30—>(2) By solving the equation (1) and (2), A = 40, B = 10 The present age of the daughter = 10 years Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: Answer d) 10 years 5 years ago, the ratio of age of the father and his son = 3: 1(3x, x) 7 years hence, the ratio of age of the father and his son = 19: 9 According to the question, (3x + 12)/(x + 12) = (19/9) 27x + 108 = 19x + 228 8x = 120 X = 15 The present age of the father and his son = (3x + 5), (x + 5) = 50, 20 The average Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter = 30 Total Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter = 304 = 120 Total present age of the mother and her daughter = 120 – 70 = 50 Let the present age of mother and daughter be A and B, A + B = 50—>(1) A – B = 30—>(2) By solving the equation (1) and (2), A = 40, B = 10 The present age of the daughter = 10 years

#### 29. Question

5 years ago, the age of the father is 3 times the age of his son. 7 years hence, the age of the father and his son is in the ratio of 19:9. The average Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter is 30. The difference between the age of the mother and her daughter is 30. Then find the present age of the daughter?

• a) 16 years

• b) 14 years

• c) 18 years

• d) 10 years

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Answer d) 10 years

5 years ago, the ratio of age of the father and his son = 3: 1(3x, x)

7 years hence, the ratio of age of the father and his son = 19: 9

According to the question,

(3x + 12)/(x + 12) = (19/9)

27x + 108 = 19x + 228

The present age of the father and his son = (3x + 5), (x + 5) = 50, 20

The average Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter = 30

Total Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter = 30*4 = 120

Total present age of the mother and her daughter = 120 – 70 = 50

Let the present age of mother and daughter be A and B,

A + B = 50—>(1)

A – B = 30—>(2)

By solving the equation (1) and (2),

A = 40, B = 10

The present age of the daughter = 10 years

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Answer d) 10 years

5 years ago, the ratio of age of the father and his son = 3: 1(3x, x)

7 years hence, the ratio of age of the father and his son = 19: 9

According to the question,

(3x + 12)/(x + 12) = (19/9)

27x + 108 = 19x + 228

The present age of the father and his son = (3x + 5), (x + 5) = 50, 20

The average Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter = 30

Total Present age of the father, mother, son and daughter = 30*4 = 120

Total present age of the mother and her daughter = 120 – 70 = 50

Let the present age of mother and daughter be A and B,

A + B = 50—>(1)

A – B = 30—>(2)

By solving the equation (1) and (2),

A = 40, B = 10

The present age of the daughter = 10 years

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points A vessel contains milk and water in which 20% water. 20 litres of mixture was taken out and replaced by water and the ratio becomes 12:13. Find the initial quantity of milk in the vessel. a) 40 litres b) 30 litres c) 50 litres d) 56 litres Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Answer a) 40 litres Milk and water ratio = 4:1 Given, (4x-16)/(x-4+20) =12/13 13x-52 = 3x+48 =>10x=100=>x=10 Initial quantity of milk in the vessel= 40 litres Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Answer a) 40 litres Milk and water ratio = 4:1 Given, (4x-16)/(x-4+20) =12/13 13x-52 = 3x+48 =>10x=100=>x=10 Initial quantity of milk in the vessel= 40 litres

#### 30. Question

A vessel contains milk and water in which 20% water. 20 litres of mixture was taken out and replaced by water and the ratio becomes 12:13. Find the initial quantity of milk in the vessel.

• a) 40 litres

• b) 30 litres

• c) 50 litres

• d) 56 litres

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Answer a) 40 litres

Milk and water ratio = 4:1

(4x-16)/(x-4+20) =12/13

13x-52 = 3x+48

=>10x=100=>x=10

Initial quantity of milk in the vessel= 40 litres

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Answer a) 40 litres

Milk and water ratio = 4:1

(4x-16)/(x-4+20) =12/13

13x-52 = 3x+48

=>10x=100=>x=10

Initial quantity of milk in the vessel= 40 litres

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