DAY – 8 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GEOGRAPHY, Subject-wise Test 20, Textbook-wise Test 4,5,6 and June & July 2023 CA ( Revision )

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs): They invest in financial assets including listed equities, corporate debt and government securities. They include Central Banks, Sovereign Wealth funds, insurance and reinsurance companies and pension funds. They are net-sellers in the secondary market hence they cannot join an Initial Public Offering in India. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) simply refers to financial assets held by investors in another country. Individuals or entities who invest in foreign portfolios are known as foreign portfolio investors (FPIs). In the Indian context, FPIs refers to registered overseas investor groups which include foreign institutional investors (FIIs) and qualified foreign investors (QFIs). Statement 1 is correct: Governed by the market regulator SEBI, FPIs are allowed to invest in various categories of financial assets including listed equities, corporate debt, government securities, units of domestic mutual funds and other assets. Statement 2 is correct: FPIs are typically Central Banks, Sovereign Wealth funds, mutual funds, insurance and reinsurance companies, pension funds, corporate bodies, Trusts and high net worth individuals. Statement 3 is not correct: While FPIs have been net sellers in the secondary market, they are pumping in huge sums of money in the primary market, joining the Initial Public Offering (IPO) frenzy in India. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Questions of types of Foreign Investment have been asked every year Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) simply refers to financial assets held by investors in another country. Individuals or entities who invest in foreign portfolios are known as foreign portfolio investors (FPIs). In the Indian context, FPIs refers to registered overseas investor groups which include foreign institutional investors (FIIs) and qualified foreign investors (QFIs). Statement 1 is correct: Governed by the market regulator SEBI, FPIs are allowed to invest in various categories of financial assets including listed equities, corporate debt, government securities, units of domestic mutual funds and other assets. Statement 2 is correct: FPIs are typically Central Banks, Sovereign Wealth funds, mutual funds, insurance and reinsurance companies, pension funds, corporate bodies, Trusts and high net worth individuals. Statement 3 is not correct: While FPIs have been net sellers in the secondary market, they are pumping in huge sums of money in the primary market, joining the Initial Public Offering (IPO) frenzy in India. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Questions of types of Foreign Investment have been asked every year Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs):

• They invest in financial assets including listed equities, corporate debt and government securities.

• They include Central Banks, Sovereign Wealth funds, insurance and reinsurance companies and pension funds.

• They are net-sellers in the secondary market hence they cannot join an Initial Public Offering in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) simply refers to financial assets held by investors in another country. Individuals or entities who invest in foreign portfolios are known as foreign portfolio investors (FPIs).

In the Indian context, FPIs refers to registered overseas investor groups which include foreign institutional investors (FIIs) and qualified foreign investors (QFIs).

Statement 1 is correct: Governed by the market regulator SEBI, FPIs are allowed to invest in various categories of financial assets including listed equities, corporate debt, government securities, units of domestic mutual funds and other assets.

Statement 2 is correct: FPIs are typically Central Banks, Sovereign Wealth funds, mutual funds, insurance and reinsurance companies, pension funds, corporate bodies, Trusts and high net worth individuals.

Statement 3 is not correct: While FPIs have been net sellers in the secondary market, they are pumping in huge sums of money in the primary market, joining the Initial Public Offering (IPO) frenzy in India.

Trend: Questions of types of Foreign Investment have been asked every year

Approach: Applied knowledge

Answer: B

Explanation:

In the Indian context, FPIs refers to registered overseas investor groups which include foreign institutional investors (FIIs) and qualified foreign investors (QFIs).

Trend: Questions of types of Foreign Investment have been asked every year

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Unlike deep-sea mining, off-shore mining concentrates on tapping mineral reserves up to 200 km from the country’s shoreline. In India, deep-sea mining falls under the purview of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, while off-shore mining comes under the Ministry of Mines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Unlike deep-sea mining, which requires approval and mining leases from the UN-affiliated International Seabed Authority, which is yet to come up with a code accepted by all parties, off-shore mining concentrates on tapping probable mineral reserves 200 km from the country’s shoreline. Statement 2 is correct: In India, deep-sea mining falls under the purview of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, while off-shore mining comes under the Ministry of Mines. Government currently allocates off-shore production leases for blocks containing higher-grade atomic minerals such as uranium and zircon to state-controlled entities. Polymetallic nodules generally contain nickel, cobalt, manganese ore and copper, among others, which find usage in the production of batteries used in electric vehicles. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important Minerals and exploration Approach: minerals and resources in exclusive economic zone of India ( up to 200 nautical miles). Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Unlike deep-sea mining, which requires approval and mining leases from the UN-affiliated International Seabed Authority, which is yet to come up with a code accepted by all parties, off-shore mining concentrates on tapping probable mineral reserves 200 km from the country’s shoreline. Statement 2 is correct: In India, deep-sea mining falls under the purview of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, while off-shore mining comes under the Ministry of Mines. Government currently allocates off-shore production leases for blocks containing higher-grade atomic minerals such as uranium and zircon to state-controlled entities. Polymetallic nodules generally contain nickel, cobalt, manganese ore and copper, among others, which find usage in the production of batteries used in electric vehicles. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important Minerals and exploration Approach: minerals and resources in exclusive economic zone of India ( up to 200 nautical miles).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Unlike deep-sea mining, off-shore mining concentrates on tapping mineral reserves up to 200 km from the country’s shoreline.

• In India, deep-sea mining falls under the purview of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, while off-shore mining comes under the Ministry of Mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Unlike deep-sea mining, which requires approval and mining leases from the UN-affiliated International Seabed Authority, which is yet to come up with a code accepted by all parties, off-shore mining concentrates on tapping probable mineral reserves 200 km from the country’s shoreline.

Statement 2 is correct: In India, deep-sea mining falls under the purview of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, while off-shore mining comes under the Ministry of Mines.

Government currently allocates off-shore production leases for blocks containing higher-grade atomic minerals such as uranium and zircon to state-controlled entities.

Polymetallic nodules generally contain nickel, cobalt, manganese ore and copper, among others, which find usage in the production of batteries used in electric vehicles.

Trend: Important Minerals and exploration

Approach: minerals and resources in exclusive economic zone of India ( up to 200 nautical miles).

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: In India, deep-sea mining falls under the purview of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, while off-shore mining comes under the Ministry of Mines.

Government currently allocates off-shore production leases for blocks containing higher-grade atomic minerals such as uranium and zircon to state-controlled entities.

Polymetallic nodules generally contain nickel, cobalt, manganese ore and copper, among others, which find usage in the production of batteries used in electric vehicles.

Trend: Important Minerals and exploration

Approach: minerals and resources in exclusive economic zone of India ( up to 200 nautical miles).

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: India is the world’s leading producer of both germanium and gallium. Germanium is used in the production of transistors and semiconductor devices. Gallium is used in the manufacture of light-emitting diodes. Both Germanium and gallium are considered unfit for human consumption. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: China is the world’s leading producer of both germanium and gallium. As per the Critical Raw Minerals Alliance, China is responsible for production of 60 per cent of the world’s germanium and 80 per cent of the world’s gallium. Germanium is a semi-metal which makes it a good element for use as semiconductors. Statement 2 is correct: It is particularly used in the production of transistors and other semiconductor devices. Gallium is a soft, silvery metal that is in a liquid state near room temperature. It has a low melting point which helps in the production of semiconductors and electronic components. Statement 3 is correct: Gallium is used in the manufacture of integrated circuits, light-emitting diodes (LEDs), and solar cells. There are some Gallium-based compounds which have medical applications, including the treatment of certain types of cancers. Statement 4 is not correct: Germanium has also been found to have some medicinal uses and is sometimes used as a dietary supplement. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important minerals Approach: Significant properties and usage of important minerals Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: China is the world’s leading producer of both germanium and gallium. As per the Critical Raw Minerals Alliance, China is responsible for production of 60 per cent of the world’s germanium and 80 per cent of the world’s gallium. Germanium is a semi-metal which makes it a good element for use as semiconductors. Statement 2 is correct: It is particularly used in the production of transistors and other semiconductor devices. Gallium is a soft, silvery metal that is in a liquid state near room temperature. It has a low melting point which helps in the production of semiconductors and electronic components. Statement 3 is correct: Gallium is used in the manufacture of integrated circuits, light-emitting diodes (LEDs), and solar cells. There are some Gallium-based compounds which have medical applications, including the treatment of certain types of cancers. Statement 4 is not correct: Germanium has also been found to have some medicinal uses and is sometimes used as a dietary supplement. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important minerals Approach: Significant properties and usage of important minerals

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• India is the world’s leading producer of both germanium and gallium.

• Germanium is used in the production of transistors and semiconductor devices.

• Gallium is used in the manufacture of light-emitting diodes.

• Both Germanium and gallium are considered unfit for human consumption.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: China is the world’s leading producer of both germanium and gallium. As per the Critical Raw Minerals Alliance, China is responsible for production of 60 per cent of the world’s germanium and 80 per cent of the world’s gallium.

Germanium is a semi-metal which makes it a good element for use as semiconductors.

• Statement 2 is correct: It is particularly used in the production of transistors and other semiconductor devices.

Gallium is a soft, silvery metal that is in a liquid state near room temperature. It has a low melting point which helps in the production of semiconductors and electronic components.

• Statement 3 is correct: Gallium is used in the manufacture of integrated circuits, light-emitting diodes (LEDs), and solar cells.

• There are some Gallium-based compounds which have medical applications, including the treatment of certain types of cancers.

Statement 4 is not correct: Germanium has also been found to have some medicinal uses and is sometimes used as a dietary supplement.

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: Significant properties and usage of important minerals

Answer: B

Explanation:

Germanium is a semi-metal which makes it a good element for use as semiconductors.

• Statement 2 is correct: It is particularly used in the production of transistors and other semiconductor devices.

Gallium is a soft, silvery metal that is in a liquid state near room temperature. It has a low melting point which helps in the production of semiconductors and electronic components.

• Statement 3 is correct: Gallium is used in the manufacture of integrated circuits, light-emitting diodes (LEDs), and solar cells.

• There are some Gallium-based compounds which have medical applications, including the treatment of certain types of cancers.

Statement 4 is not correct: Germanium has also been found to have some medicinal uses and is sometimes used as a dietary supplement.

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: Significant properties and usage of important minerals

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Solomon Islands, consider the following statements: It is geographically located at the confluence of three ocean currents. It is positioned in the Southern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. It shares its maritime borders with Papua New Guinea. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Galapagos Islands (not the Solomon) are situated in the Pacific Ocean near Ecuadorian coast. Its geographical location at the confluence of three ocean currents makes it one of the richest marine ecosystems in the world. Solomon Islands are an archipelagic state comprising of a double chain of 992 volcanic islands and coral atolls in Melanesia, located in southwest Pacific Ocean. Statement 2 is correct: It is geographically positioned in the Southern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 3 is correct: Solomon Islands is situated to the southeast of Papua New Guinea and to the northwest of Vanuatu. Source: Geography Trend: Places in News and their significance Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Galapagos Islands (not the Solomon) are situated in the Pacific Ocean near Ecuadorian coast. Its geographical location at the confluence of three ocean currents makes it one of the richest marine ecosystems in the world. Solomon Islands are an archipelagic state comprising of a double chain of 992 volcanic islands and coral atolls in Melanesia, located in southwest Pacific Ocean. Statement 2 is correct: It is geographically positioned in the Southern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 3 is correct:* Solomon Islands is situated to the southeast of Papua New Guinea and to the northwest of Vanuatu. Source: Geography Trend: Places in News and their significance Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Solomon Islands, consider the following statements:

• It is geographically located at the confluence of three ocean currents.

• It is positioned in the Southern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth.

• It shares its maritime borders with Papua New Guinea.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Galapagos Islands (not the Solomon) are situated in the Pacific Ocean near Ecuadorian coast.

• Its geographical location at the confluence of three ocean currents makes it one of the richest marine ecosystems in the world.

Solomon Islands are an archipelagic state comprising of a double chain of 992 volcanic islands and coral atolls in Melanesia, located in southwest Pacific Ocean.

Statement 2 is correct: It is geographically positioned in the Southern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth.

Statement 3 is correct: Solomon Islands is situated to the southeast of Papua New Guinea and to the northwest of Vanuatu.

Trend: Places in News and their significance

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Galapagos Islands (not the Solomon) are situated in the Pacific Ocean near Ecuadorian coast.

• Its geographical location at the confluence of three ocean currents makes it one of the richest marine ecosystems in the world.

Solomon Islands are an archipelagic state comprising of a double chain of 992 volcanic islands and coral atolls in Melanesia, located in southwest Pacific Ocean.

Statement 2 is correct: It is geographically positioned in the Southern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth.

Statement 3 is correct: Solomon Islands is situated to the southeast of Papua New Guinea and to the northwest of Vanuatu.

Trend: Places in News and their significance

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Vitthala Temple with an associated building of Kalyana Mandapa forms a part of the group of monuments at Hampi. A unique feature of the temples at Hampi is the wide Chariot streets flanked by rows of Pillared Mandapas. Hampi was the capital of Vijayanagara Kingdom known for its adoption of elements of Indo-Islamic Architecture. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: The grandiose site of Hampi was the last capital of the last great Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagar. Its fabulously rich princes built Dravidian temples and palaces which won the admiration of travellers between the 14th and 16th centuries. Statement 1 is correct: The Vitthala temple of the Group of Monuments at Hampi is the most exquisitely ornate structure on the site and represents the culmination of Vijayanagara temple architecture. It is a fully developed temple with associated buildings like Kalyana Mandapa and Utsava Mandapa within a cloistered enclosure pierced with three entrance Gopurams. In addition to the typical spaces present in contemporary temples, it boasts of a Garuda shrine fashioned as a granite ratha and a grand bazaar street Statement 2 is correct: Another unique feature of temples at Hampi is the wide Chariot streets flanked by the rows of Pillared Mandapas, introduced when chariot festivals became an integral part of the rituals. Statement 3 is correct: The site of Hampi comprises mainly the remnants of the Capital City of Vijayanagara Empire (14th-16th Cent CE), the last great Hindu Kingdom. Vijayanagara architecture is also known for its adoption of elements of Indo Islamic Architecture in secular buildings like the Queen’s Bath and the Elephant Stables, representing a highly evolved multi-religious and multi-ethnic society. Source: Art and Culture Trend: temple architecture and significant features of Vijaynagara empire has been a recurrent theme in UPSC prelims Approach: Hampi has been accorded with “UNESCO World Heritage site”, its architectural and geographical significance are important. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: The grandiose site of Hampi was the last capital of the last great Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagar. Its fabulously rich princes built Dravidian temples and palaces which won the admiration of travellers between the 14th and 16th centuries. Statement 1 is correct: The Vitthala temple of the Group of Monuments at Hampi is the most exquisitely ornate structure on the site and represents the culmination of Vijayanagara temple architecture. It is a fully developed temple with associated buildings like Kalyana Mandapa and Utsava Mandapa within a cloistered enclosure pierced with three entrance Gopurams. In addition to the typical spaces present in contemporary temples, it boasts of a Garuda shrine fashioned as a granite ratha and a grand bazaar street Statement 2 is correct: Another unique feature of temples at Hampi is the wide Chariot streets flanked by the rows of Pillared Mandapas, introduced when chariot festivals became an integral part of the rituals. Statement 3 is correct: The site of Hampi comprises mainly the remnants of the Capital City of Vijayanagara Empire (14th-16th Cent CE), the last great Hindu Kingdom. Vijayanagara architecture is also known for its adoption of elements of Indo Islamic Architecture in secular buildings like the Queen’s Bath and the Elephant Stables, representing a highly evolved multi-religious and multi-ethnic society. Source: Art and Culture Trend: temple architecture and significant features of Vijaynagara empire has been a recurrent theme in UPSC prelims Approach: Hampi has been accorded with “UNESCO World Heritage site”, its architectural and geographical significance are important.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Vitthala Temple with an associated building of Kalyana Mandapa forms a part of the group of monuments at Hampi.

• A unique feature of the temples at Hampi is the wide Chariot streets flanked by rows of Pillared Mandapas.

• Hampi was the capital of Vijayanagara Kingdom known for its adoption of elements of Indo-Islamic Architecture.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

The grandiose site of Hampi was the last capital of the last great Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagar.

Its fabulously rich princes built Dravidian temples and palaces which won the admiration of travellers between the 14th and 16th centuries.

Statement 1 is correct: The Vitthala temple of the Group of Monuments at Hampi is the most exquisitely ornate structure on the site and represents the culmination of Vijayanagara temple architecture.

• It is a fully developed temple with associated buildings like Kalyana Mandapa and Utsava Mandapa within a cloistered enclosure pierced with three entrance Gopurams.

• In addition to the typical spaces present in contemporary temples, it boasts of a Garuda shrine fashioned as a granite ratha and a grand bazaar street

Statement 2 is correct: Another unique feature of temples at Hampi is the wide Chariot streets flanked by the rows of Pillared Mandapas, introduced when chariot festivals became an integral part of the rituals.

Statement 3 is correct: The site of Hampi comprises mainly the remnants of the Capital City of Vijayanagara Empire (14th-16th Cent CE), the last great Hindu Kingdom.

Vijayanagara architecture is also known for its adoption of elements of Indo Islamic Architecture in secular buildings like the Queen’s Bath and the Elephant Stables, representing a highly evolved multi-religious and multi-ethnic society.

Trend: temple architecture and significant features of Vijaynagara empire has been a recurrent theme in UPSC prelims

Approach: Hampi has been accorded with “UNESCO World Heritage site”, its architectural and geographical significance are important.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The grandiose site of Hampi was the last capital of the last great Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagar.

Its fabulously rich princes built Dravidian temples and palaces which won the admiration of travellers between the 14th and 16th centuries.

• It is a fully developed temple with associated buildings like Kalyana Mandapa and Utsava Mandapa within a cloistered enclosure pierced with three entrance Gopurams.

• In addition to the typical spaces present in contemporary temples, it boasts of a Garuda shrine fashioned as a granite ratha and a grand bazaar street

Statement 3 is correct: The site of Hampi comprises mainly the remnants of the Capital City of Vijayanagara Empire (14th-16th Cent CE), the last great Hindu Kingdom.

Trend: temple architecture and significant features of Vijaynagara empire has been a recurrent theme in UPSC prelims

Approach: Hampi has been accorded with “UNESCO World Heritage site”, its architectural and geographical significance are important.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Despite having substantial reserves, India imports a large quantity of natural gas for its energy needs. Statement-II: Liquefied natural gas (LNG) requires storage at a temperature below -160°C to maintain its liquid form. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: B India does have substantial natural gas reserves but relies heavily on imports to meet its growing energy needs. The EIA report projects that India’s natural gas consumption will more than triple by 2050 due to increased demand from the industrial and oil refining sectors LNG needs to be stored at very low temperatures to maintain its liquid state, typically at or below -160°C. This is a well-known characteristic of LNG that enables its transportation and storage before regasification for use. Statement-II is a fact about LNG in general and is not a direct explanation for why India imports a large quantity of natural gas. The high demand for energy in India and the inability of domestic production to meet this demand is the reason for imports, rather than the storage requirements of LNG Source: *https://www.eia.gov/todayinenergy/detail.php?id=61423 Trend: Trends in energy consumption- production and import Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B India does have substantial natural gas reserves but relies heavily on imports to meet its growing energy needs. The EIA report projects that India’s natural gas consumption will more than triple by 2050 due to increased demand from the industrial and oil refining sectors LNG needs to be stored at very low temperatures to maintain its liquid state, typically at or below -160°C. This is a well-known characteristic of LNG that enables its transportation and storage before regasification for use. Statement-II is a fact about LNG in general and is not a direct explanation for why India imports a large quantity of natural gas. The high demand for energy in India and the inability of domestic production to meet this demand is the reason for imports, rather than the storage requirements of LNG Source: *https://www.eia.gov/todayinenergy/detail.php?id=61423** Trend: Trends in energy consumption- production and import Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Despite having substantial reserves, India imports a large quantity of natural gas for its energy needs.

Statement-II: Liquefied natural gas (LNG) requires storage at a temperature below -160°C to maintain its liquid form.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: B

India does have substantial natural gas reserves but relies heavily on imports to meet its growing energy needs. The EIA report projects that India’s natural gas consumption will more than triple by 2050 due to increased demand from the industrial and oil refining sectors

LNG needs to be stored at very low temperatures to maintain its liquid state, typically at or below -160°C. This is a well-known characteristic of LNG that enables its transportation and storage before regasification for use.

Statement-II is a fact about LNG in general and is not a direct explanation for why India imports a large quantity of natural gas. The high demand for energy in India and the inability of domestic production to meet this demand is the reason for imports, rather than the storage requirements of LNG

*https://www.eia.gov/todayinenergy/detail.php?id=61423*

Trend: Trends in energy consumption- production and import

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

*https://www.eia.gov/todayinenergy/detail.php?id=61423*

Trend: Trends in energy consumption- production and import

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points About half of the world’s lithium, a crucial element used in rechargeable batteries for electronics and electric vehicles, is extracted from: (a) Chile (b) Australia (c) China (d) Mexico Correct Solution: B Australia, the world’s leading producer, extracts lithium directly from hard rock mines, specifically the mineral spodumene. Chile, along with Argentina, China, and other top producers, extracts lithium from brine. Chile is the second-largest producer with a 30.0% share. These two countries combined accounted for almost 77% of the global lithium production in 2022. In contrast, countries like China, Argentina, and Brazil are also notable producers Source: https://www.weforum.org/agenda/2023/01/chart-countries-produce-lithium-world/ Trend: Important minerals significant to energy transition Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Australia, the world’s leading producer, extracts lithium directly from hard rock mines, specifically the mineral spodumene. Chile, along with Argentina, China, and other top producers, extracts lithium from brine. Chile is the second-largest producer with a 30.0% share. These two countries combined accounted for almost 77% of the global lithium production in 2022. In contrast, countries like China, Argentina, and Brazil are also notable producers Source: https://www.weforum.org/agenda/2023/01/chart-countries-produce-lithium-world/ Trend: Important minerals significant to energy transition Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 7. Question

About half of the world’s lithium, a crucial element used in rechargeable batteries for electronics and electric vehicles, is extracted from:

• (b) Australia

• (d) Mexico

Solution: B

Australia, the world’s leading producer, extracts lithium directly from hard rock mines, specifically the mineral spodumene. Chile, along with Argentina, China, and other top producers, extracts lithium from brine.

Chile is the second-largest producer with a 30.0% share. These two countries combined accounted for almost 77% of the global lithium production in 2022. In contrast, countries like China, Argentina, and Brazil are also notable producers

Trend: Important minerals significant to energy transition

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

Trend: Important minerals significant to energy transition

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Port Well known as Mundra Port Located on the shores of the Gulf of Kutch Cochin Port The First container trans-shipment facility in India New Mangalore Port Only major port of Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Mundra Port is India’s first private port, largest container port and largest commercial port, located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Cochin Port is the first transhipment terminal in the country and is a part of the Cochin Port in Kochi, Ernakulam district, Kerala. The Kochi International Container Transhipment Terminal (ICTT), also known as Vallarpadam Terminal, is significant, but its capacity does not make it the largest in India Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. New Mangalore Port is not located in Kerala but in the state of Karnataka. It is an important port in Karnataka and handles a variety of cargo including crude oil, coal, and containerized cargo New Mangalore Port is not located in Kerala but in the state of Karnataka. It is an important port in Karnataka and handles a variety of cargo including crude oil, coal, and containerized cargo. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched Source: Current Affairs Trend: Physical infrastructure Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Mundra Port is India’s first private port, largest container port and largest commercial port, located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Cochin Port is the first transhipment terminal in the country and is a part of the Cochin Port in Kochi, Ernakulam district, Kerala. The Kochi International Container Transhipment Terminal (ICTT), also known as Vallarpadam Terminal, is significant, but its capacity does not make it the largest in India Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. New Mangalore Port is not located in Kerala but in the state of Karnataka. It is an important port in Karnataka and handles a variety of cargo including crude oil, coal, and containerized cargo New Mangalore Port is not located in Kerala but in the state of Karnataka. It is an important port in Karnataka and handles a variety of cargo including crude oil, coal, and containerized cargo. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched Source: Current Affairs Trend: Physical infrastructure Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 8. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Port | Well known as

Mundra Port | Located on the shores of the Gulf of Kutch

Cochin Port | The First container trans-shipment facility in India

New Mangalore Port | Only major port of Kerala

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Mundra Port is India’s first private port, largest container port and largest commercial port, located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat.

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Cochin Port is the first transhipment terminal in the country and is a part of the Cochin Port in Kochi, Ernakulam district, Kerala. The Kochi International Container Transhipment Terminal (ICTT), also known as Vallarpadam Terminal, is significant, but its capacity does not make it the largest in India

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

New Mangalore Port is not located in Kerala but in the state of Karnataka. It is an important port in Karnataka and handles a variety of cargo including crude oil, coal, and containerized cargo

New Mangalore Port is not located in Kerala but in the state of Karnataka. It is an important port in Karnataka and handles a variety of cargo including crude oil, coal, and containerized cargo.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched

Trend: Physical infrastructure

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

Mundra Port is India’s first private port, largest container port and largest commercial port, located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat.

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

New Mangalore Port is not located in Kerala but in the state of Karnataka. It is an important port in Karnataka and handles a variety of cargo including crude oil, coal, and containerized cargo

New Mangalore Port is not located in Kerala but in the state of Karnataka. It is an important port in Karnataka and handles a variety of cargo including crude oil, coal, and containerized cargo.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched

Trend: Physical infrastructure

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Garnet, abundantly available in the beach sands of Southern India, is primarily used for which one of the following? (a) Abrasives (b) Conductors (c) Insulators (d) Catalysts Correct Solution: A Garnets are a group of silicate minerals that have been used since the Bronze Age as gemstones and abrasives. All species of garnets possess similar physical properties and crystal forms, but differ in chemical composition. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important minerals Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: A Garnets are a group of silicate minerals that have been used since the Bronze Age as gemstones and abrasives. All species of garnets possess similar physical properties and crystal forms, but differ in chemical composition. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important minerals Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 9. Question

Garnet, abundantly available in the beach sands of Southern India, is primarily used for which one of the following?

• (a) Abrasives

• (b) Conductors

• (c) Insulators

• (d) Catalysts

Solution: A

Garnets are a group of silicate minerals that have been used since the Bronze Age as gemstones and abrasives. All species of garnets possess similar physical properties and crystal forms, but differ in chemical composition.

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: A

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points In the context of India’s port infrastructure, consider the following statements: The Sagarmala Project aims to enhance the performance of the country’s logistics sector by port-led development. Project UNNATI is an initiative to modernize twelve major ports of India and improve their operational efficiency. The Jal Marg Vikas Project is a program to develop the river channel from Varanasi to Haldia for navigation of large vessels. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All pairs are correctly matched. The Sagarmala Project does aim to enhance the performance of the country’s logistics sector through port-led development. It is an ambitious program that seeks to promote port-led direct and indirect development and to harness India’s 7,500 km long coastline and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes. The vision of Sagarmala is to reduce logistics cost for EXIM (export-import) and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment, and it consists of components like port modernization, new port development, port connectivity enhancement, and others Project UNNATI is indeed an initiative undertaken to modernize twelve major ports across India and improve their operational efficiencies. This project is a part of the broader Sagarmala Program and includes efforts to modernize equipment, mechanize operations, and manage the traffic better to enhance the productivity of these ports. The Jal Marg Vikas Project is designed to develop the stretch of the river from Varanasi to Haldia for navigation of large vessels, which will ultimately contribute to an environmentally friendly, fuel-efficient, and cost-effective mode of transportation, especially for bulk goods, hazardous goods, and over-dimensional cargo Source: https://shipmin.gov.in/division/sagarmala https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=177280 http://iwai.nic.in/sites/default/files/1013443659FAQ%20JMVP%20Final%20PDF.pdf Trend: Schemes/initiatives in the infrastructure sector Approach: Statement 1 and 3 are probable statements as the mentioned initiatives can be directly linked to port development and allied matters. Incorrect Solution: C All pairs are correctly matched. The Sagarmala Project does aim to enhance the performance of the country’s logistics sector through port-led development. It is an ambitious program that seeks to promote port-led direct and indirect development and to harness India’s 7,500 km long coastline and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes. The vision of Sagarmala is to reduce logistics cost for EXIM (export-import) and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment, and it consists of components like port modernization, new port development, port connectivity enhancement, and others Project UNNATI is indeed an initiative undertaken to modernize twelve major ports across India and improve their operational efficiencies. This project is a part of the broader Sagarmala Program and includes efforts to modernize equipment, mechanize operations, and manage the traffic better to enhance the productivity of these ports. The Jal Marg Vikas Project is designed to develop the stretch of the river from Varanasi to Haldia for navigation of large vessels, which will ultimately contribute to an environmentally friendly, fuel-efficient, and cost-effective mode of transportation, especially for bulk goods, hazardous goods, and over-dimensional cargo Source: https://shipmin.gov.in/division/sagarmala https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=177280 http://iwai.nic.in/sites/default/files/1013443659FAQ%20JMVP%20Final%20PDF.pdf Trend: Schemes/initiatives in the infrastructure sector Approach: Statement 1 and 3 are probable statements as the mentioned initiatives can be directly linked to port development and allied matters.

#### 10. Question

In the context of India’s port infrastructure, consider the following statements:

• The Sagarmala Project aims to enhance the performance of the country’s logistics sector by port-led development.

• Project UNNATI is an initiative to modernize twelve major ports of India and improve their operational efficiency.

• The Jal Marg Vikas Project is a program to develop the river channel from Varanasi to Haldia for navigation of large vessels.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All pairs are correctly matched.

The Sagarmala Project does aim to enhance the performance of the country’s logistics sector through port-led development. It is an ambitious program that seeks to promote port-led direct and indirect development and to harness India’s 7,500 km long coastline and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes. The vision of Sagarmala is to reduce logistics cost for EXIM (export-import) and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment, and it consists of components like port modernization, new port development, port connectivity enhancement, and others

Project UNNATI is indeed an initiative undertaken to modernize twelve major ports across India and improve their operational efficiencies. This project is a part of the broader Sagarmala Program and includes efforts to modernize equipment, mechanize operations, and manage the traffic better to enhance the productivity of these ports.

The Jal Marg Vikas Project is designed to develop the stretch of the river from Varanasi to Haldia for navigation of large vessels, which will ultimately contribute to an environmentally friendly, fuel-efficient, and cost-effective mode of transportation, especially for bulk goods, hazardous goods, and over-dimensional cargo

https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=177280

http://iwai.nic.in/sites/default/files/1013443659FAQ%20JMVP%20Final%20PDF.pdf

Trend: Schemes/initiatives in the infrastructure sector

Approach: Statement 1 and 3 are probable statements as the mentioned initiatives can be directly linked to port development and allied matters.

Solution: C

All pairs are correctly matched.

https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=177280

http://iwai.nic.in/sites/default/files/1013443659FAQ%20JMVP%20Final%20PDF.pdf

Trend: Schemes/initiatives in the infrastructure sector

Approach: Statement 1 and 3 are probable statements as the mentioned initiatives can be directly linked to port development and allied matters.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points The official definition of an ‘urban’ area is based on: Population of the area Number of people living per square kilometer Type of economic activity Level of economic development and per capita income How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: As per India’s three-tiered census definition of ‘urban’ area , a habitation is declared urban (excluding a municipality, corporation, cantonment board and a notified town area committee) if , It has a minimum population of 5,000; The population density is at least 400 people per sq km At least 75 per cent of the male working population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; and. Such habitations are also called the Census Towns. Between Census 2001 and Census 2011, the number of Census Towns increased from 1,362 to 3,894. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: As per India’s three-tiered census definition of ‘urban’ area , a habitation is declared urban (excluding a municipality, corporation, cantonment board and a notified town area committee) if , It has a minimum population of 5,000; The population density is at least 400 people per sq km At least 75 per cent of the male working population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; and. Such habitations are also called the Census Towns. Between Census 2001 and Census 2011, the number of Census Towns increased from 1,362 to 3,894. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 11. Question

The official definition of an ‘urban’ area is based on:

• Population of the area

• Number of people living per square kilometer

• Type of economic activity

• Level of economic development and per capita income

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• As per India’s three-tiered census definition of ‘urban’ area , a habitation is declared urban (excluding a municipality, corporation, cantonment board and a notified town area committee) if ,

• It has a minimum population of 5,000;

• The population density is at least 400 people per sq km

• At least 75 per cent of the male working population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; and. Such habitations are also called the Census Towns.

• Between Census 2001 and Census 2011, the number of Census Towns increased from 1,362 to 3,894.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• It has a minimum population of 5,000;

• The population density is at least 400 people per sq km

• At least 75 per cent of the male working population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; and. Such habitations are also called the Census Towns.

• Between Census 2001 and Census 2011, the number of Census Towns increased from 1,362 to 3,894.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points The Karewa formations are well suited for the production of which of the following? a) Coffee b) Grapes c) Avocadoes d) Saffron Correct Answer: d Explanation: Karewa deposits typically consist of layers of clay, silt, sand, and gravel, often containing rich organic material. They are characterized by their flat-topped plateaus and terraces, which are prominent features of the landscape in the Kashmir Valley. These formations consist of unconsolidated sediments deposited by ancient glaciers during the Pleistocene epoch, which lasted from about 2.6 million to 11,700 years ago. The karewas are mainly devoted the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron, almond, walnut, apple and orchards. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: GIAHS- agroecosystems Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Karewa deposits typically consist of layers of clay, silt, sand, and gravel, often containing rich organic material. They are characterized by their flat-topped plateaus and terraces, which are prominent features of the landscape in the Kashmir Valley. These formations consist of unconsolidated sediments deposited by ancient glaciers during the Pleistocene epoch, which lasted from about 2.6 million to 11,700 years ago. The karewas are mainly devoted the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron, almond, walnut, apple and orchards. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: GIAHS- agroecosystems Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 12. Question

The Karewa formations are well suited for the production of which of the following?

• c) Avocadoes

• d) Saffron

Explanation:

• Karewa deposits typically consist of layers of clay, silt, sand, and gravel, often containing rich organic material. They are characterized by their flat-topped plateaus and terraces, which are prominent features of the landscape in the Kashmir Valley.

• These formations consist of unconsolidated sediments deposited by ancient glaciers during the Pleistocene epoch, which lasted from about 2.6 million to 11,700 years ago.

• The karewas are mainly devoted the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron, almond, walnut, apple and orchards.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: GIAHS- agroecosystems

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• These formations consist of unconsolidated sediments deposited by ancient glaciers during the Pleistocene epoch, which lasted from about 2.6 million to 11,700 years ago.

• The karewas are mainly devoted the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron, almond, walnut, apple and orchards.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: GIAHS- agroecosystems

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India’s population is larger than the total population of North America, South America and Australia put together. Statement-II: Collecting census data in a statutory exercise in India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: b Explanation: India has overtaken China in terms of total population, according to the World Population Review (WPR). The WPR database suggests that Indian population on March, 2023 stood at 1.428 billion against China’s 1.425 billion. The United States comes third with 339 million people. The combined populations of North America, South America, and Australia are significantly less than India’s population. North America has around 579 million people, South America around 429 million people, and Australia around 25 million people, totalling approximately 03 billion people. So, indeed, India’s population is larger than the total population of these continents combined. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The first modern census was conducted between 1865 and 1872 in different parts of the country in a non-synchronous way he efforts culminated in 1872 and hence the year is dubbed as the year of the first population census in India. Synchronous census started since 1881. The census is a statutory exercise conducted under the provisions of the Census Act 1945. Hence, statement 2 is correct but it does not explain statement 1. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography Approach: Statement 2 has no correlation w.r.t the comparison of total population of India. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: India has overtaken China in terms of total population, according to the World Population Review (WPR). The WPR database suggests that Indian population on March, 2023 stood at 1.428 billion against China’s 1.425 billion. The United States comes third with 339 million people. The combined populations of North America, South America, and Australia are significantly less than India’s population. North America has around 579 million people, South America around 429 million people, and Australia around 25 million people, totalling approximately 03 billion people. So, indeed, India’s population is larger than the total population of these continents combined. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The first modern census was conducted between 1865 and 1872 in different parts of the country in a non-synchronous way he efforts culminated in 1872 and hence the year is dubbed as the year of the first population census in India. Synchronous census started since 1881. The census is a statutory exercise conducted under the provisions of the Census Act 1945. Hence, statement 2 is correct but it does not explain statement 1. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography Approach: Statement 2 has no correlation w.r.t the comparison of total population of India.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

India’s population is larger than the total population of North America, South America and Australia put together.

Statement-II:

Collecting census data in a statutory exercise in India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• India has overtaken China in terms of total population, according to the World Population Review (WPR). The WPR database suggests that Indian population on March, 2023 stood at 1.428 billion against China’s 1.425 billion. The United States comes third with 339 million people.

• The combined populations of North America, South America, and Australia are significantly less than India’s population. North America has around 579 million people, South America around 429 million people, and Australia around 25 million people, totalling approximately 03 billion people. So, indeed, India’s population is larger than the total population of these continents combined. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The first modern census was conducted between 1865 and 1872 in different parts of the country in a non-synchronous way he efforts culminated in 1872 and hence the year is dubbed as the year of the first population census in India. Synchronous census started since 1881.

• The census is a statutory exercise conducted under the provisions of the Census Act 1945. Hence, statement 2 is correct but it does not explain statement 1.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography

Approach: Statement 2 has no correlation w.r.t the comparison of total population of India.

Explanation:

• The census is a statutory exercise conducted under the provisions of the Census Act 1945. Hence, statement 2 is correct but it does not explain statement 1.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography

Approach: Statement 2 has no correlation w.r.t the comparison of total population of India.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points With reference to population growth in India, which of the following is called as the year of ‘great divide’? a) 1901 b) 1921 c) 1951 d) 2001 Correct Answer: b Explanation: There are 4 stages of population growth: Stage-I (1901-1921): Period of stagnant growth Population growth was very low During this period, India even witnessed negative population growth High birth rate and high death rate Poor health facilities, famines, food scarcity, lack of basic amenities were the reasons of high death rate Stage-II (1921-1951): Steady population growth The year 1921 is called the year of ‘Great divide’. Because after 1921, the population of India kept on increasing. Hence, option (b) is correct. Death rate reduced due to better health and medical services but birth rate remained the same. Hence, population growth during this period is called the mortality induced growth Stage-III (1951-81): Period of Rapid High Growth After 1951, there was a steep fall in the mortality rate, but the fertility remained stubbornly high Therefore, this period experienced very high rate of population growth and is often referred to as the Period of Population explosion The unprecedented growth rate was due to the accelerated developmental activities and further improvement in health facilities The living conditions of people improved enormously, and death rates declined Thus, this was fertility induced growth during this period Stage-IV (1981-2011): Period of High Growth Rate with definite signs of slowing down Although the rate of growth was still very high, it started declining after 1981 This declining trend marks the beginning of the new era in the country’s demographic history The declining trend of birth rates during this period, were due to the official efforts of the state in birth control and people’s own inclination for smaller families Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: There are 4 stages of population growth: Stage-I (1901-1921): Period of stagnant growth Population growth was very low During this period, India even witnessed negative population growth High birth rate and high death rate Poor health facilities, famines, food scarcity, lack of basic amenities were the reasons of high death rate Stage-II (1921-1951): Steady population growth The year 1921 is called the year of ‘Great divide’. Because after 1921, the population of India kept on increasing. Hence, option (b) is correct. Death rate reduced due to better health and medical services but birth rate remained the same. Hence, population growth during this period is called the mortality induced growth Stage-III (1951-81): Period of Rapid High Growth After 1951, there was a steep fall in the mortality rate, but the fertility remained stubbornly high Therefore, this period experienced very high rate of population growth and is often referred to as the Period of Population explosion The unprecedented growth rate was due to the accelerated developmental activities and further improvement in health facilities The living conditions of people improved enormously, and death rates declined Thus, this was fertility induced growth during this period Stage-IV (1981-2011): Period of High Growth Rate with definite signs of slowing down Although the rate of growth was still very high, it started declining after 1981 This declining trend marks the beginning of the new era in the country’s demographic history The declining trend of birth rates during this period, were due to the official efforts of the state in birth control and people’s own inclination for smaller families Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 14. Question

With reference to population growth in India, which of the following is called as the year of ‘great divide’?

Explanation:

• There are 4 stages of population growth:

Stage-I (1901-1921):

• Period of stagnant growth

• Population growth was very low

• During this period, India even witnessed negative population growth

• High birth rate and high death rate

• Poor health facilities, famines, food scarcity, lack of basic amenities were the reasons of high death rate

Stage-II (1921-1951):

• Steady population growth

• The year 1921 is called the year of ‘Great divide’. Because after 1921, the population of India kept on increasing. Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Death rate reduced due to better health and medical services but birth rate remained the same.

• Hence, population growth during this period is called the mortality induced growth

Stage-III (1951-81):

• Period of Rapid High Growth

• After 1951, there was a steep fall in the mortality rate, but the fertility remained stubbornly high

• Therefore, this period experienced very high rate of population growth and is often referred to as the Period of Population explosion

• The unprecedented growth rate was due to the accelerated developmental activities and further improvement in health facilities

• The living conditions of people improved enormously, and death rates declined

• Thus, this was fertility induced growth during this period

Stage-IV (1981-2011):

• Period of High Growth Rate with definite signs of slowing down

• Although the rate of growth was still very high, it started declining after 1981

• This declining trend marks the beginning of the new era in the country’s demographic history

• The declining trend of birth rates during this period, were due to the official efforts of the state in birth control and people’s own inclination for smaller families

Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• There are 4 stages of population growth:

Stage-I (1901-1921):

• Period of stagnant growth

• Population growth was very low

• During this period, India even witnessed negative population growth

• High birth rate and high death rate

• Poor health facilities, famines, food scarcity, lack of basic amenities were the reasons of high death rate

Stage-II (1921-1951):

• Steady population growth

• The year 1921 is called the year of ‘Great divide’. Because after 1921, the population of India kept on increasing. Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Death rate reduced due to better health and medical services but birth rate remained the same.

• Hence, population growth during this period is called the mortality induced growth

Stage-III (1951-81):

• Period of Rapid High Growth

• After 1951, there was a steep fall in the mortality rate, but the fertility remained stubbornly high

• Therefore, this period experienced very high rate of population growth and is often referred to as the Period of Population explosion

• The unprecedented growth rate was due to the accelerated developmental activities and further improvement in health facilities

• The living conditions of people improved enormously, and death rates declined

• Thus, this was fertility induced growth during this period

Stage-IV (1981-2011):

• Period of High Growth Rate with definite signs of slowing down

• Although the rate of growth was still very high, it started declining after 1981

• This declining trend marks the beginning of the new era in the country’s demographic history

• The declining trend of birth rates during this period, were due to the official efforts of the state in birth control and people’s own inclination for smaller families

Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Dispersed rural settlements are most commonly found in: a) Alluvial plains of Ganga b) Arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan c) Lower valleys of Himalayas d) Forests and hills in north-east Correct Answer: d Explanation: Rural settlements in India can broadly be put into four types: Clustered: The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains. Semi-clustered or fragmented: Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in restricted area. Such settlements are widespread in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan. Hamleted: Sometimes settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name. These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in various parts of the country. Such villages are more frequently found in the middle and lower Ganga plain, Chhattisgarh and lower valleys of the Himalayas. Dispersed or isolated: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills. Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Kerala have this type of settlement. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Human Geography Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Rural settlements in India can broadly be put into four types: Clustered: The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains. Semi-clustered or fragmented: Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in restricted area. Such settlements are widespread in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan. Hamleted: Sometimes settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name. These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in various parts of the country. Such villages are more frequently found in the middle and lower Ganga plain, Chhattisgarh and lower valleys of the Himalayas. Dispersed or isolated: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills. Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Kerala have this type of settlement. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Human Geography Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 15. Question

Dispersed rural settlements are most commonly found in:

• a) Alluvial plains of Ganga

• b) Arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan

• c) Lower valleys of Himalayas

• d) Forests and hills in north-east

Explanation:

• Rural settlements in India can broadly be put into four types:

• Clustered: The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains.

• Semi-clustered or fragmented: Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may

result from tendency of clustering in restricted area. Such settlements are widespread in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan.

• Hamleted: Sometimes settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name. These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in various parts of the country. Such villages are more frequently found in the middle and lower Ganga plain, Chhattisgarh and lower valleys of the Himalayas.

• Dispersed or isolated: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills.

Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Kerala have this type of settlement. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Human Geography

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Rural settlements in India can broadly be put into four types:

• Clustered: The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains.

• Semi-clustered or fragmented: Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may

result from tendency of clustering in restricted area. Such settlements are widespread in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan.

• Dispersed or isolated: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills.

Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Kerala have this type of settlement. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Human Geography

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Apatani, Galo, and Mishmi are tribes prominently found in the state of: a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Assam c) Manipur d) Mizoram Correct Answer: a Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh is known for its rich cultural diversity and is home to numerous indigenous tribes, each with its own distinct customs, traditions, languages, and lifestyles. Here are some of the prominent tribes of Arunachal Pradesh: The Apatani are a tribal group of people living in the Ziro valley in Arunachal Pradesh. They speak a local language called Tani and worship the sun and the moon. They have major festivals like Dree, Myoko, Yapung and Murung. They have been practising integrated rice-fish farming in their mountain terraces of Arunachal Pradesh. The Galos are one of the major communities which dominate Siang, Lepa Rada, and Upper Subansiri and Namsai districts of Arunachal Pradesh. Mopin is the main festival in Galos which is celebrated for the prosperity of the villages. The Galos perform Popir dance. The Idu Mishmi is a sub-tribe of the larger Mishmi group (the other two Mishmi groups are Digaru and Miju) in Arunachal Pradesh and neighbouring Tibet. They primarily live in Mishmi Hills, bordering Tibet in Arunachal Pradesh. They are known for their weaving and craftsmanship skills. They can be distinctively identified by their typical hairstyle, distinctive customs and artistic pattern embedded on their clothes. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Tribes and PVTGs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh is known for its rich cultural diversity and is home to numerous indigenous tribes, each with its own distinct customs, traditions, languages, and lifestyles. Here are some of the prominent tribes of Arunachal Pradesh: The Apatani are a tribal group of people living in the Ziro valley in Arunachal Pradesh. They speak a local language called Tani and worship the sun and the moon. They have major festivals like Dree, Myoko, Yapung and Murung. They have been practising integrated rice-fish farming in their mountain terraces of Arunachal Pradesh. The Galos are one of the major communities which dominate Siang, Lepa Rada, and Upper Subansiri and Namsai districts of Arunachal Pradesh. Mopin is the main festival in Galos which is celebrated for the prosperity of the villages. The Galos perform Popir dance. The Idu Mishmi is a sub-tribe of the larger Mishmi group (the other two Mishmi groups are Digaru and Miju) in Arunachal Pradesh and neighbouring Tibet. They primarily live in Mishmi Hills, bordering Tibet in Arunachal Pradesh. They are known for their weaving and craftsmanship skills. They can be distinctively identified by their typical hairstyle, distinctive customs and artistic pattern embedded on their clothes. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Tribes and PVTGs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 16. Question

Apatani, Galo, and Mishmi are tribes prominently found in the state of:

• a) Arunachal Pradesh

• c) Manipur

• d) Mizoram

Explanation:

• Arunachal Pradesh is known for its rich cultural diversity and is home to numerous indigenous tribes, each with its own distinct customs, traditions, languages, and lifestyles. Here are some of the prominent tribes of Arunachal Pradesh:

• The Apatani are a tribal group of people living in the Ziro valley in Arunachal Pradesh. They speak a local language called Tani and worship the sun and the moon. They have major festivals like Dree, Myoko, Yapung and Murung. They have been practising integrated rice-fish farming in their mountain terraces of Arunachal Pradesh.

• The Galos are one of the major communities which dominate Siang, Lepa Rada, and Upper Subansiri and Namsai districts of Arunachal Pradesh. Mopin is the main festival in Galos which is celebrated for the prosperity of the villages. The Galos perform Popir dance.

• The Idu Mishmi is a sub-tribe of the larger Mishmi group (the other two Mishmi groups are Digaru and Miju) in Arunachal Pradesh and neighbouring Tibet. They primarily live in Mishmi Hills, bordering Tibet in Arunachal Pradesh. They are known for their weaving and craftsmanship skills. They can be distinctively identified by their typical hairstyle, distinctive customs and artistic pattern embedded on their clothes.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Tribes and PVTGs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Tribes and PVTGs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following: Government policies Industry inertia Power supply Banking facilities How many of the above are non-geographical factors that determines the location and presence of industries in a region? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Industrial locations are complex in nature. These are influenced by many factors. We can classify the location factors into two: geographical factors and non-geographical factors. Apart from geographical factors such as land, raw material resource, energy supply, climate etc., a range of non-geographical factors also determines the location and presence of industries in a region. Non-Geographical Factors that Influence Presence of Industries: The non-geographical factors that influence the location and presence of industries include various financial, regulatory, and human resource factors that determine the cost of production and distribution, eventually affecting the business’s efficiency and profitability. Some of the critical factors are discussed as follows: Capital: Capital or investment is a major deciding factor for the industry. Source of capital and inflow of funds are required for any business, which is generally easy to avail in large cities. Hence, industrialists tend to locate their business around these cities. Government Policies: Government policies also influence industrial location and operations. The government sometimes sets restrictions or regulations regarding establishing specific industries in particular areas to reduce regional disparities, control excessive pollution, and avoid clustering industries around big cities. The government also provides incentives like subsidized power, tax benefits, and other infrastructure facilities to encourage the establishment of industries in certain regions. Various small-scale industry establishments have grown up even in backward areas taking advantage of government policies. Banking and Insurance Facilities: The areas with better banking facilities are better suited for establishing industries. In many cases, investors seek a loan to start the industries. Monetary transactions are happening regularly, which is possible through banking facilities. Again, under changing economic scenarios and local conditions, enterprises look for insurance facilities to support their industrial activities under any unfavourable circumstance. Political Situation: Political stability and harmony in a region also favor the establishment of industry in a region. But disturbed political situations discourage industries from starting their operation in a particular area. Political parties’ protests and labor unrest often force industrialists to shift from the planned business establishment area to other locations. Industrial Inertia: Often industries don’t tend to relocate to new areas even with the current region’s changing socio-economic conditions, which create some challenges. It may be observed that costs associated with relocating fixed capital assets and finding labor in the new location outweigh the costs of adapting to the changing conditions of a current location. In such cases, the industry avoids relocating facilities even under the changing circumstances following industrial inertia Possibility of Future Expansion: All industries think of long-term goals and explore possibilities for the future expansion of business. The opportunities available for possible future development and growth with technology upgrades are deciding factors for the location and presence of an industry in a region. Energy supply is a geographical factor. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Locational factors for industries Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Industrial locations are complex in nature. These are influenced by many factors. We can classify the location factors into two: geographical factors and non-geographical factors. Apart from geographical factors such as land, raw material resource, energy supply, climate etc., a range of non-geographical factors also determines the location and presence of industries in a region. Non-Geographical Factors that Influence Presence of Industries: The non-geographical factors that influence the location and presence of industries include various financial, regulatory, and human resource factors that determine the cost of production and distribution, eventually affecting the business’s efficiency and profitability. Some of the critical factors are discussed as follows: Capital: Capital or investment is a major deciding factor for the industry. Source of capital and inflow of funds are required for any business, which is generally easy to avail in large cities. Hence, industrialists tend to locate their business around these cities. Government Policies: Government policies also influence industrial location and operations. The government sometimes sets restrictions or regulations regarding establishing specific industries in particular areas to reduce regional disparities, control excessive pollution, and avoid clustering industries around big cities. The government also provides incentives like subsidized power, tax benefits, and other infrastructure facilities to encourage the establishment of industries in certain regions. Various small-scale industry establishments have grown up even in backward areas taking advantage of government policies. Banking and Insurance Facilities: The areas with better banking facilities are better suited for establishing industries. In many cases, investors seek a loan to start the industries. Monetary transactions are happening regularly, which is possible through banking facilities. Again, under changing economic scenarios and local conditions, enterprises look for insurance facilities to support their industrial activities under any unfavourable circumstance. Political Situation: Political stability and harmony in a region also favor the establishment of industry in a region. But disturbed political situations discourage industries from starting their operation in a particular area. Political parties’ protests and labor unrest often force industrialists to shift from the planned business establishment area to other locations. Industrial Inertia: Often industries don’t tend to relocate to new areas even with the current region’s changing socio-economic conditions, which create some challenges. It may be observed that costs associated with relocating fixed capital assets and finding labor in the new location outweigh the costs of adapting to the changing conditions of a current location. In such cases, the industry avoids relocating facilities even under the changing circumstances following industrial inertia Possibility of Future Expansion: All industries think of long-term goals and explore possibilities for the future expansion of business. The opportunities available for possible future development and growth with technology upgrades are deciding factors for the location and presence of an industry in a region. Energy supply is a geographical factor. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Locational factors for industries Approach: applied knowledge

#### 17. Question

Consider the following:

• Government policies

• Industry inertia

• Power supply

• Banking facilities

How many of the above are non-geographical factors that determines the location and presence of industries in a region?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Industrial locations are complex in nature. These are influenced by many factors. We can classify the location factors into two: geographical factors and non-geographical factors.

• Apart from geographical factors such as land, raw material resource, energy supply, climate etc., a range of non-geographical factors also determines the location and presence of industries in a region.

• Non-Geographical Factors that Influence Presence of Industries: The non-geographical factors that influence the location and presence of industries include various financial, regulatory, and human resource factors that determine the cost of production and distribution, eventually affecting the business’s efficiency and profitability. Some of the critical factors are discussed as follows:

• Capital: Capital or investment is a major deciding factor for the industry. Source of capital and inflow of funds are required for any business, which is generally easy to avail in large cities. Hence, industrialists tend to locate their business around these cities.

• Government Policies: Government policies also influence industrial location and operations. The government sometimes sets restrictions or regulations regarding establishing specific industries in particular areas to reduce regional disparities, control excessive pollution, and avoid clustering industries around big cities. The government also provides incentives like subsidized power, tax benefits, and other infrastructure facilities to encourage the establishment of industries in certain regions. Various small-scale industry establishments have grown up even in backward areas taking advantage of government policies.

• Banking and Insurance Facilities: The areas with better banking facilities are better suited for establishing industries. In many cases, investors seek a loan to start the industries. Monetary transactions are happening regularly, which is possible through banking facilities. Again, under changing economic scenarios and local conditions, enterprises look for insurance facilities to support their industrial activities under any unfavourable circumstance.

• Political Situation: Political stability and harmony in a region also favor the establishment of industry in a region. But disturbed political situations discourage industries from starting their operation in a particular area. Political parties’ protests and labor unrest often force industrialists to shift from the planned business establishment area to other locations.

• Industrial Inertia: Often industries don’t tend to relocate to new areas even with the current region’s changing socio-economic conditions, which create some challenges. It may be observed that costs associated with relocating fixed capital assets and finding labor in the new location outweigh the costs of adapting to the changing conditions of a current location. In such cases, the industry avoids relocating facilities even under the changing circumstances following industrial inertia

• Possibility of Future Expansion: All industries think of long-term goals and explore possibilities for the future expansion of business. The opportunities available for possible future development and growth with technology upgrades are deciding factors for the location and presence of an industry in a region.

• Energy supply is a geographical factor. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Locational factors for industries

Approach: applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Industrial locations are complex in nature. These are influenced by many factors. We can classify the location factors into two: geographical factors and non-geographical factors.

• Energy supply is a geographical factor. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Locational factors for industries

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points A population Pyramid is a graphical representation of: Distribution of population by sex Distribution of population by age Annual growth rate of population Decadal growth rate of population How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: A population pyramid is the graphical representation of the distribution of the population by sex, and age group. It takes the shape of a pyramid when the population is growing. Population pyramids are also known as age pyramids because it is a graphical representation of age. It is divided from the centre between male and female individuals. The males are shown on the left side and the females are on the right side from the centre of the graph. There are mainly three types of the population pyramid or population graphs Expansive Stationary Constrictive Expansive Pyramid: These types of pyramids have a much larger population of pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups and a population of post-reproductive age groups is very less compared to pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups. These types of pyramids are seen in developing countries. Here in these countries, the fertility rate is usually high but life expectancy is very less. So the base of the pyramid is wide and tapers towards the top with a triangular shape. Examples of countries having expansive pyramids are India and Nigeria. Stationary population pyramids have an equal population in each group. That’s why the name stationary means the birth and death rates are equal and the population is neither increasing nor decreasing. There are usually not any major changes in the mortality rate and fertility rates. The shape of this pyramid is bell-shaped. These types of pyramids are generally of the developed countries such as America. Constrictive Population Pyramid: As the name suggests that the population is decreasing here, these types of pyramids show declining birth rates, low fertility rates, high life expectancy, and low mortality rates. These graphs are narrow at the base and show the decreasing size of the population. These graphs are urn-shaped. Here the post-reproductive and elderly population is more than the pre-reproductive and reproductive population. This type of graph is seen in Japan. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: A population pyramid is the graphical representation of the distribution of the population by sex, and age group. It takes the shape of a pyramid when the population is growing. Population pyramids are also known as age pyramids because it is a graphical representation of age. It is divided from the centre between male and female individuals. The males are shown on the left side and the females are on the right side from the centre of the graph. There are mainly three types of the population pyramid or population graphs Expansive Stationary Constrictive Expansive Pyramid: These types of pyramids have a much larger population of pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups and a population of post-reproductive age groups is very less compared to pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups. These types of pyramids are seen in developing countries. Here in these countries, the fertility rate is usually high but life expectancy is very less. So the base of the pyramid is wide and tapers towards the top with a triangular shape. Examples of countries having expansive pyramids are India and Nigeria. Stationary population pyramids have an equal population in each group. That’s why the name stationary means the birth and death rates are equal and the population is neither increasing nor decreasing. There are usually not any major changes in the mortality rate and fertility rates. The shape of this pyramid is bell-shaped. These types of pyramids are generally of the developed countries such as America. Constrictive Population Pyramid: As the name suggests that the population is decreasing here, these types of pyramids show declining birth rates, low fertility rates, high life expectancy, and low mortality rates. These graphs are narrow at the base and show the decreasing size of the population. These graphs are urn-shaped. Here the post-reproductive and elderly population is more than the pre-reproductive and reproductive population. This type of graph is seen in Japan. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 18. Question

A population Pyramid is a graphical representation of:

• Distribution of population by sex

• Distribution of population by age

• Annual growth rate of population

• Decadal growth rate of population

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• A population pyramid is the graphical representation of the distribution of the population by sex, and age group. It takes the shape of a pyramid when the population is growing. Population pyramids are also known as age pyramids because it is a graphical representation of age.

• It is divided from the centre between male and female individuals. The males are shown on the left side and the females are on the right side from the centre of the graph.

• There are mainly three types of the population pyramid or population graphs

• Stationary

• Constrictive

• Expansive Pyramid: These types of pyramids have a much larger population of pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups and a population of post-reproductive age groups is very less compared to pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups.

• These types of pyramids are seen in developing countries. Here in these countries, the fertility rate is usually high but life expectancy is very less. So the base of the pyramid is wide and tapers towards the top with a triangular shape.

• Examples of countries having expansive pyramids are India and Nigeria.

• Stationary population pyramids have an equal population in each group. That’s why the name stationary means the birth and death rates are equal and the population is neither increasing nor decreasing. There are usually not any major changes in the mortality rate and fertility rates.

• The shape of this pyramid is bell-shaped.

• These types of pyramids are generally of the developed countries such as America.

• Constrictive Population Pyramid: As the name suggests that the population is decreasing here, these types of pyramids show declining birth rates, low fertility rates, high life expectancy, and low mortality rates.

• These graphs are narrow at the base and show the decreasing size of the population. These graphs are urn-shaped. Here the post-reproductive and elderly population is more than the pre-reproductive and reproductive population. This type of graph is seen in Japan.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• It is divided from the centre between male and female individuals. The males are shown on the left side and the females are on the right side from the centre of the graph.

• There are mainly three types of the population pyramid or population graphs

• Stationary

• Constrictive

• Examples of countries having expansive pyramids are India and Nigeria.

• The shape of this pyramid is bell-shaped.

• These types of pyramids are generally of the developed countries such as America.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on human geography-demography

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Net sown area is the area sown with crops counted only once, regardless of multiple sowings in a year. Gross Cropped Area is the total area sown multiple times in a year, counted for each sowing event. Cropping intensity is the ratio of gross cropped area to the Net Sown Area. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Net Sown Area: This represents the total area sown with crops and orchards. This represents the total area sown once and/or more than once in a particular year, i.e. the area is counted as many times as there are sowings in a year. Net Sown Area is the area sown with crops but is counted only once. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Gross Cropped Area: This represents the total area sown once and/or more than once in a particular year, i.e. the area is counted as many times as there are sowings in a year. This total area is also known as total cropped area or total area sown. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Cropping Intensity: It is the ratio of the Total Cropped Area (or the gross cropped area) to the Net Area Sown. Therefore, more the use of arable land during a year more is the cropping intensity. It can be expressed through a formula. Cropping Intensity = Gross Cropped Area/Net Sown Area x 100. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Agriculture-cropping pattern Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Net Sown Area: This represents the total area sown with crops and orchards. This represents the total area sown once and/or more than once in a particular year, i.e. the area is counted as many times as there are sowings in a year. Net Sown Area is the area sown with crops but is counted only once. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Gross Cropped Area: This represents the total area sown once and/or more than once in a particular year, i.e. the area is counted as many times as there are sowings in a year. This total area is also known as total cropped area or total area sown. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Cropping Intensity: It is the ratio of the Total Cropped Area (or the gross cropped area) to the Net Area Sown. Therefore, more the use of arable land during a year more is the cropping intensity. It can be expressed through a formula. Cropping Intensity = Gross Cropped Area/Net Sown Area x 100. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Agriculture-cropping pattern Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Net sown area is the area sown with crops counted only once, regardless of multiple sowings in a year.

• Gross Cropped Area is the total area sown multiple times in a year, counted for each sowing event.

• Cropping intensity is the ratio of gross cropped area to the Net Sown Area.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Net Sown Area: This represents the total area sown with crops and orchards. This represents the total area sown once and/or more than once in a particular year, i.e. the area is counted as many times as there are sowings in a year. Net Sown Area is the area sown with crops but is counted only once. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Gross Cropped Area: This represents the total area sown once and/or more than once in a particular year, i.e. the area is counted as many times as there are sowings in a year. This total area is also known as total cropped area or total area sown. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Cropping Intensity: It is the ratio of the Total Cropped Area (or the gross cropped area) to the Net Area Sown. Therefore, more the use of arable land during a year more is the cropping intensity. It can be expressed through a formula. Cropping Intensity = Gross Cropped Area/Net Sown Area x 100. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Agriculture-cropping pattern

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Agriculture-cropping pattern

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: It is a crop of dry regions mostly grown under rain fed conditions. Karnataka is the largest producer. The above statements describe which of the following crops? a) Bajra b) Ragi c) Wheat d) Sugarcane Correct Answer: b Explanation: Ragi is very rich in iron, calcium, other micro-nutrients and roughage. Ragi or buckwheat is an important millet which is grown in drier parts of south India and in some parts of north India. It is one of the hardiest crops. It can withstand a very severe drought. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. Karnataka is the largest producer of Ragi followed by Tamil Nadu. Other states important for the production of ragi are Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Agriculture-cropping pattern Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Ragi is very rich in iron, calcium, other micro-nutrients and roughage. Ragi or buckwheat is an important millet which is grown in drier parts of south India and in some parts of north India. It is one of the hardiest crops. It can withstand a very severe drought. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. Karnataka is the largest producer of Ragi followed by Tamil Nadu. Other states important for the production of ragi are Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Agriculture-cropping pattern Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• It is a crop of dry regions mostly grown under rain fed conditions.

• Karnataka is the largest producer.

The above statements describe which of the following crops?

• d) Sugarcane

Explanation:

Ragi is very rich in iron, calcium, other micro-nutrients and roughage. Ragi or buckwheat is an important millet which is grown in drier parts of south India and in some parts of north India. It is one of the hardiest crops. It can withstand a very severe drought. Hence statement 1 is correct.

It is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils.

Karnataka is the largest producer of Ragi followed by Tamil Nadu. Other states important for the production of ragi are Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Trend: Agriculture-cropping pattern

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

It is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils.

Trend: Agriculture-cropping pattern

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Data Scraping, a term recently seen in news, may lead to which of these undesirable consequences? Copyright infringement Breach of privacy Manipulation and misuse of data How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Data scraping refers to the automated process of extracting large amounts of data from websites or digital platforms. It involves using software or scripts to gather information from web pages, or platforms like Twitter and then using the data for creating new content, journalism, or research purpose. Data Scraping may lead to copyright infringement, breach of privacy, manipulation and misuse of data etc. Twitter has implemented temporary reading limits to address issues of data scraping and system manipulation. Verified accounts are now limited to reading 6,000 posts per day, while unverified or new accounts can read 600 and 300 posts per day, respectively. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Terms in news Approach: It is highly probable that a data breach can result into all the mentioned consequences Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Data scraping refers to the automated process of extracting large amounts of data from websites or digital platforms. It involves using software or scripts to gather information from web pages, or platforms like Twitter and then using the data for creating new content, journalism, or research purpose. Data Scraping may lead to copyright infringement, breach of privacy, manipulation and misuse of data etc. Twitter has implemented temporary reading limits to address issues of data scraping and system manipulation. Verified accounts are now limited to reading 6,000 posts per day, while unverified or new accounts can read 600 and 300 posts per day, respectively. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Terms in news Approach: It is highly probable that a data breach can result into all the mentioned consequences

#### 21. Question

Data Scraping, a term recently seen in news, may lead to which of these undesirable consequences?

• Breach of privacy

• Manipulation and misuse of data

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Data scraping refers to the automated process of extracting large amounts of data from websites or digital platforms. It involves using software or scripts to gather information from web pages, or platforms like Twitter and then using the data for creating new content, journalism, or research purpose.

Data Scraping may lead to copyright infringement, breach of privacy, manipulation and misuse of data etc.

Twitter has implemented temporary reading limits to address issues of data scraping and system manipulation. Verified accounts are now limited to reading 6,000 posts per day, while unverified or new accounts can read 600 and 300 posts per day, respectively.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: It is highly probable that a data breach can result into all the mentioned consequences

Solution: c)

Data Scraping may lead to copyright infringement, breach of privacy, manipulation and misuse of data etc.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: It is highly probable that a data breach can result into all the mentioned consequences

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following about the effects of climate change on infochemicals in the animal kingdom. Warming temperatures decay the pheromones used by some ant species, making it difficult for them to follow trails. Rising CO₂ levels in water affect the evasion abilities of water fleas. Coral reef damselfish substantially improve their ability to recognize predators if there is higher carbonization of the ocean water. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Justification: Climate change is impacting chemical communication in the animal world, with significant consequences for ecosystems and human well-being. Chemical signals, known as infochemicals, play a crucial role in interactions between organisms and regulate ecological processes. Climate change is altering the production of these chemicals, such as pheromones, affecting various species and disrupting vital functions and behaviours. Example 1: Warming temperatures decay the pheromones used by some ant species, making it difficult for them to follow trails. Example 2: Rising CO₂ levels in water affect the evasion abilities of water fleas, while coral reef damselfish lose their ability to recognize predators. Example 3: Climate change-associated stressors disrupt chemical interactions across entire ecosystems, with implications for disease-causing pathogens and their hosts. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Climate change and its impact on Biodiversity Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Climate change is impacting chemical communication in the animal world, with significant consequences for ecosystems and human well-being. Chemical signals, known as infochemicals, play a crucial role in interactions between organisms and regulate ecological processes. Climate change is altering the production of these chemicals, such as pheromones, affecting various species and disrupting vital functions and behaviours. Example 1: Warming temperatures decay the pheromones used by some ant species, making it difficult for them to follow trails. Example 2: Rising CO₂ levels in water affect the evasion abilities of water fleas, while coral reef damselfish lose their ability to recognize predators. Example 3: Climate change-associated stressors disrupt chemical interactions across entire ecosystems, with implications for disease-causing pathogens and their hosts. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Climate change and its impact on Biodiversity Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 22. Question

Consider the following about the effects of climate change on infochemicals in the animal kingdom.

• Warming temperatures decay the pheromones used by some ant species, making it difficult for them to follow trails.

• Rising CO₂ levels in water affect the evasion abilities of water fleas.

• Coral reef damselfish substantially improve their ability to recognize predators if there is higher carbonization of the ocean water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

Justification: Climate change is impacting chemical communication in the animal world, with significant consequences for ecosystems and human well-being. Chemical signals, known as infochemicals, play a crucial role in interactions between organisms and regulate ecological processes. Climate change is altering the production of these chemicals, such as pheromones, affecting various species and disrupting vital functions and behaviours.

• Example 1: Warming temperatures decay the pheromones used by some ant species, making it difficult for them to follow trails.

• Example 2: Rising CO₂ levels in water affect the evasion abilities of water fleas, while coral reef damselfish lose their ability to recognize predators.

• Example 3: Climate change-associated stressors disrupt chemical interactions across entire ecosystems, with implications for disease-causing pathogens and their hosts.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Climate change and its impact on Biodiversity

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: a)

• Example 1: Warming temperatures decay the pheromones used by some ant species, making it difficult for them to follow trails.

• Example 2: Rising CO₂ levels in water affect the evasion abilities of water fleas, while coral reef damselfish lose their ability to recognize predators.

• Example 3: Climate change-associated stressors disrupt chemical interactions across entire ecosystems, with implications for disease-causing pathogens and their hosts.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Climate change and its impact on Biodiversity

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Namda Art form. It is a traditional Hyderabadi craft that involves creating felted carpets using sheep wool and hand embroidery. It originated in the 20th century. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: d) Learning: Namda art is a traditional Kashmiri craft that involves creating felted carpets using sheep wool and hand embroidery. It originated in the 16th century and was introduced by a Sufi saint named Shah-e-Hamdan. Namda rugs provide warmth and are used as floor coverings and home décor. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Traditional handicraft and artwork Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: d) Learning: Namda art is a traditional Kashmiri craft that involves creating felted carpets using sheep wool and hand embroidery. It originated in the 16th century and was introduced by a Sufi saint named Shah-e-Hamdan. Namda rugs provide warmth and are used as floor coverings and home décor. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Traditional handicraft and artwork Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements about Namda Art form.

• It is a traditional Hyderabadi craft that involves creating felted carpets using sheep wool and hand embroidery.

• It originated in the 20th century.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Learning: Namda art is a traditional Kashmiri craft that involves creating felted carpets using sheep wool and hand embroidery.

It originated in the 16th century and was introduced by a Sufi saint named Shah-e-Hamdan.

Namda rugs provide warmth and are used as floor coverings and home décor.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Traditional handicraft and artwork

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: d)

Learning: Namda art is a traditional Kashmiri craft that involves creating felted carpets using sheep wool and hand embroidery.

It originated in the 16th century and was introduced by a Sufi saint named Shah-e-Hamdan.

Namda rugs provide warmth and are used as floor coverings and home décor.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Traditional handicraft and artwork

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Koya population is primarily found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha. The Koyas speak a language belonging to the Dravidian language family. Koya tribes are notable for their opposition to all forms of celebration, including any festivals or jatras. How many of the statements above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: The Koya population is primarily found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha. They speak the Koya language, which belongs to the Dravidian language family. One of the most significant festivals celebrated by the Koyas is the Sammakka Saralamma Jatra, which occurs once every two years on the full moon day of the Magha Masam (January or February). This festival takes place in Medaram village, located in the Mulug taluk of Warangal district. Their livelihood depends on animal husbandry and forest produce. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Tribes and PVTGs Approach: Statement 3 is an extreme statement “all forms of celebrations”, also festivals are much practiced among tribal communities. Hence, statement 3 can be eliminated. Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The Koya population is primarily found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha. They speak the Koya language, which belongs to the Dravidian language family. One of the most significant festivals celebrated by the Koyas is the Sammakka Saralamma Jatra, which occurs once every two years on the full moon day of the Magha Masam (January or February). This festival takes place in Medaram village, located in the Mulug taluk of Warangal district. Their livelihood depends on animal husbandry and forest produce. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Tribes and PVTGs Approach: Statement 3 is an extreme statement “all forms of celebrations”, also festivals are much practiced among tribal communities. Hence, statement 3 can be eliminated.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Koya population is primarily found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha.

• The Koyas speak a language belonging to the Dravidian language family.

• Koya tribes are notable for their opposition to all forms of celebration, including any festivals or jatras.

How many of the statements above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: The Koya population is primarily found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha. They speak the Koya language, which belongs to the Dravidian language family.

One of the most significant festivals celebrated by the Koyas is the Sammakka Saralamma Jatra, which occurs once every two years on the full moon day of the Magha Masam (January or February).

This festival takes place in Medaram village, located in the Mulug taluk of Warangal district. Their livelihood depends on animal husbandry and forest produce.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Tribes and PVTGs

Approach: Statement 3 is an extreme statement “all forms of celebrations”, also festivals are much practiced among tribal communities. Hence, statement 3 can be eliminated.

Solution: b)

Justification: The Koya population is primarily found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha. They speak the Koya language, which belongs to the Dravidian language family.

One of the most significant festivals celebrated by the Koyas is the Sammakka Saralamma Jatra, which occurs once every two years on the full moon day of the Magha Masam (January or February).

This festival takes place in Medaram village, located in the Mulug taluk of Warangal district. Their livelihood depends on animal husbandry and forest produce.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Tribes and PVTGs

Approach: Statement 3 is an extreme statement “all forms of celebrations”, also festivals are much practiced among tribal communities. Hence, statement 3 can be eliminated.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following happened under the reign of Lord Lansdowne? Passing of Ilbert Bill, 1883 Passing of the Indian Factory Act, 1891 Passing of Indian Councils Act, 1892 How many of the above form the correct answer? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Modern Indian History Approach: Ilbert Bill was passed during the tenure of Viceroy Ripon. Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Modern Indian History Approach: Ilbert Bill was passed during the tenure of Viceroy Ripon.

#### 25. Question

Which of the following happened under the reign of Lord Lansdowne?

• Passing of Ilbert Bill, 1883

• Passing of the Indian Factory Act, 1891

• Passing of Indian Councils Act, 1892

How many of the above form the correct answer?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Modern Indian History

Approach: Ilbert Bill was passed during the tenure of Viceroy Ripon.

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Modern Indian History

Approach: Ilbert Bill was passed during the tenure of Viceroy Ripon.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points A boat takes 19 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to a point C which is at midway between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph, what is the distance between A and B ? A) 180 km B) 160 km C) 140 km D) 120 km Correct Answer: A) 180 km Explanation: Speed in downstream = (14 + 4) km/hr = 18 km/hr; Speed in upstream = (14 – 4) km/hr = 10 km/hr. Let the distance between A and B be x km. Then, x/18 + (x/2)/10 = 19 ⇔ x/18 + x/20 = 19 ⇒ x = 180 km. Incorrect Answer: A) 180 km Explanation: Speed in downstream = (14 + 4) km/hr = 18 km/hr; Speed in upstream = (14 – 4) km/hr = 10 km/hr. Let the distance between A and B be x km. Then, x/18 + (x/2)/10 = 19 ⇔ x/18 + x/20 = 19 ⇒ x = 180 km.

#### 26. Question

A boat takes 19 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to a point C which is at midway between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph, what is the distance between A and B ?

Answer: A) 180 km

Explanation:

Speed in downstream = (14 + 4) km/hr = 18 km/hr;

Speed in upstream = (14 – 4) km/hr = 10 km/hr.

Let the distance between A and B be x km. Then,

x/18 + (x/2)/10 = 19 ⇔ x/18 + x/20 = 19 ⇒ x = 180 km.

Answer: A) 180 km

Explanation:

Speed in downstream = (14 + 4) km/hr = 18 km/hr;

Speed in upstream = (14 – 4) km/hr = 10 km/hr.

Let the distance between A and B be x km. Then,

x/18 + (x/2)/10 = 19 ⇔ x/18 + x/20 = 19 ⇒ x = 180 km.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Two towns are connected by railway. Can you find the distance between them? I. The speed of the mail train is 12 km/hr more than that of an express train. II.A mail train takes 40 minutes less than an express train to cover the distance. A) I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer B) II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer C) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer D) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer Correct Answer: Option D) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer Explanation: Let the distance between the two stations be x km. Then, speed of the mail train = (y + 12) km/hr. x/y-x/(y + 12) = 40/60 . Thus, even I and II together do not give x. Correct answer is (D). Incorrect Answer: Option D) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer Explanation: Let the distance between the two stations be x km. Then, speed of the mail train = (y + 12) km/hr. x/y-x/(y + 12) = 40/60 . Thus, even I and II together do not give x. Correct answer is (D).

#### 27. Question

• Two towns are connected by railway. Can you find the distance between them?

I. The speed of the mail train is 12 km/hr more than that of an express train.

II.A mail train takes 40 minutes less than an express train to cover the distance.

• A) I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer

• B) II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer

• C) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer

• D) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer

Answer: Option D) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer

Explanation:

Let the distance between the two stations be x km.

• Then, speed of the mail train = (y + 12) km/hr.

• x/y-x/(y + 12) = 40/60 .

Thus, even I and II together do not give x.

Correct answer is (D).

Answer: Option D) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer

Explanation:

Let the distance between the two stations be x km.

• Then, speed of the mail train = (y + 12) km/hr.

• x/y-x/(y + 12) = 40/60 .

Thus, even I and II together do not give x.

Correct answer is (D).

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points The towns A, B and C are on a straight line. Town C is between A and B. The distance from A to B is 100 km. How far is A from C? I. The distance from A to B is 25% more than the distance from C to B. II. The distance from A to C is of the distance C to B. a) I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer b) II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer c) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer d) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer Correct Answer: Option C) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer Explanation: Let AC = x km. Then, CB = (100 -x) km. AB = 125% of CB 100 = (125/100)x (100 – x) 100 – x = (100 x 100)/125 = 80 x = 20 km. AC = 20 km. Thus, I alone gives the answer. AC = (1/4)CB x = ( 1/4)(100 – x) 5x = 100 x = 20. AC = 20 km. Thus, II alone gives the answer. Correct answer is (C). Incorrect Answer: Option C) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer Explanation: Let AC = x km. Then, CB = (100 -x) km. AB = 125% of CB 100 = (125/100)x (100 – x) 100 – x = (100 x 100)/125 = 80 x = 20 km. AC = 20 km. Thus, I alone gives the answer. AC = (1/4)CB x = ( 1/4)(100 – x) 5x = 100 x = 20. AC = 20 km. Thus, II alone gives the answer. Correct answer is (C).

#### 28. Question

The towns A, B and C are on a straight line. Town C is between A and B. The distance from A to B is 100 km. How far is A from C?

I. The distance from A to B is 25% more than the distance from C to B.

II. The distance from A to C is of the distance C to B.

• a) I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer

• b) II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer

• c) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer

• d) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer

Answer: Option C) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer

Explanation:

Let AC = x km. Then, CB = (100 -x) km.

• AB = 125% of CB

100 = (125/100)x (100 – x)

100 – x = (100 x 100)/125 = 80

x = 20 km.

AC = 20 km.

Thus, I alone gives the answer.

• AC = (1/4)CB

x = ( 1/4)(100 – x)

AC = 20 km.

Thus, II alone gives the answer.

Correct answer is (C).

Answer: Option C) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer

Explanation:

Let AC = x km. Then, CB = (100 -x) km.

• AB = 125% of CB

100 = (125/100)x (100 – x)

100 – x = (100 x 100)/125 = 80

x = 20 km.

AC = 20 km.

Thus, I alone gives the answer.

• AC = (1/4)CB

x = ( 1/4)(100 – x)

AC = 20 km.

Thus, II alone gives the answer.

Correct answer is (C).

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Technology has replaced the once-mighty church and currently dominates our personal as well as professional lives. A few global data behemoths are controlling our whole life and social media is now dividing and manipulating us, catapulting us towards an algorithmic society. But we are also witnessing the rebirth of humanity just as it once reawakened in Italy. Silicon Valley CEOs are dragged in for questioning before the U.S. Congress and the EU Commission, and digital ethics is now a global theme. The debates about ‘digital pollution’, data sovereignty, abusive data-mining, social media’s manipulation of the democratic process, and algorithmic bias are growing louder every day. In addition to the wicked problem of technological domination, climate change is now – finally – recognised as a real emergency that only the crudest naysayers continue to deny, further forcing us to face ‘the end of business as usual’. The bottom line is that both the way we (ab)use our environment cannot continue, and the way we have put technology above humanity cannot continue. A new renaissance has already begun. The first Renaissance replaced religious dogma with human curiosity and creativity. The second renaissance will replace technological dogmas such as connectivity, efficiency, speed, optimization and productivity with human relevance, purpose, engagement, relationships and self-realisation. The crux of the above passage is, A. Nothing can stop us from being what we are ought to be B. Humans oscillate between what is human and non-human paradigms C. Our ultimate job is to be human, nothing else. D. Anything that suppresses our true nature will vanish instantly Correct Answer: C Almost all the statements look correct, but the delicate differences should be captured to make it more correct. The author is not satisfied with technology dominating world and he tells renaissance will happen. He tells technological features are not the truth, it is having humanness that is ultimately true, so our job is ultimately to be human. B is surely incorrect, author does not tell we oscillate, author talks about progress. D is also definitely correct because bad things vanish, but not instantly as per author. A is too generic and vague, it is wise to consider C. Incorrect Answer: C Almost all the statements look correct, but the delicate differences should be captured to make it more correct. The author is not satisfied with technology dominating world and he tells renaissance will happen. He tells technological features are not the truth, it is having humanness that is ultimately true, so our job is ultimately to be human. B is surely incorrect, author does not tell we oscillate, author talks about progress. D is also definitely correct because bad things vanish, but not instantly as per author. A is too generic and vague, it is wise to consider C.

#### 29. Question

Technology has replaced the once-mighty church and currently dominates our personal as well as professional lives. A few global data behemoths are controlling our whole life and social media is now dividing and manipulating us, catapulting us towards an algorithmic society. But we are also witnessing the rebirth of humanity just as it once reawakened in Italy. Silicon Valley CEOs are dragged in for questioning before the U.S. Congress and the EU Commission, and digital ethics is now a global theme. The debates about ‘digital pollution’, data sovereignty, abusive data-mining, social media’s manipulation of the democratic process, and algorithmic bias are growing louder every day. In addition to the wicked problem of technological domination, climate change is now – finally – recognised as a real emergency that only the crudest naysayers continue to deny, further forcing us to face ‘the end of business as usual’. The bottom line is that both the way we (ab)use our environment cannot continue, and the way we have put technology above humanity cannot continue. A new renaissance has already begun. The first Renaissance replaced religious dogma with human curiosity and creativity. The second renaissance will replace technological dogmas such as connectivity, efficiency, speed, optimization and productivity with human relevance, purpose, engagement, relationships and self-realisation.

The crux of the above passage is,

• A. Nothing can stop us from being what we are ought to be

• B. Humans oscillate between what is human and non-human paradigms

• C. Our ultimate job is to be human, nothing else.

• D. Anything that suppresses our true nature will vanish instantly

Almost all the statements look correct, but the delicate differences should be captured to make it more correct. The author is not satisfied with technology dominating world and he tells renaissance will happen. He tells technological features are not the truth, it is having humanness that is ultimately true, so our job is ultimately to be human. B is surely incorrect, author does not tell we oscillate, author talks about progress. D is also definitely correct because bad things vanish, but not instantly as per author. A is too generic and vague, it is wise to consider C.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Technology has replaced the once-mighty church and currently dominates our personal as well as professional lives. A few global data behemoths are controlling our whole life and social media is now dividing and manipulating us, catapulting us towards an algorithmic society. But we are also witnessing the rebirth of humanity just as it once reawakened in Italy. Silicon Valley CEOs are dragged in for questioning before the U.S. Congress and the EU Commission, and digital ethics is now a global theme. The debates about ‘digital pollution’, data sovereignty, abusive data-mining, social media’s manipulation of the democratic process, and algorithmic bias are growing louder every day. In addition to the wicked problem of technological domination, climate change is now – finally – recognised as a real emergency that only the crudest naysayers continue to deny, further forcing us to face ‘the end of business as usual’. The bottom line is that both the way we (ab)use our environment cannot continue, and the way we have put technology above humanity cannot continue. A new renaissance has already begun. The first Renaissance replaced religious dogma with human curiosity and creativity. The second renaissance will replace technological dogmas such as connectivity, efficiency, speed, optimization and productivity with human relevance, purpose, engagement, relationships and self-realisation. . In light of the above statement, following implications have been considered: Technology will soon become an abundant commodity, and humanness will be a sought-after scarcity Educating on human values rather than industry-obsessed items is need of the hour Data is not the oil of current times Which of the above is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3 Correct Answer: B Author tells technology will cease to be domains and characters of human will become primary, so technology will become redundant, 1 is correct. Data is oil of current times, but not going to be the oils of future. So 3 is wrong. Since we need a new renaissance to flourish humanity focusing human values is logically necessary. So 2 is correct. Thus 1 & 2 are correct. Incorrect Answer: B Author tells technology will cease to be domains and characters of human will become primary, so technology will become redundant, 1 is correct. Data is oil of current times, but not going to be the oils of future. So 3 is wrong. Since we need a new renaissance to flourish humanity focusing human values is logically necessary. So 2 is correct. Thus 1 & 2 are correct.

#### 30. Question

. In light of the above statement, following implications have been considered:

• Technology will soon become an abundant commodity, and humanness will be a sought-after scarcity

• Educating on human values rather than industry-obsessed items is need of the hour

• Data is not the oil of current times

Which of the above is/are valid?

• B. 1 & 2 only

• C. 1 & 3 only

• D. 1, 2 & 3

Author tells technology will cease to be domains and characters of human will become primary, so technology will become redundant, 1 is correct.

Data is oil of current times, but not going to be the oils of future. So 3 is wrong. Since we need a new renaissance to flourish humanity focusing human values is logically necessary. So 2 is correct. Thus 1 & 2 are correct.

Author tells technology will cease to be domains and characters of human will become primary, so technology will become redundant, 1 is correct.

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