DAY – 74 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-1: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-1 (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Applied knowledge Justification: The sun emits a vast amount of energy, which travels across space in the form of short-wave radiation. Only a tiny portion of this power actually reaches the surface. But most of the atmosphere isn’t directly heated by solar radiation, but rather by the terrestrial radiation, which is long-wave radiation that the planet itself emits. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Earth emits long-wave radiation. While water vapor and carbon dioxide molecules merely allow the passage of incoming short waves, they absorb Earth’s long waves, heating the atmosphere from the ground up. Hence, option (d) is correct. https://science.howstuffworks.com/nature/climate-weather/atmospheric/weather3.htm Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Applied knowledge Justification: The sun emits a vast amount of energy, which travels across space in the form of short-wave radiation. Only a tiny portion of this power actually reaches the surface. But most of the atmosphere isn’t directly heated by solar radiation, but rather by the terrestrial radiation, which is long-wave radiation that the planet itself emits. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Earth emits long-wave radiation. While water vapor and carbon dioxide molecules merely allow the passage of incoming short waves, they absorb Earth’s long waves, heating the atmosphere from the ground up. Hence, option (d) is correct. https://science.howstuffworks.com/nature/climate-weather/atmospheric/weather3.htm Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-1:

The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II:

Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-1

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

The sun emits a vast amount of energy, which travels across space in the form of short-wave radiation. Only a tiny portion of this power actually reaches the surface. But most of the atmosphere isn’t directly heated by solar radiation, but rather by the terrestrial radiation, which is long-wave radiation that the planet itself emits. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Earth emits long-wave radiation. While water vapor and carbon dioxide molecules merely allow the passage of incoming short waves, they absorb Earth’s long waves, heating the atmosphere from the ground up. Hence, option (d) is correct.

https://science.howstuffworks.com/nature/climate-weather/atmospheric/weather3.htm

Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

https://science.howstuffworks.com/nature/climate-weather/atmospheric/weather3.htm

Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following: Pyroclastic debris Ash and dust Nitrogen compounds Sulphur compounds How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: The principal products of volcanic eruptions may be grouped into several broad categories according to the type of material ejected and its mode of transport from the vents to its place of deposition: ash, falls, pyroclastics flows, lava flow and gas emission. The principal components of volcanic gases are water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), sulfur either as sulfur dioxide (SO2) (high-temperature volcanic gases) or hydrogen sulfide (H2S) (low-temperature volcanic gases), nitrogen, argon, helium, neon, methane, carbon monoxide and hydrogen. All the above statements are correct. Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: The principal products of volcanic eruptions may be grouped into several broad categories according to the type of material ejected and its mode of transport from the vents to its place of deposition: ash, falls, pyroclastics flows, lava flow and gas emission. The principal components of volcanic gases are water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), sulfur either as sulfur dioxide (SO2) (high-temperature volcanic gases) or hydrogen sulfide (H2S) (low-temperature volcanic gases), nitrogen, argon, helium, neon, methane, carbon monoxide and hydrogen. All the above statements are correct. Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

#### 2. Question

Consider the following:

• Pyroclastic debris

• Ash and dust

• Nitrogen compounds

• Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

The principal products of volcanic eruptions may be grouped into several broad categories

according to the type of material ejected and its mode of transport from the vents to its place

of deposition: ash, falls, pyroclastics flows, lava flow and gas emission.

The principal components of volcanic gases are water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), sulfur either as sulfur dioxide (SO2) (high-temperature volcanic gases) or hydrogen sulfide (H2S) (low-temperature volcanic gases), nitrogen, argon, helium, neon, methane, carbon monoxide and hydrogen.

All the above statements are correct.

Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

The principal products of volcanic eruptions may be grouped into several broad categories

according to the type of material ejected and its mode of transport from the vents to its place

of deposition: ash, falls, pyroclastics flows, lava flow and gas emission.

All the above statements are correct.

Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world? (a) Algeria and Morocco (b) Botswana and Namibia (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana (d) Madagascar and Mozambique Correct Solution: C Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far the two largest producers of cocoa, accounting for more than 50 percent of the world´s cocoa. West Africa is home to the largest cocoa producing countries worldwide, with 3.9 million tonnes of production in 2022. With 2.2 million tonnes of cocoa in 2022, Côte d’Ivoire is the world’s largest producer, accounting for a third of the global total. Hence, option (c) is correct. Q Source: Current Affairs *https://www.visualcapitalist.com/worlds-top-cocoa-producing-countries/ Incorrect Solution: C Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far the two largest producers of cocoa, accounting for more than 50 percent of the world´s cocoa. West Africa is home to the largest cocoa producing countries worldwide, with 3.9 million tonnes of production in 2022. With 2.2 million tonnes of cocoa in 2022, Côte d’*Ivoire is the world’s largest producer, accounting for a third of the global total. Hence, option (c) is correct. Q Source: Current Affairs *https://www.visualcapitalist.com/worlds-top-cocoa-producing-countries/*

#### 3. Question

Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

• (a) Algeria and Morocco

• (b) Botswana and Namibia

• (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana

• (d) Madagascar and Mozambique

Solution: C

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far the two largest producers of cocoa, accounting for more than 50 percent of the world´s cocoa. West Africa is home to the largest cocoa producing countries worldwide, with 3.9 million tonnes of production in 2022. With 2.2 million tonnes of cocoa in 2022, Côte d’Ivoire is the world’s largest producer, accounting for a third of the global total.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q Source: Current Affairs

*https://www.visualcapitalist.com/worlds-top-cocoa-producing-countries/*

Solution: C

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q Source: Current Affairs

*https://www.visualcapitalist.com/worlds-top-cocoa-producing-countries/*

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct? (a) Ghaghara - Gomati - Gandak - Kosi (b) Gomati Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi (c) Ghaghara - Gomati - Kosi - Gandak (d) Gomati - Ghaghara - Kosi - Gandak Correct Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Ganga basin is the largest river basin in India in terms of catchment area, constituting 26% of the country’s land mass (8,61,404 Sq. km) and supporting about 43% of its population (448.3 million as per 2001 census). River Ganga, emanating from Gangotri Glacier at Gaumukh, transverses a distance of 2525 kms before flowing into Bay of Bengal. A large number of tributaries like Alaknanda, Ramganga, Kali, Yamuna, Gomti, Ghagra, Gandak, Kosi and Sone, draining 11 states of the country join River Ganga at different confluence points during its journey. Tributaries from West to East are: Gomti-Ghaghra-Gandak-Kosi. Hence, option (b) is correct. Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books Incorrect Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Ganga basin is the largest river basin in India in terms of catchment area, constituting 26% of the country’s land mass (8,61,404 Sq. km) and supporting about 43% of its population (448.3 million as per 2001 census). River Ganga, emanating from Gangotri Glacier at Gaumukh, transverses a distance of 2525 kms before flowing into Bay of Bengal. A large number of tributaries like Alaknanda, Ramganga, Kali, Yamuna, Gomti, Ghagra, Gandak, Kosi and Sone, draining 11 states of the country join River Ganga at different confluence points during its journey. Tributaries from West to East are: Gomti-Ghaghra-Gandak-Kosi. Hence, option (b) is correct. Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

• (a) Ghaghara - Gomati - Gandak - Kosi

• (b) Gomati Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi

• (c) Ghaghara - Gomati - Kosi - Gandak

• (d) Gomati - Ghaghara - Kosi - Gandak

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Ganga basin is the largest river basin in India in terms of catchment area, constituting 26% of the country’s land mass (8,61,404 Sq. km) and supporting about 43% of its population (448.3 million as per 2001 census). River Ganga, emanating from Gangotri Glacier at Gaumukh, transverses a distance of 2525 kms before flowing into Bay of Bengal. A large number of tributaries like Alaknanda, Ramganga, Kali, Yamuna, Gomti, Ghagra, Gandak, Kosi and Sone, draining 11 states of the country join River Ganga at different confluence points during its journey.

Tributaries from West to East are: Gomti-Ghaghra-Gandak-Kosi.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Tributaries from West to East are: Gomti-Ghaghra-Gandak-Kosi.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements : PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. Persistent exposure to PFAS, can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Which of the statements given above are correct ? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are a large, complex group of synthetic chemicals that have been used in consumer products around the world since about the 1950s. They are ingredients in various everyday products. For example, PFAS are used to keep food from sticking to packaging or cookware, make clothes and carpets resistant to stains, and create firefighting foam that is more effective. PFAS molecules have a chain of linked carbon and fluorine atoms. Because the carbon-fluorine bond is one of the strongest, these chemicals do not degrade easily in the environment. PFAS use pathways, bioaccumulation, and animal exposure. Organisms may be exposed to PFAS via ingestion of contaminated water and food, incidental ingestion of soil and dust and inhalation of contaminated air. All the above statements are correct. Q Source: Current Affairs https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC10380748/ Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are a large, complex group of synthetic chemicals that have been used in consumer products around the world since about the 1950s. They are ingredients in various everyday products. For example, PFAS are used to keep food from sticking to packaging or cookware, make clothes and carpets resistant to stains, and create firefighting foam that is more effective. PFAS molecules have a chain of linked carbon and fluorine atoms. Because the carbon-fluorine bond is one of the strongest, these chemicals do not degrade easily in the environment. PFAS use pathways, bioaccumulation, and animal exposure. Organisms may be exposed to PFAS via ingestion of contaminated water and food, incidental ingestion of soil and dust and inhalation of contaminated air. All the above statements are correct. Q Source: Current Affairs https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC10380748/

#### 5. Question

With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements :

• PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.

• PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.

• Persistent exposure to PFAS, can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are a large, complex group of synthetic chemicals that have been used in consumer products around the world since about the 1950s. They are ingredients in various everyday products. For example, PFAS are used to keep food from sticking to packaging or cookware, make clothes and carpets resistant to stains, and create firefighting foam that is more effective.

PFAS molecules have a chain of linked carbon and fluorine atoms. Because the carbon-fluorine bond is one of the strongest, these chemicals do not degrade easily in the environment.

PFAS use pathways, bioaccumulation, and animal exposure. Organisms may be exposed to PFAS via ingestion of contaminated water and food, incidental ingestion of soil and dust and inhalation of contaminated air. All the above statements are correct.

Q Source: Current Affairs

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC10380748/

Solution: D

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

PFAS molecules have a chain of linked carbon and fluorine atoms. Because the carbon-fluorine bond is one of the strongest, these chemicals do not degrade easily in the environment.

Q Source: Current Affairs

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC10380748/

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following plants : Groundnut Horse-gram Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family ? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: C Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large and agriculturally important family of flowering plants. The family Fabaceae includes a number of plants that are common in agriculture including Glycine max (soybean), Phaseolus (beans), Pisum sativum (pea), Cicer arietinum (chickpeas), Vicia faba (broad bean), Medicago sativa (alfalfa), Arachis hypogaea (peanut), Ceratonia siliqua (carob), Trigonella foenum-graecum (fenugreek), Macrotyloma uniflorum (horsegram) and Glycyrrhiza glabra (liquorice). All three belong to pea family, Hence, option (c) is correct. Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books Incorrect Solution: C Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large and agriculturally important family of flowering plants. The family Fabaceae includes a number of plants that are common in agriculture including Glycine max (soybean), Phaseolus (beans), Pisum sativum (pea), Cicer arietinum (chickpeas), Vicia faba (broad bean), Medicago sativa (alfalfa), Arachis hypogaea (peanut), Ceratonia siliqua (carob), Trigonella foenum-graecum (fenugreek), Macrotyloma uniflorum (horsegram) and Glycyrrhiza glabra (liquorice). All three belong to pea family, Hence, option (c) is correct. Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

#### 6. Question

Consider the following plants :

• Horse-gram

How many of the above belong to the pea family ?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: C

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large and agriculturally important family of flowering plants.

The family Fabaceae includes a number of plants that are common in agriculture including Glycine max (soybean), Phaseolus (beans), Pisum sativum (pea), Cicer arietinum (chickpeas), Vicia faba (broad bean), Medicago sativa (alfalfa), Arachis hypogaea (peanut), Ceratonia siliqua (carob), Trigonella foenum-graecum (fenugreek), Macrotyloma uniflorum (horsegram) and Glycyrrhiza glabra (liquorice). All three belong to pea family, Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

Solution: C

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large and agriculturally important family of flowering plants.

Q Source: NCERTs/ Standard Reference Books

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II : Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Chewing gum, while seemingly harmless, is actually a major source of pollution. They account for 100,000 tonnes of plastic pollution a year – the equivalent of 10 Eiffel Towers! Chewing gum can be chewed for a long period without any structural modifications because of the water-insoluble property of the gum base. Gum base can be produced from either natural polymers, such as latex or waxes, or synthetic polymers, particularly polyvinyl acetate (15–45%)—a key ingredient in chewing gum formulation—and synthetic elastomers (10–30%) including co-polymers of butadiene-styrene, isobutylene-isoprene as well as, polyethylene, polyisobutylene and polyisoprene. Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Chewing gum, while seemingly harmless, is actually a major source of pollution. They account for 100,000 tonnes of plastic pollution a year – the equivalent of 10 Eiffel Towers! Chewing gum can be chewed for a long period without any structural modifications because of the water-insoluble property of the gum base. Gum base can be produced from either natural polymers, such as latex or waxes, or synthetic polymers, particularly polyvinyl acetate (15–45%)—a key ingredient in chewing gum formulation—and synthetic elastomers (10–30%) including co-polymers of butadiene-styrene, isobutylene-isoprene as well as, polyethylene, polyisobutylene and polyisoprene. Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I :

Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.

Statement-II :

Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Chewing gum, while seemingly harmless, is actually a major source of pollution. They account for 100,000 tonnes of plastic pollution a year – the equivalent of 10 Eiffel Towers!

Chewing gum can be chewed for a long period without any structural modifications because of the water-insoluble property of the gum base. Gum base can be produced from either natural polymers, such as latex or waxes, or synthetic polymers, particularly polyvinyl acetate (15–45%)—a key ingredient in chewing gum formulation—and synthetic elastomers (10–30%) including co-polymers of butadiene-styrene, isobutylene-isoprene as well as, polyethylene, polyisobutylene and polyisoprene. Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Solution: A

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Chewing gum, while seemingly harmless, is actually a major source of pollution. They account for 100,000 tonnes of plastic pollution a year – the equivalent of 10 Eiffel Towers!

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Lions do not have a particular breeding season. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct ? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 Only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Lions: Lions are sexually mature by 2 years old, but males may not have the opportunity to mate until they are closer to 5 years old. They are polygamous, with the dominant male of the pride breeding with multiple females in the group. There is no specific breeding season, and cubs are produced roughly every two years. Cheetah: “Roaring cats” (lions, tigers, jaguars, and leopards) have an incompletely ossified hyoid, which in theory allows them to roar but not to purr. Cheetahs belong to the “purring cats” subfamily and as such do not roar. Leopards: Both sexes of Leopards use urine to mark their territories, and often after urinating a male will then scrape the ground to transfer the scent of his urine onto his feet to be carried during territorial boundary patrols. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Lions: Lions are sexually mature by 2 years old, but males may not have the opportunity to mate until they are closer to 5 years old. They are polygamous, with the dominant male of the pride breeding with multiple females in the group. There is no specific breeding season, and cubs are produced roughly every two years. Cheetah: “Roaring cats” (lions, tigers, jaguars, and leopards) have an incompletely ossified hyoid, which in theory allows them to roar but not to purr. Cheetahs belong to the “purring cats” subfamily and as such do not roar. Leopards: Both sexes of Leopards use urine to mark their territories, and often after urinating a male will then scrape the ground to transfer the scent of his urine onto his feet to be carried during territorial boundary patrols. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Lions do not have a particular breeding season.

• Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.

• Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 Only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

Lions: Lions are sexually mature by 2 years old, but males may not have the opportunity to mate until they are closer to 5 years old. They are polygamous, with the dominant male of the pride breeding with multiple females in the group. There is no specific breeding season, and cubs are produced roughly every two years.

Cheetah: “Roaring cats” (lions, tigers, jaguars, and leopards) have an incompletely ossified hyoid, which in theory allows them to roar but not to purr. Cheetahs belong to the “purring cats” subfamily and as such do not roar.

Leopards: Both sexes of Leopards use urine to mark their territories, and often after urinating a male will then scrape the ground to transfer the scent of his urine onto his feet to be carried during territorial boundary patrols. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: Battery storage Biomass generators Fuel cells Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Distributed generation (also known as embedded or local generation) is the term used when electricity is generated from sources, often renewable energy sources, near the point of use instead of centralised generation sources from power plants. Distributed energy resources (DER) refers to often smaller generation units that are located on the consumer’s side of the meter. Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include: roof top solar photovoltaic units wind generating units battery storage batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products. open and closed cycle gas turbines reciprocating engines (diesel, oil) hydro and mini-hydro schemes fuel cells. All the above are correct. Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Distributed generation (also known as embedded or local generation) is the term used when electricity is generated from sources, often renewable energy sources, near the point of use instead of centralised generation sources from power plants. Distributed energy resources (DER) refers to often smaller generation units that are located on the consumer’s side of the meter. Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include: roof top solar photovoltaic units wind generating units battery storage batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products. open and closed cycle gas turbines reciprocating engines (diesel, oil) hydro and mini-hydro schemes fuel cells. All the above are correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

• Battery storage

• Biomass generators

• Fuel cells

• Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

Distributed generation (also known as embedded or local generation) is the term used when electricity is generated from sources, often renewable energy sources, near the point of use instead of centralised generation sources from power plants.

Distributed energy resources (DER) refers to often smaller generation units that are located on the consumer’s side of the meter.

Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include:

• roof top solar photovoltaic units

• wind generating units

• battery storage

• batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid

• combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling

• biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products.

• open and closed cycle gas turbines

• reciprocating engines (diesel, oil)

• hydro and mini-hydro schemes

• fuel cells.

• All the above are correct.

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

Distributed energy resources (DER) refers to often smaller generation units that are located on the consumer’s side of the meter.

Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include:

• roof top solar photovoltaic units

• wind generating units

• battery storage

• batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid

• combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling

• biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products.

• open and closed cycle gas turbines

• reciprocating engines (diesel, oil)

• hydro and mini-hydro schemes

• fuel cells.

• All the above are correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: RTGs are miniature fission reactors. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct ? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) are lightweight, compact spacecraft power systems that are extraordinarily reliable. RTGs provide electrical power using heat from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238, in the form of plutonium oxide. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The large difference in temperature between this hot fuel and the cold environment of space is applied across special solid-state metallic junctions called thermocouples, which generates an electrical current using no moving parts. RTGs are devices that convert the waste heat given off by radioactive decay processes into useable electrical energy and are often installed in space-bound objects that require energy and other remote structures/machines that cannot obtain energy efficiently by any other means. These include satellites, probes, and remote lighthouses. Incorrect Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) are lightweight, compact spacecraft power systems that are extraordinarily reliable. RTGs provide electrical power using heat from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238, in the form of plutonium oxide. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The large difference in temperature between this hot fuel and the cold environment of space is applied across special solid-state metallic junctions called thermocouples, which generates an electrical current using no moving parts. RTGs are devices that convert the waste heat given off by radioactive decay processes into useable electrical energy and are often installed in space-bound objects that require energy and other remote structures/machines that cannot obtain energy efficiently by any other means. These include satellites, probes, and remote lighthouses.

#### 10. Question

With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

• RTGs are miniature fission reactors.

• RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.

• RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) are lightweight, compact spacecraft power systems that are extraordinarily reliable.

RTGs provide electrical power using heat from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238, in the form of plutonium oxide. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The large difference in temperature between this hot fuel and the cold environment of space is applied across special solid-state metallic junctions called thermocouples, which generates an electrical current using no moving parts.

RTGs are devices that convert the waste heat given off by radioactive decay processes into useable electrical energy and are often installed in space-bound objects that require energy and other remote structures/machines that cannot obtain energy efficiently by any other means. These include satellites, probes, and remote lighthouses.

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) are lightweight, compact spacecraft power systems that are extraordinarily reliable.

RTGs provide electrical power using heat from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238, in the form of plutonium oxide. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following activities : Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft Monitoring of precipitation Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used ? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: radar, electromagnetic sensor used for detecting, locating, tracking, and recognizing objects of various kinds at considerable distances. It operates by transmitting electromagnetic energy toward objects, commonly referred to as targets, and observing the echoes returned from them. The targets may be aircraft, ships, spacecraft, automotive vehicles, and astronomical bodies, or even birds, insects, and rain. Besides determining the presence, location, and velocity of such objects, radar can sometimes obtain their size and shape as well. X rays and chemical detectors are used in identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: radar, electromagnetic sensor used for detecting, locating, tracking, and recognizing objects of various kinds at considerable distances. It operates by transmitting electromagnetic energy toward objects, commonly referred to as targets, and observing the echoes returned from them. The targets may be aircraft, ships, spacecraft, automotive vehicles, and astronomical bodies, or even birds, insects, and rain. Besides determining the presence, location, and velocity of such objects, radar can sometimes obtain their size and shape as well. X rays and chemical detectors are used in identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following activities :

• Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft

• Monitoring of precipitation

• Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used ?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

radar, electromagnetic sensor used for detecting, locating, tracking, and recognizing objects of various kinds at considerable distances. It operates by transmitting electromagnetic energy toward objects, commonly referred to as targets, and observing the echoes returned from them. The targets may be aircraft, ships, spacecraft, automotive vehicles, and astronomical bodies, or even birds, insects, and rain. Besides determining the presence, location, and velocity of such objects, radar can sometimes obtain their size and shape as well.

X rays and chemical detectors are used in identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

X rays and chemical detectors are used in identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft. Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen ? a) Hydrogen peroxide b) Hydronium c) Oxygen d) Water vapour Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: Like all-electric vehicles, fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) use electricity to power an electric motor. In contrast to other electric vehicles, FCEVs produce electricity using a fuel cell powered by hydrogen, rather than drawing electricity from only a battery. They are more efficient than conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions—they only emit water vapor and warm air. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: Like all-electric vehicles, fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) use electricity to power an electric motor. In contrast to other electric vehicles, FCEVs produce electricity using a fuel cell powered by hydrogen, rather than drawing electricity from only a battery. They are more efficient than conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions—they only emit water vapor and warm air. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 12. Question

Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen ?

• a) Hydrogen peroxide

• b) Hydronium

• d) Water vapour

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

Like all-electric vehicles, fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) use electricity to power an electric motor. In contrast to other electric vehicles, FCEVs produce electricity using a fuel cell powered by hydrogen, rather than drawing electricity from only a battery.

They are more efficient than conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions—they only emit water vapor and warm air. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities ? Insurance Companies Pension Funds Retail Investors Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: All members of E-Kuber can place their bids in the auction. Commercial banks, scheduled UCBs, Primary Dealers, insurance companies and provident funds , who maintain funds account (current account) and securities accounts (Subsidiary General Ledger (SGL) account) with RBI, are members of this electronic platform. Retail investors can trade these bonds on the stock exchange without the facilitation of a third party or a stockbroker. However, investors are required to have a Demat account to keep these bonds. Can individuals buy these bonds? Yes, they can directly put their money in government bonds by simply creating an account with the RBI. Insurance Companies, Pension Funds and Retail Investors can trade in Corporate Bonds also. All the above are correct. Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: All members of E-Kuber can place their bids in the auction. Commercial banks, scheduled UCBs, Primary Dealers, insurance companies and provident funds , who maintain funds account (current account) and securities accounts (Subsidiary General Ledger (SGL) account) with RBI, are members of this electronic platform. Retail investors can trade these bonds on the stock exchange without the facilitation of a third party or a stockbroker. However, investors are required to have a Demat account to keep these bonds. Can individuals buy these bonds? Yes, they can directly put their money in government bonds by simply creating an account with the RBI. Insurance Companies, Pension Funds and Retail Investors can trade in Corporate Bonds also. All the above are correct.

#### 13. Question

In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities ?

• Insurance Companies

• Pension Funds

• Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

All members of E-Kuber can place their bids in the auction.

Commercial banks, scheduled UCBs, Primary Dealers, insurance companies and provident funds , who maintain funds account (current account) and securities accounts (Subsidiary General Ledger (SGL) account) with RBI, are members of this electronic platform.

Retail investors can trade these bonds on the stock exchange without the facilitation of a third party or a stockbroker. However, investors are required to have a Demat account to keep these bonds. Can individuals buy these bonds? Yes, they can directly put their money in government bonds by simply creating an account with the RBI.

Insurance Companies, Pension Funds and Retail Investors can trade in Corporate Bonds also.

All the above are correct.

Solution: D

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

All members of E-Kuber can place their bids in the auction.

Insurance Companies, Pension Funds and Retail Investors can trade in Corporate Bonds also.

All the above are correct.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs : Economic activity Sector 1. Storage of agricultural produce Secondary 2. Dairy farm Primary 3. Mineral exploration Tertiary 4. Weaving cloth Secondary How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Primary activities are directly dependent on environment as these refer to utilisation of earth’s resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials and minerals. It, thus includes, hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, forestry, agriculture, and mining and quarrying. Storage of agricultural produce, Dairy farm and Mineral exploration are considered as Primary sector. Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products. Weaving cloth involves production of finished good and is considered as Secondary sector. Incorrect Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Primary activities are directly dependent on environment as these refer to utilisation of earth’s resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials and minerals. It, thus includes, hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, forestry, agriculture, and mining and quarrying. Storage of agricultural produce, Dairy farm and Mineral exploration are considered as Primary sector. Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products. Weaving cloth involves production of finished good and is considered as Secondary sector.

#### 14. Question

With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs :

| Economic activity | Sector

1.| Storage of agricultural produce | Secondary
2.| Dairy farm | Primary
3.| Mineral exploration | Tertiary
4.| Weaving cloth | Secondary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

Primary activities are directly dependent on environment as these refer to utilisation of earth’s resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials and minerals. It, thus includes, hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, forestry, agriculture, and mining and quarrying.

• Storage of agricultural produce, Dairy farm and Mineral exploration are considered as Primary sector.

Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products.

• Weaving cloth involves production of finished good and is considered as Secondary sector.

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

• Storage of agricultural produce, Dairy farm and Mineral exploration are considered as Primary sector.

Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products.

• Weaving cloth involves production of finished good and is considered as Secondary sector.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements : There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Difficult Category: Factual Justification: Rules related to Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS) by foreign banks in India The initial minimum paid-up voting equity capital for a WOS shall be 5 billion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Corporate governance rules for Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS): The composition of the board of directors of WOS should meet the following requirements: not less than 51 percent of the total number of members of the board of directors shall consist of persons as defined under Section 10A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; not less than two-third of the directors should be non-executive directors; not less than one-third of the directors should be independent of the management of the subsidiary in India, its parent and any subsidiary or other associate of the foreign bank parent; not less than 50 per cent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals’ resident in India; Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Difficult Category: Factual Justification: Rules related to Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS) by foreign banks in India The initial minimum paid-up voting equity capital for a WOS shall be 5 billion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Corporate governance rules for Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS): The composition of the board of directors of WOS should meet the following requirements: not less than 51 percent of the total number of members of the board of directors shall consist of persons as defined under Section 10A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; not less than two-third of the directors should be non-executive directors; not less than one-third of the directors should be independent of the management of the subsidiary in India, its parent and any subsidiary or other associate of the foreign bank parent; not less than 50 per cent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals’ resident in India; Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 15. Question

With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements :

• There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.

• For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Difficulty: Difficult

Category: Factual

Justification:

Rules related to Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS) by foreign banks in India

The initial minimum paid-up voting equity capital for a WOS shall be 5 billion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Corporate governance rules for Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS): The composition of the board of directors of WOS should meet the following requirements: not less than 51 percent of the total number of members of the board of directors shall consist of persons as defined under Section 10A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; not less than two-third of the directors should be non-executive directors; not less than one-third of the directors should be independent of the management of the subsidiary in India, its parent and any subsidiary or other associate of the foreign bank parent; not less than 50 per cent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals’ resident in India; Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• not less than 51 percent of the total number of members of the board of directors shall consist of persons as defined under Section 10A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949;

• not less than two-third of the directors should be non-executive directors;

• not less than one-third of the directors should be independent of the management of the subsidiary in India, its parent and any subsidiary or other associate of the foreign bank parent;

• not less than 50 per cent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals’ resident in India; Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: D

Difficulty: Difficult

Category: Factual

Justification:

Rules related to Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS) by foreign banks in India

The initial minimum paid-up voting equity capital for a WOS shall be 5 billion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• not less than 51 percent of the total number of members of the board of directors shall consist of persons as defined under Section 10A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949;

• not less than two-third of the directors should be non-executive directors;

• not less than one-third of the directors should be independent of the management of the subsidiary in India, its parent and any subsidiary or other associate of the foreign bank parent;

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement-I : If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II : The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Difficulty: Easy Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Treasury bonds (T-bonds) are government debt securities issued by the U.S. Federal government that have maturities of 20 or 30 years. T-bonds earn periodic interest until maturity, at which point the owner is also paid a par amount equal to the principal. There is virtually zero risk that you will lose principal by investing in T-bonds. There is a risk that you could have earned better money elsewhere. Investing decisions are always a tradeoff between risk and reward. The debt issued by the US government, including Treasury Bonds, is not backed by any specific physical assets such as gold or land. Instead, it is backed by the “full faith and credit” of the US government. This phrase essentially means that investors trust the US government to honour its financial obligations, including repaying borrowed money and paying interest on its debt. Hence both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Hence option (a) is correct. Some of the articles of the investopedia has also suggested that there is no default risk but only opportunity risk involved for the holders of US treasury bonds. If UPSC considers this explanation, then the answer would be option (d). Incorrect Solution: A Difficulty: Easy Category: Applied knowledge Justification: Treasury bonds (T-bonds) are government debt securities issued by the U.S. Federal government that have maturities of 20 or 30 years. T-bonds earn periodic interest until maturity, at which point the owner is also paid a par amount equal to the principal. There is virtually zero risk that you will lose principal by investing in T-bonds. There is a risk that you could have earned better money elsewhere. Investing decisions are always a tradeoff between risk and reward. The debt issued by the US government, including Treasury Bonds, is not backed by any specific physical assets such as gold or land. Instead, it is backed by the “full faith and credit” of the US government. This phrase essentially means that investors trust the US government to honour its financial obligations, including repaying borrowed money and paying interest on its debt. Hence both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Hence option (a) is correct. Some of the articles of the investopedia has also suggested that there is no default risk but only opportunity risk involved for the holders of US treasury bonds. If UPSC considers this explanation, then the answer would be option (d).

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I :

If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II :

The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

Treasury bonds (T-bonds) are government debt securities issued by the U.S. Federal government that have maturities of 20 or 30 years. T-bonds earn periodic interest until maturity, at which point the owner is also paid a par amount equal to the principal.

• There is virtually zero risk that you will lose principal by investing in T-bonds.

• There is a risk that you could have earned better money elsewhere.

• Investing decisions are always a tradeoff between risk and reward.

The debt issued by the US government, including Treasury Bonds, is not backed by any specific physical assets such as gold or land. Instead, it is backed by the “full faith and credit” of the US government. This phrase essentially means that investors trust the US government to honour its financial obligations, including repaying borrowed money and paying interest on its debt. Hence both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Hence option (a) is correct.

Some of the articles of the investopedia has also suggested that there is no default risk but only opportunity risk involved for the holders of US treasury bonds.

If UPSC considers this explanation, then the answer would be option (d).

Solution: A

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

• There is virtually zero risk that you will lose principal by investing in T-bonds.

• There is a risk that you could have earned better money elsewhere.

• Investing decisions are always a tradeoff between risk and reward.

Some of the articles of the investopedia has also suggested that there is no default risk but only opportunity risk involved for the holders of US treasury bonds.

If UPSC considers this explanation, then the answer would be option (d).

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets ? Nayaputta Shakyamuni Tathagata Select the correct answer using the code given below : a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha Correct Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Shakyamuni, epithet applied to Gautama Buddha. Tathagata ‘Thus-come (tatha-agata)’ or ‘thus-gone (tatha-gata)’; popularly construed as ‘one who has come from Thusness or Suchness (ultimate reality)’; used as one of the ten epithets of the Buddha. The ten epithets of the Buddha: Tathagata, ‘Thus-come’, one who has come from Thusness, Arhat, ‘one worthy of alms-giving’, Samyaksambuddha, ‘fully enlightened’, Vidya-carana-sampanna, ‘one having wisdom and practice’, Sugata, ‘well-gone’, one who has attained emancipation, Lokavid, ‘the knower of the world’, Anuttara, ‘the unsurpassed’, Purusa-damya-sarathi’, ‘the tamer of gods and men’, Shasta devamanusyanam, ‘the teacher of gods and men’, and Buddha-lokanatha, ‘the enlightened and world-honored one’. Epithets for Mahavira are *Nayaputta*, Muni, Samana, Nigantha, Brahman, and Bhagavan. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Shakyamuni, epithet applied to Gautama Buddha. Tathagata ‘Thus-come (tatha-agata)’ or ‘thus-gone (tatha-gata)’; popularly construed as ‘one who has come from Thusness or Suchness (ultimate reality)’; used as one of the ten epithets of the Buddha. The ten epithets of the Buddha: Tathagata, ‘Thus-come’, one who has come from Thusness, Arhat, ‘one worthy of alms-giving’, Samyaksambuddha, ‘fully enlightened’, Vidya-carana-sampanna, ‘one having wisdom and practice’, Sugata, ‘well-gone’, one who has attained emancipation, Lokavid, ‘the knower of the world’, Anuttara, ‘the unsurpassed’, Purusa-damya-sarathi’, ‘the tamer of gods and men’, Shasta devamanusyanam, ‘the teacher of gods and men’, and Buddha-lokanatha, ‘the enlightened and world-honored one’. Epithets for Mahavira are *Nayaputta*, Muni, Samana, Nigantha, Brahman, and Bhagavan. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 17. Question

With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets ?

• Shakyamuni

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1, 2 and 3

• d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Shakyamuni, epithet applied to Gautama Buddha.

Tathagata ‘Thus-come (tatha-agata)’ or ‘thus-gone (tatha-gata)’; popularly construed as ‘one who has come from Thusness or Suchness (ultimate reality)’; used as one of the ten epithets of the Buddha.

The ten epithets of the Buddha:

• Tathagata, ‘Thus-come’, one who has come from Thusness,

• Arhat, ‘one worthy of alms-giving’,

• Samyaksambuddha, ‘fully enlightened’,

• Vidya-carana-sampanna, ‘one having wisdom and practice’,

• Sugata, ‘well-gone’, one who has attained emancipation,

• Lokavid, ‘the knower of the world’,

• Anuttara, ‘the unsurpassed’,

• Purusa-damya-sarathi’, ‘the tamer of gods and men’,

• Shasta devamanusyanam, ‘the teacher of gods and men’, and

• Buddha-lokanatha, ‘the enlightened and world-honored one’.

Epithets for Mahavira are *Nayaputta*, Muni, Samana, Nigantha, Brahman, and Bhagavan. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Shakyamuni, epithet applied to Gautama Buddha.

The ten epithets of the Buddha:

• Tathagata, ‘Thus-come’, one who has come from Thusness,

• Arhat, ‘one worthy of alms-giving’,

• Samyaksambuddha, ‘fully enlightened’,

• Vidya-carana-sampanna, ‘one having wisdom and practice’,

• Sugata, ‘well-gone’, one who has attained emancipation,

• Lokavid, ‘the knower of the world’,

• Anuttara, ‘the unsurpassed’,

• Purusa-damya-sarathi’, ‘the tamer of gods and men’,

• Shasta devamanusyanam, ‘the teacher of gods and men’, and

• Buddha-lokanatha, ‘the enlightened and world-honored one’.

Epithets for Mahavira are *Nayaputta*, Muni, Samana, Nigantha, Brahman, and Bhagavan. Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal ? a) Krishnadevaraya b) Narasimha Saluva c) Muhammad Shah III d) Yusuf Adil Shah Correct Solution: A Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: In March 1510, Albuquerque successfully managed to capture Goa from the Bijapur sultan , Adil Shah, however the latter struck back after 2 months, and were able to recapture Goa, forcing Albuquerque to flee not before inflicting heavy casualties on the Muslims there though. However in November with Bijapur facing it’s own civil strife, Albuquerque managed to re take Goa once again, and defeated Rasool Khan, the Governor of Goa. Krishnadeva Raya, congratulated Albuquerque on his success in Goa, and also gave permission to the Portugese to build a fort at Bhatkal, which was one of the critical trading posts. It was more of a strategic tie up, the Portuguese had those fine Arab, Persian horses, which he needed in his campaign against the Bahmanis, as well as artillery. Another important fact was that friendly relations with Portuguese gave Vijayanagara access to Bhatkal, which helped in the trade. During this time, Duarte Barbosa, a cousin of Ferdinand Magellan, visited Vijayanagara and gave his own accounts of the capital. Bhatkal became the chief port for Vijayanagara, and while they exported iron, spices, drugs, they in turn imported horses and pearls, Krishna Deva Raya’s own nephew was the Governor there. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Solution: A Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: In March 1510, Albuquerque successfully managed to capture Goa from the Bijapur sultan , Adil Shah, however the latter struck back after 2 months, and were able to recapture Goa, forcing Albuquerque to flee not before inflicting heavy casualties on the Muslims there though. However in November with Bijapur facing it’s own civil strife, Albuquerque managed to re take Goa once again, and defeated Rasool Khan, the Governor of Goa. Krishnadeva Raya, congratulated Albuquerque on his success in Goa, and also gave permission to the Portugese to build a fort at Bhatkal, which was one of the critical trading posts. It was more of a strategic tie up, the Portuguese had those fine Arab, Persian horses, which he needed in his campaign against the Bahmanis, as well as artillery. Another important fact was that friendly relations with Portuguese gave Vijayanagara access to Bhatkal, which helped in the trade. During this time, Duarte Barbosa, a cousin of Ferdinand Magellan, visited Vijayanagara and gave his own accounts of the capital. Bhatkal became the chief port for Vijayanagara, and while they exported iron, spices, drugs, they in turn imported horses and pearls, Krishna Deva Raya’s own nephew was the Governor there. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 18. Question

Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal ?

• a) Krishnadevaraya

• b) Narasimha Saluva

• c) Muhammad Shah III

• d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Solution: A

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

In March 1510, Albuquerque successfully managed to capture Goa from the Bijapur sultan , Adil Shah, however the latter struck back after 2 months, and were able to recapture Goa, forcing Albuquerque to flee not before inflicting heavy casualties on the Muslims there though. However in November with Bijapur facing it’s own civil strife, Albuquerque managed to re take Goa once again, and defeated Rasool Khan, the Governor of Goa.

Krishnadeva Raya, congratulated Albuquerque on his success in Goa, and also gave permission to the Portugese to build a fort at Bhatkal, which was one of the critical trading posts. It was more of a strategic tie up, the Portuguese had those fine Arab, Persian horses, which he needed in his campaign against the Bahmanis, as well as artillery. Another important fact was that friendly relations with Portuguese gave Vijayanagara access to Bhatkal, which helped in the trade. During this time, Duarte Barbosa, a cousin of Ferdinand Magellan, visited Vijayanagara and gave his own accounts of the capital. Bhatkal became the chief port for Vijayanagara, and while they exported iron, spices, drugs, they in turn imported horses and pearls, Krishna Deva Raya’s own nephew was the Governor there. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: A

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ? a) C. Rajagopalachari b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar c) T.T. Krishnamachari. d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: Dr Sachchidananda Sinha was the provincial president of the Constituent Assembly. On December 11 in 1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent chairman of the country’s Constituent Assembly. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: Dr Sachchidananda Sinha was the provincial president of the Constituent Assembly. On December 11 in 1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent chairman of the country’s Constituent Assembly. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 19. Question

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ?

• a) C. Rajagopalachari

• b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

• c) T.T. Krishnamachari.

• d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

Dr Sachchidananda Sinha was the provincial president of the Constituent Assembly. On December 11 in 1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent chairman of the country’s Constituent Assembly. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: D

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa ? a) Kavyalankara b) Natyashastra c) Madhyama-vyayoga d) Mahabhashya Correct Solution: C Difficulty: Difficult Category: Factual Justification: Bhasa was the 3rd century Sanskrit dramatist. The works of Bhāsa are The thirteen plays are: *1) Madhyamavyayogaḥ; Hence, option (c) is correct. 2) Pañcharātram 3) Dūtvākyam 4) Dūtghatotkacam 5) Karṇābhāram 6) Urubhangaḥ 7) Pratīmānāṭakam; 8) Abhiṣekanāṭakam 9) Bālacaritam 10) Pratijñāyaugandharāyaṇam 11) Svapnavāsavadattam 12) Avimārakam 13) Cārudattam Incorrect Solution: C Difficulty: Difficult Category: Factual Justification: Bhasa was the 3rd century Sanskrit dramatist. The works of Bhāsa are The thirteen plays are: 1) Madhyamavyayogaḥ; Hence, option (c) is correct. 2) Pañcharātram 3) Dūtvākyam 4) Dūtghatotkacam 5) Karṇābhāram 6) Urubhangaḥ 7) Pratīmānāṭakam; 8) Abhiṣekanāṭakam 9) Bālacaritam 10) Pratijñāyaugandharāyaṇam 11) Svapnavāsavadattam 12) Avimārakam 13) Cārudattam*

#### 20. Question

Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa ?

• a) Kavyalankara

• b) Natyashastra

• c) Madhyama-vyayoga

• d) Mahabhashya

Solution: C

Difficulty: Difficult

Category: Factual

Justification:

Bhasa was the 3rd century Sanskrit dramatist. The works of Bhāsa are

The thirteen plays are:

*1) Madhyamavyayogaḥ; Hence, option (c) is correct.*

2) Pañcharātram

3) Dūtvākyam

4) Dūtghatotkacam

5) Karṇābhāram

6) Urubhangaḥ

7) Pratīmānāṭakam;

8) Abhiṣekanāṭakam

9) Bālacaritam

10) Pratijñāyaugandharāyaṇam

11) Svapnavāsavadattam

12) Avimārakam

13) Cārudattam

Solution: C

Difficulty: Difficult

Category: Factual

Justification:

Bhasa was the 3rd century Sanskrit dramatist. The works of Bhāsa are

The thirteen plays are:

*1) Madhyamavyayogaḥ; Hence, option (c) is correct.*

2) Pañcharātram

3) Dūtvākyam

4) Dūtghatotkacam

5) Karṇābhāram

6) Urubhangaḥ

7) Pratīmānāṭakam;

8) Abhiṣekanāṭakam

9) Bālacaritam

10) Pratijñāyaugandharāyaṇam

11) Svapnavāsavadattam

12) Avimārakam

13) Cārudattam

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below : a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Article 109 of the Indian Constitution is related to Special procedure in respect of Money Bills: It states that (1) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. (2) After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People it shall be transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations and the Council of States shall within a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the People with its recommendations and the House of the People may thereupon either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Council of States. (3) If the House of the People accepts any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses with the amendments recommended by the Council of States and accepted by the House of the People. (4) If the House of the People does not accept any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People without any of the amendments recommended by the Council of States. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. (5) If a Money Bill passed by the House of the People and transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations is not returned to the House of the People within the said period of fourteen days, it shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers with regard to money bills and can only make recommendations and cannot reject or amend the bill. Incorrect Solution: C Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Article 109 of the Indian Constitution is related to Special procedure in respect of Money Bills: It states that (1) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. (2) After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People it shall be transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations and the Council of States shall within a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the People with its recommendations and the House of the People may thereupon either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Council of States. (3) If the House of the People accepts any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses with the amendments recommended by the Council of States and accepted by the House of the People. (4) If the House of the People does not accept any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People without any of the amendments recommended by the Council of States. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. (5) If a Money Bill passed by the House of the People and transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations is not returned to the House of the People within the said period of fourteen days, it shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers with regard to money bills and can only make recommendations and cannot reject or amend the bill.

#### 21. Question

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

• Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.

• A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

• The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.

• Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below :

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1, 2 and 3

• d) 1, 3 and 4

Solution: C

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Article 109 of the Indian Constitution is related to Special procedure in respect of Money Bills: It states that

(1) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

(2) After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People it shall be transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations and the Council of States shall within a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the People with its recommendations and the House of the People may thereupon either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Council of States.

(3) If the House of the People accepts any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses with the amendments recommended by the Council of States and accepted by the House of the People.

(4) If the House of the People does not accept any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People without any of the amendments recommended by the Council of States. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

(5) If a Money Bill passed by the House of the People and transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations is not returned to the House of the People within the said period of fourteen days, it shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People.

The Rajya Sabha has limited powers with regard to money bills and can only make recommendations and cannot reject or amend the bill.

Solution: C

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Article 109 of the Indian Constitution is related to Special procedure in respect of Money Bills: It states that

(1) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

The Rajya Sabha has limited powers with regard to money bills and can only make recommendations and cannot reject or amend the bill.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India ? Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below : a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: 25 Parts of the Indian Constitution Part I : the Union and its territory (Articles 1 to 4) Part II : Citizenship (Articles 5 to 11) Part III : Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35) Part IV : Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36 to 51) Part IVA : Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) Part V : The Union (Articles 52 to 151) Part VI : The States (Articles 152 to 237) Part VIII : The Union Territories (Articles 239 to 242) Part IX : The Panchayats (Articles 243 to 243O) Part IXA : The Municipalities (Articles 243P to 243 ZG) Part IXB : Co-operative Societies (Articles 243H to 243 ZT) Part X : The Scheduled and Tribal Areas (Articles 244 to 244A) Part XI : Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245 to 263) Part XII : Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits (Articles 264 to 300A) Part XIII : Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301 to 307) Part XIV : Services under the Union and the States (Articles 308 to 323) Part XIVA : Tribunals (Articles 323A and 323B ) Part XV : Elections (Articles 324 to 329A) Part XVI : Special provisions relating to certain classes (Articles 330 to 342) Part XVII : Official Language (Articles 343 to 351) Part XVIII : Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to 360) Part XIX : Miscellaneous (Articles 361 to 367) Part XX : Amendment to the Constitution ( Article 368) Part XXI : Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions (Articles 369 to 392) Part XXII : Short title, commencement, authoritative text in Hindi and repeals (Articles 393 to 395) All the above statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: 25 Parts of the Indian Constitution Part I : the Union and its territory (Articles 1 to 4) Part II : Citizenship (Articles 5 to 11) Part III : Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35) Part IV : Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36 to 51) Part IVA : Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) Part V : The Union (Articles 52 to 151) Part VI : The States (Articles 152 to 237) Part VIII : The Union Territories (Articles 239 to 242) Part IX : The Panchayats (Articles 243 to 243O) Part IXA : The Municipalities (Articles 243P to 243 ZG) Part IXB : Co-operative Societies (Articles 243H to 243 ZT) Part X : The Scheduled and Tribal Areas (Articles 244 to 244A) Part XI : Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245 to 263) Part XII : Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits (Articles 264 to 300A) Part XIII : Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301 to 307) Part XIV : Services under the Union and the States (Articles 308 to 323) Part XIVA : Tribunals (Articles 323A and 323B ) Part XV : Elections (Articles 324 to 329A) Part XVI : Special provisions relating to certain classes (Articles 330 to 342) Part XVII : Official Language (Articles 343 to 351) Part XVIII : Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to 360) Part XIX : Miscellaneous (Articles 361 to 367) Part XX : Amendment to the Constitution ( Article 368) Part XXI : Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions (Articles 369 to 392) Part XXII : Short title, commencement, authoritative text in Hindi and repeals (Articles 393 to 395) All the above statements are correct.

#### 22. Question

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India ?

• Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.

• Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.

• Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below :

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

25 Parts of the Indian Constitution

Part I : the Union and its territory (Articles 1 to 4)

Part II : Citizenship (Articles 5 to 11)

Part III : Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35)

Part IV : Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36 to 51)

Part IVA : Fundamental Duties (Article 51A)

Part V : The Union (Articles 52 to 151)

Part VI : The States (Articles 152 to 237)

Part VIII : The Union Territories (Articles 239 to 242)

Part IX : The Panchayats (Articles 243 to 243O)

Part IXA : The Municipalities (Articles 243P to 243 ZG)

Part IXB : Co-operative Societies (Articles 243H to 243 ZT)

Part X : The Scheduled and Tribal Areas (Articles 244 to 244A)

Part XI : Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245 to 263)

Part XII : Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits (Articles 264 to 300A)

Part XIII : Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301 to 307)

Part XIV : Services under the Union and the States (Articles 308 to 323)

Part XIVA : Tribunals (Articles 323A and 323B )

Part XV : Elections (Articles 324 to 329A)

Part XVI : Special provisions relating to certain classes (Articles 330 to 342)

Part XVII : Official Language (Articles 343 to 351)

Part XVIII : Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to 360)

Part XIX : Miscellaneous (Articles 361 to 367)

Part XX : Amendment to the Constitution ( Article 368)

Part XXI : Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions (Articles 369 to 392)

Part XXII : Short title, commencement, authoritative text in Hindi and repeals (Articles 393 to 395)

All the above statements are correct.

Solution: D

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

25 Parts of the Indian Constitution

Part I : the Union and its territory (Articles 1 to 4)

Part II : Citizenship (Articles 5 to 11)

Part III : Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35)

Part IV : Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36 to 51)

Part IVA : Fundamental Duties (Article 51A)

Part V : The Union (Articles 52 to 151)

Part VI : The States (Articles 152 to 237)

Part VIII : The Union Territories (Articles 239 to 242)

Part IX : The Panchayats (Articles 243 to 243O)

Part IXA : The Municipalities (Articles 243P to 243 ZG)

Part IXB : Co-operative Societies (Articles 243H to 243 ZT)

Part X : The Scheduled and Tribal Areas (Articles 244 to 244A)

Part XI : Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245 to 263)

Part XII : Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits (Articles 264 to 300A)

Part XIII : Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301 to 307)

Part XIV : Services under the Union and the States (Articles 308 to 323)

Part XIVA : Tribunals (Articles 323A and 323B )

Part XV : Elections (Articles 324 to 329A)

Part XVI : Special provisions relating to certain classes (Articles 330 to 342)

Part XVII : Official Language (Articles 343 to 351)

Part XVIII : Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to 360)

Part XIX : Miscellaneous (Articles 361 to 367)

Part XX : Amendment to the Constitution ( Article 368)

Part XXI : Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions (Articles 369 to 392)

Part XXII : Short title, commencement, authoritative text in Hindi and repeals (Articles 393 to 395)

All the above statements are correct.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points The longest border between any two countries in the world is between : a) Canada and the United States of America b) Chile and Argentina c) China and India d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation Correct Solution: A Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Rank Country A Country B Border Length (km) 1 Canada United States 8,893 2 Kazakhstan Russia 7,644 3 Argentina Chile 6,691 4 China Mongolia 4,630 5 Bangladesh India 4,142 6 China Russia 4,133 7 Mongolia Russia 3,452 8 Bolivia Brazil 3,403 9 India Pakistan 3,190 10 Mexico United States 3,155 Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Solution: A Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Rank Country A Country B Border Length (km) 1 Canada United States 8,893 2 Kazakhstan Russia 7,644 3 Argentina Chile 6,691 4 China Mongolia 4,630 5 Bangladesh India 4,142 6 China Russia 4,133 7 Mongolia Russia 3,452 8 Bolivia Brazil 3,403 9 India Pakistan 3,190 10 Mexico United States 3,155 Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 23. Question

The longest border between any two countries in the world is between :

• a) Canada and the United States of America

• b) Chile and Argentina

• c) China and India

• d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Solution: A

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Rank | Country A | Country B | Border Length (km)

1 | Canada | United States | 8,893

2 | Kazakhstan | Russia | 7,644

3 | Argentina | Chile | 6,691

4 | China | Mongolia | 4,630

5 | Bangladesh | India | 4,142

6 | China | Russia | 4,133

7 | Mongolia | Russia | 3,452

8 | Bolivia | Brazil | 3,403

9 | India | Pakistan | 3,190

10 | Mexico | United States | 3,155

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution: A

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Rank | Country A | Country B | Border Length (km)

1 | Canada | United States | 8,893

2 | Kazakhstan | Russia | 7,644

3 | Argentina | Chile | 6,691

4 | China | Mongolia | 4,630

5 | Bangladesh | India | 4,142

6 | China | Russia | 4,133

7 | Mongolia | Russia | 3,452

8 | Bolivia | Brazil | 3,403

9 | India | Pakistan | 3,190

10 | Mexico | United States | 3,155

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Under 342(1) of Indian Constitution, Scheduled Tribes — the President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory as the case may be. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. (2) Parliament may be law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification. The list of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Incorrect Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Under 342(1) of Indian Constitution, Scheduled Tribes — the President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory as the case may be. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. (2) Parliament may be law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification. The list of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements:

• It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.

• A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Under 342(1) of Indian Constitution, Scheduled Tribes — the President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory as the case may be. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• (2) Parliament may be law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.

The list of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

The list of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration He/She shall not preside. He/She shall not have the right to speak. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: Speaker can be removed by the Lok Sabha by a resolution passed by effective majority of the house as per Constitution of India[Articles 94]. When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though he may be present. However, he can speak and take part in the proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes. Hence, both statement 2 and 3 are incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: Speaker can be removed by the Lok Sabha by a resolution passed by effective majority of the house as per Constitution of India[Articles 94]. When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though he may be present. However, he can speak and take part in the proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes. Hence, both statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.

#### 25. Question

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

• He/She shall not preside.

• He/She shall not have the right to speak.

• He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

Speaker can be removed by the Lok Sabha by a resolution passed by effective majority of the house as per Constitution of India[Articles 94].

When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though he may be present. However, he can speak and take part in the proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes. Hence, both statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Solution: A

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

Speaker can be removed by the Lok Sabha by a resolution passed by effective majority of the house as per Constitution of India[Articles 94].

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements : To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct ? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (erstwhile National Land Record Modernization Programme-) was revamped and converted as a Central Sector Scheme with effect from 1st April, 2016 with 100% funding by the Centre. The objective of DILRMP is to develop a modern, comprehensive and transparent land record management system with the aim to develop an Integrated Land Information Management System which will inter alia: improve real-time information on land; optimize use of land resources; benefit both landowners & prospectors; assist in policy & planning; reduce land disputes; check fraudulent/benami transactions obviate need of physical visits to Revenue/Registration offices enable sharing of information with various organisations/agencies. At present, 68.02 percent Cadastral Maps have been digitized. Transliteration of Land Records in all languages of Schedule VIII in all States/UTs Currently, the Records of Rights in States and Union Territories are maintained in local languages. The linguistic barriers pose serious challenges for access of information and usage in understandable form. In order to address the problem of linguistic barriers in land governance, the Government with the technical support of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local language to any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution. All the above statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: D Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (erstwhile National Land Record Modernization Programme-) was revamped and converted as a Central Sector Scheme with effect from 1st April, 2016 with 100% funding by the Centre. The objective of DILRMP is to develop a modern, comprehensive and transparent land record management system with the aim to develop an Integrated Land Information Management System which will inter alia: improve real-time information on land; optimize use of land resources; benefit both landowners & prospectors; assist in policy & planning; reduce land disputes; check fraudulent/benami transactions obviate need of physical visits to Revenue/Registration offices enable sharing of information with various organisations/agencies. At present, 68.02 percent Cadastral Maps have been digitized. Transliteration of Land Records in all languages of Schedule VIII in all States/UTs Currently, the Records of Rights in States and Union Territories are maintained in local languages. The linguistic barriers pose serious challenges for access of information and usage in understandable form. In order to address the problem of linguistic barriers in land governance, the Government with the technical support of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local language to any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution. All the above statements are correct.

#### 26. Question

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :

• To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.

• Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.

• An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme

Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (erstwhile National Land Record Modernization Programme-) was revamped and converted as a Central Sector Scheme with effect from 1st April, 2016 with 100% funding by the Centre.

The objective of DILRMP is to develop a modern, comprehensive and transparent land record management system with the aim to develop an Integrated Land Information Management System which will inter alia:

• improve real-time information on land;

• optimize use of land resources;

• benefit both landowners & prospectors;

• assist in policy & planning;

• reduce land disputes;

• check fraudulent/benami transactions

• obviate need of physical visits to Revenue/Registration offices

• enable sharing of information with various organisations/agencies.

At present, 68.02 percent Cadastral Maps have been digitized.

Transliteration of Land Records in all languages of Schedule VIII in all States/UTs

Currently, the Records of Rights in States and Union Territories are maintained in local languages. The linguistic barriers pose serious challenges for access of information and usage in understandable form. In order to address the problem of linguistic barriers in land governance, the Government with the technical support of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local language to any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution.

All the above statements are correct.

Solution: D

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme

• improve real-time information on land;

• optimize use of land resources;

• benefit both landowners & prospectors;

• assist in policy & planning;

• reduce land disputes;

• check fraudulent/benami transactions

• obviate need of physical visits to Revenue/Registration offices

• enable sharing of information with various organisations/agencies.

At present, 68.02 percent Cadastral Maps have been digitized.

Transliteration of Land Records in all languages of Schedule VIII in all States/UTs

All the above statements are correct.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements : The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 2 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 4 Correct Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan is a central government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Unorganised Workers (UW). Once the beneficiary joins the scheme at the entry age of 18-40 years, the beneficiary has to contribute till 60 years of age. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Through ‘auto-debit’ facility from his/ her savings bank account/ Jan- Dhan account from the date of joining PM-SYM till the age of 60 years. It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme, under which the subscriber would receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years and if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as family pension. Family pension is applicable only to spouse. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan is a central government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Unorganised Workers (UW). Once the beneficiary joins the scheme at the entry age of 18-40 years, the beneficiary has to contribute till 60 years of age. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Through ‘auto-debit’ facility from his/ her savings bank account/ Jan- Dhan account from the date of joining PM-SYM till the age of 60 years. It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme, under which the subscriber would receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years and if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as family pension. Family pension is applicable only to spouse. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 27. Question

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements :

• The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.

• Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.

• Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

• Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

• a) 1, 3 and 4

• b) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 4

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan

• Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan is a central government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Unorganised Workers (UW).

• Once the beneficiary joins the scheme at the entry age of 18-40 years, the beneficiary has to contribute till 60 years of age. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Through ‘auto-debit’ facility from his/ her savings bank account/ Jan- Dhan account from the date of joining PM-SYM till the age of 60 years.

• It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme, under which the subscriber would receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years and if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as family pension. Family pension is applicable only to spouse. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan

• Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan is a central government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Unorganised Workers (UW).

• Once the beneficiary joins the scheme at the entry age of 18-40 years, the beneficiary has to contribute till 60 years of age. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Through ‘auto-debit’ facility from his/ her savings bank account/ Jan- Dhan account from the date of joining PM-SYM till the age of 60 years.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-11 does not explain Statement-1 (c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Difficulty: Easy Category: Applied knowledge Justification: The atmosphere is divided into five different layers, based on temperature. The layer closest to Earth’s surface is the troposphere, reaching from about seven and 15 kilometers (five to 10 miles) from the surface. The troposphere is thickest at the equator, and much thinner at the North and South Poles. The uneven heating of the regions of the troposphere by the sun (the sun warms the air at the equator more than the air at the poles) causes convection currents, large-scale patterns of winds that move heat and moisture around the globe. Air rises along the equator and move towards the polar region and sink back towards the earth. Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Difficulty: Easy Category: Applied knowledge Justification: The atmosphere is divided into five different layers, based on temperature. The layer closest to Earth’s surface is the troposphere, reaching from about seven and 15 kilometers (five to 10 miles) from the surface. The troposphere is thickest at the equator, and much thinner at the North and South Poles. The uneven heating of the regions of the troposphere by the sun (the sun warms the air at the equator more than the air at the poles) causes convection currents, large-scale patterns of winds that move heat and moisture around the globe. Air rises along the equator and move towards the polar region and sink back towards the earth. Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

#### 28. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II:

At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-11 does not explain Statement-1

• (c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

The atmosphere is divided into five different layers, based on temperature. The layer closest to Earth’s surface is the troposphere, reaching from about seven and 15 kilometers (five to 10 miles) from the surface. The troposphere is thickest at the equator, and much thinner at the North and South Poles.

The uneven heating of the regions of the troposphere by the sun (the sun warms the air at the equator more than the air at the poles) causes convection currents, large-scale patterns of winds that move heat and moisture around the globe. Air rises along the equator and move towards the polar region and sink back towards the earth.

Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Solution: A

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Applied knowledge

Justification:

Hence, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Finland Germany Norway Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: The sea is bordered by the island of Great Britain to the southwest and west, the Orkney and Shetland islands to the northwest, Norway to the northeast, Denmark to the east, Germany and the Netherlands to the southeast, and Belgium and France to the south. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Difficulty: Moderate Category: Factual Justification: The sea is bordered by the island of Great Britain to the southwest and west, the Orkney and Shetland islands to the northwest, Norway to the northeast, Denmark to the east, Germany and the Netherlands to the southeast, and Belgium and France to the south. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 29. Question

Consider the following countries:

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

The sea is bordered by the island of Great Britain to the southwest and west, the Orkney and Shetland islands to the northwest, Norway to the northeast, Denmark to the east, Germany and the Netherlands to the southeast, and Belgium and France to the south. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

Difficulty: Moderate

Category: Factual

Justification:

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are : a) Birds b) Fish c) Insects d) Reptiles Correct Solution: C Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: Cicadas are a family of about 3000 species of sound-producing insects. The froghoppers, or the superfamily Cercopoidea, are a group of hemipteran insects in the suborder Auchenorrhyncha. Froghopper are small (less than 1.5 cm long) hopping insects. Common pond skaters are predatory insects which use water repellent hairs on their feet to ‘skate’ across water surfaces to catch their prey. Incorrect Solution: C Difficulty: Easy Category: Factual Justification: Cicadas are a family of about 3000 species of sound-producing insects. The froghoppers, or the superfamily Cercopoidea, are a group of hemipteran insects in the suborder Auchenorrhyncha. Froghopper are small (less than 1.5 cm long) hopping insects. Common pond skaters are predatory insects which use water repellent hairs on their feet to ‘skate’ across water surfaces to catch their prey.

#### 30. Question

The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are :

• c) Insects

• d) Reptiles

Solution: C

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

Cicadas are a family of about 3000 species of sound-producing insects.

The froghoppers, or the superfamily Cercopoidea, are a group of hemipteran insects in the suborder Auchenorrhyncha. Froghopper are small (less than 1.5 cm long) hopping insects.

Common pond skaters are predatory insects which use water repellent hairs on their feet to ‘skate’ across water surfaces to catch their prey.

Solution: C

Difficulty: Easy

Category: Factual

Justification:

Cicadas are a family of about 3000 species of sound-producing insects.

The froghoppers, or the superfamily Cercopoidea, are a group of hemipteran insects in the suborder Auchenorrhyncha. Froghopper are small (less than 1.5 cm long) hopping insects.

Common pond skaters are predatory insects which use water repellent hairs on their feet to ‘skate’ across water surfaces to catch their prey.

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