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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to classical Indian dance forms, consider the following statements: Mohiniyattam incorporates elements from both Bharatanatyam and Kathakali. The Pandanallur style is associated with the Odissi dance tradition. Kuchipudi originated as a male dance tradition performed by Brahmin families. The Kalakshetra style emphasizes geometric precision and linear movements. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Mohiniyattam, the classical dance form of Kerala, incorporates elements from both Bharatanatyam (in its basic postures) and Kathakali (in its facial expressions and hand gestures), while maintaining its distinctive lasya (graceful, feminine) quality. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Pandanallur style is associated with Bharatanatyam, not Odissi. It was developed and popularized by the Pandanallur family, particularly Meenakshisundaram Pillai, and is known for its geometric precision and rigorous technique. Statement 3 is correct. Kuchipudi originated in the 17th century as a male dance tradition performed by Brahmin families from the village of Kuchelapuram (modern Kuchipudi) in Andhra Pradesh. Women were incorporated into the tradition only in the 20th century through the efforts of pioneers like Vedantam Lakshminarayana Sastri. Statement 4 is correct. The Kalakshetra style of Bharatanatyam, developed by Rukmini Devi Arundale, emphasizes geometric precision, linear movements, and spiritual devotion. It is characterized by its adherence to the principles outlined in the Natya Shastra with a focus on technical perfecti Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Mohiniyattam, the classical dance form of Kerala, incorporates elements from both Bharatanatyam (in its basic postures) and Kathakali (in its facial expressions and hand gestures), while maintaining its distinctive lasya (graceful, feminine) quality. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Pandanallur style is associated with Bharatanatyam, not Odissi. It was developed and popularized by the Pandanallur family, particularly Meenakshisundaram Pillai, and is known for its geometric precision and rigorous technique. Statement 3 is correct. Kuchipudi originated in the 17th century as a male dance tradition performed by Brahmin families from the village of Kuchelapuram (modern Kuchipudi) in Andhra Pradesh. Women were incorporated into the tradition only in the 20th century through the efforts of pioneers like Vedantam Lakshminarayana Sastri. Statement 4 is correct. The Kalakshetra style of Bharatanatyam, developed by Rukmini Devi Arundale, emphasizes geometric precision, linear movements, and spiritual devotion. It is characterized by its adherence to the principles outlined in the Natya Shastra with a focus on technical perfecti

#### 1. Question

With reference to classical Indian dance forms, consider the following statements:

• Mohiniyattam incorporates elements from both Bharatanatyam and Kathakali.

• The Pandanallur style is associated with the Odissi dance tradition.

• Kuchipudi originated as a male dance tradition performed by Brahmin families.

• The Kalakshetra style emphasizes geometric precision and linear movements.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct.

Mohiniyattam, the classical dance form of Kerala, incorporates elements from both Bharatanatyam (in its basic postures) and Kathakali (in its facial expressions and hand gestures), while maintaining its distinctive lasya (graceful, feminine) quality.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Pandanallur style is associated with Bharatanatyam, not Odissi. It was developed and popularized by the Pandanallur family, particularly Meenakshisundaram Pillai, and is known for its geometric precision and rigorous technique.

Statement 3 is correct.

Kuchipudi originated in the 17th century as a male dance tradition performed by Brahmin families from the village of Kuchelapuram (modern Kuchipudi) in Andhra Pradesh. Women were incorporated into the tradition only in the 20th century through the efforts of pioneers like Vedantam Lakshminarayana Sastri.

Statement 4 is correct.

The Kalakshetra style of Bharatanatyam, developed by Rukmini Devi Arundale, emphasizes geometric precision, linear movements, and spiritual devotion. It is characterized by its adherence to the principles outlined in the Natya Shastra with a focus on technical perfecti

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 3 is correct.

Statement 4 is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points In the context of medieval Indian temple architecture, how many of the following statements is/are correct? The Hoysala temples have star-shaped platforms with multiple shrines arranged around a central mandapa. Khajuraho temples are characterized by the absence of interior space for circumambulation (pradakshina path). The Chandella temples show greater emphasis on vertical elements compared to the Chalukyan temples. The Lingaraja Temple represents the mature phase of the Kalinga architectural style. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Hoysala temples (12th-14th centuries) feature unique star-shaped platforms (jagati) with multiple shrines arranged around a central mandapa. This stellate plan is evident in temples like Chennakesava Temple at Belur and Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebid. The Chandella temples of Khajuraho (10th-12th centuries) do emphasize verticality with their soaring shikaras (spires) that rise in a curvilinear fashion to great heights. This vertical emphasis is more pronounced than in Chalukyan temples, which tend to have a more horizontal spread with their multiple shrines and mandapas. The Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar (11th century) represents the mature phase of Kalinga architecture, displaying the fully developed Deula style with its distinctive rekha, pidha, and khapra components harmoniously integrated. Statement 2 is incorrect. Khajuraho temples actually have both internal and external pradakshina paths (circumambulatory passages). The internal path allows devotees to circle the garbhagriha (sanctum), while the external path permits circumambulation around the entire temple structure, including the mandapas and the mukhamandapa. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Hoysala temples (12th-14th centuries) feature unique star-shaped platforms (jagati) with multiple shrines arranged around a central mandapa. This stellate plan is evident in temples like Chennakesava Temple at Belur and Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebid. The Chandella temples of Khajuraho (10th-12th centuries) do emphasize verticality with their soaring shikaras (spires) that rise in a curvilinear fashion to great heights. This vertical emphasis is more pronounced than in Chalukyan temples, which tend to have a more horizontal spread with their multiple shrines and mandapas. The Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar (11th century) represents the mature phase of Kalinga architecture, displaying the fully developed Deula style with its distinctive rekha, pidha, and khapra components harmoniously integrated. Statement 2 is incorrect. Khajuraho temples actually have both internal and external pradakshina paths (circumambulatory passages). The internal path allows devotees to circle the garbhagriha (sanctum), while the external path permits circumambulation around the entire temple structure, including the mandapas and the mukhamandapa.

#### 2. Question

In the context of medieval Indian temple architecture, how many of the following statements is/are correct?

• The Hoysala temples have star-shaped platforms with multiple shrines arranged around a central mandapa.

• Khajuraho temples are characterized by the absence of interior space for circumambulation (pradakshina path).

• The Chandella temples show greater emphasis on vertical elements compared to the Chalukyan temples.

• The Lingaraja Temple represents the mature phase of the Kalinga architectural style.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Hoysala temples (12th-14th centuries) feature unique star-shaped platforms (jagati) with multiple shrines arranged around a central mandapa. This stellate plan is evident in temples like Chennakesava Temple at Belur and Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebid.

The Chandella temples of Khajuraho (10th-12th centuries) do emphasize verticality with their soaring shikaras (spires) that rise in a curvilinear fashion to great heights. This vertical emphasis is more pronounced than in Chalukyan temples, which tend to have a more horizontal spread with their multiple shrines and mandapas.

The Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar (11th century) represents the mature phase of Kalinga architecture, displaying the fully developed Deula style with its distinctive rekha, pidha, and khapra components harmoniously integrated.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Khajuraho temples actually have both internal and external pradakshina paths (circumambulatory passages). The internal path allows devotees to circle the garbhagriha (sanctum), while the external path permits circumambulation around the entire temple structure, including the mandapas and the mukhamandapa.

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Gayana-Baja’ in the context of Odissi music? (a) Traditional rhythmic patterns executed by percussionists to accompany dancers (b) A compositional form combining vocal music and instrumental accompaniment (c) A ritual music performance offered during the Jagannath Rath Yatra (d) Ancient palm-leaf manuscripts containing musical notations used in Odissi Correct Solution: B Option (b) is correct. ‘Gayana-Baja’ in Odissi music tradition refers to a compositional form that combines vocal music (Gayana) with instrumental accompaniment (Baja). This integrated musical form is essential to traditional Odissi performances, creating a harmonious blend of singing and instrumentation. It developed in the temple traditions of Odisha, particularly associated with the Jagannath Temple in Puri, where Mahari dancers (temple dancers) performed to devotional music. The vocal component typically consists of poetry from Oriya literature, often from texts like Jayadeva’s Gita Govinda, while the instrumental accompaniment traditionally includes the pakhawaj (mardala), flute, sitar, and manjira (cymbals). Option (a) describes “theka” or “taal” patterns in Indian music, not specifically Gayana-Baja. Option (c) refers to ritual performances but does not accurately define Gayana-Baja, which is performed beyond just the Rath Yatra. Option (d) describes “pothi” manuscripts, not Gayana-Baja. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is correct. ‘Gayana-Baja’ in Odissi music tradition refers to a compositional form that combines vocal music (Gayana) with instrumental accompaniment (Baja). This integrated musical form is essential to traditional Odissi performances, creating a harmonious blend of singing and instrumentation. It developed in the temple traditions of Odisha, particularly associated with the Jagannath Temple in Puri, where Mahari dancers (temple dancers) performed to devotional music. The vocal component typically consists of poetry from Oriya literature, often from texts like Jayadeva’s Gita Govinda, while the instrumental accompaniment traditionally includes the pakhawaj (mardala), flute, sitar, and manjira (cymbals). Option (a) describes “theka” or “taal” patterns in Indian music, not specifically Gayana-Baja. Option (c) refers to ritual performances but does not accurately define Gayana-Baja, which is performed beyond just the Rath Yatra. Option (d) describes “pothi” manuscripts, not Gayana-Baja.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Gayana-Baja’ in the context of Odissi music?

• (a) Traditional rhythmic patterns executed by percussionists to accompany dancers

• (b) A compositional form combining vocal music and instrumental accompaniment

• (c) A ritual music performance offered during the Jagannath Rath Yatra

• (d) Ancient palm-leaf manuscripts containing musical notations used in Odissi

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

‘Gayana-Baja’ in Odissi music tradition refers to a compositional form that combines vocal music (Gayana) with instrumental accompaniment (Baja). This integrated musical form is essential to traditional Odissi performances, creating a harmonious blend of singing and instrumentation. It developed in the temple traditions of Odisha, particularly associated with the Jagannath Temple in Puri, where Mahari dancers (temple dancers) performed to devotional music. The vocal component typically consists of poetry from Oriya literature, often from texts like Jayadeva’s Gita Govinda, while the instrumental accompaniment traditionally includes the pakhawaj (mardala), flute, sitar, and manjira (cymbals).

Option (a) describes “theka” or “taal” patterns in Indian music, not specifically Gayana-Baja.

Option (c) refers to ritual performances but does not accurately define Gayana-Baja, which is performed beyond just the Rath Yatra.

Option (d) describes “pothi” manuscripts, not Gayana-Baja.

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

Option (a) describes “theka” or “taal” patterns in Indian music, not specifically Gayana-Baja.

Option (c) refers to ritual performances but does not accurately define Gayana-Baja, which is performed beyond just the Rath Yatra.

Option (d) describes “pothi” manuscripts, not Gayana-Baja.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the musical instrument ‘Rudra Veena’, consider the following statements: It belongs to the chordophone family classified under the ‘tata vadya’ category. It is played by plucking the strings with the fingernails of the right hand while the left hand manipulates the frets. It has two large resonators made from dried bottle gourds attached beneath the hollow wooden tube. Unlike the sitar, it does not have sympathetic strings (taraf). Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: A Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Rudra Veena belongs to the chordophone family and is classified under ‘tata vadya’ (stringed instruments) in the traditional Indian classification system. It is played by plucking the strings with the fingernails of the right hand while the left hand presses the strings against the frets to produce different notes. The technique involves complex finger movements and requires meticulous tuning. The instrument has two large resonators made from dried bottle gourds (tumba) attached beneath the hollow wooden tube (dandi), enhancing its deep, resonant sound quality. These gourds are carefully selected and treated to optimize acoustic properties. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Rudra Veena does have sympathetic strings (taraf), typically 11-13 in number, which resonate when the main strings are played. These sympathetic strings contribute to the instrument’s rich tonal quality and sustain. Unlike the sitar, where sympathetic strings run alongside the main playing strings, the Rudra Veena’s sympathetic strings are arranged below the main strings and are not directly played but vibrate in response to the played notes, creating a harmonic resonance. Incorrect Solution: A Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Rudra Veena belongs to the chordophone family and is classified under ‘tata vadya’ (stringed instruments) in the traditional Indian classification system. It is played by plucking the strings with the fingernails of the right hand while the left hand presses the strings against the frets to produce different notes. The technique involves complex finger movements and requires meticulous tuning. The instrument has two large resonators made from dried bottle gourds (tumba) attached beneath the hollow wooden tube (dandi), enhancing its deep, resonant sound quality. These gourds are carefully selected and treated to optimize acoustic properties. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Rudra Veena does have sympathetic strings (taraf), typically 11-13 in number, which resonate when the main strings are played. These sympathetic strings contribute to the instrument’s rich tonal quality and sustain. Unlike the sitar, where sympathetic strings run alongside the main playing strings, the Rudra Veena’s sympathetic strings are arranged below the main strings and are not directly played but vibrate in response to the played notes, creating a harmonic resonance.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the musical instrument ‘Rudra Veena’, consider the following statements:

• It belongs to the chordophone family classified under the ‘tata vadya’ category.

• It is played by plucking the strings with the fingernails of the right hand while the left hand manipulates the frets.

• It has two large resonators made from dried bottle gourds attached beneath the hollow wooden tube.

• Unlike the sitar, it does not have sympathetic strings (taraf).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: A

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

The Rudra Veena belongs to the chordophone family and is classified under ‘tata vadya’ (stringed instruments) in the traditional Indian classification system. It is played by plucking the strings with the fingernails of the right hand while the left hand presses the strings against the frets to produce different notes. The technique involves complex finger movements and requires meticulous tuning. The instrument has two large resonators made from dried bottle gourds (tumba) attached beneath the hollow wooden tube (dandi), enhancing its deep, resonant sound quality. These gourds are carefully selected and treated to optimize acoustic properties.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

The Rudra Veena does have sympathetic strings (taraf), typically 11-13 in number, which resonate when the main strings are played. These sympathetic strings contribute to the instrument’s rich tonal quality and sustain. Unlike the sitar, where sympathetic strings run alongside the main playing strings, the Rudra Veena’s sympathetic strings are arranged below the main strings and are not directly played but vibrate in response to the played notes, creating a harmonic resonance.

Solution: A

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Nathdwara School of painting is/are correct? It originated in Rajasthan after the idol of Shrinathji was relocated from Mathura during Aurangzeb’s reign. The paintings primarily depict Krishna in his infant form rather than as a divine lover. The school introduced the pichhwai style of paintings on cloth for temple backdrops. Unlike Pahari paintings, it does not incorporate landscape elements in the background. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Nathdwara School of painting originated in Rajasthan after the idol of Shrinathji (a form of Krishna) was relocated from Mathura to Nathdwara in 1672 CE to protect it from destruction during Aurangzeb’s reign. The paintings of this school primarily depict Krishna in his infant form as Bala Gopal or as Shrinathji (the seven-year-old child who lifted Govardhan Hill), rather than as Radha’s divine lover (shringar rasa) as seen in many other Vaishnava artistic traditions. The school pioneered and popularized the pichhwai style of paintings – large cloth paintings that serve as decorative backdrops for the Shrinathji idol in temples. These elaborate pichhwais change according to seasons and festivals, depicting various leelas (divine plays) of Krishna. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Nathdwara School does incorporate landscape elements in the background, including stylized representations of the Govardhan Hill, gardens, lakes, and architectural elements. While these landscapes are not as dominant or naturalistic as those in Pahari paintings, they are definitely present and form an important compositional element of Nathdwara paintings, especially in pichhwais depicting seasonal themes. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Nathdwara School of painting originated in Rajasthan after the idol of Shrinathji (a form of Krishna) was relocated from Mathura to Nathdwara in 1672 CE to protect it from destruction during Aurangzeb’s reign. The paintings of this school primarily depict Krishna in his infant form as Bala Gopal or as Shrinathji (the seven-year-old child who lifted Govardhan Hill), rather than as Radha’s divine lover (shringar rasa) as seen in many other Vaishnava artistic traditions. The school pioneered and popularized the pichhwai style of paintings – large cloth paintings that serve as decorative backdrops for the Shrinathji idol in temples. These elaborate pichhwais change according to seasons and festivals, depicting various leelas (divine plays) of Krishna. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Nathdwara School does incorporate landscape elements in the background, including stylized representations of the Govardhan Hill, gardens, lakes, and architectural elements. While these landscapes are not as dominant or naturalistic as those in Pahari paintings, they are definitely present and form an important compositional element of Nathdwara paintings, especially in pichhwais depicting seasonal themes.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements about the Nathdwara School of painting is/are correct?

• It originated in Rajasthan after the idol of Shrinathji was relocated from Mathura during Aurangzeb’s reign.

• The paintings primarily depict Krishna in his infant form rather than as a divine lover.

• The school introduced the pichhwai style of paintings on cloth for temple backdrops.

• Unlike Pahari paintings, it does not incorporate landscape elements in the background.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: C

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

The Nathdwara School of painting originated in Rajasthan after the idol of Shrinathji (a form of Krishna) was relocated from Mathura to Nathdwara in 1672 CE to protect it from destruction during Aurangzeb’s reign. The paintings of this school primarily depict Krishna in his infant form as Bala Gopal or as Shrinathji (the seven-year-old child who lifted Govardhan Hill), rather than as Radha’s divine lover (shringar rasa) as seen in many other Vaishnava artistic traditions. The school pioneered and popularized the pichhwai style of paintings – large cloth paintings that serve as decorative backdrops for the Shrinathji idol in temples. These elaborate pichhwais change according to seasons and festivals, depicting various leelas (divine plays) of Krishna.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

The Nathdwara School does incorporate landscape elements in the background, including stylized representations of the Govardhan Hill, gardens, lakes, and architectural elements. While these landscapes are not as dominant or naturalistic as those in Pahari paintings, they are definitely present and form an important compositional element of Nathdwara paintings, especially in pichhwais depicting seasonal themes.

Solution: C

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The famous painting ‘Bani Thani’, often described as the ‘Indian Mona Lisa’, represents which of the following styles? (a) Kishangarh School (b) Kangra School (c) Kalighat style (d) Tanjore School Correct Solution: A Option (a) is correct. ‘Bani Thani’ is a famous painting that represents the Kishangarh School of miniature paintings. Created in the mid-18th century (around 1760), it is attributed to artist Nihal Chand under the patronage of Raja Savant Singh (who ruled Kishangarh from 1748 to 1764). The painting depicts Bani Thani, believed to be the ruler’s beloved and a court poetess. It has been called the ‘Indian Mona Lisa’ due to its enigmatic expression and iconic status in Indian art. The Kishangarh School is known for its distinctive style featuring elongated faces, almond-shaped eyes, thin lips, pointed noses, and delicate features-all exemplified in the Bani Thani portrait. The school developed a unique romantic vision focused on depicting Radha and Krishna, with exaggerated features that became a stylistic hallmark. The Kangra School (option b) is known for lyrical depictions of Radha-Krishna themes with lush green landscapes, but doesn’t feature the distinctive elongated features of Kishangarh paintings. The Kalighat style (option c) emerged in 19th century Calcutta, featuring bold outlines and religious themes created for pilgrims. The Tanjore School (option d) is characterized by rich, flat colors, extensive use of gold foil, and inset glass or precious stones. Incorrect Solution: A Option (a) is correct. ‘Bani Thani’ is a famous painting that represents the Kishangarh School of miniature paintings. Created in the mid-18th century (around 1760), it is attributed to artist Nihal Chand under the patronage of Raja Savant Singh (who ruled Kishangarh from 1748 to 1764). The painting depicts Bani Thani, believed to be the ruler’s beloved and a court poetess. It has been called the ‘Indian Mona Lisa’ due to its enigmatic expression and iconic status in Indian art. The Kishangarh School is known for its distinctive style featuring elongated faces, almond-shaped eyes, thin lips, pointed noses, and delicate features-all exemplified in the Bani Thani portrait. The school developed a unique romantic vision focused on depicting Radha and Krishna, with exaggerated features that became a stylistic hallmark. The Kangra School (option b) is known for lyrical depictions of Radha-Krishna themes with lush green landscapes, but doesn’t feature the distinctive elongated features of Kishangarh paintings. The Kalighat style (option c) emerged in 19th century Calcutta, featuring bold outlines and religious themes created for pilgrims. The Tanjore School (option d) is characterized by rich, flat colors, extensive use of gold foil, and inset glass or precious stones.

#### 6. Question

The famous painting ‘Bani Thani’, often described as the ‘Indian Mona Lisa’, represents which of the following styles?

• (a) Kishangarh School

• (b) Kangra School

• (c) Kalighat style

• (d) Tanjore School

Solution: A

Option (a) is correct.

‘Bani Thani’ is a famous painting that represents the Kishangarh School of miniature paintings. Created in the mid-18th century (around 1760), it is attributed to artist Nihal Chand under the patronage of Raja Savant Singh (who ruled Kishangarh from 1748 to 1764). The painting depicts Bani Thani, believed to be the ruler’s beloved and a court poetess. It has been called the ‘Indian Mona Lisa’ due to its enigmatic expression and iconic status in Indian art. The Kishangarh School is known for its distinctive style featuring elongated faces, almond-shaped eyes, thin lips, pointed noses, and delicate features-all exemplified in the Bani Thani portrait. The school developed a unique romantic vision focused on depicting Radha and Krishna, with exaggerated features that became a stylistic hallmark.

The Kangra School (option b) is known for lyrical depictions of Radha-Krishna themes with lush green landscapes, but doesn’t feature the distinctive elongated features of Kishangarh paintings.

The Kalighat style (option c) emerged in 19th century Calcutta, featuring bold outlines and religious themes created for pilgrims.

The Tanjore School (option d) is characterized by rich, flat colors, extensive use of gold foil, and inset glass or precious stones.

Solution: A

Option (a) is correct.

The Kangra School (option b) is known for lyrical depictions of Radha-Krishna themes with lush green landscapes, but doesn’t feature the distinctive elongated features of Kishangarh paintings.

The Kalighat style (option c) emerged in 19th century Calcutta, featuring bold outlines and religious themes created for pilgrims.

The Tanjore School (option d) is characterized by rich, flat colors, extensive use of gold foil, and inset glass or precious stones.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs of traditional Indian textiles and their regions of origin: Pochampally Ikat – Telangana Bomkai – Maharashtra Chamba Rumal – Himachal Pradesh Ilkal – Karnataka How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pochampally Ikat is from Telangana (specifically, Pochampally village in Yadadri Bhuvanagiri district). It is a style of Ikat where the warp and weft threads are tie-dyed before weaving to create distinctive geometric patterns. It received Geographical Indication (GI) status in 2004. Chamba Rumal is from Himachal Pradesh. These are embroidered square handkerchiefs that feature detailed needlework depicting scenes from Radha-Krishna legends and other mythological tales. The art form flourished under the patronage of the rulers of Chamba state. Ilkal textiles are from Karnataka (specifically, the town of Ilkal in Bagalkot district). These sarees are characterized by their distinctive pallus with zigzag patterns in contrasting colors, and they feature a typical border design called “gomi.” Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Bomkai (also called Sonepuri) textiles are from Odisha (particularly Ganjam district), not Maharashtra. These sarees are known for their unique combination of ikat and embroidery techniques, featuring traditional motifs like flowers, creepers, and temple spires inspired by the tribal culture of the region. Maharashtra is instead known for Paithani, Narayan Peth, and Karvat Kathi textiles. Incorrect Solution: C Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pochampally Ikat is from Telangana (specifically, Pochampally village in Yadadri Bhuvanagiri district). It is a style of Ikat where the warp and weft threads are tie-dyed before weaving to create distinctive geometric patterns. It received Geographical Indication (GI) status in 2004. Chamba Rumal is from Himachal Pradesh. These are embroidered square handkerchiefs that feature detailed needlework depicting scenes from Radha-Krishna legends and other mythological tales. The art form flourished under the patronage of the rulers of Chamba state. Ilkal textiles are from Karnataka (specifically, the town of Ilkal in Bagalkot district). These sarees are characterized by their distinctive pallus with zigzag patterns in contrasting colors, and they feature a typical border design called “gomi.” Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Bomkai (also called Sonepuri) textiles are from Odisha (particularly Ganjam district), not Maharashtra. These sarees are known for their unique combination of ikat and embroidery techniques, featuring traditional motifs like flowers, creepers, and temple spires inspired by the tribal culture of the region. Maharashtra is instead known for Paithani, Narayan Peth, and Karvat Kathi textiles.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following pairs of traditional Indian textiles and their regions of origin:

• Pochampally Ikat – Telangana

• Bomkai – Maharashtra

• Chamba Rumal – Himachal Pradesh

• Ilkal – Karnataka

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Pochampally Ikat is from Telangana (specifically, Pochampally village in Yadadri Bhuvanagiri district). It is a style of Ikat where the warp and weft threads are tie-dyed before weaving to create distinctive geometric patterns. It received Geographical Indication (GI) status in 2004.

Chamba Rumal is from Himachal Pradesh. These are embroidered square handkerchiefs that feature detailed needlework depicting scenes from Radha-Krishna legends and other mythological tales. The art form flourished under the patronage of the rulers of Chamba state.

Ilkal textiles are from Karnataka (specifically, the town of Ilkal in Bagalkot district). These sarees are characterized by their distinctive pallus with zigzag patterns in contrasting colors, and they feature a typical border design called “gomi.”

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Bomkai (also called Sonepuri) textiles are from Odisha (particularly Ganjam district), not Maharashtra. These sarees are known for their unique combination of ikat and embroidery techniques, featuring traditional motifs like flowers, creepers, and temple spires inspired by the tribal culture of the region. Maharashtra is instead known for Paithani, Narayan Peth, and Karvat Kathi textiles.

Solution: C

Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points In the context of ancient Buddhist architecture, which of the following accurately describes a ‘Vihara’? (a) A hemispherical structure containing relics of Buddha or other important monks (b) A monastic residence organized around a central courtyard with individual cells (c) A prayer hall with columns supporting a barrel-vaulted roof (d) A gateway with elaborately carved toranas marking cardinal directions Correct Solution: B Option (b) is correct. In ancient Buddhist architecture, a ‘Vihara’ refers to a monastic residence organized around a central courtyard with individual cells for monks. These residential quarters evolved from simple cave dwellings to elaborate structures with standardized layouts. The typical vihara consisted of small individual cells for monks arranged around a central courtyard or hall used for communal activities and instruction. Examples include the viharas at Nalanda, Takshashila, and Vikramashila. Option (a) describes a ‘Stupa,’ which is a hemispherical structure containing relics of Buddha or other important monks. Stupas evolved from simple burial mounds to elaborate structures with symbolic architectural elements representing Buddhist cosmology, as seen at Sanchi, Amaravati, and Bharhut. Option (c) describes a ‘Chaitya Hall,’ which is a prayer hall typically featuring a stupa at one end and a barrel-vaulted roof supported by columns. These halls were used for worship and congregation, with notable examples found at Karla, Bhaja, and Bedsa cave complexes. Option (d) describes a ‘Torana,’ which is an ornamental gateway marking the entrance to a stupa complex, with four toranas typically positioned at the cardinal directions. The most famous examples are the intricately carved toranas at the Sanchi Stupa. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is correct. In ancient Buddhist architecture, a ‘Vihara’ refers to a monastic residence organized around a central courtyard with individual cells for monks. These residential quarters evolved from simple cave dwellings to elaborate structures with standardized layouts. The typical vihara consisted of small individual cells for monks arranged around a central courtyard or hall used for communal activities and instruction. Examples include the viharas at Nalanda, Takshashila, and Vikramashila. Option (a) describes a ‘Stupa,’ which is a hemispherical structure containing relics of Buddha or other important monks. Stupas evolved from simple burial mounds to elaborate structures with symbolic architectural elements representing Buddhist cosmology, as seen at Sanchi, Amaravati, and Bharhut. Option (c) describes a ‘Chaitya Hall,’ which is a prayer hall typically featuring a stupa at one end and a barrel-vaulted roof supported by columns. These halls were used for worship and congregation, with notable examples found at Karla, Bhaja, and Bedsa cave complexes. Option (d) describes a ‘Torana,’ which is an ornamental gateway marking the entrance to a stupa complex, with four toranas typically positioned at the cardinal directions. The most famous examples are the intricately carved toranas at the Sanchi Stupa.

#### 8. Question

In the context of ancient Buddhist architecture, which of the following accurately describes a ‘Vihara’?

• (a) A hemispherical structure containing relics of Buddha or other important monks

• (b) A monastic residence organized around a central courtyard with individual cells

• (c) A prayer hall with columns supporting a barrel-vaulted roof

• (d) A gateway with elaborately carved toranas marking cardinal directions

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

In ancient Buddhist architecture, a ‘Vihara’ refers to a monastic residence organized around a central courtyard with individual cells for monks. These residential quarters evolved from simple cave dwellings to elaborate structures with standardized layouts. The typical vihara consisted of small individual cells for monks arranged around a central courtyard or hall used for communal activities and instruction. Examples include the viharas at Nalanda, Takshashila, and Vikramashila.

Option (a) describes a ‘Stupa,’ which is a hemispherical structure containing relics of Buddha or other important monks. Stupas evolved from simple burial mounds to elaborate structures with symbolic architectural elements representing Buddhist cosmology, as seen at Sanchi, Amaravati, and Bharhut.

Option (c) describes a ‘Chaitya Hall,’ which is a prayer hall typically featuring a stupa at one end and a barrel-vaulted roof supported by columns. These halls were used for worship and congregation, with notable examples found at Karla, Bhaja, and Bedsa cave complexes.

Option (d) describes a ‘Torana,’ which is an ornamental gateway marking the entrance to a stupa complex, with four toranas typically positioned at the cardinal directions. The most famous examples are the intricately carved toranas at the Sanchi Stupa.

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to ‘Dhrupad’, which of the following statements is/are correct? It evolved from the prabandha form of devotional temple music in medieval India. The Dagar family is primarily associated with preserving the khayal tradition. It is typically performed with the pakhawaj rather than the tabla for percussion accompaniment. Unlike khayal, dhrupad compositions do not include an antarā section. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Dhrupad evolved from the prabandha form of devotional temple music in medieval India, particularly during the 15th-16th centuries. Its earliest compositions were devotional songs sung in temples, especially in Mathura and Vrindavan. The term “Dhrupad” comes from “Dhruva” (fixed) and “Pada” (words), referring to its structured compositional form. Dhrupad is typically performed with the pakhawaj rather than the tabla for percussion accompaniment. The pakhawaj is an older barrel-shaped drum that predates the tabla and produces deeper bass sounds suitable for the austere and profound nature of dhrupad music. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Dagar family is primarily associated with preserving the dhrupad tradition, not khayal. For nearly twenty generations, members of the Dagar family have been the principal exponents of dhrupad, developing distinctive vocal techniques and establishing the Dagarvani style. Statement 4 is incorrect. Dhrupad compositions do include an antarā section. The traditional structure of a dhrupad composition consists of four parts: sthayi (first section), antarā (second section that develops in higher octaves), sanchari (third section), and abhog (concluding section). While some contemporary performances may simplify this structure, the antarā remains an essential component of dhrupad compositions. Incorrect Solution: A Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Dhrupad evolved from the prabandha form of devotional temple music in medieval India, particularly during the 15th-16th centuries. Its earliest compositions were devotional songs sung in temples, especially in Mathura and Vrindavan. The term “Dhrupad” comes from “Dhruva” (fixed) and “Pada” (words), referring to its structured compositional form. Dhrupad is typically performed with the pakhawaj rather than the tabla for percussion accompaniment. The pakhawaj is an older barrel-shaped drum that predates the tabla and produces deeper bass sounds suitable for the austere and profound nature of dhrupad music. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Dagar family is primarily associated with preserving the dhrupad tradition, not khayal. For nearly twenty generations, members of the Dagar family have been the principal exponents of dhrupad, developing distinctive vocal techniques and establishing the Dagarvani style. Statement 4 is incorrect. Dhrupad compositions do include an antarā section. The traditional structure of a dhrupad composition consists of four parts: sthayi (first section), antarā (second section that develops in higher octaves), sanchari (third section), and abhog (concluding section). While some contemporary performances may simplify this structure, the antarā remains an essential component of dhrupad compositions.

#### 9. Question

With reference to ‘Dhrupad’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It evolved from the prabandha form of devotional temple music in medieval India.

• The Dagar family is primarily associated with preserving the khayal tradition.

• It is typically performed with the pakhawaj rather than the tabla for percussion accompaniment.

• Unlike khayal, dhrupad compositions do not include an antarā section.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Dhrupad evolved from the prabandha form of devotional temple music in medieval India, particularly during the 15th-16th centuries. Its earliest compositions were devotional songs sung in temples, especially in Mathura and Vrindavan. The term “Dhrupad” comes from “Dhruva” (fixed) and “Pada” (words), referring to its structured compositional form. Dhrupad is typically performed with the pakhawaj rather than the tabla for percussion accompaniment. The pakhawaj is an older barrel-shaped drum that predates the tabla and produces deeper bass sounds suitable for the austere and profound nature of dhrupad music.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Dagar family is primarily associated with preserving the dhrupad tradition, not khayal. For nearly twenty generations, members of the Dagar family have been the principal exponents of dhrupad, developing distinctive vocal techniques and establishing the Dagarvani style.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

Dhrupad compositions do include an antarā section. The traditional structure of a dhrupad composition consists of four parts: sthayi (first section), antarā (second section that develops in higher octaves), sanchari (third section), and abhog (concluding section). While some contemporary performances may simplify this structure, the antarā remains an essential component of dhrupad compositions.

Solution: A

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Dravidian style of temple architecture: The Gopurams are taller than the main Vimana in most major temples of this style. The emergence of this style coincided with the decline of the Pallavas and rise of the Cholas. The Thousand Pillar Mandapas are a distinctive feature introduced during the Vijayanagara period. Unlike the Nagara style, temples in this tradition typically have a water tank within the temple complex. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. In most major Dravidian style temples, especially those developed during the later Pandya, Vijayanagara, and Nayaka periods, the gopurams (gateway towers) are indeed taller than the main vimana (temple tower). This reversal of the earlier pattern (where vimanas were taller) reflects the evolving architectural emphasis on creating imposing entrances that could be seen from afar. The Thousand Pillar Mandapas (halls with numerous ornately carved pillars) are a distinctive feature introduced during the Vijayanagara period (14th-16th centuries). Examples include the Thousand Pillar Hall at Madurai’s Meenakshi Temple and similar structures at Srirangam and Rameshwaram. Unlike the Nagara style temples primarily found in North India, Dravidian tradition temples typically have a water tank (pushkarini or kalyani) within the temple complex, used for ritual purposes and reflecting the importance of water in South Indian religious practices. Statement 2 is incorrect. The emergence of the Dravidian style predates the decline of the Pallavas. In fact, the Pallava dynasty (6th-9th centuries CE) was instrumental in establishing the foundational elements of the Dravidian style, as seen in the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram and the Kailasanatha Temple at Kanchipuram. The style continued to evolve under the Cholas, Pandyas, and subsequent dynasties, but its origins are firmly rooted in the Pallava architectural innovations. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. In most major Dravidian style temples, especially those developed during the later Pandya, Vijayanagara, and Nayaka periods, the gopurams (gateway towers) are indeed taller than the main vimana (temple tower). This reversal of the earlier pattern (where vimanas were taller) reflects the evolving architectural emphasis on creating imposing entrances that could be seen from afar. The Thousand Pillar Mandapas (halls with numerous ornately carved pillars) are a distinctive feature introduced during the Vijayanagara period (14th-16th centuries). Examples include the Thousand Pillar Hall at Madurai’s Meenakshi Temple and similar structures at Srirangam and Rameshwaram. Unlike the Nagara style temples primarily found in North India, Dravidian tradition temples typically have a water tank (pushkarini or kalyani) within the temple complex, used for ritual purposes and reflecting the importance of water in South Indian religious practices. Statement 2 is incorrect. The emergence of the Dravidian style predates the decline of the Pallavas. In fact, the Pallava dynasty (6th-9th centuries CE) was instrumental in establishing the foundational elements of the Dravidian style, as seen in the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram and the Kailasanatha Temple at Kanchipuram. The style continued to evolve under the Cholas, Pandyas, and subsequent dynasties, but its origins are firmly rooted in the Pallava architectural innovations.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Dravidian style of temple architecture:

• The Gopurams are taller than the main Vimana in most major temples of this style.

• The emergence of this style coincided with the decline of the Pallavas and rise of the Cholas.

• The Thousand Pillar Mandapas are a distinctive feature introduced during the Vijayanagara period.

• Unlike the Nagara style, temples in this tradition typically have a water tank within the temple complex.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 4 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

In most major Dravidian style temples, especially those developed during the later Pandya, Vijayanagara, and Nayaka periods, the gopurams (gateway towers) are indeed taller than the main vimana (temple tower). This reversal of the earlier pattern (where vimanas were taller) reflects the evolving architectural emphasis on creating imposing entrances that could be seen from afar. The Thousand Pillar Mandapas (halls with numerous ornately carved pillars) are a distinctive feature introduced during the Vijayanagara period (14th-16th centuries). Examples include the Thousand Pillar Hall at Madurai’s Meenakshi Temple and similar structures at Srirangam and Rameshwaram. Unlike the Nagara style temples primarily found in North India, Dravidian tradition temples typically have a water tank (pushkarini or kalyani) within the temple complex, used for ritual purposes and reflecting the importance of water in South Indian religious practices.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The emergence of the Dravidian style predates the decline of the Pallavas. In fact, the Pallava dynasty (6th-9th centuries CE) was instrumental in establishing the foundational elements of the Dravidian style, as seen in the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram and the Kailasanatha Temple at Kanchipuram. The style continued to evolve under the Cholas, Pandyas, and subsequent dynasties, but its origins are firmly rooted in the Pallava architectural innovations.

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Dayanand Saraswati propounded that Aryans were originally inhabitants of the Steppe region in the Northern Asia. Dayanand Saraswati gave the slogan ‘Go back to the Vedas’ The book ‘Arctic Home in the Vedas’ was written by Dayanand Saraswati. How many of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : A There are several theories regarding original home of the Aryan; one of the theories, the Indian theory postulates that Aryans were indigenous to the Indian subcontinent. The proponents of this theory are Sampurnanand, AC. Das, Ganganath Jha, L. D. Kala and R. B. Pandey. They advocated that there are definite literary evidences in the Vedas that the Aryans regarded the Sapta Sindhu as their original home. Dayanand Saraswati promoted the Tibetan theory stating that Tibet was the original home of Aryans. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Swami Dayanand Saraswati give the slogan ‘Go back to the Vedas’. He strongly believed in Vedic ideology and advocated that Vedas were repository of fundamental knowledge and religious truth relevant to the society. Dayanand Saraswati versus social leader and founder of Arya Samaj. Hence statement 2 is correct Dayanand Saraswati wrote Satyarth Prakash, one of the influential texts on the philosophy of the Vedas. The Arctic Home in the Vedas was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1903. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : A There are several theories regarding original home of the Aryan; one of the theories, the Indian theory postulates that Aryans were indigenous to the Indian subcontinent. The proponents of this theory are Sampurnanand, AC. Das, Ganganath Jha, L. D. Kala and R. B. Pandey. They advocated that there are definite literary evidences in the Vedas that the Aryans regarded the Sapta Sindhu as their original home. Dayanand Saraswati promoted the Tibetan theory stating that Tibet was the original home of Aryans. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Swami Dayanand Saraswati give the slogan ‘Go back to the Vedas’. He strongly believed in Vedic ideology and advocated that Vedas were repository of fundamental knowledge and religious truth relevant to the society. Dayanand Saraswati versus social leader and founder of Arya Samaj. Hence statement 2 is correct Dayanand Saraswati wrote Satyarth Prakash, one of the influential texts on the philosophy of the Vedas. The Arctic Home in the Vedas was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1903. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Dayanand Saraswati propounded that Aryans were originally inhabitants of the Steppe region in the Northern Asia.

• Dayanand Saraswati gave the slogan ‘Go back to the Vedas’

• The book ‘Arctic Home in the Vedas’ was written by Dayanand Saraswati.

How many of the following statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : A

• There are several theories regarding original home of the Aryan; one of the theories, the Indian theory postulates that Aryans were indigenous to the Indian subcontinent.

• The proponents of this theory are Sampurnanand, AC. Das, Ganganath Jha, L. D. Kala and R. B. Pandey.

• They advocated that there are definite literary evidences in the Vedas that the Aryans regarded the Sapta Sindhu as their original home.

• Dayanand Saraswati promoted the Tibetan theory stating that Tibet was the original home of Aryans.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Swami Dayanand Saraswati give the slogan ‘Go back to the Vedas’.

• He strongly believed in Vedic ideology and advocated that Vedas were repository of fundamental knowledge and religious truth relevant to the society.

• Dayanand Saraswati versus social leader and founder of Arya Samaj.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Dayanand Saraswati wrote Satyarth Prakash, one of the influential texts on the philosophy of the Vedas.

• The Arctic Home in the Vedas was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1903.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : A

• There are several theories regarding original home of the Aryan; one of the theories, the Indian theory postulates that Aryans were indigenous to the Indian subcontinent.

• The proponents of this theory are Sampurnanand, AC. Das, Ganganath Jha, L. D. Kala and R. B. Pandey.

• They advocated that there are definite literary evidences in the Vedas that the Aryans regarded the Sapta Sindhu as their original home.

• Dayanand Saraswati promoted the Tibetan theory stating that Tibet was the original home of Aryans.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Swami Dayanand Saraswati give the slogan ‘Go back to the Vedas’.

• He strongly believed in Vedic ideology and advocated that Vedas were repository of fundamental knowledge and religious truth relevant to the society.

• Dayanand Saraswati versus social leader and founder of Arya Samaj.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Dayanand Saraswati wrote Satyarth Prakash, one of the influential texts on the philosophy of the Vedas.

• The Arctic Home in the Vedas was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1903.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points The Factory Act 1891 provided for : No factory could employ more than 100 labourers per day. No children below 9 years could be employed in factories. No woman should do nightshift in factories. A break of 30 minutes as well as a day off per week, for both men and women workers. How many of the options given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The Factory Act of 1891 was the second factory act which amended the 1881 act. It was applicable to factories employing 50 or more people. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The act banned work by children below 9 years. It also stipulated 7 hours of work for children between 9 and 14 years of age. Hence statement 2 is correct The act also provided that working hours of women should be 11 hours. In general women and children were not allowed to work at night or before 5:00 a.m. and later than 8:00 p.m. Hence statement 3 is correct The second factory act provided that a mid day break of half an hour should be provided for all workers irrespective of gender. It also provided for a holiday on Sunday for all workers. Hence statement 4 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Factory Act of 1891 was the second factory act which amended the 1881 act. It was applicable to factories employing 50 or more people. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The act banned work by children below 9 years. It also stipulated 7 hours of work for children between 9 and 14 years of age. Hence statement 2 is correct The act also provided that working hours of women should be 11 hours. In general women and children were not allowed to work at night or before 5:00 a.m. and later than 8:00 p.m. Hence statement 3 is correct The second factory act provided that a mid day break of half an hour should be provided for all workers irrespective of gender. It also provided for a holiday on Sunday for all workers. Hence statement 4 is correct

#### 12. Question

The Factory Act 1891 provided for :

• No factory could employ more than 100 labourers per day.

• No children below 9 years could be employed in factories.

• No woman should do nightshift in factories.

• A break of 30 minutes as well as a day off per week, for both men and women workers.

How many of the options given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

The Factory Act of 1891 was the second factory act which amended the 1881 act.

• It was applicable to factories employing 50 or more people.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The act banned work by children below 9 years.

• It also stipulated 7 hours of work for children between 9 and 14 years of age.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The act also provided that working hours of women should be 11 hours.

• In general women and children were not allowed to work at night or before 5:00 a.m. and later than 8:00 p.m.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• The second factory act provided that a mid day break of half an hour should be provided for all workers irrespective of gender.

• It also provided for a holiday on Sunday for all workers.

Hence statement 4 is correct

Solution: C

The Factory Act of 1891 was the second factory act which amended the 1881 act.

• It was applicable to factories employing 50 or more people.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The act banned work by children below 9 years.

• It also stipulated 7 hours of work for children between 9 and 14 years of age.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The act also provided that working hours of women should be 11 hours.

• In general women and children were not allowed to work at night or before 5:00 a.m. and later than 8:00 p.m.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• The second factory act provided that a mid day break of half an hour should be provided for all workers irrespective of gender.

• It also provided for a holiday on Sunday for all workers.

Hence statement 4 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Kirti Kisan Party (KKP) was formed by the Congress Socialist Party within the Indian National Congress. KKP aimed to organise farmers for revolutionary activities and aimed to form a socialist republic. Bibi Raghvir Kaur, who was a member of the Punjab Legislative Assembly, was associated with KKP. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B The Kirti Kisan Kisan party was started by Bhai Santok Singh, a Ghadar leader who had spend some time in Russia getting a knowledge of Soviet methods of village propaganda He secretly planned to prepare the masses for action. The Kirti Kisan Sabha was a society or party of the workers and peasants founded in 1927. The Sabha was funded to a large extent by the Gadar party. The Congress socialist party was formed in 1934 by congressmen. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The aim of this movement was to organise peasants, industrial labourers and other low paid urban workers for revolutionary activity. The party aimed to organise the masses and establish a socialist republic. It made aliness with the Congress and communist parties for contesting elections One of the Unique features of the party was involvement of large number of women in its activities; Bibi Raghvir Kaur contested elections on its ticket from Amritsar and became a member of Punjab Legislative Assembly. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: B The Kirti Kisan Kisan party was started by Bhai Santok Singh, a Ghadar leader who had spend some time in Russia getting a knowledge of Soviet methods of village propaganda He secretly planned to prepare the masses for action. The Kirti Kisan Sabha was a society or party of the workers and peasants founded in 1927. The Sabha was funded to a large extent by the Gadar party. The Congress socialist party was formed in 1934 by congressmen. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The aim of this movement was to organise peasants, industrial labourers and other low paid urban workers for revolutionary activity. The party aimed to organise the masses and establish a socialist republic. It made aliness with the Congress and communist parties for contesting elections One of the Unique features of the party was involvement of large number of women in its activities; Bibi Raghvir Kaur contested elections on its ticket from Amritsar and became a member of Punjab Legislative Assembly. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Kirti Kisan Party (KKP) was formed by the Congress Socialist Party within the Indian National Congress.

• KKP aimed to organise farmers for revolutionary activities and aimed to form a socialist republic.

• Bibi Raghvir Kaur, who was a member of the Punjab Legislative Assembly, was associated with KKP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• The Kirti Kisan Kisan party was started by Bhai Santok Singh, a Ghadar leader who had spend some time in Russia getting a knowledge of Soviet methods of village propaganda

• He secretly planned to prepare the masses for action.

• The Kirti Kisan Sabha was a society or party of the workers and peasants founded in 1927.

• The Sabha was funded to a large extent by the Gadar party.

• The Congress socialist party was formed in 1934 by congressmen.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The aim of this movement was to organise peasants, industrial labourers and other low paid urban workers for revolutionary activity.

• The party aimed to organise the masses and establish a socialist republic.

• It made aliness with the Congress and communist parties for contesting elections

• One of the Unique features of the party was involvement of large number of women in its activities; Bibi Raghvir Kaur contested elections on its ticket from Amritsar and became a member of Punjab Legislative Assembly.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: B

• The Kirti Kisan Kisan party was started by Bhai Santok Singh, a Ghadar leader who had spend some time in Russia getting a knowledge of Soviet methods of village propaganda

• He secretly planned to prepare the masses for action.

• The Kirti Kisan Sabha was a society or party of the workers and peasants founded in 1927.

• The Sabha was funded to a large extent by the Gadar party.

• The Congress socialist party was formed in 1934 by congressmen.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The aim of this movement was to organise peasants, industrial labourers and other low paid urban workers for revolutionary activity.

• The party aimed to organise the masses and establish a socialist republic.

• It made aliness with the Congress and communist parties for contesting elections

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Regarding the book Hind Swaraj, which of the following is correct? (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak wrote the book to promote the Swadeshi Movement in areas outside Bengal particularly Northern India (b) It was written by Mahatma Gandhi while travelling from London to South Africa (c) It was written by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar to promote his concept of ‘Hindutva’ (d) It was written by Madan Lal Dhingra to promote the Gadar Movement Correct Solution : B The book Hind Swaraj was written by Mahatma Gandhi in 1909 in Gujarati while travelling from London to South Africa on board SS Kildonan Castle. Through this book, he expressed his views on Swaraj or home rule, modern Civilization and other matters. He also repudiated European Civilization and expressed loyalty to higher ideals of the Empire. Later, the book was banned by the government on its publication in India. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B The book Hind Swaraj was written by Mahatma Gandhi in 1909 in Gujarati while travelling from London to South Africa on board SS Kildonan Castle. Through this book, he expressed his views on Swaraj or home rule, modern Civilization and other matters. He also repudiated European Civilization and expressed loyalty to higher ideals of the Empire. Later, the book was banned by the government on its publication in India. Hence option B is correct

#### 14. Question

Regarding the book Hind Swaraj, which of the following is correct?

• (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak wrote the book to promote the Swadeshi Movement in areas outside Bengal particularly Northern India

• (b) It was written by Mahatma Gandhi while travelling from London to South Africa

• (c) It was written by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar to promote his concept of ‘Hindutva’

• (d) It was written by Madan Lal Dhingra to promote the Gadar Movement

Solution : B

• The book Hind Swaraj was written by Mahatma Gandhi in 1909 in Gujarati while travelling from London to South Africa on board SS Kildonan Castle.

• Through this book, he expressed his views on Swaraj or home rule, modern Civilization and other matters.

• He also repudiated European Civilization and expressed loyalty to higher ideals of the Empire.

• Later, the book was banned by the government on its publication in India.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• The book Hind Swaraj was written by Mahatma Gandhi in 1909 in Gujarati while travelling from London to South Africa on board SS Kildonan Castle.

• Through this book, he expressed his views on Swaraj or home rule, modern Civilization and other matters.

• He also repudiated European Civilization and expressed loyalty to higher ideals of the Empire.

• Later, the book was banned by the government on its publication in India.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Anarchial and Revolutionary Crimes (ARC) Act was passed on recommendations of Sedition Committee 1917. The ARC Act provided for trial of offences by a three judge bench and considering evidences not permissible under the Indian Evidence Act 1872. The Rowlatt Satyagraha was launched by Mahatma Gandhi against the ARC Act. Which of of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Anarchial and Revolutionary Crimes Act was passed in 1919. It was popularly known as Rowlatt Act ; it was based on recommendations of the Sedition committee headed by Sydney Rowlatt. The Sedition committee better known as Rowlatt committee was a committee of enquiry appointed by the British government in 1917. Hence statement 1 is correct The Rowlatt Act 1919 provided for – Trial of offences by a special Court comprising of three High Court judges; the court could meet and take into consideration evidence not permisable under Indian Evidence Act No appeal could be made against its decision. Detention of political prisoners without trial for up to 2 years Authorised the government to search and arrest without warrant. Hence statement 2 is correct The proposals of the Rowlatt Act were considered as a grave insult by the nationalists. On 24th February 1919 at Bombay, Gandhi formed a Satyagraha Sabha to protest against the act and the launched the Rowlatt Satyagraha. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Anarchial and Revolutionary Crimes Act was passed in 1919. It was popularly known as Rowlatt Act ; it was based on recommendations of the Sedition committee headed by Sydney Rowlatt. The Sedition committee better known as Rowlatt committee was a committee of enquiry appointed by the British government in 1917. Hence statement 1 is correct The Rowlatt Act 1919 provided for – Trial of offences by a special Court comprising of three High Court judges; the court could meet and take into consideration evidence not permisable under Indian Evidence Act No appeal could be made against its decision. Detention of political prisoners without trial for up to 2 years Authorised the government to search and arrest without warrant. Hence statement 2 is correct The proposals of the Rowlatt Act were considered as a grave insult by the nationalists. On 24th February 1919 at Bombay, Gandhi formed a Satyagraha Sabha to protest against the act and the launched the Rowlatt Satyagraha. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Anarchial and Revolutionary Crimes (ARC) Act was passed on recommendations of Sedition Committee 1917.

• The ARC Act provided for trial of offences by a three judge bench and considering evidences not permissible under the Indian Evidence Act 1872.

• The Rowlatt Satyagraha was launched by Mahatma Gandhi against the ARC Act.

Which of of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The Anarchial and Revolutionary Crimes Act was passed in 1919.

• It was popularly known as Rowlatt Act ; it was based on recommendations of the Sedition committee headed by Sydney Rowlatt.

• The Sedition committee better known as Rowlatt committee was a committee of enquiry appointed by the British government in 1917.

Hence statement 1 is correct

The Rowlatt Act 1919 provided for –

• Trial of offences by a special Court comprising of three High Court judges; the court could meet and take into consideration evidence not permisable under Indian Evidence Act

• No appeal could be made against its decision.

• Detention of political prisoners without trial for up to 2 years

• Authorised the government to search and arrest without warrant.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The proposals of the Rowlatt Act were considered as a grave insult by the nationalists.

• On 24th February 1919 at Bombay, Gandhi formed a Satyagraha Sabha to protest against the act and the launched the Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• The Anarchial and Revolutionary Crimes Act was passed in 1919.

• It was popularly known as Rowlatt Act ; it was based on recommendations of the Sedition committee headed by Sydney Rowlatt.

• The Sedition committee better known as Rowlatt committee was a committee of enquiry appointed by the British government in 1917.

Hence statement 1 is correct

The Rowlatt Act 1919 provided for –

• Trial of offences by a special Court comprising of three High Court judges; the court could meet and take into consideration evidence not permisable under Indian Evidence Act

• No appeal could be made against its decision.

• Detention of political prisoners without trial for up to 2 years

• Authorised the government to search and arrest without warrant.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The proposals of the Rowlatt Act were considered as a grave insult by the nationalists.

• On 24th February 1919 at Bombay, Gandhi formed a Satyagraha Sabha to protest against the act and the launched the Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Swadeshi and boycott movement Simla Deputation Formation of Muslim League Indian Universities Act How many of the above happened during the tenure of Lord Minto II? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : C Lord Minto II served as the Governor General from 1905 to 1910. The Swadeshi and boycott movement emerged in 1905 ; the movement had its root in the anti partition movement started to oppose decision of the government under Lord Curzon to divide the province of Bengal. In August 1905 at Calcutta, a massive meeting was held and formal proclamation of Swadeshi movement was made. In this meeting a formal proclamation to Boycott goods such as Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt was also made. Simla Deputation was held in 1906 led by Aga Khan; it was a meeting between a delegation of 35 prominent Muslim leaders and the viceroy Lord Minto at Shimla. The delegation presented their demands focusing on secular Muslim interests; this event is a landmark in the history of modern India and paved the way for formation of the Muslim League. The All India Muslim League was founded by Aga Khan in 1906 in Dhaka modern day Bangladesh. It was established following the need for political representation of Muslims in British India particularly during the anti partition Movement in Bengal in 1905. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct The Indian Universities Act was passed in 1904 by Lord Curzon to improve University education and introduce Central control over Universities Hence option 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C Lord Minto II served as the Governor General from 1905 to 1910. The Swadeshi and boycott movement emerged in 1905 ; the movement had its root in the anti partition movement started to oppose decision of the government under Lord Curzon to divide the province of Bengal. In August 1905 at Calcutta, a massive meeting was held and formal proclamation of Swadeshi movement was made. In this meeting a formal proclamation to Boycott goods such as Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt was also made. Simla Deputation was held in 1906 led by Aga Khan; it was a meeting between a delegation of 35 prominent Muslim leaders and the viceroy Lord Minto at Shimla. The delegation presented their demands focusing on secular Muslim interests; this event is a landmark in the history of modern India and paved the way for formation of the Muslim League. The All India Muslim League was founded by Aga Khan in 1906 in Dhaka modern day Bangladesh. It was established following the need for political representation of Muslims in British India particularly during the anti partition Movement in Bengal in 1905. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct The Indian Universities Act was passed in 1904 by Lord Curzon to improve University education and introduce Central control over Universities Hence option 4 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Swadeshi and boycott movement

• Simla Deputation

• Formation of Muslim League

• Indian Universities Act

How many of the above happened during the tenure of Lord Minto II?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : C

Lord Minto II served as the Governor General from 1905 to 1910.

• The Swadeshi and boycott movement emerged in 1905 ; the movement had its root in the anti partition movement started to oppose decision of the government under Lord Curzon to divide the province of Bengal.

• In August 1905 at Calcutta, a massive meeting was held and formal proclamation of Swadeshi movement was made.

• In this meeting a formal proclamation to Boycott goods such as Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt was also made.

• Simla Deputation was held in 1906 led by Aga Khan; it was a meeting between a delegation of 35 prominent Muslim leaders and the viceroy Lord Minto at Shimla. The delegation presented their demands focusing on secular Muslim interests; this event is a landmark in the history of modern India and paved the way for formation of the Muslim League.

• The All India Muslim League was founded by Aga Khan in 1906 in Dhaka modern day Bangladesh. It was established following the need for political representation of Muslims in British India particularly during the anti partition Movement in Bengal in 1905.

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• The Indian Universities Act was passed in 1904 by Lord Curzon to improve University education and introduce Central control over Universities

Hence option 4 is incorrect

Solution : C

Lord Minto II served as the Governor General from 1905 to 1910.

• In August 1905 at Calcutta, a massive meeting was held and formal proclamation of Swadeshi movement was made.

• In this meeting a formal proclamation to Boycott goods such as Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt was also made.

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• The Indian Universities Act was passed in 1904 by Lord Curzon to improve University education and introduce Central control over Universities

Hence option 4 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act 1858 : It abolished both the Court of Directors and Board of Control. The Secretary of State for India was declared as a Corporate Body. It led to creation of India Council with half of the members being nominated from amongst Indian representatives. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B The Government of India Act 1858 ended the company’s rule in India and power was transferred from the Company to the Crown It led to abolition of the Court of Directors and Board of Control and their powers were transferred to the Principal Secretary of State for India and India Council. Hence statement 1 is correct Under the act the Secretary of State for India was declared as a corporate body who could sue and be sued in England as well as in India. Hence statement 2 is correct The India Council was a 15 member Council created to aid and advise the Secretary of State for India. Of the 15 members, 8 were to be appointed by the Crown and 7 by the Court of Directors. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B The Government of India Act 1858 ended the company’s rule in India and power was transferred from the Company to the Crown It led to abolition of the Court of Directors and Board of Control and their powers were transferred to the Principal Secretary of State for India and India Council. Hence statement 1 is correct Under the act the Secretary of State for India was declared as a corporate body who could sue and be sued in England as well as in India. Hence statement 2 is correct The India Council was a 15 member Council created to aid and advise the Secretary of State for India. Of the 15 members, 8 were to be appointed by the Crown and 7 by the Court of Directors. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act 1858 :

• It abolished both the Court of Directors and Board of Control.

• The Secretary of State for India was declared as a Corporate Body.

• It led to creation of India Council with half of the members being nominated from amongst Indian representatives.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

• The Government of India Act 1858 ended the company’s rule in India and power was transferred from the Company to the Crown

• It led to abolition of the Court of Directors and Board of Control and their powers were transferred to the Principal Secretary of State for India and India Council.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Under the act the Secretary of State for India was declared as a corporate body who could sue and be sued in England as well as in India.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The India Council was a 15 member Council created to aid and advise the Secretary of State for India.

• Of the 15 members, 8 were to be appointed by the Crown and 7 by the Court of Directors.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : B

• The Government of India Act 1858 ended the company’s rule in India and power was transferred from the Company to the Crown

• It led to abolition of the Court of Directors and Board of Control and their powers were transferred to the Principal Secretary of State for India and India Council.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Under the act the Secretary of State for India was declared as a corporate body who could sue and be sued in England as well as in India.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The India Council was a 15 member Council created to aid and advise the Secretary of State for India.

• Of the 15 members, 8 were to be appointed by the Crown and 7 by the Court of Directors.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The first factory of the Danes East India company was set up in Serampore in Bengal. Serampore College was established by Danish East India Company to propagate Western education among the people of Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : D The Danes came from Denmark and they were a minor colonial power to set foot on Indian soil. The Danish East India company was established in 1616. They set up trading outpost in 1620 at Tranquebar near Tanjore in Tamil Nadu. After landing on Indian soil, a Treaty was concluded with Raghunatha Nayak, the ruler of Tanjore who gave the possession of the town of Tranquebar and permission to trade in the kingdom by a Treaty of 19 November 1620. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Serampore College was established in 1818 by Christian missionaries William Carey, Joshua Marshman and William Ward; The Danes were not involved in establishing the college. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : D The Danes came from Denmark and they were a minor colonial power to set foot on Indian soil. The Danish East India company was established in 1616. They set up trading outpost in 1620 at Tranquebar near Tanjore in Tamil Nadu. After landing on Indian soil, a Treaty was concluded with Raghunatha Nayak, the ruler of Tanjore who gave the possession of the town of Tranquebar and permission to trade in the kingdom by a Treaty of 19 November 1620. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Serampore College was established in 1818 by Christian missionaries William Carey, Joshua Marshman and William Ward; The Danes were not involved in establishing the college. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The first factory of the Danes East India company was set up in Serampore in Bengal.

• Serampore College was established by Danish East India Company to propagate Western education among the people of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : D

• The Danes came from Denmark and they were a minor colonial power to set foot on Indian soil.

• The Danish East India company was established in 1616.

• They set up trading outpost in 1620 at Tranquebar near Tanjore in Tamil Nadu.

• After landing on Indian soil, a Treaty was concluded with Raghunatha Nayak, the ruler of Tanjore who gave the possession of the town of Tranquebar and permission to trade in the kingdom by a Treaty of 19 November 1620.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Serampore College was established in 1818 by Christian missionaries William Carey, Joshua Marshman and William Ward;

• The Danes were not involved in establishing the college.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution : D

• The Danes came from Denmark and they were a minor colonial power to set foot on Indian soil.

• The Danish East India company was established in 1616.

• They set up trading outpost in 1620 at Tranquebar near Tanjore in Tamil Nadu.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Serampore College was established in 1818 by Christian missionaries William Carey, Joshua Marshman and William Ward;

• The Danes were not involved in establishing the college.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs : Newspaper/Journal : Associated Person Mahratta : Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar New India : Annie Besant Sudharak : Surendranath Banerjee How many of the pairs given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Mahratta was started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak along with Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, MB Namjoshi, Vaman Rao Apte. It was a weekly English newspaper published from Mumbai Maharashtra its publication began from second of January 1881. Hence statement 1 is correct New India was the newspaper founded by Annie Besant. It was founded as a means to spread the news related to Indian freedom struggle and Home Rule movement. Hence statement 2 is correct Sudharak newspaper was started by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar. He was a prominent reformer from Maharashtra and the first editor of K (the weekly newspaper founded by BG Tilak). Later he parted ways and started his own periodical Sudharak in which he campaigned against injustice of untouchability and the caste system. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Mahratta was started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak along with Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, MB Namjoshi, Vaman Rao Apte. It was a weekly English newspaper published from Mumbai Maharashtra its publication began from second of January 1881. Hence statement 1 is correct New India was the newspaper founded by Annie Besant. It was founded as a means to spread the news related to Indian freedom struggle and Home Rule movement. Hence statement 2 is correct Sudharak newspaper was started by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar. He was a prominent reformer from Maharashtra and the first editor of K (the weekly newspaper founded by BG Tilak). Later he parted ways and started his own periodical Sudharak in which he campaigned against injustice of untouchability and the caste system. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following pairs :

Newspaper/Journal : Associated Person

• Mahratta : Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar

• New India : Annie Besant

• Sudharak : Surendranath Banerjee

How many of the pairs given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Mahratta was started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak along with Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, MB Namjoshi, Vaman Rao Apte.

• It was a weekly English newspaper published from Mumbai Maharashtra its publication began from second of January 1881.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• New India was the newspaper founded by Annie Besant.

• It was founded as a means to spread the news related to Indian freedom struggle and Home Rule movement.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Sudharak newspaper was started by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar.

• He was a prominent reformer from Maharashtra and the first editor of K (the weekly newspaper founded by BG Tilak).

• Later he parted ways and started his own periodical Sudharak in which he campaigned against injustice of untouchability and the caste system.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Mahratta was started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak along with Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, MB Namjoshi, Vaman Rao Apte.

• It was a weekly English newspaper published from Mumbai Maharashtra its publication began from second of January 1881.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• New India was the newspaper founded by Annie Besant.

• It was founded as a means to spread the news related to Indian freedom struggle and Home Rule movement.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Sudharak newspaper was started by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar.

• He was a prominent reformer from Maharashtra and the first editor of K (the weekly newspaper founded by BG Tilak).

• Later he parted ways and started his own periodical Sudharak in which he campaigned against injustice of untouchability and the caste system.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following personalities : Khudiram Bose Debendranath Tagore Ananda Mohan Bose Shibnath Shastri How many of the above persons were associated with the Brahmo Samaj? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : C The Brahmo Samaj established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, was the first reform movement of India based on modern Western ideas. Its primary purpose was to teach monotheism and reform Hinduism. The Samaj opposed entire brahminical system based on superstitious practices and rituals; criticized priestly classes, religious orthodoxy, concept of Avatar, Idol worship, etc. After the death of Ram Mohan Roy in 1833, the Brahmo tradition was carried forward by Debendranath Tagore, the father of Rabindranath Tagore. In 1843, he became a brahmo and reorganised the Brahmo Samaj. Under his leadership, the influence of the Samaj widened and many new branches were established. Ananda Mohan Bose was a political and social reformer who co-founded the Indian National Association. He was one of the prominent Brahmo leaders and a co-founder of the Brahmo Samaj. Shibnath Shastri joined the Indian Brahmo Samaj in 1869 which was established by Kesab Chandra Sen. He participated in movements to discourage drinking and freedom for women, promotion of industrial, literary and technical Education. Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct Khudiram Bose was not associated with the Brahmo Samaj movement. He was a nationalist from Bengal who was associated with Muzaffarpur conspiracy case along with Prafulla Chaki and was sentenced to death for assassination of magistrate Douglas kingsford. Hence option 1 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C The Brahmo Samaj established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, was the first reform movement of India based on modern Western ideas. Its primary purpose was to teach monotheism and reform Hinduism. The Samaj opposed entire brahminical system based on superstitious practices and rituals; criticized priestly classes, religious orthodoxy, concept of Avatar, Idol worship, etc. After the death of Ram Mohan Roy in 1833, the Brahmo tradition was carried forward by Debendranath Tagore, the father of Rabindranath Tagore. In 1843, he became a brahmo and reorganised the Brahmo Samaj. Under his leadership, the influence of the Samaj widened and many new branches were established. Ananda Mohan Bose was a political and social reformer who co-founded the Indian National Association. He was one of the prominent Brahmo leaders and a co-founder of the Brahmo Samaj. Shibnath Shastri joined the Indian Brahmo Samaj in 1869 which was established by Kesab Chandra Sen. He participated in movements to discourage drinking and freedom for women, promotion of industrial, literary and technical Education. Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct Khudiram Bose was not associated with the Brahmo Samaj movement. He was a nationalist from Bengal who was associated with Muzaffarpur conspiracy case along with Prafulla Chaki and was sentenced to death for assassination of magistrate Douglas kingsford. Hence option 1 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following personalities :

• Khudiram Bose

• Debendranath Tagore

• Ananda Mohan Bose

• Shibnath Shastri

How many of the above persons were associated with the Brahmo Samaj?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : C

The Brahmo Samaj established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, was the first reform movement of India based on modern Western ideas. Its primary purpose was to teach monotheism and reform Hinduism. The Samaj opposed entire brahminical system based on superstitious practices and rituals; criticized priestly classes, religious orthodoxy, concept of Avatar, Idol worship, etc.

• After the death of Ram Mohan Roy in 1833, the Brahmo tradition was carried forward by Debendranath Tagore, the father of Rabindranath Tagore. In 1843, he became a brahmo and reorganised the Brahmo Samaj. Under his leadership, the influence of the Samaj widened and many new branches were established.

• Ananda Mohan Bose was a political and social reformer who co-founded the Indian National Association. He was one of the prominent Brahmo leaders and a co-founder of the Brahmo Samaj.

• Shibnath Shastri joined the Indian Brahmo Samaj in 1869 which was established by Kesab Chandra Sen. He participated in movements to discourage drinking and freedom for women, promotion of industrial, literary and technical Education.

Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct

• Khudiram Bose was not associated with the Brahmo Samaj movement.

• He was a nationalist from Bengal who was associated with Muzaffarpur conspiracy case along with Prafulla Chaki and was sentenced to death for assassination of magistrate Douglas kingsford.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

Solution : C

• Ananda Mohan Bose was a political and social reformer who co-founded the Indian National Association. He was one of the prominent Brahmo leaders and a co-founder of the Brahmo Samaj.

Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct

• Khudiram Bose was not associated with the Brahmo Samaj movement.

• He was a nationalist from Bengal who was associated with Muzaffarpur conspiracy case along with Prafulla Chaki and was sentenced to death for assassination of magistrate Douglas kingsford.

Hence option 1 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to the RBI’s Surplus Transfer mechanism, consider the following statements: RBI’s surplus includes earnings from managing currency and payment systems. Surplus transfer is governed by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. Provisioning under the Economic Capital Framework is used to determine net transferable surplus. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B The RBI’s surplus transfer refers to the annual transfer of the central bank’s net income (after expenses and provisions) to the Central Government, as mandated by Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934 — not the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct. The RBI’s surplus includes income from various sources such as: Interest on domestic government securities Foreign exchange reserves Repo operations And service fees for managing currency circulation and payment systems. Statement 3 is also correct. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF), adopted based on the Bimal Jalan Committee’s recommendations in 2019, sets norms for risk provisioning through the Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB). After maintaining a CRB within the 5.5–6.5% range of RBI’s balance sheet, the remaining net income is treated as transferable surplus. Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 3 only. Incorrect Solution: B The RBI’s surplus transfer refers to the annual transfer of the central bank’s net income (after expenses and provisions) to the Central Government, as mandated by Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934 — not the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct. The RBI’s surplus includes income from various sources such as: Interest on domestic government securities Foreign exchange reserves Repo operations And service fees for managing currency circulation and payment systems. Statement 3 is also correct. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF), adopted based on the Bimal Jalan Committee’s recommendations in 2019, sets norms for risk provisioning through the Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB). After maintaining a CRB within the 5.5–6.5% range of RBI’s balance sheet, the remaining net income is treated as transferable surplus. Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 3 only.

#### 21. Question

With reference to the RBI’s Surplus Transfer mechanism, consider the following statements:

• RBI’s surplus includes earnings from managing currency and payment systems.

• Surplus transfer is governed by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.

• Provisioning under the Economic Capital Framework is used to determine net transferable surplus.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• The RBI’s surplus transfer refers to the annual transfer of the central bank’s net income (after expenses and provisions) to the Central Government, as mandated by Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934 — not the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Statement 1 is correct. The RBI’s surplus includes income from various sources such as: Interest on domestic government securities Foreign exchange reserves Repo operations And service fees for managing currency circulation and payment systems.

• Interest on domestic government securities

• Foreign exchange reserves

• Repo operations

• And service fees for managing currency circulation and payment systems.

• Statement 3 is also correct. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF), adopted based on the Bimal Jalan Committee’s recommendations in 2019, sets norms for risk provisioning through the Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB). After maintaining a CRB within the 5.5–6.5% range of RBI’s balance sheet, the remaining net income is treated as transferable surplus.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 3 only.

Solution: B

• Interest on domestic government securities

• Foreign exchange reserves

• Repo operations

• And service fees for managing currency circulation and payment systems.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 3 only.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: High-Altitude Platforms (HAPs) can serve as temporary communication infrastructure during natural disasters. Statement-II: HAPs operate in the ionosphere and provide real-time satellite-level data transmission across hemispheres. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C High-Altitude Platforms (HAPs) are stratospheric unmanned aerial vehicles that function between 17–22 km altitude. They are designed to offer long-duration surveillance, meteorological observations, and communication relay services. In the event of natural disasters such as cyclones, floods, or earthquakes—where ground-based telecom infrastructure is damaged—HAPs can serve as emergency communication relays, particularly useful in remote or inaccessible terrain. However, Statement-II is incorrect because HAPs do not operate in the ionosphere (which starts from about 60–100 km altitude). Instead, they fly in the stratosphere, significantly lower than orbiting satellites. Moreover, HAPs are not intended for global or hemispheric data transmission like satellites, but rather offer localized high-bandwidth relay services, such as 5G base stations or radiosonde deployment. Hence, while Statement-I is accurate, Statement-II contains factual inaccuracies and does not justify Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: C High-Altitude Platforms (HAPs) are stratospheric unmanned aerial vehicles that function between 17–22 km altitude. They are designed to offer long-duration surveillance, meteorological observations, and communication relay services. In the event of natural disasters such as cyclones, floods, or earthquakes—where ground-based telecom infrastructure is damaged—HAPs can serve as emergency communication relays, particularly useful in remote or inaccessible terrain. However, Statement-II is incorrect because HAPs do not operate in the ionosphere (which starts from about 60–100 km altitude). Instead, they fly in the stratosphere, significantly lower than orbiting satellites. Moreover, HAPs are not intended for global or hemispheric data transmission like satellites, but rather offer localized high-bandwidth relay services, such as 5G base stations or radiosonde deployment. Hence, while Statement-I is accurate, Statement-II contains factual inaccuracies and does not justify Statement-I.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: High-Altitude Platforms (HAPs) can serve as temporary communication infrastructure during natural disasters.

Statement-II: HAPs operate in the ionosphere and provide real-time satellite-level data transmission across hemispheres.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

High-Altitude Platforms (HAPs) are stratospheric unmanned aerial vehicles that function between 17–22 km altitude. They are designed to offer long-duration surveillance, meteorological observations, and communication relay services. In the event of natural disasters such as cyclones, floods, or earthquakes—where ground-based telecom infrastructure is damaged—HAPs can serve as emergency communication relays, particularly useful in remote or inaccessible terrain.

However, Statement-II is incorrect because HAPs do not operate in the ionosphere (which starts from about 60–100 km altitude). Instead, they fly in the stratosphere, significantly lower than orbiting satellites. Moreover, HAPs are not intended for global or hemispheric data transmission like satellites, but rather offer localized high-bandwidth relay services, such as 5G base stations or radiosonde deployment. Hence, while Statement-I is accurate, Statement-II contains factual inaccuracies and does not justify Statement-I.

Solution: C

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following applications that could benefit from the adoption of sodium-ion batteries in India: Electric vehicles in semi-urban regions Drones used in disaster surveillance Solar power grid storage in rural India High-performance military radar systems Which of the above are most appropriately aligned with sodium-ion battery deployment? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: A Sodium-ion batteries are ideal for mass-market electrification, such as EVs in semi-urban or rural areas, grid-level renewable energy storage, and short-range drone operations due to their rapid charging, long cycle life, and lower cost. Their temperature stability and low dependency on rare materials make them especially suited for deployment in areas with limited infrastructure. However, they lack the high energy density required for high-end military or aerospace applications, such as powering military radar or missile systems, which currently depend on high-performance lithium or solid-state battery tech with specific energy-to-weight ratios. Thus, Statement 4 is not appropriate in the current stage of sodium-ion development. Incorrect Solution: A Sodium-ion batteries are ideal for mass-market electrification, such as EVs in semi-urban or rural areas, grid-level renewable energy storage, and short-range drone operations due to their rapid charging, long cycle life, and lower cost. Their temperature stability and low dependency on rare materials make them especially suited for deployment in areas with limited infrastructure. However, they lack the high energy density required for high-end military or aerospace applications, such as powering military radar or missile systems, which currently depend on high-performance lithium or solid-state battery tech with specific energy-to-weight ratios. Thus, Statement 4 is not appropriate in the current stage of sodium-ion development.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following applications that could benefit from the adoption of sodium-ion batteries in India:

• Electric vehicles in semi-urban regions

• Drones used in disaster surveillance

• Solar power grid storage in rural India

• High-performance military radar systems

Which of the above are most appropriately aligned with sodium-ion battery deployment?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: A

Sodium-ion batteries are ideal for mass-market electrification, such as EVs in semi-urban or rural areas, grid-level renewable energy storage, and short-range drone operations due to their rapid charging, long cycle life, and lower cost. Their temperature stability and low dependency on rare materials make them especially suited for deployment in areas with limited infrastructure.

However, they lack the high energy density required for high-end military or aerospace applications, such as powering military radar or missile systems, which currently depend on high-performance lithium or solid-state battery tech with specific energy-to-weight ratios. Thus, Statement 4 is not appropriate in the current stage of sodium-ion development.

Solution: A

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points With reference to the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 (CLNDA), consider the following statements: The law enforces strict criminal liability on nuclear operators and suppliers. It follows the “no-fault liability” principle, holding the operator liable irrespective of fault. It restricts private firms from participating in the nuclear energy sector due to ambiguous supplier liability clauses. Which of the above given statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Explanation: The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA), 2010 establishes a legal framework for civil, not criminal, liability in the event of a nuclear incident. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. The Act is built on the “no-fault liability” principle (Statement 2: Correct), meaning the operator of a nuclear installation is liable to pay compensation to victims regardless of fault or negligence. This aligns with international norms like the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage (CSC), to which India is a party. Statement 3 is also correct. Section 17(b) of the Act provides the operator a right of recourse against the supplier in case of defective equipment or services. This provision created legal uncertainty, discouraging foreign and private suppliers from participating in India’s civil nuclear energy programme — especially as it deviates from global norms where supplier liability is typically excluded. Thus, (b) is the most accurate option. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA), 2010 establishes a legal framework for civil, not criminal, liability in the event of a nuclear incident. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. The Act is built on the “no-fault liability” principle (Statement 2: Correct), meaning the operator of a nuclear installation is liable to pay compensation to victims regardless of fault or negligence. This aligns with international norms like the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage (CSC), to which India is a party. Statement 3 is also correct. Section 17(b) of the Act provides the operator a right of recourse against the supplier in case of defective equipment or services. This provision created legal uncertainty, discouraging foreign and private suppliers from participating in India’s civil nuclear energy programme — especially as it deviates from global norms where supplier liability is typically excluded. Thus, (b) is the most accurate option.

#### 24. Question

With reference to the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 (CLNDA), consider the following statements:

• The law enforces strict criminal liability on nuclear operators and suppliers.

• It follows the “no-fault liability” principle, holding the operator liable irrespective of fault.

• It restricts private firms from participating in the nuclear energy sector due to ambiguous supplier liability clauses.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Explanation:

The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA), 2010 establishes a legal framework for civil, not criminal, liability in the event of a nuclear incident. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Act is built on the “no-fault liability” principle (Statement 2: Correct), meaning the operator of a nuclear installation is liable to pay compensation to victims regardless of fault or negligence. This aligns with international norms like the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage (CSC), to which India is a party.

Statement 3 is also correct. Section 17(b) of the Act provides the operator a right of recourse against the supplier in case of defective equipment or services. This provision created legal uncertainty, discouraging foreign and private suppliers from participating in India’s civil nuclear energy programme — especially as it deviates from global norms where supplier liability is typically excluded. Thus, (b) is the most accurate option.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s Advisory Jurisdiction under Article 143: Article 143(2) deals with disputes between Centre and States. The Court may decline to answer a Presidential reference under Article 143. Matters under Article 143 are decided by a Constitution Bench. The opinion provided under this article is binding on the President and the Union Cabinet. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: B Article 143 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to refer questions of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion. Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 143(2) does not deal with Centre-State disputes; such disputes fall under Article 131 (Original Jurisdiction). Article 143(2) specifically allows references related to pre-Constitutional treaties, agreements, covenants, etc., especially involving former princely states. Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court may decline to provide an opinion under Article 143. This happened in the Ayodhya case (1993), where the Court refused to answer a politically sensitive reference. Statement 3 is correct. Matters referred under Article 143 are usually heard by a Constitution Bench, as mandated under Article 145(3) for substantial legal questions. Statement 4 is incorrect. The opinion provided by the Court under Article 143 is advisory in nature and not binding on the President or the Cabinet. Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only. Incorrect Solution: B Article 143 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to refer questions of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion. Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 143(2) does not deal with Centre-State disputes; such disputes fall under Article 131 (Original Jurisdiction). Article 143(2) specifically allows references related to pre-Constitutional treaties, agreements, covenants, etc., especially involving former princely states. Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court may decline to provide an opinion under Article 143. This happened in the Ayodhya case (1993), where the Court refused to answer a politically sensitive reference. Statement 3 is correct. Matters referred under Article 143 are usually heard by a Constitution Bench, as mandated under Article 145(3) for substantial legal questions. Statement 4 is incorrect. The opinion provided by the Court under Article 143 is advisory in nature and not binding on the President or the Cabinet. Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s Advisory Jurisdiction under Article 143:

• Article 143(2) deals with disputes between Centre and States.

• The Court may decline to answer a Presidential reference under Article 143.

• Matters under Article 143 are decided by a Constitution Bench.

• The opinion provided under this article is binding on the President and the Union Cabinet.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

Article 143 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to refer questions of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 143(2) does not deal with Centre-State disputes; such disputes fall under Article 131 (Original Jurisdiction). Article 143(2) specifically allows references related to pre-Constitutional treaties, agreements, covenants, etc., especially involving former princely states.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court may decline to provide an opinion under Article 143. This happened in the Ayodhya case (1993), where the Court refused to answer a politically sensitive reference.

• Statement 3 is correct. Matters referred under Article 143 are usually heard by a Constitution Bench, as mandated under Article 145(3) for substantial legal questions.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The opinion provided by the Court under Article 143 is advisory in nature and not binding on the President or the Cabinet.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

Solution: B

Article 143 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to refer questions of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion.

• Statement 3 is correct. Matters referred under Article 143 are usually heard by a Constitution Bench, as mandated under Article 145(3) for substantial legal questions.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The opinion provided by the Court under Article 143 is advisory in nature and not binding on the President or the Cabinet.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The thought of working just four days a week and having a three-day weekend is irresistible! I would jump at the chance of having a block of three days for myself every week. I would even be willing to work the same number of hours and fit them all into those four days. It would only be an extra two hours per day and many people do that amount of overtime every day as it is, and they rarely get paid for it. However, there is the question of productivity. The economy would certainly be affected negatively if we all started to be less productive. I suppose it would have to be tested to see how people work under these conditions, whether they work as much or less. If there is no significant reduction in how much work people actually do, I really cannot see any reason why the system should not be implemented. The factor that is important here is whether people would want to or be able to really squeeze a week’s worth of work into four days. Knowing myself, I would be able to. I might even be willing to take a small pay cut in order to have an extra day off. I know that there are some companies in the U.S. that actually have no fixed hours for their employees. Their work is project based, and as long as they submit their work or sell enough products by a set date, it does not matter how many hours they work per week. I am not sure if I would have enough self-discipline to work for a company like that, but I would certainly be willing to give the four-day work week a try. It also depends on the nature of the job, I suppose. Service-based establishments like shops and restaurants are usually open seven days a week. If these types of businesses and others were to lose staff for one day, they would have to employ more people to make up for the shortfall. That said, I do not think everything would collapse around us. We all might get used to a four-day work week quickly and, who knows, perhaps in another hundred years people might start demanding a three-day work week! (377 words) Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage? a. The author believes that a four-day work week is not feasible. b. The author wants to work less for more money. c. The author considers the four-day week at par with existing flexible working systems. d. The author believes service industries should not have a four day week. Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Answer: C Justification: The author shows the logistics of working a four-day week by working two extra hours every day in order to enjoy a three day weekend. According to the author, if productivity does not fall, this is a practical solution. As some companies already have no fixed hours for employee but are entirely project or sales based, there is a high chance that a four-day week can also be successful as number of hours does not relate to productivity. Hence, C. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Answer: C Justification: The author shows the logistics of working a four-day week by working two extra hours every day in order to enjoy a three day weekend. According to the author, if productivity does not fall, this is a practical solution. As some companies already have no fixed hours for employee but are entirely project or sales based, there is a high chance that a four-day week can also be successful as number of hours does not relate to productivity. Hence, C.

#### 26. Question

The thought of working just four days a week and having a three-day weekend is irresistible! I would jump at the chance of having a block of three days for myself every week. I would even be willing to work the same number of hours and fit them all into those four days. It would only be an extra two hours per day and many people do that amount of overtime every day as it is, and they rarely get paid for it.

However, there is the question of productivity. The economy would certainly be affected negatively if we all started to be less productive. I suppose it would have to be tested to see how people work under these conditions, whether they work as much or less. If there is no significant reduction in how much work people actually do, I really cannot see any reason why the system should not be implemented.

The factor that is important here is whether people would want to or be able to really squeeze a week’s worth of work into four days. Knowing myself, I would be able to. I might even be willing to take a small pay cut in order to have an extra day off. I know that there are some companies in the U.S. that actually have no fixed hours for their employees. Their work is project based, and as long as they submit their work or sell enough products by a set date, it does not matter how many hours they work per week. I am not sure if I would have enough self-discipline to work for a company like that, but I would certainly be willing to give the four-day work week a try.

It also depends on the nature of the job, I suppose. Service-based establishments like shops and restaurants are usually open seven days a week. If these types of businesses and others were to lose staff for one day, they would have to employ more people to make up for the shortfall. That said, I do not think everything would collapse around us. We all might get used to a four-day work week quickly and, who knows, perhaps in another hundred years people might start demanding a three-day work week! (377 words)

Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?

• a. The author believes that a four-day work week is not feasible.

• b. The author wants to work less for more money.

• c. The author considers the four-day week at par with existing flexible working systems.

• d. The author believes service industries should not have a four day week.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Answer: C

Justification:

The author shows the logistics of working a four-day week by working two extra hours every day in order to enjoy a three day weekend. According to the author, if productivity does not fall, this is a practical solution. As some companies already have no fixed hours for employee but are entirely project or sales based, there is a high chance that a four-day week can also be successful as number of hours does not relate to productivity. Hence, C.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Answer: C

Justification:

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Ritisha starts for office every day at 9 am and reaches exactly on time if she drives at her usual speed of 40 km/hr. She is late by 6 minutes if she drives at 35 km/hr. One day, she covers two-thirds of her distance to office in one-thirds of her usual total time to reach office, and then stops for 8 minutes. The speed, in km/hr, at which she should drive the remaining distance to reach office exactly on time is a. 29 km/hr b. 26 km/hr c. 28 km/hr d. 27 km/hr Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Answer C) 28 km/hr Let distance = d Given, d/35 – d/40= 6/60 => d = 28km The actual time taken to travel 28km = 28/40 = 7/10 hours = 42 min. Given time taken to travel 58/3 km = 1/3 42 = 14 min. Then a break of 8 min. To reach on time, he should cover remaining 28/3 km in 20 min => Speed =(28/3)/(20/60)=28 km/hr Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Answer C) 28 km/hr Let distance = d Given, d/35 – d/40= 6/60 => d = 28km The actual time taken to travel 28km = 28/40 = 7/10 hours = 42 min. Given time taken to travel 58/3 km = 1/3 42 = 14 min. Then a break of 8 min. To reach on time, he should cover remaining 28/3 km in 20 min => Speed =(28/3)/(20/60)=28 km/hr

#### 27. Question

Ritisha starts for office every day at 9 am and reaches exactly on time if she drives at her usual speed of 40 km/hr. She is late by 6 minutes if she drives at 35 km/hr. One day, she covers two-thirds of her distance to office in one-thirds of her usual total time to reach office, and then stops for 8 minutes. The speed, in km/hr, at which she should drive the remaining distance to reach office exactly on time is

• a. 29 km/hr

• b. 26 km/hr

• c. 28 km/hr

• d. 27 km/hr

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Let distance = d

Given, d/35 – d/40= 6/60

=> d = 28km

The actual time taken to travel 28km = 28/40 = 7/10 hours = 42 min.

Given time taken to travel 58/3 km = 1/3 *42 = 14 min.

Then a break of 8 min.

To reach on time, he should cover remaining 28/3 km in 20 min

=> Speed =(28/3)/(20/60)=28 km/hr

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Let distance = d

Given, d/35 – d/40= 6/60

=> d = 28km

The actual time taken to travel 28km = 28/40 = 7/10 hours = 42 min.

Given time taken to travel 58/3 km = 1/3 *42 = 14 min.

Then a break of 8 min.

To reach on time, he should cover remaining 28/3 km in 20 min

=> Speed =(28/3)/(20/60)=28 km/hr

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points City A to City B is a downstream journey on a stream which flows at a speed of 5km/hr. Boats P and Q run a shuttle service between the two cities that are 300 kms apart. Boat P, which starts from City A has a still-water speed of 25km/hr, while boat Q, which starts from city B at the same time has a still-water speed of 15km/hr. When will the two boats meet for the first time? (this part is easy) When and where will they meet for the second time? a. 7.5 hours and 15 hours b. 7.5 hours and 18 hours c. 8 hours and 18 hours d. 7.5 hours and 20 hours Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Answer D) 7.5 hours and 20 hours Understanding relative speed would help. Boat P starts from city A and Q starts from city B. When boat P travels downstream, it will effectively have a speed to 30kmph. Likewise, Q will have an effective speed of 10kmph. The relative speed = 40kmph. So, the two boats will meet for the first time after 300/40 hours (Distance/relative speed) = 7.5 hours (Actually, for this part we do not need the speed of the stream) The second part is more interesting, because the speed of the boats change when they change direction. Boat P is quicker, so it will reach the destination sooner. Boat P will reach City B in 10 hours 300/30. When boat P reaches city B, boat Q will be at a point 100kms from city B. After 10 hours, both P and Q will be travelling upstream, P’s speed = 20 km/hr Q’s speed = 10 km/hr Relative speed = 10km/hr Q is ahead of P by 100 kms P will catch up with Q after 10 more hours (Distance/Relative Speed)− (100/10) So, P and Q will meet after 20 hours at a point 200 kms from city B Hence, the answer is 7.5 hours and 20 hours Choice D is the correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Answer D) 7.5 hours and 20 hours Understanding relative speed would help. Boat P starts from city A and Q starts from city B. When boat P travels downstream, it will effectively have a speed to 30kmph. Likewise, Q will have an effective speed of 10kmph. The relative speed = 40kmph. So, the two boats will meet for the first time after 300/40 hours (Distance/relative speed) = 7.5 hours (Actually, for this part we do not need the speed of the stream) The second part is more interesting, because the speed of the boats change when they change direction. Boat P is quicker, so it will reach the destination sooner. Boat P will reach City B in 10 hours 300/30. When boat P reaches city B, boat Q will be at a point 100kms from city B. After 10 hours, both P and Q will be travelling upstream, P’s speed = 20 km/hr Q’s speed = 10 km/hr Relative speed = 10km/hr Q is ahead of P by 100 kms P will catch up with Q after 10 more hours (Distance/Relative Speed)− (100/10) So, P and Q will meet after 20 hours at a point 200 kms from city B Hence, the answer is 7.5 hours and 20 hours Choice D is the correct answer.

#### 28. Question

City A to City B is a downstream journey on a stream which flows at a speed of 5km/hr. Boats P and Q run a shuttle service between the two cities that are 300 kms apart. Boat P, which starts from City A has a still-water speed of 25km/hr, while boat Q, which starts from city B at the same time has a still-water speed of 15km/hr. When will the two boats meet for the first time? (this part is easy) When and where will they meet for the second time?

• a. 7.5 hours and 15 hours

• b. 7.5 hours and 18 hours

• c. 8 hours and 18 hours

• d. 7.5 hours and 20 hours

Correct Option : D

Justification :

7.5 hours and 20 hours

Understanding relative speed would help.

Boat P starts from city A and Q starts from city B.

When boat P travels downstream, it will effectively have a speed to 30kmph. Likewise, Q will have an effective speed of 10kmph. The relative speed = 40kmph. So, the two boats will meet for the first time after 300/40 hours (Distance/relative speed) = 7.5 hours (Actually, for this part we do not need the speed of the stream)

The second part is more interesting, because the speed of the boats change when they change direction. Boat P is quicker, so it will reach the destination sooner. Boat P will reach City B in 10 hours 300/30. When boat P reaches city B, boat Q will be at a point 100kms from city B.

After 10 hours, both P and Q will be travelling upstream,

P’s speed = 20 km/hr

Q’s speed = 10 km/hr

Relative speed = 10km/hr

Q is ahead of P by 100 kms

P will catch up with Q after 10 more hours (Distance/Relative Speed)− (100/10)

So, P and Q will meet after 20 hours at a point 200 kms from city B

Hence, the answer is 7.5 hours and 20 hours

Choice D is the correct answer.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

7.5 hours and 20 hours

Understanding relative speed would help.

Boat P starts from city A and Q starts from city B.

After 10 hours, both P and Q will be travelling upstream,

P’s speed = 20 km/hr

Q’s speed = 10 km/hr

Relative speed = 10km/hr

Q is ahead of P by 100 kms

P will catch up with Q after 10 more hours (Distance/Relative Speed)− (100/10)

So, P and Q will meet after 20 hours at a point 200 kms from city B

Hence, the answer is 7.5 hours and 20 hours

Choice D is the correct answer.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A man buys 35 kg of sugar and sets a marked price in order to make a 20% profit. He sells 5 kg at this price, and 15 kg at a 10% discount. Accidentally, 3 kg of sugar is wasted. He sells the remaining sugar by raising the marked price by p percent so as to make an overall profit of 15%. Then p is nearest to a. 22 b. 35 b. 35 d. 31 Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Let the cost price of 1kg of sugar = Rs 100 The total cost price of 35 kg = Rs3500 Marked up price per kg = Rs 120 Given, the final profit is 15% => Final SP of 35 kg = 3500 1.15 = Rs 4025 First 5 kg’s are sold at 20% marked up price => SP1 =5 100 1.2= Rs 600 Next 15 kgs are sold after giving 10% discount => SP2 = 15 100 1.2 0.9= 1620 3kgs of sugar got wasted => 23 kg of sugar was sold at Rs (600 +1620) = Rs 2220 Remaining 12kg should be sold at Rs 4025 – 2220 = Rs1805 => SP of 1kg = 1805/12 =150 Hence, the seller should further mark up by [( 150-120)/120 ] 100 = 25% Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Let the cost price of 1kg of sugar = Rs 100 The total cost price of 35 kg = Rs3500 Marked up price per kg = Rs 120 Given, the final profit is 15% => Final SP of 35 kg = 3500 1.15 = Rs 4025 First 5 kg’s are sold at 20% marked up price => SP1 =5 100 1.2= Rs 600 Next 15 kgs are sold after giving 10% discount => SP2 = 15 100 1.2 0.9= 1620 3kgs of sugar got wasted => 23 kg of sugar was sold at Rs (600 +1620) = Rs 2220 Remaining 12kg should be sold at Rs 4025 – 2220 = Rs1805 => SP of 1kg = 1805/12 =150 Hence, the seller should further mark up by [( 150-120)/120 ] 100 = 25%

#### 29. Question

A man buys 35 kg of sugar and sets a marked price in order to make a 20% profit. He sells 5 kg at this price, and 15 kg at a 10% discount. Accidentally, 3 kg of sugar is wasted. He sells the remaining sugar by raising the marked price by p percent so as to make an overall profit of 15%. Then p is nearest to

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Let the cost price of 1kg of sugar = Rs 100

The total cost price of 35 kg = Rs3500

Marked up price per kg = Rs 120

Given, the final profit is 15% => Final SP of 35 kg = 3500 *1.15 = Rs 4025

First 5 kg’s are sold at 20% marked up price => SP1 =5 100 1.2= Rs 600

Next 15 kgs are sold after giving 10% discount => SP2 = 15 100 1.2 * 0.9= 1620

3kgs of sugar got wasted

=> 23 kg of sugar was sold at Rs (600 +1620) = Rs 2220

Remaining 12kg should be sold at Rs 4025 – 2220 = Rs1805

=> SP of 1kg = 1805/12 =150

Hence, the seller should further mark up by [( 150-120)/120 ] * 100 = 25%

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Let the cost price of 1kg of sugar = Rs 100

The total cost price of 35 kg = Rs3500

Marked up price per kg = Rs 120

Given, the final profit is 15% => Final SP of 35 kg = 3500 *1.15 = Rs 4025

First 5 kg’s are sold at 20% marked up price => SP1 =5 100 1.2= Rs 600

Next 15 kgs are sold after giving 10% discount => SP2 = 15 100 1.2 * 0.9= 1620

3kgs of sugar got wasted

=> 23 kg of sugar was sold at Rs (600 +1620) = Rs 2220

Remaining 12kg should be sold at Rs 4025 – 2220 = Rs1805

=> SP of 1kg = 1805/12 =150

Hence, the seller should further mark up by [( 150-120)/120 ] * 100 = 25%

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible? (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) Infinitely many Correct Solution: C 7x+96 is divisible by x This means: = 7+ Number of positive integers that divide 96 = number of positive divisors of 96. Prime factorization of 96: 96=25×31⇒ (5+1) (1+1) = 6×2=12 Incorrect Solution: C 7x+96 is divisible by x This means: = 7+ Number of positive integers that divide 96 = number of positive divisors of 96. Prime factorization of 96: 96=25×31⇒ (5+1) (1+1) = 6×2=12

#### 30. Question

Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible?

• (d) Infinitely many

Solution: C

7x+96 is divisible by x This means:

Number of positive integers that divide 96 = number of positive divisors of 96.

Prime factorization of 96:

96=25×31⇒ (5+1) (1+1) = 6×2=12

Solution: C

7x+96 is divisible by x This means:

Number of positive integers that divide 96 = number of positive divisors of 96.