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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following events occurred in the sequence given below? Chauri Chaura incident Bardoli Satyagraha Chittagong Armoury Raid Gandhi-Irwin Pact Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4 (c) 1-2-4-3 (d) 2-1-4-3 Correct Solution: A The correct chronological sequence of these events is: Chauri Chaura incident (February 5, 1922): Violent clashes occurred between police and protesters at Chauri Chaura in the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh), where a police station was set on fire, killing 23 policemen. This led Gandhi to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement. Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): Led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in Gujarat against the British government’s decision to increase land revenue by 22%. The successful campaign earned Patel the title “Sardar.” Chittagong Armoury Raid (April 18, 1930): Led by Surya Sen, revolutionaries raided the British armoury in Chittagong, Bengal, capturing weapons and cutting off communications. Gandhi-Irwin Pact (March 5, 1931): An agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin to end the Civil Disobedience Movement in exchange for the release of political prisoners and participation in the Second Round Table Conference. Incorrect Solution: A The correct chronological sequence of these events is: Chauri Chaura incident (February 5, 1922): Violent clashes occurred between police and protesters at Chauri Chaura in the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh), where a police station was set on fire, killing 23 policemen. This led Gandhi to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement. Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): Led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in Gujarat against the British government’s decision to increase land revenue by 22%. The successful campaign earned Patel the title “Sardar.” Chittagong Armoury Raid (April 18, 1930): Led by Surya Sen, revolutionaries raided the British armoury in Chittagong, Bengal, capturing weapons and cutting off communications. Gandhi-Irwin Pact (March 5, 1931): An agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin to end the Civil Disobedience Movement in exchange for the release of political prisoners and participation in the Second Round Table Conference.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following events occurred in the sequence given below?

• Chauri Chaura incident

• Bardoli Satyagraha

• Chittagong Armoury Raid

• Gandhi-Irwin Pact

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1-2-3-4

• (b) 2-1-3-4

• (c) 1-2-4-3

• (d) 2-1-4-3

Solution: A

The correct chronological sequence of these events is:

• Chauri Chaura incident (February 5, 1922): Violent clashes occurred between police and protesters at Chauri Chaura in the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh), where a police station was set on fire, killing 23 policemen. This led Gandhi to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

• Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): Led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in Gujarat against the British government’s decision to increase land revenue by 22%. The successful campaign earned Patel the title “Sardar.”

• Chittagong Armoury Raid (April 18, 1930): Led by Surya Sen, revolutionaries raided the British armoury in Chittagong, Bengal, capturing weapons and cutting off communications.

• Gandhi-Irwin Pact (March 5, 1931): An agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin to end the Civil Disobedience Movement in exchange for the release of political prisoners and participation in the Second Round Table Conference.

Solution: A

The correct chronological sequence of these events is:

• Chittagong Armoury Raid (April 18, 1930): Led by Surya Sen, revolutionaries raided the British armoury in Chittagong, Bengal, capturing weapons and cutting off communications.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points In the context of the revenue systems during British India, which of the following is correctly matched? (a) Permanent Settlement – North-Western Provinces (b) Ryotwari System – Madras Presidency (c) Mahalwari System – Bengal Presidency (d) Zamindari System – Bombay Presidency Correct Solution: B Option (b) is correct. The Ryotwari System was primarily implemented in the Madras Presidency (parts of present-day Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, and Karnataka) and later in the Bombay Presidency. Under this system, introduced by Thomas Munro, revenue settlements were made directly with the cultivators (ryots) who were recognized as the proprietors of the land with rights to sublet, mortgage, or transfer the land. The government collected revenue directly from the cultivators without any intermediaries. Option (a) is incorrect. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and parts of Madras Presidency, not in the North-Western Provinces. Option (c) is incorrect. The Mahalwari System was introduced in the North-Western Provinces, Punjab, and parts of Central India, not in Bengal Presidency. Under this system, the village community (mahal) collectively was responsible for paying the revenue. Option (d) is incorrect. The Zamindari System was primarily implemented in Bengal Presidency under the Permanent Settlement of 1793, not in the Bombay Presidency. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is correct. The Ryotwari System was primarily implemented in the Madras Presidency (parts of present-day Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, and Karnataka) and later in the Bombay Presidency. Under this system, introduced by Thomas Munro, revenue settlements were made directly with the cultivators (ryots) who were recognized as the proprietors of the land with rights to sublet, mortgage, or transfer the land. The government collected revenue directly from the cultivators without any intermediaries. Option (a) is incorrect. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and parts of Madras Presidency, not in the North-Western Provinces. Option (c) is incorrect. The Mahalwari System was introduced in the North-Western Provinces, Punjab, and parts of Central India, not in Bengal Presidency. Under this system, the village community (mahal) collectively was responsible for paying the revenue. Option (d) is incorrect. The Zamindari System was primarily implemented in Bengal Presidency under the Permanent Settlement of 1793, not in the Bombay Presidency.

#### 2. Question

In the context of the revenue systems during British India, which of the following is correctly matched?

• (a) Permanent Settlement – North-Western Provinces

• (b) Ryotwari System – Madras Presidency

• (c) Mahalwari System – Bengal Presidency

• (d) Zamindari System – Bombay Presidency

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

The Ryotwari System was primarily implemented in the Madras Presidency (parts of present-day Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, and Karnataka) and later in the Bombay Presidency. Under this system, introduced by Thomas Munro, revenue settlements were made directly with the cultivators (ryots) who were recognized as the proprietors of the land with rights to sublet, mortgage, or transfer the land. The government collected revenue directly from the cultivators without any intermediaries.

Option (a) is incorrect.

The Permanent Settlement was introduced in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and parts of Madras Presidency, not in the North-Western Provinces.

Option (c) is incorrect.

The Mahalwari System was introduced in the North-Western Provinces, Punjab, and parts of Central India, not in Bengal Presidency. Under this system, the village community (mahal) collectively was responsible for paying the revenue.

Option (d) is incorrect.

The Zamindari System was primarily implemented in Bengal Presidency under the Permanent Settlement of 1793, not in the Bombay Presidency.

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

Option (a) is incorrect.

The Permanent Settlement was introduced in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and parts of Madras Presidency, not in the North-Western Provinces.

Option (c) is incorrect.

Option (d) is incorrect.

The Zamindari System was primarily implemented in Bengal Presidency under the Permanent Settlement of 1793, not in the Bombay Presidency.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following events related to the Indian National Congress: The Surat Split Formation of the Garam Dal and Naram Dal Resolution on the demand for Swaraj Boycott of the Simon Commission Which of the events given above occurred in the correct chronological order? (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-3-1-4 (c) 2-1-3-4 (d) 3-2-1-4 Correct Solution: C The correct chronological order of these events is: Formation of the Garam Dal (Extremists) and Naram Dal (Moderates) – This ideological division within the Congress emerged around 1905-06 with leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai forming the Extremist faction, while leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Pherozeshah Mehta, and Surendranath Banerjee led the Moderate faction. 1. The Surat Split – This occurred in 1907 when the Congress session at Surat witnessed a formal split between the Extremists and Moderates over disagreements on tactics, leadership, and the extension of the boycott movement. Resolution on the demand for Swaraj – While Congress had been using the term since 1906, the definitive resolution declaring Purna Swaraj (complete independence) as Congress’s goal was adopted at the Lahore Session in December 1929 under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru. Boycott of the Simon Commission – The all-white Simon Commission, appointed in 1927 to review India’s political situation, was boycotted by all Indian political parties when it arrived in India in February 1928. Incorrect Solution: C The correct chronological order of these events is: Formation of the Garam Dal (Extremists) and Naram Dal (Moderates) – This ideological division within the Congress emerged around 1905-06 with leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai forming the Extremist faction, while leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Pherozeshah Mehta, and Surendranath Banerjee led the Moderate faction. 1. The Surat Split – This occurred in 1907 when the Congress session at Surat witnessed a formal split between the Extremists and Moderates over disagreements on tactics, leadership, and the extension of the boycott movement. Resolution on the demand for Swaraj – While Congress had been using the term since 1906, the definitive resolution declaring Purna Swaraj (complete independence) as Congress’s goal was adopted at the Lahore Session in December 1929 under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru. Boycott of the Simon Commission – The all-white Simon Commission, appointed in 1927 to review India’s political situation, was boycotted by all Indian political parties when it arrived in India in February 1928.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following events related to the Indian National Congress:

• The Surat Split

• Formation of the Garam Dal and Naram Dal

• Resolution on the demand for Swaraj

• Boycott of the Simon Commission

Which of the events given above occurred in the correct chronological order?

• (a) 1-2-3-4

• (b) 2-3-1-4

• (c) 2-1-3-4

• (d) 3-2-1-4

Solution: C

The correct chronological order of these events is:

• Formation of the Garam Dal (Extremists) and Naram Dal (Moderates) – This ideological division within the Congress emerged around 1905-06 with leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai forming the Extremist faction, while leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Pherozeshah Mehta, and Surendranath Banerjee led the Moderate faction.

• 1. The Surat Split – This occurred in 1907 when the Congress session at Surat witnessed a formal split between the Extremists and Moderates over disagreements on tactics, leadership, and the extension of the boycott movement.

• Resolution on the demand for Swaraj – While Congress had been using the term since 1906, the definitive resolution declaring Purna Swaraj (complete independence) as Congress’s goal was adopted at the Lahore Session in December 1929 under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru.

• Boycott of the Simon Commission – The all-white Simon Commission, appointed in 1927 to review India’s political situation, was boycotted by all Indian political parties when it arrived in India in February 1928.

Solution: C

The correct chronological order of these events is:

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the revolutionary activities during India’s freedom struggle, which of the following is correctly matched? (a) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association – Batukeshwar Dutt (b) Anushilan Samiti – Barindra Kumar Ghose (c) Ghadar Party – Bhagat Singh (d) Mitramela – V.O. Chidambaram Pillai Correct Solution: B Option (b) is correct. The Anushilan Samiti was founded in 1902-1903 in Bengal, with Barindra Kumar Ghose (brother of Aurobindo Ghose) as one of its key leaders and organizers. The organization was dedicated to revolutionary activities against British rule and was influenced by the extremist ideology. Option (a) is incorrect. The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was founded in 1928 by Chandrasekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh, not by Batukeshwar Dutt. Dutt was a member of the HSRA who participated in the Legislative Assembly bombing along with Bhagat Singh in 1929. Option (c) is incorrect. The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 in San Francisco, USA, by Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, and other Indian expatriates, not by Bhagat Singh who was associated with the HSRA. Option (d) is incorrect. Mitramela was founded by V.D. Savarkar in 1899 in Nashik, not by V.O. Chidambaram Pillai, who was associated with the Swadeshi movement in Tamil Nadu and founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is correct. The Anushilan Samiti was founded in 1902-1903 in Bengal, with Barindra Kumar Ghose (brother of Aurobindo Ghose) as one of its key leaders and organizers. The organization was dedicated to revolutionary activities against British rule and was influenced by the extremist ideology. Option (a) is incorrect. The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was founded in 1928 by Chandrasekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh, not by Batukeshwar Dutt. Dutt was a member of the HSRA who participated in the Legislative Assembly bombing along with Bhagat Singh in 1929. Option (c) is incorrect. The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 in San Francisco, USA, by Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, and other Indian expatriates, not by Bhagat Singh who was associated with the HSRA. Option (d) is incorrect. Mitramela was founded by V.D. Savarkar in 1899 in Nashik, not by V.O. Chidambaram Pillai, who was associated with the Swadeshi movement in Tamil Nadu and founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the revolutionary activities during India’s freedom struggle, which of the following is correctly matched?

• (a) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association – Batukeshwar Dutt

• (b) Anushilan Samiti – Barindra Kumar Ghose

• (c) Ghadar Party – Bhagat Singh

• (d) Mitramela – V.O. Chidambaram Pillai

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

The Anushilan Samiti was founded in 1902-1903 in Bengal, with Barindra Kumar Ghose (brother of Aurobindo Ghose) as one of its key leaders and organizers. The organization was dedicated to revolutionary activities against British rule and was influenced by the extremist ideology.

Option (a) is incorrect.

The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was founded in 1928 by Chandrasekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh, not by Batukeshwar Dutt. Dutt was a member of the HSRA who participated in the Legislative Assembly bombing along with Bhagat Singh in 1929.

Option (c) is incorrect.

The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 in San Francisco, USA, by Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, and other Indian expatriates, not by Bhagat Singh who was associated with the HSRA.

Option (d) is incorrect.

Mitramela was founded by V.D. Savarkar in 1899 in Nashik, not by V.O. Chidambaram Pillai, who was associated with the Swadeshi movement in Tamil Nadu and founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company.

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

Option (a) is incorrect.

Option (c) is incorrect.

The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 in San Francisco, USA, by Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, and other Indian expatriates, not by Bhagat Singh who was associated with the HSRA.

Option (d) is incorrect.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to the socio-religious reform movements of 19th century India, consider the following statements: The Brahmo Samaj under Debendranath Tagore adopted a more conservative approach compared to Ram Mohan Roy’s period. The Prarthana Samaj rejected the authority of the Vedas but accepted the doctrine of karma. The Singh Sabha movement aimed to restore the purity of Sikhism by discouraging Hindu practices among Sikhs. The Self-Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu advocated inter-caste marriages and opposed Brahmanical dominance. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. The Brahmo Samaj under Debendranath Tagore (father of Rabindranath Tagore) did adopt a more conservative approach than during Ram Mohan Roy’s period. Debendranath’s “Brahmo Covenant” reasserted certain Hindu traditions and practices that Roy had been more willing to reform. The Singh Sabha movement, founded in 1873, aimed to restore the purity of Sikhism by countering conversions to Christianity and the influence of Hindu rituals and practices among Sikhs. It promoted Sikh identity through education and publications. The Self-Respect Movement, founded by E.V. Ramasamy “Periyar” in Tamil Nadu in 1925, strongly advocated inter-caste marriages, opposed Brahmanical dominance, and promoted rationalism and women’s rights. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Prarthana Samaj, founded in 1867 in Bombay, did accept the authority of the Vedas, though they interpreted them liberally. Unlike the Brahmo Samaj, which eventually rejected Vedic authority, the Prarthana Samaj maintained a reverence for Vedic texts while advocating social reforms like women’s education and opposing child marriage and caste discrimination. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. The Brahmo Samaj under Debendranath Tagore (father of Rabindranath Tagore) did adopt a more conservative approach than during Ram Mohan Roy’s period. Debendranath’s “Brahmo Covenant” reasserted certain Hindu traditions and practices that Roy had been more willing to reform. The Singh Sabha movement, founded in 1873, aimed to restore the purity of Sikhism by countering conversions to Christianity and the influence of Hindu rituals and practices among Sikhs. It promoted Sikh identity through education and publications. The Self-Respect Movement, founded by E.V. Ramasamy “Periyar” in Tamil Nadu in 1925, strongly advocated inter-caste marriages, opposed Brahmanical dominance, and promoted rationalism and women’s rights. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Prarthana Samaj, founded in 1867 in Bombay, did accept the authority of the Vedas, though they interpreted them liberally. Unlike the Brahmo Samaj, which eventually rejected Vedic authority, the Prarthana Samaj maintained a reverence for Vedic texts while advocating social reforms like women’s education and opposing child marriage and caste discrimination.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the socio-religious reform movements of 19th century India, consider the following statements:

• The Brahmo Samaj under Debendranath Tagore adopted a more conservative approach compared to Ram Mohan Roy’s period.

• The Prarthana Samaj rejected the authority of the Vedas but accepted the doctrine of karma.

• The Singh Sabha movement aimed to restore the purity of Sikhism by discouraging Hindu practices among Sikhs.

• The Self-Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu advocated inter-caste marriages and opposed Brahmanical dominance.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

The Brahmo Samaj under Debendranath Tagore (father of Rabindranath Tagore) did adopt a more conservative approach than during Ram Mohan Roy’s period. Debendranath’s “Brahmo Covenant” reasserted certain Hindu traditions and practices that Roy had been more willing to reform.

The Singh Sabha movement, founded in 1873, aimed to restore the purity of Sikhism by countering conversions to Christianity and the influence of Hindu rituals and practices among Sikhs. It promoted Sikh identity through education and publications.

The Self-Respect Movement, founded by E.V. Ramasamy “Periyar” in Tamil Nadu in 1925, strongly advocated inter-caste marriages, opposed Brahmanical dominance, and promoted rationalism and women’s rights.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Prarthana Samaj, founded in 1867 in Bombay, did accept the authority of the Vedas, though they interpreted them liberally. Unlike the Brahmo Samaj, which eventually rejected Vedic authority, the Prarthana Samaj maintained a reverence for Vedic texts while advocating social reforms like women’s education and opposing child marriage and caste discrimination.

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Who among the following leaders was NOT associated with the moderates in the early phase of the Indian National Congress? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Gopalkrishna Gokhale (c) Bipin Chandra Pal (d) Pherozeshah Mehta Correct Solution: C Bipin Chandra Pal was NOT associated with the moderates in the early phase of the Indian National Congress. He was a prominent member of the extremist faction (Garam Dal) along with Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai, forming the famous extremist trio known as “Lal-Bal-Pal.” Pal advocated more aggressive methods for attaining independence, including swadeshi, boycott, and national education, rather than the constitutional methods preferred by the moderates. The other three leaders were prominent moderates. Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the “Grand Old Man of India,” was a key moderate leader who served as Congress president three times and developed the “Drain of Wealth” theory. Gopalkrishna Gokhale was a foremost moderate leader, founder of the Servants of India Society, and mentor to Gandhi. Pherozeshah Mehta, known as the “Lion of Bombay,” was a prominent moderate leader who founded the Bombay Presidency Association and served as Congress president in 1890. Incorrect Solution: C Bipin Chandra Pal was NOT associated with the moderates in the early phase of the Indian National Congress. He was a prominent member of the extremist faction (Garam Dal) along with Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai, forming the famous extremist trio known as “Lal-Bal-Pal.” Pal advocated more aggressive methods for attaining independence, including swadeshi, boycott, and national education, rather than the constitutional methods preferred by the moderates. The other three leaders were prominent moderates. Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the “Grand Old Man of India,” was a key moderate leader who served as Congress president three times and developed the “Drain of Wealth” theory. Gopalkrishna Gokhale was a foremost moderate leader, founder of the Servants of India Society, and mentor to Gandhi. Pherozeshah Mehta, known as the “Lion of Bombay,” was a prominent moderate leader who founded the Bombay Presidency Association and served as Congress president in 1890.

#### 6. Question

Who among the following leaders was NOT associated with the moderates in the early phase of the Indian National Congress?

• (a) Dadabhai Naoroji

• (b) Gopalkrishna Gokhale

• (c) Bipin Chandra Pal

• (d) Pherozeshah Mehta

Solution: C

Bipin Chandra Pal was NOT associated with the moderates in the early phase of the Indian National Congress. He was a prominent member of the extremist faction (Garam Dal) along with Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai, forming the famous extremist trio known as “Lal-Bal-Pal.” Pal advocated more aggressive methods for attaining independence, including swadeshi, boycott, and national education, rather than the constitutional methods preferred by the moderates. The other three leaders were prominent moderates.

Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the “Grand Old Man of India,” was a key moderate leader who served as Congress president three times and developed the “Drain of Wealth” theory.

Gopalkrishna Gokhale was a foremost moderate leader, founder of the Servants of India Society, and mentor to Gandhi.

Pherozeshah Mehta, known as the “Lion of Bombay,” was a prominent moderate leader who founded the Bombay Presidency Association and served as Congress president in 1890.

Solution: C

Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the “Grand Old Man of India,” was a key moderate leader who served as Congress president three times and developed the “Drain of Wealth” theory.

Gopalkrishna Gokhale was a foremost moderate leader, founder of the Servants of India Society, and mentor to Gandhi.

Pherozeshah Mehta, known as the “Lion of Bombay,” was a prominent moderate leader who founded the Bombay Presidency Association and served as Congress president in 1890.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding Buddhist and Jain influences on the 19th-century social reform movements is/are correct? Anagarika Dharmapala’s revival of Buddhism influenced Dalit movements in Maharashtra. Kuka Movement reinterpreted Jain principles of non-violence in their anti-colonial struggle. Pandit Iyothee Thass established the Sakya Buddhist Society to promote Buddhism among Dalits in Tamil Nadu. The Young Bengal movement drew inspiration from Buddhist rationalism. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Anagarika Dharmapala (1864-1933), a Sri Lankan Buddhist revivalist, did influence Dalit movements in Maharashtra through his visits to India and his emphasis on Buddhism as an indigenous religion that rejected caste hierarchies. His work helped prepare the groundwork for Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s later mass conversion to Buddhism. Pandit Iyothee Thass (1845-1914) did establish the Sakya Buddhist Society (Sakya Buddha Sangam) in 1898 in Tamil Nadu to promote Buddhism among Dalits as an alternative to Hinduism’s caste system. He argued that Dalits were originally Buddhists who were relegated to untouchable status after Brahmanical conquest. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kuka Movement (Namdhari Movement) founded by Baba Ram Singh in Punjab was a Sikh revivalist movement that emphasized Sikh principles, not Jain ones. They advocated for a return to the original teachings of Guru Nanak and opposed British rule. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Young Bengal movement, influenced by Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, drew inspiration primarily from Western rationalism, the French Revolution, and Enlightenment thinking, not Buddhist rationalism. Incorrect Solution: A Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Anagarika Dharmapala (1864-1933), a Sri Lankan Buddhist revivalist, did influence Dalit movements in Maharashtra through his visits to India and his emphasis on Buddhism as an indigenous religion that rejected caste hierarchies. His work helped prepare the groundwork for Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s later mass conversion to Buddhism. Pandit Iyothee Thass (1845-1914) did establish the Sakya Buddhist Society (Sakya Buddha Sangam) in 1898 in Tamil Nadu to promote Buddhism among Dalits as an alternative to Hinduism’s caste system. He argued that Dalits were originally Buddhists who were relegated to untouchable status after Brahmanical conquest. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kuka Movement (Namdhari Movement) founded by Baba Ram Singh in Punjab was a Sikh revivalist movement that emphasized Sikh principles, not Jain ones. They advocated for a return to the original teachings of Guru Nanak and opposed British rule. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Young Bengal movement, influenced by Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, drew inspiration primarily from Western rationalism, the French Revolution, and Enlightenment thinking, not Buddhist rationalism.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following statements regarding Buddhist and Jain influences on the 19th-century social reform movements is/are correct?

• Anagarika Dharmapala’s revival of Buddhism influenced Dalit movements in Maharashtra.

• Kuka Movement reinterpreted Jain principles of non-violence in their anti-colonial struggle.

• Pandit Iyothee Thass established the Sakya Buddhist Society to promote Buddhism among Dalits in Tamil Nadu.

• The Young Bengal movement drew inspiration from Buddhist rationalism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Anagarika Dharmapala (1864-1933), a Sri Lankan Buddhist revivalist, did influence Dalit movements in Maharashtra through his visits to India and his emphasis on Buddhism as an indigenous religion that rejected caste hierarchies. His work helped prepare the groundwork for Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s later mass conversion to Buddhism.

Pandit Iyothee Thass (1845-1914) did establish the Sakya Buddhist Society (Sakya Buddha Sangam) in 1898 in Tamil Nadu to promote Buddhism among Dalits as an alternative to Hinduism’s caste system. He argued that Dalits were originally Buddhists who were relegated to untouchable status after Brahmanical conquest.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Kuka Movement (Namdhari Movement) founded by Baba Ram Singh in Punjab was a Sikh revivalist movement that emphasized Sikh principles, not Jain ones. They advocated for a return to the original teachings of Guru Nanak and opposed British rule.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

The Young Bengal movement, influenced by Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, drew inspiration primarily from Western rationalism, the French Revolution, and Enlightenment thinking, not Buddhist rationalism.

Solution: A

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The Hunter Commission was appointed by the British Government in 1882 to: (a) Suggest reforms for the Indian Civil Service (b) Investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre (c) Review the progress of education in India (d) Inquire into the condition of agricultural laborers Correct Solution: C The Hunter Commission of 1882 was appointed to review the progress of education in India following Wood’s Despatch of 1854 and to suggest further improvements. It was headed by Sir William Wilson Hunter and is officially known as the Indian Education Commission. The Commission made several important recommendations including: 1) Expansion of primary education and transfer of its management to district and municipal boards, 2) Emphasis on secular education while allowing private religious instruction, 3) Encouragement of private enterprise in education with grant-in-aid, 4) Special attention to education of Muslims, and 5) Promotion of female education. The Hunter Commission of 1919, which investigated the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, was a different body. The Indian Civil Service reforms were primarily addressed by the Aitchison Commission (1886) and the Islington Commission (1912). Incorrect Solution: C The Hunter Commission of 1882 was appointed to review the progress of education in India following Wood’s Despatch of 1854 and to suggest further improvements. It was headed by Sir William Wilson Hunter and is officially known as the Indian Education Commission. The Commission made several important recommendations including: 1) Expansion of primary education and transfer of its management to district and municipal boards, 2) Emphasis on secular education while allowing private religious instruction, 3) Encouragement of private enterprise in education with grant-in-aid, 4) Special attention to education of Muslims, and 5) Promotion of female education. The Hunter Commission of 1919, which investigated the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, was a different body. The Indian Civil Service reforms were primarily addressed by the Aitchison Commission (1886) and the Islington Commission (1912).

#### 8. Question

The Hunter Commission was appointed by the British Government in 1882 to:

• (a) Suggest reforms for the Indian Civil Service

• (b) Investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre

• (c) Review the progress of education in India

• (d) Inquire into the condition of agricultural laborers

Solution: C

The Hunter Commission of 1882 was appointed to review the progress of education in India following Wood’s Despatch of 1854 and to suggest further improvements. It was headed by Sir William Wilson Hunter and is officially known as the Indian Education Commission.

The Commission made several important recommendations including:

1.Expansion of primary education and transfer of its management to district and municipal boards,

1.Emphasis on secular education while allowing private religious instruction,

1.Encouragement of private enterprise in education with grant-in-aid,

1.Special attention to education of Muslims, and

1.Promotion of female education.

The Hunter Commission of 1919, which investigated the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, was a different body.

The Indian Civil Service reforms were primarily addressed by the Aitchison Commission (1886) and the Islington Commission (1912).

Solution: C

The Commission made several important recommendations including:

1.Expansion of primary education and transfer of its management to district and municipal boards,

1.Emphasis on secular education while allowing private religious instruction,

1.Encouragement of private enterprise in education with grant-in-aid,

1.Special attention to education of Muslims, and

1.Promotion of female education.

The Hunter Commission of 1919, which investigated the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, was a different body.

The Indian Civil Service reforms were primarily addressed by the Aitchison Commission (1886) and the Islington Commission (1912).

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Commission/Committee : Subject Hartog Committee – Education Whitley Commission – Labor conditions Hilton Young Commission – Banking and Currency Muddiman Committee – Provincial Autonomy How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. The Hartog Committee (1929), officially known as the Auxiliary Committee of the Indian Statutory Commission, was appointed to review the growth of education in British India. Chaired by Sir Philip Hartog, it mainly focused on primary education and criticized the prevailing “top-down” approach to education policy. The Whitley Commission (1929-31), officially known as the Royal Commission on Labour in India, was appointed under the chairmanship of John Henry Whitley to inquire into and report on the existing conditions of labor in industrial undertakings and plantations in India. The Hilton Young Commission (1926), officially known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, was chaired by Edward Hilton Young and recommended the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India as a central bank free from political influence. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. The Muddiman Committee (1924) was not concerned with provincial autonomy but was appointed to inquire into the working of the dyarchy system introduced by the Government of India Act 1919. It examined defects in the constitutional machinery and suggested remedies. The question of provincial autonomy was more directly addressed by the Simon Commission (1927-30). Incorrect Solution: C Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. The Hartog Committee (1929), officially known as the Auxiliary Committee of the Indian Statutory Commission, was appointed to review the growth of education in British India. Chaired by Sir Philip Hartog, it mainly focused on primary education and criticized the prevailing “top-down” approach to education policy. The Whitley Commission (1929-31), officially known as the Royal Commission on Labour in India, was appointed under the chairmanship of John Henry Whitley to inquire into and report on the existing conditions of labor in industrial undertakings and plantations in India. The Hilton Young Commission (1926), officially known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, was chaired by Edward Hilton Young and recommended the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India as a central bank free from political influence. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. The Muddiman Committee (1924) was not concerned with provincial autonomy but was appointed to inquire into the working of the dyarchy system introduced by the Government of India Act 1919. It examined defects in the constitutional machinery and suggested remedies. The question of provincial autonomy was more directly addressed by the Simon Commission (1927-30).

#### 9. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Commission/Committee : Subject

• Hartog Committee – Education

• Whitley Commission – Labor conditions

• Hilton Young Commission – Banking and Currency

• Muddiman Committee – Provincial Autonomy

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched.

The Hartog Committee (1929), officially known as the Auxiliary Committee of the Indian Statutory Commission, was appointed to review the growth of education in British India. Chaired by Sir Philip Hartog, it mainly focused on primary education and criticized the prevailing “top-down” approach to education policy.

The Whitley Commission (1929-31), officially known as the Royal Commission on Labour in India, was appointed under the chairmanship of John Henry Whitley to inquire into and report on the existing conditions of labor in industrial undertakings and plantations in India.

The Hilton Young Commission (1926), officially known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, was chaired by Edward Hilton Young and recommended the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India as a central bank free from political influence. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

The Muddiman Committee (1924) was not concerned with provincial autonomy but was appointed to inquire into the working of the dyarchy system introduced by the Government of India Act 1919. It examined defects in the constitutional machinery and suggested remedies. The question of provincial autonomy was more directly addressed by the Simon Commission (1927-30).

Solution: C

Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which among the following is the correct chronological sequence of the Viceroys of India? (a) Lord Ripon – Lord Dufferin – Lord Lansdowne – Lord Elgin (b) Lord Dufferin – Lord Lansdowne – Lord Elgin – Lord Ripon (c) Lord Ripon – Lord Lansdowne – Lord Dufferin – Lord Elgin (d) Lord Dufferin – Lord Ripon – Lord Lansdowne – Lord Elgin Correct Solution: A The correct chronological sequence of the Viceroys of India mentioned is: Lord Ripon (1880-1884): Known for his liberal policies, he introduced the Ilbert Bill, promoted local self-government, and repealed the Vernacular Press Act. Lord Dufferin (1884-1888): During his tenure, the Third Anglo-Burmese War was fought, and Upper Burma was annexed. He also oversaw the formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885. Lord Lansdowne (1888-1894): He implemented the Indian Councils Act of 1892, which reformed the legislative councils. He also dealt with the Age of Consent controversy and established the Durand Line between India and Afghanistan. Lord Elgin (1894-1899): His tenure saw the devastating famine of 1896-97, and he implemented the recommendations of the Indian Expenditure Commission. Incorrect Solution: A The correct chronological sequence of the Viceroys of India mentioned is: Lord Ripon (1880-1884): Known for his liberal policies, he introduced the Ilbert Bill, promoted local self-government, and repealed the Vernacular Press Act. Lord Dufferin (1884-1888): During his tenure, the Third Anglo-Burmese War was fought, and Upper Burma was annexed. He also oversaw the formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885. Lord Lansdowne (1888-1894): He implemented the Indian Councils Act of 1892, which reformed the legislative councils. He also dealt with the Age of Consent controversy and established the Durand Line between India and Afghanistan. Lord Elgin (1894-1899): His tenure saw the devastating famine of 1896-97, and he implemented the recommendations of the Indian Expenditure Commission.

#### 10. Question

Which among the following is the correct chronological sequence of the Viceroys of India?

• (a) Lord Ripon – Lord Dufferin – Lord Lansdowne – Lord Elgin

• (b) Lord Dufferin – Lord Lansdowne – Lord Elgin – Lord Ripon

• (c) Lord Ripon – Lord Lansdowne – Lord Dufferin – Lord Elgin

• (d) Lord Dufferin – Lord Ripon – Lord Lansdowne – Lord Elgin

Solution: A

The correct chronological sequence of the Viceroys of India mentioned is:

Lord Ripon (1880-1884): Known for his liberal policies, he introduced the Ilbert Bill, promoted local self-government, and repealed the Vernacular Press Act.

Lord Dufferin (1884-1888): During his tenure, the Third Anglo-Burmese War was fought, and Upper Burma was annexed. He also oversaw the formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885.

Lord Lansdowne (1888-1894): He implemented the Indian Councils Act of 1892, which reformed the legislative councils. He also dealt with the Age of Consent controversy and established the Durand Line between India and Afghanistan.

Lord Elgin (1894-1899): His tenure saw the devastating famine of 1896-97, and he implemented the recommendations of the Indian Expenditure Commission.

Solution: A

The correct chronological sequence of the Viceroys of India mentioned is:

Lord Ripon (1880-1884): Known for his liberal policies, he introduced the Ilbert Bill, promoted local self-government, and repealed the Vernacular Press Act.

Lord Dufferin (1884-1888): During his tenure, the Third Anglo-Burmese War was fought, and Upper Burma was annexed. He also oversaw the formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885.

Lord Elgin (1894-1899): His tenure saw the devastating famine of 1896-97, and he implemented the recommendations of the Indian Expenditure Commission.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The original Kesariya Stupa located in Bihar, dates back to the Mauryan period. The Third Buddhist council was convened by Ashoka in Kesariya Stupa Chaitya hall. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The Kesariya Stupa is the largest and tallest Buddhist stupa in the world. It is located in Kesariya, at a distance of 110 km from Patna in East Champaran district of Bihar. The first construction of the stupa dates back to the 3rd century BC The original Stupa dates to the time of Ashoka as the remains of a capital of a pillar of Ashoka has been discovered here. The current Stupa Mound dates to the Gupta dynasty between 200 AD and 750AD and may have been associated with 4th century ruler Raja Chakravati. Gold coins bearing the seal of Kanishka of Kushan dynasty has been discovered from here. Hence statement 1 is correct The third Buddhist council was held in Patliputra, modern Patna under patronage of emperor Ashoka It was not organised at the Kesariya stupa. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The Kesariya Stupa is the largest and tallest Buddhist stupa in the world. It is located in Kesariya, at a distance of 110 km from Patna in East Champaran district of Bihar. The first construction of the stupa dates back to the 3rd century BC The original Stupa dates to the time of Ashoka as the remains of a capital of a pillar of Ashoka has been discovered here. The current Stupa Mound dates to the Gupta dynasty between 200 AD and 750AD and may have been associated with 4th century ruler Raja Chakravati. Gold coins bearing the seal of Kanishka of Kushan dynasty has been discovered from here. Hence statement 1 is correct The third Buddhist council was held in Patliputra, modern Patna under patronage of emperor Ashoka It was not organised at the Kesariya stupa. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The original Kesariya Stupa located in Bihar, dates back to the Mauryan period.

• The Third Buddhist council was convened by Ashoka in Kesariya Stupa Chaitya hall.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The Kesariya Stupa is the largest and tallest Buddhist stupa in the world.

• It is located in Kesariya, at a distance of 110 km from Patna in East Champaran district of Bihar.

• The first construction of the stupa dates back to the 3rd century BC

• The original Stupa dates to the time of Ashoka as the remains of a capital of a pillar of Ashoka has been discovered here.

• The current Stupa Mound dates to the Gupta dynasty between 200 AD and 750AD and may have been associated with 4th century ruler Raja Chakravati.

• Gold coins bearing the seal of Kanishka of Kushan dynasty has been discovered from here.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The third Buddhist council was held in Patliputra, modern Patna under patronage of emperor Ashoka

• It was not organised at the Kesariya stupa.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The Kesariya Stupa is the largest and tallest Buddhist stupa in the world.

• It is located in Kesariya, at a distance of 110 km from Patna in East Champaran district of Bihar.

• The first construction of the stupa dates back to the 3rd century BC

• The original Stupa dates to the time of Ashoka as the remains of a capital of a pillar of Ashoka has been discovered here.

• The current Stupa Mound dates to the Gupta dynasty between 200 AD and 750AD and may have been associated with 4th century ruler Raja Chakravati.

• Gold coins bearing the seal of Kanishka of Kushan dynasty has been discovered from here.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The third Buddhist council was held in Patliputra, modern Patna under patronage of emperor Ashoka

• It was not organised at the Kesariya stupa.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding embroidery crafts of India : Embroidery Craft : State Associated Banni : Gujarat Khatwa : Tripura Kasuti : Kashmir How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Banni is a embroidery of Gujarat. The Lohana community is associated with the Banni craft; Silk floss was used to embroider geometrical designs which also included use of glass pieces. Hence pair 1 is correct Khatwa is a prominent craft in the Mithila region in Bihar it involves cutting of one fabric and stitching the piece to another fabric to create designer tent, canopies and shamiyanas. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Kasuti is an embroidery craft of Karnataka It is carried out with a single thread and involves counting of each thread on the cloth The patterns are stitched without knots, so that both sides of the cloth are identical. It has received geographical indication tag. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Banni is a embroidery of Gujarat. The Lohana community is associated with the Banni craft; Silk floss was used to embroider geometrical designs which also included use of glass pieces. Hence pair 1 is correct Khatwa is a prominent craft in the Mithila region in Bihar it involves cutting of one fabric and stitching the piece to another fabric to create designer tent, canopies and shamiyanas. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Kasuti is an embroidery craft of Karnataka It is carried out with a single thread and involves counting of each thread on the cloth The patterns are stitched without knots, so that both sides of the cloth are identical. It has received geographical indication tag. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding embroidery crafts of India :

Embroidery Craft : State Associated

• Banni : Gujarat

• Khatwa : Tripura

• Kasuti : Kashmir

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Banni is a embroidery of Gujarat.

• The Lohana community is associated with the Banni craft; Silk floss was used to embroider geometrical designs which also included use of glass pieces.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Khatwa is a prominent craft in the Mithila region in Bihar

• it involves cutting of one fabric and stitching the piece to another fabric to create designer tent, canopies and shamiyanas.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Kasuti is an embroidery craft of Karnataka

• It is carried out with a single thread and involves counting of each thread on the cloth

• The patterns are stitched without knots, so that both sides of the cloth are identical.

• It has received geographical indication tag.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Banni is a embroidery of Gujarat.

• The Lohana community is associated with the Banni craft; Silk floss was used to embroider geometrical designs which also included use of glass pieces.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Khatwa is a prominent craft in the Mithila region in Bihar

• it involves cutting of one fabric and stitching the piece to another fabric to create designer tent, canopies and shamiyanas.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Kasuti is an embroidery craft of Karnataka

• It is carried out with a single thread and involves counting of each thread on the cloth

• The patterns are stitched without knots, so that both sides of the cloth are identical.

• It has received geographical indication tag.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Ramlila, celebrated in the month of Autumn, depicts depict Rama’s story through narration and recital. The staging of Ramlila is based on Ramcharitmanas, composed by saint Tulsidas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Ramlila Rama’s play is the performance of the Ramayana epic in a series of scenes that include song, narration, recital and dialogue. The staging of Ramlila is based on Ramcharitmanas – one of the most popular story telling forms in the Northern India. Ramcharitmanas is devoted to the glory of Rama and was composed by Tulsidas in the 16th century in a form of Hindi in order to make the Sanskrit epic Ramayana available to all. The majority of the Ramlilas recount episodes from Ramcharitmanas through a series of performances that last 10 to 12 days but some may last even an entire month The festivals are organised in hundreds of settlements, towns and villages during Dussehra festival celebrating Rama’s return from exile. Ramlila is performed across Northern India during the festival of Dussehra held each year according to the ritual calendar in autumn. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Ramlila Rama’s play is the performance of the Ramayana epic in a series of scenes that include song, narration, recital and dialogue. The staging of Ramlila is based on Ramcharitmanas – one of the most popular story telling forms in the Northern India. Ramcharitmanas is devoted to the glory of Rama and was composed by Tulsidas in the 16th century in a form of Hindi in order to make the Sanskrit epic Ramayana available to all. The majority of the Ramlilas recount episodes from Ramcharitmanas through a series of performances that last 10 to 12 days but some may last even an entire month The festivals are organised in hundreds of settlements, towns and villages during Dussehra festival celebrating Rama’s return from exile. Ramlila is performed across Northern India during the festival of Dussehra held each year according to the ritual calendar in autumn. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Ramlila, celebrated in the month of Autumn, depicts depict Rama’s story through narration and recital.

• The staging of Ramlila is based on Ramcharitmanas, composed by saint Tulsidas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Ramlila Rama’s play is the performance of the Ramayana epic in a series of scenes that include song, narration, recital and dialogue.

• The staging of Ramlila is based on Ramcharitmanas – one of the most popular story telling forms in the Northern India.

• Ramcharitmanas is devoted to the glory of Rama and was composed by Tulsidas in the 16th century in a form of Hindi in order to make the Sanskrit epic Ramayana available to all.

• The majority of the Ramlilas recount episodes from Ramcharitmanas through a series of performances that last 10 to 12 days but some may last even an entire month

• The festivals are organised in hundreds of settlements, towns and villages during Dussehra festival celebrating Rama’s return from exile.

• Ramlila is performed across Northern India during the festival of Dussehra held each year according to the ritual calendar in autumn.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• Ramlila Rama’s play is the performance of the Ramayana epic in a series of scenes that include song, narration, recital and dialogue.

• The staging of Ramlila is based on Ramcharitmanas – one of the most popular story telling forms in the Northern India.

• Ramcharitmanas is devoted to the glory of Rama and was composed by Tulsidas in the 16th century in a form of Hindi in order to make the Sanskrit epic Ramayana available to all.

• The majority of the Ramlilas recount episodes from Ramcharitmanas through a series of performances that last 10 to 12 days but some may last even an entire month

• The festivals are organised in hundreds of settlements, towns and villages during Dussehra festival celebrating Rama’s return from exile.

• Ramlila is performed across Northern India during the festival of Dussehra held each year according to the ritual calendar in autumn.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Hastsal Minar : It was originally built by Razia Sultana. It resembles the Qutb Minar of Delhi. Granite was used for building the minar. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Hastsal Minar is located in a small village of Western Delhi. The Minar was constructed in 1634 AD during the reign of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. It is 17 m tall standing on a square platform with an octagonal body; it has a staircase inside that leads to the domed chhatri pavilion at the top. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Hastsal Minar is also known as Chhota Qutb Minar as its resembles the Qutb Minar. Hence statement 2 is correct It was constructed using lakholi bricks and red sandstone. In 2018 it was deemed as a Grade A in Heritage value and was given the permission to be conserved under phase IV of Delhi government’s project to protect lesser known monuments in the capital. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The Hastsal Minar is located in a small village of Western Delhi. The Minar was constructed in 1634 AD during the reign of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. It is 17 m tall standing on a square platform with an octagonal body; it has a staircase inside that leads to the domed chhatri pavilion at the top. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Hastsal Minar is also known as Chhota Qutb Minar as its resembles the Qutb Minar. Hence statement 2 is correct It was constructed using lakholi bricks and red sandstone. In 2018 it was deemed as a Grade A in Heritage value and was given the permission to be conserved under phase IV of Delhi government’s project to protect lesser known monuments in the capital. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Hastsal Minar :

• It was originally built by Razia Sultana.

• It resembles the Qutb Minar of Delhi.

• Granite was used for building the minar.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Hastsal Minar is located in a small village of Western Delhi.

• The Minar was constructed in 1634 AD during the reign of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.

• It is 17 m tall standing on a square platform with an octagonal body; it has a staircase inside that leads to the domed chhatri pavilion at the top.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Hastsal Minar is also known as Chhota Qutb Minar as its resembles the Qutb Minar.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• It was constructed using lakholi bricks and red sandstone.

• In 2018 it was deemed as a Grade A in Heritage value and was given the permission to be conserved under phase IV of Delhi government’s project to protect lesser known monuments in the capital.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The Hastsal Minar is located in a small village of Western Delhi.

• The Minar was constructed in 1634 AD during the reign of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.

• It is 17 m tall standing on a square platform with an octagonal body; it has a staircase inside that leads to the domed chhatri pavilion at the top.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Hastsal Minar is also known as Chhota Qutb Minar as its resembles the Qutb Minar.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• It was constructed using lakholi bricks and red sandstone.

• In 2018 it was deemed as a Grade A in Heritage value and was given the permission to be conserved under phase IV of Delhi government’s project to protect lesser known monuments in the capital.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Kodungallor Bharani festival is celebrated in which of the following states? (a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka Correct Solution : A Kodungallor Bharani festival please one of the most famous and intense celebrations of Kerala. The annual festival at Sri Kurumba Bhagavati temple in Kodungallor, Thrissur district, takes place during Malayalam month of Meenam (March- April). Spanning over a month, festivities commence with a ritual involving sacrifice of cocks and shedding blood – an essential aspect of the temple tradition. Dedicated to goddess Bhadrakali, the Shri Kurumba temple is one of the oldest temples in Kerala. The idol of Bhadrakali is carved from wood of a jackfruit tree, features 8 hands, one of which holds the head of demon Daraka. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution : A Kodungallor Bharani festival please one of the most famous and intense celebrations of Kerala. The annual festival at Sri Kurumba Bhagavati temple in Kodungallor, Thrissur district, takes place during Malayalam month of Meenam (March- April). Spanning over a month, festivities commence with a ritual involving sacrifice of cocks and shedding blood – an essential aspect of the temple tradition. Dedicated to goddess Bhadrakali, the Shri Kurumba temple is one of the oldest temples in Kerala. The idol of Bhadrakali is carved from wood of a jackfruit tree, features 8 hands, one of which holds the head of demon Daraka. Hence option A is correct

#### 15. Question

Kodungallor Bharani festival is celebrated in which of the following states?

• (a) Kerala

• (b) Andhra Pradesh

• (c) Tamil Nadu

• (d) Karnataka

Solution : A

• Kodungallor Bharani festival please one of the most famous and intense celebrations of Kerala.

• The annual festival at Sri Kurumba Bhagavati temple in Kodungallor, Thrissur district, takes place during Malayalam month of Meenam (March- April).

• Spanning over a month, festivities commence with a ritual involving sacrifice of cocks and shedding blood – an essential aspect of the temple tradition.

• Dedicated to goddess Bhadrakali, the Shri Kurumba temple is one of the oldest temples in Kerala.

• The idol of Bhadrakali is carved from wood of a jackfruit tree, features 8 hands, one of which holds the head of demon Daraka.

Hence option A is correct

Solution : A

• Kodungallor Bharani festival please one of the most famous and intense celebrations of Kerala.

• The annual festival at Sri Kurumba Bhagavati temple in Kodungallor, Thrissur district, takes place during Malayalam month of Meenam (March- April).

• Spanning over a month, festivities commence with a ritual involving sacrifice of cocks and shedding blood – an essential aspect of the temple tradition.

• Dedicated to goddess Bhadrakali, the Shri Kurumba temple is one of the oldest temples in Kerala.

• The idol of Bhadrakali is carved from wood of a jackfruit tree, features 8 hands, one of which holds the head of demon Daraka.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Saiva Siddhanta emphasizes that individual soul or Pashu originated from and is a part of the Shiva or the Lord. The literary work ‘Nandikesvara Kasika’ by Nandinatha of Kashmir lays down the basic tenets of Saiva Siddhanta in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Saiva Siddhanta school is one of the most ancient schools of Saivism. It has a history of more than 2000 years and its roots can be traced back to both Kashmir and southern India. It’s roots can be traced back to the Nayanar or Saiva saints of South India but it attained its complete form only in the 13th and 14th centuries. It gained popularity in the south and established itself as a dominant sect of Saivism It is currently popular mostly in the southern India. It recognises a subtle distinction between Shiva and the individual soul, acknowledging their separate identities; the central tenets are Shiva or the lord, Pashu or the individual soul and Pasha, the bonds that confines the soul. Hence statement 1 is correct The Saiva Siddhanta tradition draws authority from the 28 Saiva Agamas, the devotional works of several saints of Saivism and the writings of several thinkers and scholars. The first Known Guru of Saiva Siddhanta was Nandinatha, who lived around 250 BC in the present day Kashmir. He left behind a compilation of 26 Sanskrit verses called Nandikesvara Kasika in which he laid down the basic tenets of the school. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Saiva Siddhanta school is one of the most ancient schools of Saivism. It has a history of more than 2000 years and its roots can be traced back to both Kashmir and southern India. It’s roots can be traced back to the Nayanar or Saiva saints of South India but it attained its complete form only in the 13th and 14th centuries. It gained popularity in the south and established itself as a dominant sect of Saivism It is currently popular mostly in the southern India. It recognises a subtle distinction between Shiva and the individual soul, acknowledging their separate identities; the central tenets are Shiva or the lord, Pashu or the individual soul and Pasha, the bonds that confines the soul. Hence statement 1 is correct The Saiva Siddhanta tradition draws authority from the 28 Saiva Agamas, the devotional works of several saints of Saivism and the writings of several thinkers and scholars. The first Known Guru of Saiva Siddhanta was Nandinatha, who lived around 250 BC in the present day Kashmir. He left behind a compilation of 26 Sanskrit verses called Nandikesvara Kasika in which he laid down the basic tenets of the school. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Saiva Siddhanta emphasizes that individual soul or Pashu originated from and is a part of the Shiva or the Lord.

• The literary work ‘Nandikesvara Kasika’ by Nandinatha of Kashmir lays down the basic tenets of Saiva Siddhanta in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Saiva Siddhanta school is one of the most ancient schools of Saivism.

• It has a history of more than 2000 years and its roots can be traced back to both Kashmir and southern India.

• It’s roots can be traced back to the Nayanar or Saiva saints of South India but it attained its complete form only in the 13th and 14th centuries.

• It gained popularity in the south and established itself as a dominant sect of Saivism

• It is currently popular mostly in the southern India.

• It recognises a subtle distinction between Shiva and the individual soul, acknowledging their separate identities; the central tenets are Shiva or the lord, Pashu or the individual soul and Pasha, the bonds that confines the soul.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Saiva Siddhanta tradition draws authority from the 28 Saiva Agamas, the devotional works of several saints of Saivism and the writings of several thinkers and scholars.

• The first Known Guru of Saiva Siddhanta was Nandinatha, who lived around 250 BC in the present day Kashmir.

• He left behind a compilation of 26 Sanskrit verses called Nandikesvara Kasika in which he laid down the basic tenets of the school.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• Saiva Siddhanta school is one of the most ancient schools of Saivism.

• It has a history of more than 2000 years and its roots can be traced back to both Kashmir and southern India.

• It’s roots can be traced back to the Nayanar or Saiva saints of South India but it attained its complete form only in the 13th and 14th centuries.

• It gained popularity in the south and established itself as a dominant sect of Saivism

• It is currently popular mostly in the southern India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Saiva Siddhanta tradition draws authority from the 28 Saiva Agamas, the devotional works of several saints of Saivism and the writings of several thinkers and scholars.

• The first Known Guru of Saiva Siddhanta was Nandinatha, who lived around 250 BC in the present day Kashmir.

• He left behind a compilation of 26 Sanskrit verses called Nandikesvara Kasika in which he laid down the basic tenets of the school.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Paruveta is a mock hunting festival of Andhra Pradesh among the Chenchu tribals. Paruveta is celebrated at the Ahobilam Sri Narasimha Temple. The Ahobilam Temple is the nerve centre for Shri Vaishnava Ramanuja sampradaya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Paruveta festival is an annual mock hunting festival that is celebrated at the Ahobilam Temple in Andhra Pradesh. The Festival symbolises communal harmony during which the deity from the temple’s sanctum sanctorium is taken to the 32 Chenchu tribal hamlets around Ahobilam for 40 days. This spiritual journey commences with the tribal individuals aiming their bows and shooting two arrows at the palanquin symbolising reverence and their protective watch over the deity. The Sankranti festival is celebrated on the day the deity reaches the tribal Hamlet. Ahobilam temple complex is located within the Nagarjunsagar – Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh. The temple complex consists of 9 shrines dedicated to Lord Narasimha situated within the Nallamala forest. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Ahobilam is the nerve Centre for Sri Vaishnava Ramanuja sampradaya. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Paruveta festival is an annual mock hunting festival that is celebrated at the Ahobilam Temple in Andhra Pradesh. The Festival symbolises communal harmony during which the deity from the temple’s sanctum sanctorium is taken to the 32 Chenchu tribal hamlets around Ahobilam for 40 days. This spiritual journey commences with the tribal individuals aiming their bows and shooting two arrows at the palanquin symbolising reverence and their protective watch over the deity. The Sankranti festival is celebrated on the day the deity reaches the tribal Hamlet. Ahobilam temple complex is located within the Nagarjunsagar – Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh. The temple complex consists of 9 shrines dedicated to Lord Narasimha situated within the Nallamala forest. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Ahobilam is the nerve Centre for Sri Vaishnava Ramanuja sampradaya. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Paruveta is a mock hunting festival of Andhra Pradesh among the Chenchu tribals.

• Paruveta is celebrated at the Ahobilam Sri Narasimha Temple.

• The Ahobilam Temple is the nerve centre for Shri Vaishnava Ramanuja sampradaya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The Paruveta festival is an annual mock hunting festival that is celebrated at the Ahobilam Temple in Andhra Pradesh.

• The Festival symbolises communal harmony during which the deity from the temple’s sanctum sanctorium is taken to the 32 Chenchu tribal hamlets around Ahobilam for 40 days.

• This spiritual journey commences with the tribal individuals aiming their bows and shooting two arrows at the palanquin symbolising reverence and their protective watch over the deity.

• The Sankranti festival is celebrated on the day the deity reaches the tribal Hamlet.

• Ahobilam temple complex is located within the Nagarjunsagar – Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh.

• The temple complex consists of 9 shrines dedicated to Lord Narasimha situated within the Nallamala forest.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Ahobilam is the nerve Centre for Sri Vaishnava Ramanuja sampradaya.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• The Paruveta festival is an annual mock hunting festival that is celebrated at the Ahobilam Temple in Andhra Pradesh.

• The Festival symbolises communal harmony during which the deity from the temple’s sanctum sanctorium is taken to the 32 Chenchu tribal hamlets around Ahobilam for 40 days.

• This spiritual journey commences with the tribal individuals aiming their bows and shooting two arrows at the palanquin symbolising reverence and their protective watch over the deity.

• The Sankranti festival is celebrated on the day the deity reaches the tribal Hamlet.

• Ahobilam temple complex is located within the Nagarjunsagar – Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh.

• The temple complex consists of 9 shrines dedicated to Lord Narasimha situated within the Nallamala forest.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Ahobilam is the nerve Centre for Sri Vaishnava Ramanuja sampradaya.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Tyagaraja composed musical Ragas in both Tamil and Sanskrit. Tyagaraja was a contemporary of Shivaji. Pancharatna kritis were composed by Tyagaraja. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: A Tyagaraja (1767-1847) Was a saint an composer of Carnatic music. Tyagaraja, along with his contemporaries Shama Shastri and Muthuswamy Dikshitar, are regarded as Trinity of Carnatic music Tyagaraja composed several devotional compositions mostly in Telugu and in praise of Lord Rama, many of which are popular even today. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Tyagaraja’s life from 1759 to 1828 while Shivaji Maharaj died in 1860. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Pancharatna Kritis are a set of kritis or songs in Carnatic classical music composed by Tyagaraja. The first Kriti is in Sanskrit while the other four are in Telugu. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A Tyagaraja (1767-1847) Was a saint an composer of Carnatic music. Tyagaraja, along with his contemporaries Shama Shastri and Muthuswamy Dikshitar, are regarded as Trinity of Carnatic music Tyagaraja composed several devotional compositions mostly in Telugu and in praise of Lord Rama, many of which are popular even today. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Tyagaraja’s life from 1759 to 1828 while Shivaji Maharaj died in 1860. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Pancharatna Kritis are a set of kritis or songs in Carnatic classical music composed by Tyagaraja. The first Kriti is in Sanskrit while the other four are in Telugu. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Tyagaraja composed musical Ragas in both Tamil and Sanskrit.

• Tyagaraja was a contemporary of Shivaji.

• Pancharatna kritis were composed by Tyagaraja.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: A

• Tyagaraja (1767-1847) Was a saint an composer of Carnatic music.

• Tyagaraja, along with his contemporaries Shama Shastri and Muthuswamy Dikshitar, are regarded as Trinity of Carnatic music

• Tyagaraja composed several devotional compositions mostly in Telugu and in praise of Lord Rama, many of which are popular even today.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Tyagaraja’s life from 1759 to 1828 while Shivaji Maharaj died in 1860.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Pancharatna Kritis are a set of kritis or songs in Carnatic classical music composed by Tyagaraja.

• The first Kriti is in Sanskrit while the other four are in Telugu.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• Tyagaraja (1767-1847) Was a saint an composer of Carnatic music.

• Tyagaraja, along with his contemporaries Shama Shastri and Muthuswamy Dikshitar, are regarded as Trinity of Carnatic music

• Tyagaraja composed several devotional compositions mostly in Telugu and in praise of Lord Rama, many of which are popular even today.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Tyagaraja’s life from 1759 to 1828 while Shivaji Maharaj died in 1860.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Pancharatna Kritis are a set of kritis or songs in Carnatic classical music composed by Tyagaraja.

• The first Kriti is in Sanskrit while the other four are in Telugu.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Swami Haridas : Mian Tansen was a disciple of renowned Saint Haridas, a proponent of Dhrupad style of classical music. He founded the Haridasi Sampradaya that emphasized on the devotion to Lord Krishna and Radha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Swami Haridas was a renowned mystic musician and Bhakti saint of early 16th century. He is thought to have an innate knowledge of classical music gained through numerous spiritual and devotional practices. He became an ascetic at an early age and moved to Vrindavan the legendary forest of Lord Krishna where he devoted himself to yoga and music. He is credited with a large number of Dhrupad compositions which had a major impact on classical music and also influenced the bhakti devotional Cult, particularly devotees of Radha and Krishna. He was patronised by Akbar. Great musicians of the 16th century, Mian Tansen and Baiju Bawra were trained under his guidance. Hence statement 1 is correct Swami Haridas gave his name to a spiritual movement known as Haridasi. The movement has a sizeable following in North India. But the Haridasi Sampradaya was originated in Karnataka following the teachings of saint Madhavacharya; it emphasized on the devotion towards Radha and Krishna. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Swami Haridas was a renowned mystic musician and Bhakti saint of early 16th century. He is thought to have an innate knowledge of classical music gained through numerous spiritual and devotional practices. He became an ascetic at an early age and moved to Vrindavan the legendary forest of Lord Krishna where he devoted himself to yoga and music. He is credited with a large number of Dhrupad compositions which had a major impact on classical music and also influenced the bhakti devotional Cult, particularly devotees of Radha and Krishna. He was patronised by Akbar. Great musicians of the 16th century, Mian Tansen and Baiju Bawra were trained under his guidance. Hence statement 1 is correct Swami Haridas gave his name to a spiritual movement known as Haridasi. The movement has a sizeable following in North India. But the Haridasi Sampradaya was originated in Karnataka following the teachings of saint Madhavacharya; it emphasized on the devotion towards Radha and Krishna. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Swami Haridas :

• Mian Tansen was a disciple of renowned Saint Haridas, a proponent of Dhrupad style of classical music.

• He founded the Haridasi Sampradaya that emphasized on the devotion to Lord Krishna and Radha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Swami Haridas was a renowned mystic musician and Bhakti saint of early 16th century.

• He is thought to have an innate knowledge of classical music gained through numerous spiritual and devotional practices.

• He became an ascetic at an early age and moved to Vrindavan the legendary forest of Lord Krishna where he devoted himself to yoga and music.

• He is credited with a large number of Dhrupad compositions which had a major impact on classical music and also influenced the bhakti devotional Cult, particularly devotees of Radha and Krishna.

• He was patronised by Akbar.

• Great musicians of the 16th century, Mian Tansen and Baiju Bawra were trained under his guidance.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Swami Haridas gave his name to a spiritual movement known as Haridasi.

• The movement has a sizeable following in North India.

• But the Haridasi Sampradaya was originated in Karnataka following the teachings of saint Madhavacharya; it emphasized on the devotion towards Radha and Krishna.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Swami Haridas was a renowned mystic musician and Bhakti saint of early 16th century.

• He is thought to have an innate knowledge of classical music gained through numerous spiritual and devotional practices.

• He became an ascetic at an early age and moved to Vrindavan the legendary forest of Lord Krishna where he devoted himself to yoga and music.

• He is credited with a large number of Dhrupad compositions which had a major impact on classical music and also influenced the bhakti devotional Cult, particularly devotees of Radha and Krishna.

• He was patronised by Akbar.

• Great musicians of the 16th century, Mian Tansen and Baiju Bawra were trained under his guidance.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Swami Haridas gave his name to a spiritual movement known as Haridasi.

• The movement has a sizeable following in North India.

• But the Haridasi Sampradaya was originated in Karnataka following the teachings of saint Madhavacharya; it emphasized on the devotion towards Radha and Krishna.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding Crafts of India : Craft Tradition : State Khatamband : Jharkhand Pinjirakari : Kashmir Kashtakari : Goa How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Khatamband is a woodcraft from Jammu and Kashmir. In this art form wooden pieces are joined using three different type of joints which form the basic technique of khatamband. This design originated from the geometrical tessellating patterns of Islamic tradition. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Pinjirakari is a traditional wood carving craft from Kashmir. It is known for its intricate lattice work and use of geometric pattern, involving arranging thin strips of wood in a repeating Geometric design often used for windows, doors and screens. The pieces are joined without glue using precise joinery techniques like mortis joint and tenon. Hence pair 2 is correct Kashtakari is a wood carving of Goa. It is used to carve household products. It is also found in churches, temples, houses in the region. Hence pair 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D Khatamband is a woodcraft from Jammu and Kashmir. In this art form wooden pieces are joined using three different type of joints which form the basic technique of khatamband. This design originated from the geometrical tessellating patterns of Islamic tradition. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Pinjirakari is a traditional wood carving craft from Kashmir. It is known for its intricate lattice work and use of geometric pattern, involving arranging thin strips of wood in a repeating Geometric design often used for windows, doors and screens. The pieces are joined without glue using precise joinery techniques like mortis joint and tenon. Hence pair 2 is correct Kashtakari is a wood carving of Goa. It is used to carve household products. It is also found in churches, temples, houses in the region. Hence pair 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding Crafts of India :

Craft Tradition : State

• Khatamband : Jharkhand

• Pinjirakari : Kashmir

• Kashtakari : Goa

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Khatamband is a woodcraft from Jammu and Kashmir.

• In this art form wooden pieces are joined using three different type of joints which form the basic technique of khatamband.

• This design originated from the geometrical tessellating patterns of Islamic tradition.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Pinjirakari is a traditional wood carving craft from Kashmir.

• It is known for its intricate lattice work and use of geometric pattern, involving arranging thin strips of wood in a repeating Geometric design often used for windows, doors and screens.

• The pieces are joined without glue using precise joinery techniques like mortis joint and tenon.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Kashtakari is a wood carving of Goa.

• It is used to carve household products.

• It is also found in churches, temples, houses in the region.

Hence pair 3 is correct

Solution: D

• Khatamband is a woodcraft from Jammu and Kashmir.

• In this art form wooden pieces are joined using three different type of joints which form the basic technique of khatamband.

• This design originated from the geometrical tessellating patterns of Islamic tradition.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Pinjirakari is a traditional wood carving craft from Kashmir.

• It is known for its intricate lattice work and use of geometric pattern, involving arranging thin strips of wood in a repeating Geometric design often used for windows, doors and screens.

• The pieces are joined without glue using precise joinery techniques like mortis joint and tenon.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Kashtakari is a wood carving of Goa.

• It is used to carve household products.

• It is also found in churches, temples, houses in the region.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points The Global Risks Report has been released by which of the following organizations? (a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) (b) World Economic Forum (WEF) (c) World Bank (d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) Correct Solution: B Global Risks Report: The Global Risks Report is an annual publication by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It provides a comprehensive analysis of the most pressing global risks, their potential impacts, and how they evolve over time. The report serves as a critical resource for policymakers, business leaders, and academics to assess risks and develop strategies for resilience. The report highlights key issues such as climate change, technological advancements, geopolitical tensions, and societal polarization, emphasizing the urgent need for multilateral solutions to address these challenges effectively. Incorrect Solution: B Global Risks Report: The Global Risks Report is an annual publication by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It provides a comprehensive analysis of the most pressing global risks, their potential impacts, and how they evolve over time. The report serves as a critical resource for policymakers, business leaders, and academics to assess risks and develop strategies for resilience. The report highlights key issues such as climate change, technological advancements, geopolitical tensions, and societal polarization, emphasizing the urgent need for multilateral solutions to address these challenges effectively.

#### 21. Question

The Global Risks Report has been released by which of the following organizations?

• (a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

• (b) World Economic Forum (WEF)

• (c) World Bank

• (d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

Solution: B

Global Risks Report:

• The Global Risks Report is an annual publication by the World Economic Forum (WEF).

• It provides a comprehensive analysis of the most pressing global risks, their potential impacts, and how they evolve over time.

• The report serves as a critical resource for policymakers, business leaders, and academics to assess risks and develop strategies for resilience.

• The report highlights key issues such as climate change, technological advancements, geopolitical tensions, and societal polarization, emphasizing the urgent need for multilateral solutions to address these challenges effectively.

Solution: B

Global Risks Report:

• The Global Risks Report is an annual publication by the World Economic Forum (WEF).

• It provides a comprehensive analysis of the most pressing global risks, their potential impacts, and how they evolve over time.

• The report serves as a critical resource for policymakers, business leaders, and academics to assess risks and develop strategies for resilience.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to the Land Port Authority of India (LPAI), consider the following statements: It was established under the Land Ports Authority Act, 2010, for managing cross-border movement of passengers and goods. The Ministry of External Affairs is the nodal ministry responsible for the functioning of LPAI. The Chairperson and Members of LPAI are appointed by the Central Government and have a tenure of five years or until the age of sixty years, whichever is earlier. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Land Port Authority of India (LPAI): Established under the Land Ports Authority Act, 2010 to facilitate cross-border movement of passengers and goods. Functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and manages Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) across India’s international borders. Responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing border infrastructure to enhance trade and security. Chairperson and Members are appointed by the Central Government with a tenure of five years or until the age of sixty years, whichever is earlier. Ensures sanitization and security of land border crossings, improving efficiency in cross-border trade. Plays a crucial role in strengthening border trade, economic integration, and diplomatic ties with neighbouring countries. Incorrect Solution: B Land Port Authority of India (LPAI): Established under the Land Ports Authority Act, 2010 to facilitate cross-border movement of passengers and goods. Functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and manages Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) across India’s international borders. Responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing border infrastructure to enhance trade and security. Chairperson and Members are appointed by the Central Government with a tenure of five years or until the age of sixty years, whichever is earlier. Ensures sanitization and security of land border crossings, improving efficiency in cross-border trade. Plays a crucial role in strengthening border trade, economic integration, and diplomatic ties with neighbouring countries.

#### 22. Question

With reference to the Land Port Authority of India (LPAI), consider the following statements:

• It was established under the Land Ports Authority Act, 2010, for managing cross-border movement of passengers and goods.

• The Ministry of External Affairs is the nodal ministry responsible for the functioning of LPAI.

• The Chairperson and Members of LPAI are appointed by the Central Government and have a tenure of five years or until the age of sixty years, whichever is earlier.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Land Port Authority of India (LPAI):

• Established under the Land Ports Authority Act, 2010 to facilitate cross-border movement of passengers and goods.

• Functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and manages Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) across India’s international borders.

• Responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing border infrastructure to enhance trade and security.

• Chairperson and Members are appointed by the Central Government with a tenure of five years or until the age of sixty years, whichever is earlier.

• Ensures sanitization and security of land border crossings, improving efficiency in cross-border trade.

• Plays a crucial role in strengthening border trade, economic integration, and diplomatic ties with neighbouring countries.

Solution: B

Land Port Authority of India (LPAI):

• Established under the Land Ports Authority Act, 2010 to facilitate cross-border movement of passengers and goods.

• Functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and manages Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) across India’s international borders.

• Responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing border infrastructure to enhance trade and security.

• Chairperson and Members are appointed by the Central Government with a tenure of five years or until the age of sixty years, whichever is earlier.

• Ensures sanitization and security of land border crossings, improving efficiency in cross-border trade.

• Plays a crucial role in strengthening border trade, economic integration, and diplomatic ties with neighbouring countries.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a feature of the revised Ecomark Scheme, 2024? (a) Accurate labelling to avoid misleading claims about sustainability (b) Utilization of recycled materials to encourage a circular economy (c) Promotion of energy-efficient products (d) Tax incentives for manufacturers producing eco-friendly products Correct Solution: D Explanation: The revised Ecomark Scheme, 2024, is an initiative by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, aimed at encouraging environmentally friendly products through voluntary certification. The scheme has been updated to align with evolving sustainability goals, including promoting responsible consumption and production. Option (a) is a key feature, as the revised scheme emphasizes accurate environmental labelling to prevent greenwashing and to ensure transparency in claims made by manufacturers about the eco-friendliness of their products. Option (b) is also part of the scheme, as it supports the use of recycled and recyclable materials, reinforcing the principles of a circular economy to reduce environmental impact and resource depletion. Option (c) is included as well, since the scheme encourages the promotion of energy-efficient products to reduce carbon footprints and support climate commitments. Option (d) is not a feature of the scheme. The Ecomark Scheme does not offer any tax incentives or financial subsidies. It is focused on setting standards, certification, and labelling, not fiscal benefits. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: The revised Ecomark Scheme, 2024, is an initiative by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, aimed at encouraging environmentally friendly products through voluntary certification. The scheme has been updated to align with evolving sustainability goals, including promoting responsible consumption and production. Option (a) is a key feature, as the revised scheme emphasizes accurate environmental labelling to prevent greenwashing and to ensure transparency in claims made by manufacturers about the eco-friendliness of their products. Option (b) is also part of the scheme, as it supports the use of recycled and recyclable materials, reinforcing the principles of a circular economy to reduce environmental impact and resource depletion. Option (c) is included as well, since the scheme encourages the promotion of energy-efficient products to reduce carbon footprints and support climate commitments. Option (d) is not a feature of the scheme. The Ecomark Scheme does not offer any tax incentives or financial subsidies. It is focused on setting standards, certification, and labelling, not fiscal benefits.

#### 23. Question

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the revised Ecomark Scheme, 2024?

• (a) Accurate labelling to avoid misleading claims about sustainability

• (b) Utilization of recycled materials to encourage a circular economy

• (c) Promotion of energy-efficient products

• (d) Tax incentives for manufacturers producing eco-friendly products

Solution: D

Explanation:

• The revised Ecomark Scheme, 2024, is an initiative by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, aimed at encouraging environmentally friendly products through voluntary certification. The scheme has been updated to align with evolving sustainability goals, including promoting responsible consumption and production.

• Option (a) is a key feature, as the revised scheme emphasizes accurate environmental labelling to prevent greenwashing and to ensure transparency in claims made by manufacturers about the eco-friendliness of their products.

• Option (b) is also part of the scheme, as it supports the use of recycled and recyclable materials, reinforcing the principles of a circular economy to reduce environmental impact and resource depletion.

• Option (c) is included as well, since the scheme encourages the promotion of energy-efficient products to reduce carbon footprints and support climate commitments.

• Option (d) is not a feature of the scheme. The Ecomark Scheme does not offer any tax incentives or financial subsidies. It is focused on setting standards, certification, and labelling, not fiscal benefits.

Solution: D

Explanation:

• Option (c) is included as well, since the scheme encourages the promotion of energy-efficient products to reduce carbon footprints and support climate commitments.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following sites: Jorwe Alamgirpur Daimabad Inamgaon Nevasa Navdatoli How many of the above sites belong to Chalcolithic Culture? a) Only three b) Only four c) Only five d) All six Correct Solution: D All the sites given belong to Chalcolithic period. Chalcolithic Cultures The end of the Neolithic period saw the use of metals. The metal first used was copper, and several cultures were based on the use of copper and stone implements. Such a culture is called Chalcolithic, which means the copper– stone phase. Technologically, the Chalcolithic stage is applied to the pre- Harappan phase. However, in various parts of India the Chalcolithic cultures followed the Bronze Age Harappa culture. Here we consider principally such cultures as came in the later part of the mature Harappa culture or after its end. The Chalcolithic people mostly used stone and copper objects, but they also occasionally used low grade bronze and even iron. They were primarily rural communities spread over a wide area with hilly land and rivers. On the other hand, the Harappans used bronze and had urbanized on the basis of the produce from the flood plains in the Indus Valley. Incorrect Solution: D All the sites given belong to Chalcolithic period. Chalcolithic Cultures The end of the Neolithic period saw the use of metals. The metal first used was copper, and several cultures were based on the use of copper and stone implements. Such a culture is called Chalcolithic, which means the copper– stone phase. Technologically, the Chalcolithic stage is applied to the pre- Harappan phase. However, in various parts of India the Chalcolithic cultures followed the Bronze Age Harappa culture. Here we consider principally such cultures as came in the later part of the mature Harappa culture or after its end. The Chalcolithic people mostly used stone and copper objects, but they also occasionally used low grade bronze and even iron. They were primarily rural communities spread over a wide area with hilly land and rivers. On the other hand, the Harappans used bronze and had urbanized on the basis of the produce from the flood plains in the Indus Valley.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following sites:

• Alamgirpur

How many of the above sites belong to Chalcolithic Culture?

• a) Only three

• b) Only four

• c) Only five

• d) All six

Solution: D

All the sites given belong to Chalcolithic period.

Chalcolithic Cultures

The end of the Neolithic period saw the use of metals. The metal first used was copper, and several cultures were based on the use of copper and stone implements. Such a culture is called Chalcolithic, which means the copper– stone phase.

Technologically, the Chalcolithic stage is applied to the pre- Harappan phase. However, in various parts of India the Chalcolithic cultures followed the Bronze Age Harappa culture. Here we consider principally such cultures as came in the later part of the mature Harappa culture or after its end.

The Chalcolithic people mostly used stone and copper objects, but they also occasionally used low grade bronze and even iron. They were primarily rural communities spread over a wide area with hilly land and rivers. On the other hand, the Harappans used bronze and had urbanized on the basis of the produce from the flood plains in the Indus Valley.

Solution: D

All the sites given belong to Chalcolithic period.

Chalcolithic Cultures

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Cloud Chamber being developed in India It is intended to simulate convective cloud conditions typical of the Indian monsoon for advanced study of cloud microphysics. It is India’s first convective cloud chamber and one of the very few in the world, being developed at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Cloud Chamber: A cloud chamber is a scientific apparatus that creates controlled atmospheric conditions to simulate and study cloud formation processes. It involves injecting water vapour, aerosols, and other substances into a closed, temperature- and humidity-controlled environment. India is establishing its first-ever convective cloud chamber at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune. This facility is being developed to enable advanced research into cloud microphysics, especially under monsoon-relevant conditions. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Unlike standard cloud chambers, this facility is being designed with convection properties to mimic the vertical atmospheric movements seen during monsoon cloud formation. The primary objective is to: Understand the formation, structure, and behaviour of monsoon clouds Support weather prediction models Aid in potential weather modification efforts, such as cloud seeding (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Such convective cloud chambers are rare globally, making this initiative a significant step in India’s meteorological research capabilities. Incorrect Solution: C Cloud Chamber: A cloud chamber is a scientific apparatus that creates controlled atmospheric conditions to simulate and study cloud formation processes. It involves injecting water vapour, aerosols, and other substances into a closed, temperature- and humidity-controlled environment. India is establishing its first-ever convective cloud chamber at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune. This facility is being developed to enable advanced research into cloud microphysics, especially under monsoon-relevant conditions. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Unlike standard cloud chambers, this facility is being designed with convection properties to mimic the vertical atmospheric movements seen during monsoon cloud formation. The primary objective is to: Understand the formation, structure, and behaviour of monsoon clouds Support weather prediction models Aid in potential weather modification efforts, such as cloud seeding (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Such convective cloud chambers are rare globally, making this initiative a significant step in India’s meteorological research capabilities.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Cloud Chamber being developed in India

• It is intended to simulate convective cloud conditions typical of the Indian monsoon for advanced study of cloud microphysics.

• It is India’s first convective cloud chamber and one of the very few in the world, being developed at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Cloud Chamber:

• A cloud chamber is a scientific apparatus that creates controlled atmospheric conditions to simulate and study cloud formation processes. It involves injecting water vapour, aerosols, and other substances into a closed, temperature- and humidity-controlled environment.

• India is establishing its first-ever convective cloud chamber at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune. This facility is being developed to enable advanced research into cloud microphysics, especially under monsoon-relevant conditions. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Unlike standard cloud chambers, this facility is being designed with convection properties to mimic the vertical atmospheric movements seen during monsoon cloud formation.

• The primary objective is to: Understand the formation, structure, and behaviour of monsoon clouds Support weather prediction models Aid in potential weather modification efforts, such as cloud seeding (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Understand the formation, structure, and behaviour of monsoon clouds

• Support weather prediction models

• Aid in potential weather modification efforts, such as cloud seeding (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Such convective cloud chambers are rare globally, making this initiative a significant step in India’s meteorological research capabilities.

Solution: C

Cloud Chamber:

• Unlike standard cloud chambers, this facility is being designed with convection properties to mimic the vertical atmospheric movements seen during monsoon cloud formation.

• Understand the formation, structure, and behaviour of monsoon clouds

• Support weather prediction models

• Aid in potential weather modification efforts, such as cloud seeding (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Such convective cloud chambers are rare globally, making this initiative a significant step in India’s meteorological research capabilities.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points India has approximately 869 km of arable land and is primarily an agrarian society. Ergo, the biggest livelihood provider in India is agriculture and its allied sectors such as animal husbandry, fisheries, horticulture, and sericulture. Agricultural activity is not a singular activity, instead, it is an ‘assemblage of components’ which are interdependent and interact with each other. In other words, it can be understood as a system which has various parts and functions. Seeds, machinery labour, fertilizers are elements in the system, and various steps involved are ploughing, sowing, irrigation, weeding, irrigation, harvesting. This would mean the contribution of every person starting from the farmer, food processor, distributors, retailers, consumers, and waste managers are important. The objective can be seen as the production of crops, wool, cotton, milk as an end product of the system. Not only does this contribute significantly to the GDP of the country, but it also provides food security and employment in rural India. In India, there are different kinds of agricultural activities. Subsistence farming is used for personal use. In such type of cultivation, the rural economy is static but makes villages more self-sufficient as the farmer till the land for themself thereby becoming independent. All the livestock or crops are used for one’s own consumption to meet the family’s needs and not for surplus to sell and earn profit. With urbanization and industrialization, agricultural products are traded for goods or cash. A large amount of capital is invested in the process. A good transport facility is also essential to connect the products to the market. Grain Farming, mixed farming, and plantation cultivation are included in commercial farming. Many poor farmers borrow money to purchase basic things like seeds, fertilizers, and pesticides to cultivate the land. Growth of crops and their cultivation depends on multiple factors including seasons. Often, the use of low-quality seeds, delay or inadequate monsoon and pest attacks destroy the crops making it difficult for them to sell off their produce to clear their debts. The cycle of debt becomes hard to break as sometimes unavailability of work pushes poor families to borrow money from traders before clearing their previous debts. Government of India has set up many inquiry committees and has started several schemes to help the farmers by introducing farmers to better farming technology, creating job opportunities for youth in villages and adjoining regions. However, it has not really helped the conditions of poor farmers. Which of the following statements, if false, could be seen as supporting the passage? Commercial farming and subsistence farming should both be encouraged. Governments should work to provide better farming technology to Indian farmers. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Statement 1 supports the passage as it shows how commercial farming is beneficial to the country’s economy and subsistence farming is important for the self-sufficiency of villages. Hence both should be encouraged. Statement 2 supports the passage as it talks about the debts that farmers take on due to crop failures or poor seeds which can be mitigated with government aid. Hence, if these statements are false, they will not support the passage. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Statement 1 supports the passage as it shows how commercial farming is beneficial to the country’s economy and subsistence farming is important for the self-sufficiency of villages. Hence both should be encouraged. Statement 2 supports the passage as it talks about the debts that farmers take on due to crop failures or poor seeds which can be mitigated with government aid. Hence, if these statements are false, they will not support the passage.

#### 26. Question

India has approximately 869 km of arable land and is primarily an agrarian society. Ergo, the biggest livelihood provider in India is agriculture and its allied sectors such as animal husbandry, fisheries, horticulture, and sericulture. Agricultural activity is not a singular activity, instead, it is an ‘assemblage of components’ which are interdependent and interact with each other. In other words, it can be understood as a system which has various parts and functions. Seeds, machinery labour, fertilizers are elements in the system, and various steps involved are ploughing, sowing, irrigation, weeding, irrigation, harvesting. This would mean the contribution of every person starting from the farmer, food processor, distributors, retailers, consumers, and waste managers are important.

The objective can be seen as the production of crops, wool, cotton, milk as an end product of the system. Not only does this contribute significantly to the GDP of the country, but it also provides food security and employment in rural India. In India, there are different kinds of agricultural activities. Subsistence farming is used for personal use. In such type of cultivation, the rural economy is static but makes villages more self-sufficient as the farmer till the land for themself thereby becoming independent. All the livestock or crops are used for one’s own consumption to meet the family’s needs and not for surplus to sell and earn profit. With urbanization and industrialization, agricultural products are traded for goods or cash. A large amount of capital is invested in the process. A good transport facility is also essential to connect the products to the market. Grain Farming, mixed farming, and plantation cultivation are included in commercial farming.

Many poor farmers borrow money to purchase basic things like seeds, fertilizers, and pesticides to cultivate the land. Growth of crops and their cultivation depends on multiple factors including seasons. Often, the use of low-quality seeds, delay or inadequate monsoon and pest attacks destroy the crops making it difficult for them to sell off their produce to clear their debts. The cycle of debt becomes hard to break as sometimes unavailability of work pushes poor families to borrow money from traders before clearing their previous debts.

Government of India has set up many inquiry committees and has started several schemes to help the farmers by introducing farmers to better farming technology, creating job opportunities for youth in villages and adjoining regions. However, it has not really helped the conditions of poor farmers.

Which of the following statements, if false, could be seen as supporting the passage?

• Commercial farming and subsistence farming should both be encouraged.

• Governments should work to provide better farming technology to Indian farmers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• c. Both 1 and 2

• d. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Statement 1 supports the passage as it shows how commercial farming is beneficial to the country’s economy and subsistence farming is important for the self-sufficiency of villages. Hence both should be encouraged. Statement 2 supports the passage as it talks about the debts that farmers take on due to crop failures or poor seeds which can be mitigated with government aid. Hence, if these statements are false, they will not support the passage.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Arun is standing in facing west. He turns 135˚ anticlockwise, 315˚ clockwise, 45˚ anticlockwise and 225˚ clockwise. Now, Arun is facing which direction? a. East b. West c. South East d. South West Correct Correct Option : B Justification : In his four turns, Arun turns 135˚ and 45˚ anticlockwise and 315˚ and 225˚ clockwise. So, totally 180˚ anticlockwise and 540˚ clockwise. Effectively, Arun turns 360˚ clockwise which is also 0˚. Thus, he turns 0˚ i.e. Arun will facing the original direction i.e. west. Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : In his four turns, Arun turns 135˚ and 45˚ anticlockwise and 315˚ and 225˚ clockwise. So, totally 180˚ anticlockwise and 540˚ clockwise. Effectively, Arun turns 360˚ clockwise which is also 0˚. Thus, he turns 0˚ i.e. Arun will facing the original direction i.e. west.

#### 27. Question

Arun is standing in facing west. He turns 135˚ anticlockwise, 315˚ clockwise, 45˚ anticlockwise and 225˚ clockwise. Now, Arun is facing which direction?

• c. South East

• d. South West

Correct Option : B

Justification :

In his four turns, Arun turns 135˚ and 45˚ anticlockwise and 315˚ and 225˚ clockwise.

So, totally 180˚ anticlockwise and 540˚ clockwise.

Effectively, Arun turns 360˚ clockwise which is also 0˚.

Thus, he turns 0˚ i.e. Arun will facing the original direction i.e. west.

Correct Option : B

Justification :

In his four turns, Arun turns 135˚ and 45˚ anticlockwise and 315˚ and 225˚ clockwise.

So, totally 180˚ anticlockwise and 540˚ clockwise.

Effectively, Arun turns 360˚ clockwise which is also 0˚.

Thus, he turns 0˚ i.e. Arun will facing the original direction i.e. west.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points One third of Ramesh’s marks in Arithmetic is equal to half his marks in English. If he gets a total of 150 marks in both the subjects, how many marks has he got in English? a. 60 b. 120 c. 30 d. 50 Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Solution: A) 60 Let the marks obtained in Arithmetic and English be x and y respectively. According to the given condition, 1/3 x = y/2 ==> 2x – 3y = 0 ….(i) ==> x+y= 150….(ii) From (i) and (ii) we get, y= 60. Thus, the number of marks obtained in English = 60 Hence, option (a) is the correct. Time taken by Alok to travel from the meeting point to Dharwad, =10:32 am − 9:27 am = 1 hr 5 min Speed of Alok and Rudra = 4: 5 Since time is inversely proportional to speed, time taken by Rudra to travel from Dharwad to the meeting point = (1 hr 5 min) × 4/5 = 48 + 4 = 52 min Therefore, time at which they both reached the meeting point = 8:20 am + 52 min = 9:12 am Time that they spent together for coffee and burger = 9:27 am − 9:12 am = 15 minutes. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Solution: A) 60 Let the marks obtained in Arithmetic and English be x and y respectively. According to the given condition, 1/3 x = y/2 ==> 2x – 3y = 0 ….(i) ==> x+y= 150….(ii) From (i) and (ii) we get, y= 60. Thus, the number of marks obtained in English = 60 Hence, option (a) is the correct.

#### 28. Question

One third of Ramesh’s marks in Arithmetic is equal to half his marks in English. If he gets a total of 150 marks in both the subjects, how many marks has he got in English?

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Solution: A) 60

Let the marks obtained in Arithmetic and English be x and y respectively. According to the given condition,

1/3 *x = y/2

==> 2x – 3y = 0 ….(i)

==> x+y= 150….(ii)

From (i) and (ii) we get, y= 60. Thus, the number of marks obtained in English = 60 Hence, option (a) is the correct.

Time taken by Alok to travel from the meeting point to Dharwad,

=10:32 am − 9:27 am = 1 hr 5 min Speed of Alok and Rudra = 4: 5

Since time is inversely proportional to speed, time taken by Rudra to travel from Dharwad to the meeting point = (1 hr 5 min) × 4/5 = 48 + 4 = 52 min

Therefore, time at which they both reached the meeting point = 8:20 am + 52 min = 9:12 am

Time that they spent together for coffee and burger = 9:27 am − 9:12 am = 15 minutes. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Solution: A) 60

Let the marks obtained in Arithmetic and English be x and y respectively. According to the given condition,

1/3 *x = y/2

==> 2x – 3y = 0 ….(i)

==> x+y= 150….(ii)

From (i) and (ii) we get, y= 60. Thus, the number of marks obtained in English = 60 Hence, option (a) is the correct.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points There is a cube which is painted with white colour on three faces which are adjacent to each other. Other three faces are painted with black colour. This cube is cut into 27 smaller cubes of equal size. How many smaller cubes (which are painted only on two faces) are there which are painted with white on one face and black on other? a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. 3 Correct Correct Option : A Justification : In this case, n=3 as there will 3 smaller cubes on each edge of a bigger cube. Among 27 smaller cubes there will be 12(n-2) cubes which are painted only in two faces. So, 12 (n-2) = 12 (3-2) = 12 cubes. Among these 12 cubes 3 cubes will be painted with only white and 3 cubes will be painted with only black. So, there will be 6 smaller cubes remaining which satisfy our conditions. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : In this case, n=3 as there will 3 smaller cubes on each edge of a bigger cube. Among 27 smaller cubes there will be 12(n-2) cubes which are painted only in two faces. So, 12 (n-2) = 12 (3-2) = 12 cubes. Among these 12 cubes 3 cubes will be painted with only white and 3 cubes will be painted with only black. So, there will be 6 smaller cubes remaining which satisfy our conditions.

#### 29. Question

There is a cube which is painted with white colour on three faces which are adjacent to each other. Other three faces are painted with black colour. This cube is cut into 27 smaller cubes of equal size. How many smaller cubes (which are painted only on two faces) are there which are painted with white on one face and black on other?

Correct Option : A

Justification :

In this case, n=3 as there will 3 smaller cubes on each edge of a bigger cube.

Among 27 smaller cubes there will be 12(n-2) cubes which are painted only in two faces.

So, 12 (n-2) = 12 (3-2) = 12 cubes.

Among these 12 cubes 3 cubes will be painted with only white and 3 cubes will be painted with only black.

So, there will be 6 smaller cubes remaining which satisfy our conditions.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

In this case, n=3 as there will 3 smaller cubes on each edge of a bigger cube.

Among 27 smaller cubes there will be 12(n-2) cubes which are painted only in two faces.

So, 12 (n-2) = 12 (3-2) = 12 cubes.

Among these 12 cubes 3 cubes will be painted with only white and 3 cubes will be painted with only black.

So, there will be 6 smaller cubes remaining which satisfy our conditions.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number 11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions and even digits occupy even positions ? (a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 36 (d) 72 Correct Solution: c We are given the number 11223344, and we want to count the distinct 8-digit numbers formed by rearranging its digits such that: Odd digits (1, 3) must be placed in odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th). Even digits (2, 4) must be placed in even positions (2nd, 4th, 6th, 8th). So, Odd digits: 1, 1, 3, 3 → place in 4 odd positions → Number of distinct ways = 4!/2!2!=6 Even digits: 2, 2, 4, 4 → place in 4 even positions → Number of distinct ways = 4!/2!2!=6 Total arrangements = 6×6=36 Incorrect Solution: c We are given the number 11223344, and we want to count the distinct 8-digit numbers formed by rearranging its digits such that: Odd digits (1, 3) must be placed in odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th). Even digits (2, 4) must be placed in even positions (2nd, 4th, 6th, 8th). So, Odd digits: 1, 1, 3, 3 → place in 4 odd positions → Number of distinct ways = 4!/2!2!=6 Even digits: 2, 2, 4, 4 → place in 4 even positions → Number of distinct ways = 4!/2!2!=6 Total arrangements = 6×6=36

#### 30. Question

How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number 11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions and even digits occupy even positions ?

Solution: c

We are given the number 11223344, and we want to count the distinct 8-digit numbers formed by rearranging its digits such that:

• Odd digits (1, 3) must be placed in odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th).

• Even digits (2, 4) must be placed in even positions (2nd, 4th, 6th, 8th).

• Odd digits: 1, 1, 3, 3 → place in 4 odd positions → Number of distinct ways = 4!/2!2!=6

• Even digits: 2, 2, 4, 4 → place in 4 even positions → Number of distinct ways = 4!/2!2!=6

• Total arrangements = 6×6=36

Solution: c

We are given the number 11223344, and we want to count the distinct 8-digit numbers formed by rearranging its digits such that:

• Odd digits (1, 3) must be placed in odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th).

• Even digits (2, 4) must be placed in even positions (2nd, 4th, 6th, 8th).

• Odd digits: 1, 1, 3, 3 → place in 4 odd positions → Number of distinct ways = 4!/2!2!=6

• Even digits: 2, 2, 4, 4 → place in 4 even positions → Number of distinct ways = 4!/2!2!=6