DAY – 72 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – Art & Culture , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2021 and Mar 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 25 1. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes a geoglyph? a) A small, intricate carving found on ancient pottery b) A large-scale design or motif created on the ground c) A type of cave painting found in prehistoric sites d) A form of rock art created by engraving on rock surfaces Correct Answer: b Explanation: A geoglyph in the form of a circle said to be 3,000 years old has been recently unearthed on the outskirts of Mudichu Thalapalli in the Medchal-Malkajgiri district of Telangana. About Geoglyphs: It is a large design or motif (generally longer than 4 metres) produced on the ground and typically formed by clastic rocks or similarly durable elements of the landscape, such as stones, stone fragments, gravel, or earth. A geoglyph is created by arranging or moving objects within a landscape. There are two types of geoglyphs, namely positive and negative geoglyphs. Positive geoglyph: It is formed by the arrangement and alignment of materials on the ground in a manner akin topetroforms (which are simply outlines created using boulders). Negative geoglyph: It is formed by removing part of the natural ground surface to create differently coloured or textured ground in a manner akin to petroglyphs. There is another variation of a geoglyph that involves seeding plants in a special design. The design usually takes years to see since it depends on the plants growing. This type of geoglyph is called an arbor glyph. Another type of geoglyph often referred to as ‘chalk giants’ are those carved into hillsides, exposing the bedrock beneath. Geoglyphs in History: From ancient times, the most widely known geoglyphs are the Nazca Lines of Peru, which have been a mystery to this day. Other geoglyphs from the past include the Megaliths in the Urals, the Uffington White Horse, the Long Man of Wilmington, and many others. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: A geoglyph in the form of a circle said to be 3,000 years old has been recently unearthed on the outskirts of Mudichu Thalapalli in the Medchal-Malkajgiri district of Telangana. About Geoglyphs: It is a large design or motif (generally longer than 4 metres) produced on the ground and typically formed by clastic rocks or similarly durable elements of the landscape, such as stones, stone fragments, gravel, or earth. A geoglyph is created by arranging or moving objects within a landscape. There are two types of geoglyphs, namely positive and negative geoglyphs. Positive geoglyph: It is formed by the arrangement and alignment of materials on the ground in a manner akin topetroforms (which are simply outlines created using boulders). Negative geoglyph: It is formed by removing part of the natural ground surface to create differently coloured or textured ground in a manner akin to petroglyphs. There is another variation of a geoglyph that involves seeding plants in a special design. The design usually takes years to see since it depends on the plants growing. This type of geoglyph is called an arbor glyph. Another type of geoglyph often referred to as ‘chalk giants’ are those carved into hillsides, exposing the bedrock beneath. Geoglyphs in History: From ancient times, the most widely known geoglyphs are the Nazca Lines of Peru, which have been a mystery to this day. Other geoglyphs from the past include the Megaliths in the Urals, the Uffington White Horse, the Long Man of Wilmington, and many others. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following best describes a geoglyph?

• a) A small, intricate carving found on ancient pottery

• b) A large-scale design or motif created on the ground

• c) A type of cave painting found in prehistoric sites

• d) A form of rock art created by engraving on rock surfaces

Explanation:

• A geoglyph in the form of a circle said to be 3,000 years old has been recently unearthed on the outskirts of Mudichu Thalapalli in the Medchal-Malkajgiri district of Telangana.

About Geoglyphs:

• It is a large design or motif (generally longer than 4 metres) produced on the ground and typically formed by clastic rocks or similarly durable elements of the landscape, such as stones, stone fragments, gravel, or earth.

• A geoglyph is created by arranging or moving objects within a landscape.

• There are two types of geoglyphs, namely positive and negative geoglyphs.

• Positive geoglyph: It is formed by the arrangement and alignment of materials on the ground in a manner akin topetroforms (which are simply outlines created using boulders).

• Negative geoglyph: It is formed by removing part of the natural ground surface to create differently coloured or textured ground in a manner akin to petroglyphs.

• There is another variation of a geoglyph that involves seeding plants in a special design. The design usually takes years to see since it depends on the plants growing. This type of geoglyph is called an arbor glyph.

• Another type of geoglyph often referred to as ‘chalk giants’ are those carved into hillsides, exposing the bedrock beneath.

Geoglyphs in History:

• From ancient times, the most widely known geoglyphs are the Nazca Lines of Peru, which have been a mystery to this day.

• Other geoglyphs from the past include the Megaliths in the Urals, the Uffington White Horse, the Long Man of Wilmington, and many others.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• A geoglyph in the form of a circle said to be 3,000 years old has been recently unearthed on the outskirts of Mudichu Thalapalli in the Medchal-Malkajgiri district of Telangana.

About Geoglyphs:

• A geoglyph is created by arranging or moving objects within a landscape.

• There are two types of geoglyphs, namely positive and negative geoglyphs.

• Positive geoglyph: It is formed by the arrangement and alignment of materials on the ground in a manner akin topetroforms (which are simply outlines created using boulders).

• Negative geoglyph: It is formed by removing part of the natural ground surface to create differently coloured or textured ground in a manner akin to petroglyphs.

• Another type of geoglyph often referred to as ‘chalk giants’ are those carved into hillsides, exposing the bedrock beneath.

Geoglyphs in History:

• From ancient times, the most widely known geoglyphs are the Nazca Lines of Peru, which have been a mystery to this day.

• Other geoglyphs from the past include the Megaliths in the Urals, the Uffington White Horse, the Long Man of Wilmington, and many others.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 2 of 25 2. Question 1 points What does the term ‘Lai Haraoba’ mean? a) Festival of Harvest b) Festival of Gods and Goddesses c) Festival of Lights d) Festival of Music and Dance Correct Answer: b Explanation: Lai Haraoba, meaning “Festival of the Gods and goddesses,” is a traditional festival celebrated predominantly by the Meitei community in the northeastern Indian state of Manipur. This festival, rich in rituals and cultural expressions, is one of the most important and oldest festivals of Manipur, reflecting the ancient religious and cultural ethos of the people. The Lai Haraoba festival honors the sylvan deities known as Umang Lai, believed to be the protectors of the people and their land. It is an intricate blend of rituals, dance, music, and theatrical performances that collectively represent the creation myth and the history of the Meitei civilization. The festival is also a means to propitiate these deities for blessings of prosperity, health, and well-being for the community. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Lai Haraoba, meaning “Festival of the Gods and goddesses,” is a traditional festival celebrated predominantly by the Meitei community in the northeastern Indian state of Manipur. This festival, rich in rituals and cultural expressions, is one of the most important and oldest festivals of Manipur, reflecting the ancient religious and cultural ethos of the people. The Lai Haraoba festival honors the sylvan deities known as Umang Lai, believed to be the protectors of the people and their land. It is an intricate blend of rituals, dance, music, and theatrical performances that collectively represent the creation myth and the history of the Meitei civilization. The festival is also a means to propitiate these deities for blessings of prosperity, health, and well-being for the community. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

What does the term ‘Lai Haraoba’ mean?

• a) Festival of Harvest

• b) Festival of Gods and Goddesses

• c) Festival of Lights

• d) Festival of Music and Dance

Explanation:

• Lai Haraoba, meaning “Festival of the Gods and goddesses,” is a traditional festival celebrated predominantly by the Meitei community in the northeastern Indian state of Manipur. This festival, rich in rituals and cultural expressions, is one of the most important and oldest festivals of Manipur, reflecting the ancient religious and cultural ethos of the people.

• The Lai Haraoba festival honors the sylvan deities known as Umang Lai, believed to be the protectors of the people and their land. It is an intricate blend of rituals, dance, music, and theatrical performances that collectively represent the creation myth and the history of the Meitei civilization. The festival is also a means to propitiate these deities for blessings of prosperity, health, and well-being for the community.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 3 of 25 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Painted Grey-ware (PGW) and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) are associated with the Vedic age. The Mauryan period saw the largescale use of the pottery wheel and the development of Northern Black Polished Ware. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Painted Grey Ware (PGW) and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) are indeed associated with the Vedic age. PGW is primarily associated with the later Vedic period, while NBPW is associated with the later stages of the Vedic period and the early Mauryan period. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Mauryan period did witness the widespread use of the pottery wheel, and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) was developed during this period. While NBPW predates the Mauryan period, it reached its peak during this era. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Painted Grey Ware (PGW) and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) are indeed associated with the Vedic age. PGW is primarily associated with the later Vedic period, while NBPW is associated with the later stages of the Vedic period and the early Mauryan period. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Mauryan period did witness the widespread use of the pottery wheel, and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) was developed during this period. While NBPW predates the Mauryan period, it reached its peak during this era. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Painted Grey-ware (PGW) and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) are associated with the Vedic age.

• The Mauryan period saw the largescale use of the pottery wheel and the development of Northern Black Polished Ware.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Painted Grey Ware (PGW) and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) are indeed associated with the Vedic age. PGW is primarily associated with the later Vedic period, while NBPW is associated with the later stages of the Vedic period and the early Mauryan period. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Mauryan period did witness the widespread use of the pottery wheel, and Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) was developed during this period. While NBPW predates the Mauryan period, it reached its peak during this era. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 4 of 25 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding colonial architecture in India: The Palladian style was the principal style of architecture during the colonial rule in India. The Indo-Saracenic architecture emerged as a culmination of colonial architecture, blending elements of Indian and Western styles. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: While the Palladian style did have influence on colonial architecture, especially in buildings constructed by the British, it was not the principal or predominant architectural style. Colonial architecture in India was characterized by a diversity of styles, including Gothic Revival, Indo-Saracenic, Baroque, Victorian etc. reflecting the cultural and architectural influences of various colonial powers and indigenous traditions. The Palladian style, characterized by symmetry, classical proportions, and decorative elements inspired by the architecture of ancient Greece and Rome, was one of several architectural styles employed during the colonial period. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Indo-Saracenic architecture developed during the colonial period in India and represents a fusion of Indian, Islamic, and Western architectural traditions. It was characterized by features such as domes, minarets, arches, and decorative motifs inspired by Indian and Islamic architecture, combined with Western architectural elements and construction techniques. This style was particularly prevalent in public and institutional buildings, such as government offices, universities, and railway stations, built during the British colonial rule. Indo-Saracenic architecture reflected the cultural exchange and synthesis that occurred during the colonial period, making it a significant architectural style in the history of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: While the Palladian style did have influence on colonial architecture, especially in buildings constructed by the British, it was not the principal or predominant architectural style. Colonial architecture in India was characterized by a diversity of styles, including Gothic Revival, Indo-Saracenic, Baroque, Victorian etc. reflecting the cultural and architectural influences of various colonial powers and indigenous traditions. The Palladian style, characterized by symmetry, classical proportions, and decorative elements inspired by the architecture of ancient Greece and Rome, was one of several architectural styles employed during the colonial period. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Indo-Saracenic architecture developed during the colonial period in India and represents a fusion of Indian, Islamic, and Western architectural traditions. It was characterized by features such as domes, minarets, arches, and decorative motifs inspired by Indian and Islamic architecture, combined with Western architectural elements and construction techniques. This style was particularly prevalent in public and institutional buildings, such as government offices, universities, and railway stations, built during the British colonial rule. Indo-Saracenic architecture reflected the cultural exchange and synthesis that occurred during the colonial period, making it a significant architectural style in the history of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding colonial architecture in India:

• The Palladian style was the principal style of architecture during the colonial rule in India.

• The Indo-Saracenic architecture emerged as a culmination of colonial architecture, blending elements of Indian and Western styles.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• While the Palladian style did have influence on colonial architecture, especially in buildings constructed by the British, it was not the principal or predominant architectural style. Colonial architecture in India was characterized by a diversity of styles, including Gothic Revival, Indo-Saracenic, Baroque, Victorian etc. reflecting the cultural and architectural influences of various colonial powers and indigenous traditions.

• The Palladian style, characterized by symmetry, classical proportions, and decorative elements inspired by the architecture of ancient Greece and Rome, was one of several architectural styles employed during the colonial period. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Indo-Saracenic architecture developed during the colonial period in India and represents a fusion of Indian, Islamic, and Western architectural traditions. It was characterized by features such as domes, minarets, arches, and decorative motifs inspired by Indian and Islamic architecture, combined with Western architectural elements and construction techniques. This style was particularly prevalent in public and institutional buildings, such as government offices, universities, and railway stations, built during the British colonial rule. Indo-Saracenic architecture reflected the cultural exchange and synthesis that occurred during the colonial period, making it a significant architectural style in the history of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 5 of 25 5. Question 1 points Consider the following: Basilica do Bom Jesus in Old Goa Victoria Terminus station in Mumbai The Bandel Church in West Bengal How many of the above monuments in India are associated with Portuguese colonial architecture? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Basilica do Bom Jesus in Old Goa: This monument is associated with Portuguese colonial architecture. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and exemplifies the Baroque style of architecture introduced by the Portuguese in Goa. Victoria Terminus station in Mumbai: This monument is not associated with Portuguese colonial architecture. It is a railway station built during the British colonial period and is an iconic example of Victorian Gothic Revival architecture. The Bandel Church in West Bengal: This monument is associated with Portuguese colonial architecture. It is one of the oldest Christian churches in West Bengal, built by the Portuguese in the 17th century. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Basilica do Bom Jesus in Old Goa: This monument is associated with Portuguese colonial architecture. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and exemplifies the Baroque style of architecture introduced by the Portuguese in Goa. Victoria Terminus station in Mumbai: This monument is not associated with Portuguese colonial architecture. It is a railway station built during the British colonial period and is an iconic example of Victorian Gothic Revival architecture. The Bandel Church in West Bengal: This monument is associated with Portuguese colonial architecture. It is one of the oldest Christian churches in West Bengal, built by the Portuguese in the 17th century. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following:

• Basilica do Bom Jesus in Old Goa

• Victoria Terminus station in Mumbai

• The Bandel Church in West Bengal

How many of the above monuments in India are associated with Portuguese colonial architecture?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Basilica do Bom Jesus in Old Goa: This monument is associated with Portuguese colonial architecture. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and exemplifies the Baroque style of architecture introduced by the Portuguese in Goa.

• Victoria Terminus station in Mumbai: This monument is not associated with Portuguese colonial architecture. It is a railway station built during the British colonial period and is an iconic example of Victorian Gothic Revival architecture.

• The Bandel Church in West Bengal: This monument is associated with Portuguese colonial architecture. It is one of the oldest Christian churches in West Bengal, built by the Portuguese in the 17th century.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 6 of 25 6. Question 1 points Which cave complex, located near Mumbai, is associated with the Hinayana phase of Buddhist architecture but saw additions during the Mahayana phase, including a 5th century image of Buddha? a) Bhaja caves b) Jogeshwari caves c) Karla caves d) Kanheri caves Correct Which cave complex, located near Mumbai, is associated with the Hinayana phase of Buddhist architecture but saw additions during the Mahayana phase, including a 5th century image of Buddha? Incorrect Which cave complex, located near Mumbai, is associated with the Hinayana phase of Buddhist architecture but saw additions during the Mahayana phase, including a 5th century image of Buddha?

#### 6. Question

Which cave complex, located near Mumbai, is associated with the Hinayana phase of Buddhist architecture but saw additions during the Mahayana phase, including a 5th century image of Buddha?

• a) Bhaja caves

• b) Jogeshwari caves

• c) Karla caves

• d) Kanheri caves

Which cave complex, located near Mumbai, is associated with the Hinayana phase of Buddhist architecture but saw additions during the Mahayana phase, including a 5th century image of Buddha?

• Question 7 of 25 7. Question 1 points What is the purpose of the Puranas and Smritis in Hinduism? a) To provide guidance for rituals b) To elucidate the principles of Vedanta c) To inculcate ethical values through stories d) To emphasize the importance of ascetic discipline Correct Answer: c Explanation: While the Puranas and Smritis do provide some guidance for rituals and elucidate the principles of Vedanta, their main function is to convey ethical teachings and moral values through narratives, myths, and legends. These texts often use stories of gods, sages, and historical figures to impart lessons on righteousness, duty, and virtuous conduct in everyday life. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: While the Puranas and Smritis do provide some guidance for rituals and elucidate the principles of Vedanta, their main function is to convey ethical teachings and moral values through narratives, myths, and legends. These texts often use stories of gods, sages, and historical figures to impart lessons on righteousness, duty, and virtuous conduct in everyday life. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

What is the purpose of the Puranas and Smritis in Hinduism?

• a) To provide guidance for rituals

• b) To elucidate the principles of Vedanta

• c) To inculcate ethical values through stories

• d) To emphasize the importance of ascetic discipline

Explanation:

• While the Puranas and Smritis do provide some guidance for rituals and elucidate the principles of Vedanta, their main function is to convey ethical teachings and moral values through narratives, myths, and legends. These texts often use stories of gods, sages, and historical figures to impart lessons on righteousness, duty, and virtuous conduct in everyday life.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 25 8. Question 1 points Consider the following: Suhrawardi Firadausia Qadri Naqshbandi How many of the above is/are Sufi orders? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: Some of the important Sufi orders are: Chisti It was founded by Sheikh Abdul Chisti It was introduced in Indiaby Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti. His Dargah is at Ajmer Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Kakiwas the chief disciple of Moinuddin. Iltutmushdedicated Qutub Minar to Bakhtiar Kaki Sheikh Nizamuddin was the most popular Sufi saint in India. Amir Khusro,the greatest musician and literary giant was also the disciple of Sheikh Nizamuddin. A system calledNadasampradaya was followed which meant burying disciples near as one family Sheikh Salim Chisti was the last great saint of this order. He was held in great respect by Akbar. Qamkhanawere hermitages of Chisti saints outside the city Suhrawardi It was founded by Shihabuddin Shuhrawardi It was introduced in India by Bhauddin It was the richest order and very soon became unpopular Firadausia It was the only Sufi order which was founded and developed within India It was founded by Sharafuddin, it was confined to Bihar He composed Maqtubatand Mulfazat literature The above dealt with the lives and teachings of Sufi saints Qadri It was the most secular Sufi silsila It was founded by Sheikh Jilani Qadri Dara Shikoh, son of Shah Jahan followed this order Naqshbandi It was founded by Sheikh Biqabullah It was introduced into India by Sheikh Pirsai Sheikh Niyamtullawas the greatest scholar of this school It was the most conservativeof the orders. Aurangzeb followed this order. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Some of the important Sufi orders are: Chisti It was founded by Sheikh Abdul Chisti It was introduced in Indiaby Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti. His Dargah is at Ajmer Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Kakiwas the chief disciple of Moinuddin. Iltutmushdedicated Qutub Minar to Bakhtiar Kaki Sheikh Nizamuddin was the most popular Sufi saint in India. Amir Khusro,the greatest musician and literary giant was also the disciple of Sheikh Nizamuddin. A system calledNadasampradaya was followed which meant burying disciples near as one family Sheikh Salim Chisti was the last great saint of this order. He was held in great respect by Akbar. Qamkhanawere hermitages of Chisti saints outside the city Suhrawardi It was founded by Shihabuddin Shuhrawardi It was introduced in India by Bhauddin It was the richest order and very soon became unpopular Firadausia It was the only Sufi order which was founded and developed within India It was founded by Sharafuddin, it was confined to Bihar He composed Maqtubatand Mulfazat literature The above dealt with the lives and teachings of Sufi saints Qadri It was the most secular Sufi silsila It was founded by Sheikh Jilani Qadri Dara Shikoh, son of Shah Jahan followed this order Naqshbandi It was founded by Sheikh Biqabullah It was introduced into India by Sheikh Pirsai Sheikh Niyamtullawas the greatest scholar of this school It was the most conservativeof the orders. Aurangzeb followed this order. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following:

• Suhrawardi

• Firadausia

• Naqshbandi

How many of the above is/are Sufi orders?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

Some of the important Sufi orders are:

• Chisti

• It was founded by Sheikh Abdul Chisti

• It was introduced in Indiaby Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti. His Dargah is at Ajmer

• Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Kakiwas the chief disciple of Moinuddin.

• Iltutmushdedicated Qutub Minar to Bakhtiar Kaki

• Sheikh Nizamuddin was the most popular Sufi saint in India. Amir Khusro,the greatest musician and literary giant was also the disciple of Sheikh Nizamuddin.

• A system calledNadasampradaya was followed which meant burying disciples near as one family

• Sheikh Salim Chisti was the last great saint of this order. He was held in great respect by Akbar.

• Qamkhanawere hermitages of Chisti saints outside the city

• Suhrawardi

• It was founded by Shihabuddin Shuhrawardi

• It was introduced in India by Bhauddin

• It was the richest order and very soon became unpopular

• Firadausia

• It was the only Sufi order which was founded and developed within India

• It was founded by Sharafuddin, it was confined to Bihar

• He composed Maqtubatand Mulfazat literature

• The above dealt with the lives and teachings of Sufi saints

• It was the most secular Sufi silsila

• It was founded by Sheikh Jilani Qadri

• Dara Shikoh, son of Shah Jahan followed this order

• Naqshbandi

• It was founded by Sheikh Biqabullah

• It was introduced into India by Sheikh Pirsai

• Sheikh Niyamtullawas the greatest scholar of this school

• It was the most conservativeof the orders. Aurangzeb followed this order.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Some of the important Sufi orders are:

• Chisti

• It was founded by Sheikh Abdul Chisti

• It was introduced in Indiaby Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti. His Dargah is at Ajmer

• Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Kakiwas the chief disciple of Moinuddin.

• Iltutmushdedicated Qutub Minar to Bakhtiar Kaki

• Sheikh Nizamuddin was the most popular Sufi saint in India. Amir Khusro,the greatest musician and literary giant was also the disciple of Sheikh Nizamuddin.

• A system calledNadasampradaya was followed which meant burying disciples near as one family

• Sheikh Salim Chisti was the last great saint of this order. He was held in great respect by Akbar.

• Qamkhanawere hermitages of Chisti saints outside the city

• Suhrawardi

• It was founded by Shihabuddin Shuhrawardi

• It was introduced in India by Bhauddin

• It was the richest order and very soon became unpopular

• Firadausia

• It was the only Sufi order which was founded and developed within India

• It was founded by Sharafuddin, it was confined to Bihar

• He composed Maqtubatand Mulfazat literature

• The above dealt with the lives and teachings of Sufi saints

• It was the most secular Sufi silsila

• It was founded by Sheikh Jilani Qadri

• Dara Shikoh, son of Shah Jahan followed this order

• Naqshbandi

• It was founded by Sheikh Biqabullah

• It was introduced into India by Sheikh Pirsai

• Sheikh Niyamtullawas the greatest scholar of this school

• It was the most conservativeof the orders. Aurangzeb followed this order.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 9 of 25 9. Question 1 points Which manuscript is considered the first work of the Mughal School of Painting? a) Razm-nama b) Tuti-nama c) Rasikapriya d) Hamza-nama Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Mughal School of Painting emerged during the reign of Akbar in the 16th century and marked a significant development in Indian art. The school was influenced by a blend of indigenous Indian styles and the Safavid school of Persian painting, resulting in a unique artistic tradition that flourished under the patronage of Mughal emperors. Among the early works of the Mughal School, the Tuti-nama manuscript stands out as a seminal piece. Commissioned during the reign of Akbar, the Tuti-nama is an illustrated manuscript of animal fables. It is considered the first significant work of the Mughal School and showcases the initial stages of its distinctive style. The illustrations in the Tuti-nama manuscript display characteristics that would come to define Mughal painting. These include meticulous attention to detail, vibrant colors, and intricate compositions. The artists employed by Akbar, including Persian masters like Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdul Samad Khan, along with Indian artists recruited from various regions, contributed to the development of this style. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Mughal School of Painting emerged during the reign of Akbar in the 16th century and marked a significant development in Indian art. The school was influenced by a blend of indigenous Indian styles and the Safavid school of Persian painting, resulting in a unique artistic tradition that flourished under the patronage of Mughal emperors. Among the early works of the Mughal School, the Tuti-nama manuscript stands out as a seminal piece. Commissioned during the reign of Akbar, the Tuti-nama is an illustrated manuscript of animal fables. It is considered the first significant work of the Mughal School and showcases the initial stages of its distinctive style. The illustrations in the Tuti-nama manuscript display characteristics that would come to define Mughal painting. These include meticulous attention to detail, vibrant colors, and intricate compositions. The artists employed by Akbar, including Persian masters like Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdul Samad Khan, along with Indian artists recruited from various regions, contributed to the development of this style. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which manuscript is considered the first work of the Mughal School of Painting?

• a) Razm-nama

• b) Tuti-nama

• c) Rasikapriya

• d) Hamza-nama

Explanation:

• The Mughal School of Painting emerged during the reign of Akbar in the 16th century and marked a significant development in Indian art. The school was influenced by a blend of indigenous Indian styles and the Safavid school of Persian painting, resulting in a unique artistic tradition that flourished under the patronage of Mughal emperors.

• Among the early works of the Mughal School, the Tuti-nama manuscript stands out as a seminal piece. Commissioned during the reign of Akbar, the Tuti-nama is an illustrated manuscript of animal fables. It is considered the first significant work of the Mughal School and showcases the initial stages of its distinctive style.

• The illustrations in the Tuti-nama manuscript display characteristics that would come to define Mughal painting. These include meticulous attention to detail, vibrant colors, and intricate compositions. The artists employed by Akbar, including Persian masters like Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdul Samad Khan, along with Indian artists recruited from various regions, contributed to the development of this style.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 25 10. Question 1 points The earliest known Brahmanical paintings in India are found in: a) Ellora b) Badami c) Ajanta d) Bagh Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Brahmanical paintings found in the Badami caves represent some of the earliest known examples of this style of artwork in India. These caves are located in the town of Badami in Karnataka and were the capital of the early Chalukya dynasty, which ruled the region from 543 to 598 CE. The paintings are primarily found in cave No. III of the Badami cave complex. This cave features a number of remarkable paintings that depict scenes related to Brahmanical themes. Among these scenes, one notable painting portrays Shiva and Parvati, two prominent Hindu deities, in an intimate and finely detailed manner. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Brahmanical paintings found in the Badami caves represent some of the earliest known examples of this style of artwork in India. These caves are located in the town of Badami in Karnataka and were the capital of the early Chalukya dynasty, which ruled the region from 543 to 598 CE. The paintings are primarily found in cave No. III of the Badami cave complex. This cave features a number of remarkable paintings that depict scenes related to Brahmanical themes. Among these scenes, one notable painting portrays Shiva and Parvati, two prominent Hindu deities, in an intimate and finely detailed manner. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

The earliest known Brahmanical paintings in India are found in:

Explanation:

• The Brahmanical paintings found in the Badami caves represent some of the earliest known examples of this style of artwork in India. These caves are located in the town of Badami in Karnataka and were the capital of the early Chalukya dynasty, which ruled the region from 543 to 598 CE.

• The paintings are primarily found in cave No. III of the Badami cave complex. This cave features a number of remarkable paintings that depict scenes related to Brahmanical themes. Among these scenes, one notable painting portrays Shiva and Parvati, two prominent Hindu deities, in an intimate and finely detailed manner.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 25 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the NIRVIK Scheme: It aims to provide high insurance cover for exporters and reduce premium for small exporters. It is launched by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry through the Export Credit Guarantee Corporation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: NIRVIK scheme was launched to provide high insurance cover for exporters. To achieve higher export credit disbursement, a new scheme NIRVIK is being launched which provides for high insurance cover, reduction in premium for small exporters and simplified procedures for claim settlements,” she said while presenting Budget 2020-21 here. The scheme is being prepared by the Commerce Ministry. Under the scheme, also called the Export Credit Insurance Scheme (ECIS), the insurance guaranteed could cover up to 90 per cent of the principal and interest. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: NIRVIK scheme was launched to provide high insurance cover for exporters. To achieve higher export credit disbursement, a new scheme NIRVIK is being launched which provides for high insurance cover, reduction in premium for small exporters and simplified procedures for claim settlements,” she said while presenting Budget 2020-21 here. The scheme is being prepared by the Commerce Ministry. Under the scheme, also called the Export Credit Insurance Scheme (ECIS), the insurance guaranteed could cover up to 90 per cent of the principal and interest.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the NIRVIK Scheme:

• It aims to provide high insurance cover for exporters and reduce premium for small exporters.

• It is launched by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry through the Export Credit Guarantee Corporation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: NIRVIK scheme was launched to provide high insurance cover for exporters.

To achieve higher export credit disbursement, a new scheme NIRVIK is being launched which provides for high insurance cover, reduction in premium for small exporters and simplified procedures for claim settlements,” she said while presenting Budget 2020-21 here.

The scheme is being prepared by the Commerce Ministry. Under the scheme, also called the Export Credit Insurance Scheme (ECIS), the insurance guaranteed could cover up to 90 per cent of the principal and interest.

Solution: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: NIRVIK scheme was launched to provide high insurance cover for exporters.

• Question 12 of 25 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Annual Financial Statement as provided under Article 112 of the Indian Constitution entirely shows the estimated expenditure of the Government of India. The Consolidated Fund of India draws its existence from Article 266 of the Constitution where the revenues received by the Government form the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Annual Financial Statement (AFS), the document as provided under Article 112, shows both the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India Statement 2 is correct: The Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) draws its existence from Article 266 of the Constitution. All revenues received by the Government, loans raised by it, and also receipts from recoveries of loans granted by it, together form the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 113 of the Constitution mandates that the estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India included in the Annual Financial Statement and required to be voted by the Lok Sabha, be submitted in the form of Demands for Grants. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Annual Financial Statement (AFS), the document as provided under Article 112, shows both the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India Statement 2 is correct:* The Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) draws its existence from Article 266 of the Constitution. All revenues received by the Government, loans raised by it, and also receipts from recoveries of loans granted by it, together form the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 113 of the Constitution mandates that the estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India included in the Annual Financial Statement and required to be voted by the Lok Sabha, be submitted in the form of Demands for Grants.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Annual Financial Statement as provided under Article 112 of the Indian Constitution entirely shows the estimated expenditure of the Government of India.

• The Consolidated Fund of India draws its existence from Article 266 of the Constitution where the revenues received by the Government form the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Annual Financial Statement (AFS), the document as provided under Article 112, shows both the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India

Statement 2 is correct: The Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) draws its existence from Article 266 of the Constitution. All revenues received by the Government, loans raised by it, and also receipts from recoveries of loans granted by it, together form the Consolidated Fund of India.

Article 113 of the Constitution mandates that the estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India included in the Annual Financial Statement and required to be voted by the Lok Sabha, be submitted in the form of Demands for Grants.

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Annual Financial Statement (AFS), the document as provided under Article 112, shows both the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India

• Question 13 of 25 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The International Monetary Fund in its World Economic Outlook has upgraded its growth projection for India for FY2023-24. As per the International Monetary Fund, India can become the third-largest economy and India’s contribution to global growth will increase by 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Indian economy has demonstrated resilience and maintained healthy macro-economic fundamentals, despite global economic challenges. Statement 1 is correct: The International Monetary Fund (IMF), in its World Economic Outlook (WEO), October 2023, has revised its growth projection for India for FY2023-24 upwards to 6.3 per cent from 6.1 per cent projected in July 2023. This reflects increasing global confidence in India’s economic prowess at a time when global growth projection for 2023 remains unchanged at 3 per cent. Statement 2 is correct: As per the IMF, India is likely to become the third-largest economy in 2027 (in USD at market exchange rate) and it also estimated that India’s contribution to global growth will rise by 200 basis points in 5 years. Moreover, various international agencies such as the World Bank, the IMF, OECD and ADB project India to grow between 6.4 per cent, 6.3 per cent, 6.1 per cent and 6.7 per cent, respectively in 2024-25. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Indian economy has demonstrated resilience and maintained healthy macro-economic fundamentals, despite global economic challenges. Statement 1 is correct: The International Monetary Fund (IMF), in its World Economic Outlook (WEO), October 2023, has revised its growth projection for India for FY2023-24 upwards to 6.3 per cent from 6.1 per cent projected in July 2023. This reflects increasing global confidence in India’s economic prowess at a time when global growth projection for 2023 remains unchanged at 3 per cent. Statement 2 is correct: As per the IMF, India is likely to become the third-largest economy in 2027 (in USD at market exchange rate) and it also estimated that India’s contribution to global growth will rise by 200 basis points in 5 years. Moreover, various international agencies such as the World Bank, the IMF, OECD and ADB project India to grow between 6.4 per cent, 6.3 per cent, 6.1 per cent and 6.7 per cent, respectively in 2024-25.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The International Monetary Fund in its World Economic Outlook has upgraded its growth projection for India for FY2023-24.

• As per the International Monetary Fund, India can become the third-largest economy and India’s contribution to global growth will increase by 2027.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Indian economy has demonstrated resilience and maintained healthy macro-economic fundamentals, despite global economic challenges.

Statement 1 is correct: The International Monetary Fund (IMF), in its World Economic Outlook (WEO), October 2023, has revised its growth projection for India for FY2023-24 upwards to 6.3 per cent from 6.1 per cent projected in July 2023.

This reflects increasing global confidence in India’s economic prowess at a time when global growth projection for 2023 remains unchanged at 3 per cent.

Statement 2 is correct: As per the IMF, India is likely to become the third-largest economy in 2027 (in USD at market exchange rate) and it also estimated that India’s contribution to global growth will rise by 200 basis points in 5 years.

Moreover, various international agencies such as the World Bank, the IMF, OECD and ADB project India to grow between 6.4 per cent, 6.3 per cent, 6.1 per cent and 6.7 per cent, respectively in 2024-25.

Solution: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Indian economy has demonstrated resilience and maintained healthy macro-economic fundamentals, despite global economic challenges.

This reflects increasing global confidence in India’s economic prowess at a time when global growth projection for 2023 remains unchanged at 3 per cent.

• Question 14 of 25 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001: Plant variety cannot be patented in India. A foreigner cannot obtain registration of their variety under PPV & FR Act, 2001 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001: An Act to provide for the establishment of an effective system for protection of plant varieties, the rights of farmers and plant breeders and to encourage the development of new varieties of plants. What are Essentially Derived Varieties (EDV) EDV means a variety which has been essentially derived from existing variety by any of the following means: Genetic Engineering Mutation Tissue Culture Derived Back Cross Derivative Any other (Ploidy change etc.) EDV is clearly distinguishable from such initial variety; and conforms (except for the differences which result from the act of derivation) to such initial variety in the expression of the essential characteristics that result from the genotype or combination of genotype of such initial variety. Plant variety cannot be patented in India. A patent deals with IPR over devices of Industrial applications whereas PPV & FR Act, 2001 confers IPR to plant breeders who have bred or developed plant varieties. A patent is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state (national government) to an inventor or their assignee for a limited period of time in exchange for the public disclosure of an invention. The PPV&FR Act, give rights to farmers, breeders and researches besides giving protection to varieties of all crop species which are notified under the Act. There is also provision for benefits sharing, compensation to the farmers, recognition and award to the farmers for supporting conservation and sustainable use of plant genetics resource. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The procedure for obtaining plant variety registration is same for Indian citizen and foreigners. However, foreign applicant must furnish their address for service in India while applying for plant variety registration. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/delhi-hc-sets-aside-order-revoking-pepsicos-potato-patent/article67728239.ece Incorrect Solution: A Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001: An Act to provide for the establishment of an effective system for protection of plant varieties, the rights of farmers and plant breeders and to encourage the development of new varieties of plants. What are Essentially Derived Varieties (EDV) EDV means a variety which has been essentially derived from existing variety by any of the following means: Genetic Engineering Mutation Tissue Culture Derived Back Cross Derivative Any other (Ploidy change etc.) EDV is clearly distinguishable from such initial variety; and conforms (except for the differences which result from the act of derivation) to such initial variety in the expression of the essential characteristics that result from the genotype or combination of genotype of such initial variety. Plant variety cannot be patented in India. A patent deals with IPR over devices of Industrial applications whereas PPV & FR Act, 2001 confers IPR to plant breeders who have bred or developed plant varieties. A patent is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state (national government) to an inventor or their assignee for a limited period of time in exchange for the public disclosure of an invention. The PPV&FR Act, give rights to farmers, breeders and researches besides giving protection to varieties of all crop species which are notified under the Act. There is also provision for benefits sharing, compensation to the farmers, recognition and award to the farmers for supporting conservation and sustainable use of plant genetics resource. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The procedure for obtaining plant variety registration is same for Indian citizen and foreigners. However, foreign applicant must furnish their address for service in India while applying for plant variety registration. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/delhi-hc-sets-aside-order-revoking-pepsicos-potato-patent/article67728239.ece

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001:

• Plant variety cannot be patented in India.

• A foreigner cannot obtain registration of their variety under PPV & FR Act, 2001

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001:

An Act to provide for the establishment of an effective system for protection of plant varieties, the rights of farmers and plant breeders and to encourage the development of new varieties of plants.

What are Essentially Derived Varieties (EDV)

EDV means a variety which has been essentially derived from existing variety by any of the following means:

• Genetic Engineering

• Tissue Culture Derived

• Back Cross Derivative

• Any other (Ploidy change etc.)

EDV is clearly distinguishable from such initial variety; and conforms (except for the differences which result from the act of derivation) to such initial variety in the expression of the essential characteristics that result from the genotype or combination of genotype of such initial variety.

Plant variety cannot be patented in India. A patent deals with IPR over devices of Industrial applications whereas PPV & FR Act, 2001 confers IPR to plant breeders who have bred or developed plant varieties. A patent is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state (national government) to an inventor or their assignee for a limited period of time in exchange for the public disclosure of an invention. The PPV&FR Act, give rights to farmers, breeders and researches besides giving protection to varieties of all crop species which are notified under the Act. There is also provision for benefits sharing, compensation to the farmers, recognition and award to the farmers for supporting conservation and sustainable use of plant genetics resource.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The procedure for obtaining plant variety registration is same for Indian citizen and foreigners. However, foreign applicant must furnish their address for service in India while applying for plant variety registration.

Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/delhi-hc-sets-aside-order-revoking-pepsicos-potato-patent/article67728239.ece

Solution: A

Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001:

What are Essentially Derived Varieties (EDV)

EDV means a variety which has been essentially derived from existing variety by any of the following means:

• Genetic Engineering

• Tissue Culture Derived

• Back Cross Derivative

• Any other (Ploidy change etc.)

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/delhi-hc-sets-aside-order-revoking-pepsicos-potato-patent/article67728239.ece

• Question 15 of 25 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the different types of electric vehicles: Electric Vehicles using Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) technology run entirely on a battery-powered electric drivetrain Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV) have both engine and electric motor. In Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle(FCEV) chemical energy of the fuel is converted directly into electric energy. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one statement (b) Only two statements (c) All three statements (d) None Correct Solution: C All the statements given above are correct. Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) BEVs are also known as All-Electric Vehicles (AEV). Electric Vehicles using BEV technology run entirely on a battery-powered electric drivetrain. The electricity used to drive the vehicle is stored in a large battery pack which can be charged by plugging into the electricity grid. The charged battery pack then provides power to one or more electric motors to run the electric car. Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV): HEVs are also known as series hybrid or parallel hybrid. HEVs have both engine and electric motor. The engine gets energy from fuel, and the motor gets electricity from batteries. The transmission is rotated simultaneously by both engine and electric motor. This then drives the wheels. Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV): The PHEVs are also known as series hybrids. They have both engine and a motor. You can choose among the fuels, conventional fuel (such as petrol) or alternative fuel (such as bio-diesel). It can also be powered by a rechargeable battery pack. The battery can be charged externally. Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle(FCEV): FCEVs are also known as Zero-Emission Vehicles. They employ ‘fuel cell technology’ to generate the electricity required to run the vehicle. The chemical energy of the fuel is converted directly into electric energy. https://e-amrit.niti.gov.in/types-of-electric-vehicles Incorrect Solution: C All the statements given above are correct. Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) BEVs are also known as All-Electric Vehicles (AEV). Electric Vehicles using BEV technology run entirely on a battery-powered electric drivetrain. The electricity used to drive the vehicle is stored in a large battery pack which can be charged by plugging into the electricity grid. The charged battery pack then provides power to one or more electric motors to run the electric car. Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV): HEVs are also known as series hybrid or parallel hybrid. HEVs have both engine and electric motor. The engine gets energy from fuel, and the motor gets electricity from batteries. The transmission is rotated simultaneously by both engine and electric motor. This then drives the wheels. Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV): The PHEVs are also known as series hybrids. They have both engine and a motor. You can choose among the fuels, conventional fuel (such as petrol) or alternative fuel (such as bio-diesel). It can also be powered by a rechargeable battery pack. The battery can be charged externally. Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle(FCEV): FCEVs are also known as Zero-Emission Vehicles. They employ ‘fuel cell technology’ to generate the electricity required to run the vehicle. The chemical energy of the fuel is converted directly into electric energy. https://e-amrit.niti.gov.in/types-of-electric-vehicles

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the different types of electric vehicles:

• Electric Vehicles using Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) technology run entirely on a battery-powered electric drivetrain

• Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV) have both engine and electric motor.

• In Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle(FCEV) chemical energy of the fuel is converted directly into electric energy.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one statement

• (b) Only two statements

• (c) All three statements

Solution: C

All the statements given above are correct.

Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs)

BEVs are also known as All-Electric Vehicles (AEV). Electric Vehicles using BEV technology run entirely on a battery-powered electric drivetrain. The electricity used to drive the vehicle is stored in a large battery pack which can be charged by plugging into the electricity grid. The charged battery pack then provides power to one or more electric motors to run the electric car.

Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV):

HEVs are also known as series hybrid or parallel hybrid. HEVs have both engine and electric motor. The engine gets energy from fuel, and the motor gets electricity from batteries. The transmission is rotated simultaneously by both engine and electric motor. This then drives the wheels.

Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV):

The PHEVs are also known as series hybrids. They have both engine and a motor. You can choose among the fuels, conventional fuel (such as petrol) or alternative fuel (such as bio-diesel). It can also be powered by a rechargeable battery pack. The battery can be charged externally.

Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle(FCEV):

FCEVs are also known as Zero-Emission Vehicles. They employ ‘fuel cell technology’ to generate the electricity required to run the vehicle. The chemical energy of the fuel is converted directly into electric energy.

https://e-amrit.niti.gov.in/types-of-electric-vehicles

Solution: C

All the statements given above are correct.

Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs)

Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV):

Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV):

Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle(FCEV):

https://e-amrit.niti.gov.in/types-of-electric-vehicles

• Question 16 of 25 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about minimum wages. The Central Government determines floor wages considering living standards, allowing for regional variations. State-set minimum wages may not exceed the floor wage and can be set below it. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: India’s Minimum Wage Policy under the Code of Wages Act 2019 aims to modernize outdated labour laws, ensuring transparent and accountable regulations. It universalizes minimum wage provisions for all sectors, guaranteeing timely payment and the “Right to Sustenance” for workers. The Central Government determines floor wages considering living standards, allowing for regional variations. State-set minimum wages must exceed the floor wage. The Code introduces the concept of floor wage, preventing states from setting wages below this baseline. However, concerns arise regarding potential capital flight due to regional wage disparities. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: India’s Minimum Wage Policy under the Code of Wages Act 2019 aims to modernize outdated labour laws, ensuring transparent and accountable regulations. It universalizes minimum wage provisions for all sectors, guaranteeing timely payment and the “Right to Sustenance” for workers. The Central Government determines floor wages considering living standards, allowing for regional variations. State-set minimum wages must exceed the floor wage. The Code introduces the concept of floor wage, preventing states from setting wages below this baseline. However, concerns arise regarding potential capital flight due to regional wage disparities. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements about minimum wages.

• The Central Government determines floor wages considering living standards, allowing for regional variations.

• State-set minimum wages may not exceed the floor wage and can be set below it.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: a)

Justification: India’s Minimum Wage Policy under the Code of Wages Act 2019 aims to modernize outdated labour laws, ensuring transparent and accountable regulations. It universalizes minimum wage provisions for all sectors, guaranteeing timely payment and the “Right to Sustenance” for workers.

The Central Government determines floor wages considering living standards, allowing for regional variations. State-set minimum wages must exceed the floor wage.

The Code introduces the concept of floor wage, preventing states from setting wages below this baseline. However, concerns arise regarding potential capital flight due to regional wage disparities.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/

Solution: a)

The Central Government determines floor wages considering living standards, allowing for regional variations. State-set minimum wages must exceed the floor wage.

The Code introduces the concept of floor wage, preventing states from setting wages below this baseline. However, concerns arise regarding potential capital flight due to regional wage disparities.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/

• Question 17 of 25 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about HEPS (High Energy Photon Source) and related issues. Synchrotrons use electricity to generate intense beams of light, much brighter than the sun. India has previously developed its own synchrotron. HEPS is recognized as the brightest synchrotron X-ray source in Asia. How many of the above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Justification: Synchrotrons use electricity to generate intense beams of light, over a million times brighter than the sun. They utilize a multi-bend achromat lattice, a complex array of magnets, to produce narrower and brighter X-ray beams. India previously developed its own synchrotron, Indus-1. India is an associate member of the European Synchrotron Radiation Facility (ESRF) in Grenoble, France. China is set to become the first country in Asia with a fourth-generation synchrotron light source with the completion of the High Energy Photon Source (HEPS). This advanced facility will produce some of the world’s brightest X-rays, significantly enhancing research capabilities across various scientific fields. HEPS will accelerate electrons to 6 gigaelectron volts, enabling high-resolution imaging at nanometre scales and facilitating rapid experiments. About HEPS (High Energy Photon Source): HEPS is recognized as the brightest synchrotron X-ray source in Asia. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/ Incorrect Solution: C Justification: Synchrotrons use electricity to generate intense beams of light, over a million times brighter than the sun. They utilize a multi-bend achromat lattice, a complex array of magnets, to produce narrower and brighter X-ray beams. India previously developed its own synchrotron, Indus-1. India is an associate member of the European Synchrotron Radiation Facility (ESRF) in Grenoble, France. China is set to become the first country in Asia with a fourth-generation synchrotron light source with the completion of the High Energy Photon Source (HEPS). This advanced facility will produce some of the world’s brightest X-rays, significantly enhancing research capabilities across various scientific fields. HEPS will accelerate electrons to 6 gigaelectron volts, enabling high-resolution imaging at nanometre scales and facilitating rapid experiments. About HEPS (High Energy Photon Source): HEPS is recognized as the brightest synchrotron X-ray source in Asia. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements about HEPS (High Energy Photon Source) and related issues.

• Synchrotrons use electricity to generate intense beams of light, much brighter than the sun.

• India has previously developed its own synchrotron.

• HEPS is recognized as the brightest synchrotron X-ray source in Asia.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Justification: Synchrotrons use electricity to generate intense beams of light, over a million times brighter than the sun.

They utilize a multi-bend achromat lattice, a complex array of magnets, to produce narrower and brighter X-ray beams.

India previously developed its own synchrotron, Indus-1.

India is an associate member of the European Synchrotron Radiation Facility (ESRF) in Grenoble, France.

China is set to become the first country in Asia with a fourth-generation synchrotron light source with the completion of the High Energy Photon Source (HEPS).

This advanced facility will produce some of the world’s brightest X-rays, significantly enhancing research capabilities across various scientific fields.

HEPS will accelerate electrons to 6 gigaelectron volts, enabling high-resolution imaging at nanometre scales and facilitating rapid experiments.

About HEPS (High Energy Photon Source):

HEPS is recognized as the brightest synchrotron X-ray source in Asia.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/

Solution: C

Justification: Synchrotrons use electricity to generate intense beams of light, over a million times brighter than the sun.

They utilize a multi-bend achromat lattice, a complex array of magnets, to produce narrower and brighter X-ray beams.

India previously developed its own synchrotron, Indus-1.

India is an associate member of the European Synchrotron Radiation Facility (ESRF) in Grenoble, France.

China is set to become the first country in Asia with a fourth-generation synchrotron light source with the completion of the High Energy Photon Source (HEPS).

This advanced facility will produce some of the world’s brightest X-rays, significantly enhancing research capabilities across various scientific fields.

HEPS will accelerate electrons to 6 gigaelectron volts, enabling high-resolution imaging at nanometre scales and facilitating rapid experiments.

About HEPS (High Energy Photon Source):

HEPS is recognized as the brightest synchrotron X-ray source in Asia.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/

• Question 18 of 25 18. Question 1 points The Chabahar Port is strategically significant as it is the only deep-sea port in Iran with direct ocean access. it is part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), linking the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea and northern Europe. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Chabahar Port, located in Iran’s Sistan and Baluchestan province, is strategically significant as the only deep-sea port in Iran with direct ocean access. It is part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), linking the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea and northern Europe. For India, Chabahar Port offers a counterbalance to Pakistan’s Gwadar Port and China’s Belt and Road Initiative, providing access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Challenges in the project’s execution include US sanctions on Iran impacting equipment suppliers and proposed Chinese involvement in Chabahar’s duty-free zone, potentially hindering India’s interests. Chabahar’s strategic importance as a vital trade artery connecting India with Afghanistan and Central Asian countries is underscored, emphasizing its role in regional economic development and stability. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Chabahar Port, located in Iran’s Sistan and Baluchestan province, is strategically significant as the only deep-sea port in Iran with direct ocean access. It is part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), linking the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea and northern Europe. For India, Chabahar Port offers a counterbalance to Pakistan’s Gwadar Port and China’s Belt and Road Initiative, providing access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Challenges in the project’s execution include US sanctions on Iran impacting equipment suppliers and proposed Chinese involvement in Chabahar’s duty-free zone, potentially hindering India’s interests. Chabahar’s strategic importance as a vital trade artery connecting India with Afghanistan and Central Asian countries is underscored, emphasizing its role in regional economic development and stability. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/

#### 18. Question

The Chabahar Port is strategically significant as

• it is the only deep-sea port in Iran with direct ocean access.

• it is part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), linking the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea and northern Europe.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Chabahar Port, located in Iran’s Sistan and Baluchestan province, is strategically significant as the only deep-sea port in Iran with direct ocean access. It is part of the proposed International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), linking the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea and northern Europe.

For India, Chabahar Port offers a counterbalance to Pakistan’s Gwadar Port and China’s Belt and Road Initiative, providing access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Challenges in the project’s execution include US sanctions on Iran impacting equipment suppliers and proposed Chinese involvement in Chabahar’s duty-free zone, potentially hindering India’s interests.

Chabahar’s strategic importance as a vital trade artery connecting India with Afghanistan and Central Asian countries is underscored, emphasizing its role in regional economic development and stability.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-15-may-2024/

• Question 19 of 25 19. Question 1 points Who among the following can be a member of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT)? a) A judge of a High Court b) A retired District Judge or Additional District Judge with a minimum of 10 years of combined experience c) Lawyers with at least 10 years of experience, particularly in litigation related to indirect taxes d) All of the above Correct Solution: d) Justification: Members are appointed for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet. This move aims to expedite the establishment of GSTAT, with plans to commence its operations from July 1. It was established under the Central GST (CGST) Act, 2017, and serves as the Second Appellate Authority for hearing appeals against orders under the CGST Act and State GST Acts. It ensures consistency in resolving GST disputes and operates with a Principal Bench in New Delhi and 31 State benches. The Principal Bench, led by the President, comprises two Technical Members, one from the Centre and one from the State. Eligibility criteria for the members: Must be a judge of the High Court. Alternatively, can be a retired District Judge or Additional District Judge with a minimum of 10 years of combined experience. Lawyers with at least 10 years of experience, particularly in litigation related to indirect taxes. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-may-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Members are appointed for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet. This move aims to expedite the establishment of GSTAT, with plans to commence its operations from July 1. It was established under the Central GST (CGST) Act, 2017, and serves as the Second Appellate Authority for hearing appeals against orders under the CGST Act and State GST Acts. It ensures consistency in resolving GST disputes and operates with a Principal Bench in New Delhi and 31 State benches. The Principal Bench, led by the President, comprises two Technical Members, one from the Centre and one from the State. Eligibility criteria for the members: Must be a judge of the High Court. Alternatively, can be a retired District Judge or Additional District Judge with a minimum of 10 years of combined experience. Lawyers with at least 10 years of experience, particularly in litigation related to indirect taxes. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-may-2024/

#### 19. Question

Who among the following can be a member of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT)?

• a) A judge of a High Court

• b) A retired District Judge or Additional District Judge with a minimum of 10 years of combined experience

• c) Lawyers with at least 10 years of experience, particularly in litigation related to indirect taxes

• d) All of the above

Solution: d)

Justification: Members are appointed for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet.

This move aims to expedite the establishment of GSTAT, with plans to commence its operations from July 1.

It was established under the Central GST (CGST) Act, 2017, and serves as the Second Appellate Authority for hearing appeals against orders under the CGST Act and State GST Acts. It ensures consistency in resolving GST disputes and operates with a Principal Bench in New Delhi and 31 State benches. The Principal Bench, led by the President, comprises two Technical Members, one from the Centre and one from the State.

Eligibility criteria for the members:

• Must be a judge of the High Court.

• Alternatively, can be a retired District Judge or Additional District Judge with a minimum of 10 years of combined experience.

• Lawyers with at least 10 years of experience, particularly in litigation related to indirect taxes.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-may-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification: Members are appointed for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet.

This move aims to expedite the establishment of GSTAT, with plans to commence its operations from July 1.

Eligibility criteria for the members:

• Must be a judge of the High Court.

• Alternatively, can be a retired District Judge or Additional District Judge with a minimum of 10 years of combined experience.

• Lawyers with at least 10 years of experience, particularly in litigation related to indirect taxes.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-may-2024/

• Question 20 of 25 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Volatility Index is a measure, of the amount by which an underlying Index is expected to fluctuate, in the near term. India VIX is a volatility index based on the NIFTY Index Option prices. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Volatility Index is a measure of market’s expectation of volatility over the near term. Volatility is often described as the ‘rate and magnitude of changes in prices’ and in finance often referred to as risk. Volatility Index is a measure, of the amount by which an underlying Index is expected to fluctuate, in the near term, (calculated as annualised volatility, denoted in percentage e.g. 20%) based on the order book of the underlying index options. India VIX is a volatility index based on the NIFTY Index Option prices. From the best bid-ask prices of NIFTY Options contracts, a volatility figure (%) is calculated which indicates the expected market volatility over the next 30 calendar days. (‘VIX’ is a trademark of Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (‘CBOE’) and Standard & Poor’s has granted a license to NSE, with permission from CBOE, to use such mark in the name of the India VIX and for purposes relating to the India VIX.) Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-may-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Volatility Index is a measure of market’s expectation of volatility over the near term. Volatility is often described as the ‘rate and magnitude of changes in prices’ and in finance often referred to as risk. Volatility Index is a measure, of the amount by which an underlying Index is expected to fluctuate, in the near term, (calculated as annualised volatility, denoted in percentage e.g. 20%) based on the order book of the underlying index options. India VIX is a volatility index based on the NIFTY Index Option prices. From the best bid-ask prices of NIFTY Options contracts, a volatility figure (%) is calculated which indicates the expected market volatility over the next 30 calendar days. (‘VIX’ is a trademark of Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (‘CBOE’) and Standard & Poor’s has granted a license to NSE, with permission from CBOE, to use such mark in the name of the India VIX and for purposes relating to the India VIX.) Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-may-2024/

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Volatility Index is a measure, of the amount by which an underlying Index is expected to fluctuate, in the near term.

• India VIX is a volatility index based on the NIFTY Index Option prices.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Volatility Index is a measure of market’s expectation of volatility over the near term. Volatility is often described as the ‘rate and magnitude of changes in prices’ and in finance often referred to as risk. Volatility Index is a measure, of the amount by which an underlying Index is expected to fluctuate, in the near term, (calculated as annualised volatility, denoted in percentage e.g. 20%) based on the order book of the underlying index options.

India VIX is a volatility index based on the NIFTY Index Option prices. From the best bid-ask prices of NIFTY Options contracts, a volatility figure (%) is calculated which indicates the expected market volatility over the next 30 calendar days.

(‘VIX’ is a trademark of Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (‘CBOE’) and Standard & Poor’s has granted a license to NSE, with permission from CBOE, to use such mark in the name of the India VIX and for purposes relating to the India VIX.)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-may-2024/

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-may-2024/

• Question 21 of 25 21. Question 1 points It could be said that the first few years of this current tech boom were fueled by mostly harmless, relatively easy products— websites for sharing your photos, for looking up stuff, for connecting with old friends. And the people who made them were seen as mostly good people. Yet this feel-good perception has slowly and then suddenly disappeared. Users have begun to regard once trusted sites with suspicion over issues of privacy. The same reporters who previously lavished unthinking praise on every new startup now search with equal enthusiasm for scandals and mistakes. Those once harmless social networks, now at a scale unprecedented in human history, no longer look so innocent. The acronym we have for what were once upstarts or underdogs— Facebook to Amazon to Netflix to Google— hints at the now ominous nature of their place in the world, F.A.N.G. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage? A. Tech companies have been rocked by several scandals which has diminished people’s trust in them B. Society overall has become overtly critical of anything which is new and seems unfamiliar C. Power has gotten into the head of tech start-ups who have starting caring two hoots about concerns like privacy D. Data is the new gold, a fact which is being exploited by internet based companies Correct Correct Answer: A Answer Justification : The passage explains that the scandals that have rocked “FANG” has led to vigorous debated on issues like privacy etc. People have started mistrusting Facebook etc because of scandals like Cambridge Analytica. A is thus the most appropriate. Incorrect Correct Answer: A Answer Justification : The passage explains that the scandals that have rocked “FANG” has led to vigorous debated on issues like privacy etc. People have started mistrusting Facebook etc because of scandals like Cambridge Analytica. A is thus the most appropriate.

#### 21. Question

It could be said that the first few years of this current tech boom were fueled by mostly harmless, relatively easy products— websites for sharing your photos, for looking up stuff, for connecting with old friends. And the people who made them were seen as mostly good people.

Yet this feel-good perception has slowly and then suddenly disappeared. Users have begun to regard once trusted sites with suspicion over issues of privacy. The same reporters who previously lavished unthinking praise on every new startup now search with equal enthusiasm for scandals and mistakes. Those once harmless social networks, now at a scale unprecedented in human history, no longer look so innocent. The acronym we have for what were once upstarts or underdogs— Facebook to Amazon to Netflix to Google— hints at the now ominous nature of their place in the world, F.A.N.G.

Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?

• A. Tech companies have been rocked by several scandals which has diminished people’s trust in them

• B. Society overall has become overtly critical of anything which is new and seems unfamiliar

• C. Power has gotten into the head of tech start-ups who have starting caring two hoots about concerns like privacy

• D. Data is the new gold, a fact which is being exploited by internet based companies

Correct Answer: A

Answer Justification :

The passage explains that the scandals that have rocked “FANG” has led to vigorous debated on issues like privacy etc. People have started mistrusting Facebook etc because of scandals like Cambridge Analytica. A is thus the most appropriate.

Correct Answer: A

Answer Justification :

• Question 22 of 25 22. Question 1 points Mrinal invested Rs.(x+500) in two different schemes A and B partially. Find the amount invested in scheme A. Statement I: The amount invested in scheme A and B is 5:4 resp. and the rate of simple interest offered by scheme A and B is 8% and 10% per annum resp. Statement II: After two years, Mrinal received equal amount as interest from both the schemes. A) Only Statement I B) Either I or II C) Both are necessary D) Both are not sufficient Correct Option D) Combining these two Statement I and II, we get (5/9)(x+500)8% 2 = (4/9)(x+500)10% 2 => 80% = 80% Both are not sufficient to answer. Incorrect Option D) Combining these two Statement I and II, we get (5/9)(x+500)8% 2 = (4/9)(x+500)10% 2 => 80% = 80% Both are not sufficient to answer.

#### 22. Question

Mrinal invested Rs.(x+500) in two different schemes A and B partially. Find the amount invested in scheme A.

Statement I: The amount invested in scheme A and B is 5:4 resp. and the rate of simple interest offered by scheme A and B is 8% and 10% per annum resp.

Statement II: After two years, Mrinal received equal amount as interest from both the schemes.

• A) Only Statement I

• B) Either I or II

• C) Both are necessary

• D) Both are not sufficient

Combining these two Statement I and II, we get

(5/9)(x+500)8% 2 = (4/9)(x+500)10% 2

=> 80% = 80%

Both are not sufficient to answer.

Combining these two Statement I and II, we get

(5/9)(x+500)8% 2 = (4/9)(x+500)10% 2

=> 80% = 80%

Both are not sufficient to answer.

• Question 23 of 25 23. Question 1 points A basket contains 4 blue balls, 3 red balls, 4 green balls and 5 green balls. If 4 balls are picked at randomly, then find the probability that 2 are blue and 2 are yellow ? A) 4/91 B) 6/91 C) 3/91 D) 9/96 Correct Option C) required probability=(4C2)(5C2)/(16C4) = (43/21)(54/21)/(16151413)/(4321) =3/91 Incorrect Option C) required probability=(4C2)(5C2)/(16C4) = (43/21)(54/21)/(16151413)/(4321) =3/91

#### 23. Question

A basket contains 4 blue balls, 3 red balls, 4 green balls and 5 green balls. If 4 balls are picked at randomly, then find the probability that 2 are blue and 2 are yellow ?

required probability=(4C2)*(5C2)/(16C4)

= (43/21)(54/21)/(16151413)/(432*1)

required probability=(4C2)*(5C2)/(16C4)

= (43/21)(54/21)/(16151413)/(432*1)

• Question 24 of 25 24. Question 1 points The age of three friends Amar, Akbar and Anthony is (x-8) years, (x+4) years and (x+6) years resp. Find the age of Akbar. Statement I: The average age of Amar and Akbar taken together is (x-17) years less than the average age of Akbar and Anthony taken together. Statement II: The average age of Amar and Akbar taken together is 7 years less than the average age Akbar and Anthony taken together. A) Both are necessary B) Both are not sufficient C) Either I or II D) Only Statement I Correct Option D) From I: [(x-8) + (x+4)]/2 = [(x+4) + (x+6)]/2 – (x-17) => x = 24 Average age of Akbar = 24 + 4 = 28 years This statement alone is sufficient. From II: [(x-8) + (x+4)]/2 = [(x+4) + (x+6)]/2 – 7 This cannot solve the question. Incorrect Option D) From I: [(x-8) + (x+4)]/2 = [(x+4) + (x+6)]/2 – (x-17) => x = 24 Average age of Akbar = 24 + 4 = 28 years This statement alone is sufficient. From II: [(x-8) + (x+4)]/2 = [(x+4) + (x+6)]/2 – 7 This cannot solve the question.

#### 24. Question

The age of three friends Amar, Akbar and Anthony is (x-8) years, (x+4) years and (x+6) years resp. Find the age of Akbar.

Statement I: The average age of Amar and Akbar taken together is (x-17) years less than the average age of Akbar and Anthony taken together.

Statement II: The average age of Amar and Akbar taken together is 7 years less than the average age Akbar and Anthony taken together.

• A) Both are necessary

• B) Both are not sufficient

• C) Either I or II

• D) Only Statement I

From I: [(x-8) + (x+4)]/2 = [(x+4) + (x+6)]/2 – (x-17)

Average age of Akbar = 24 + 4 = 28 years

This statement alone is sufficient.

From II: [(x-8) + (x+4)]/2 = [(x+4) + (x+6)]/2 – 7

This cannot solve the question.

From I: [(x-8) + (x+4)]/2 = [(x+4) + (x+6)]/2 – (x-17)

Average age of Akbar = 24 + 4 = 28 years

This statement alone is sufficient.

From II: [(x-8) + (x+4)]/2 = [(x+4) + (x+6)]/2 – 7

This cannot solve the question.

• Question 25 of 25 25. Question 1 points Twelve persons of a family with three generations go for a picnic. There are three married couples in the family and all the female members are married. For every person in the family either both of their parents or none of their parents are alive. I is mother of J and K is father of I. L is not unmarried person. Both the daughters of M have 2 sons and 2 brothers. N married to O, who is aunt of P. Q and R are cousins of J. S and T both are uncles of Q and P. How is Q related to O? A) Daughter B) Wife C) Son D) Uncle Correct Option C) Both the daughters of M have 2 sons and 2 brothers. Hence, M is wife of K and mother of J. S and T both are uncles of Q and P. Hence, S and T are brothers of I. Hence, Q is son of O. Incorrect Option C) Both the daughters of M have 2 sons and 2 brothers. Hence, M is wife of K and mother of J. S and T both are uncles of Q and P. Hence, S and T are brothers of I. Hence, Q is son of O.

#### 25. Question

Twelve persons of a family with three generations go for a picnic. There are three married couples in the family and all the female members are married. For every person in the family either both of their parents or none of their parents are alive.

I is mother of J and K is father of I. L is not unmarried person. Both the daughters of M have 2 sons and 2 brothers. N married to O, who is aunt of P. Q and R are cousins of J. S and T both are uncles of Q and P.

How is Q related to O?

• A) Daughter

Both the daughters of M have 2 sons and 2 brothers.

Hence, M is wife of K and mother of J.

S and T both are uncles of Q and P.

Hence, S and T are brothers of I.

Hence, Q is son of O.

Both the daughters of M have 2 sons and 2 brothers.

Hence, M is wife of K and mother of J.

S and T both are uncles of Q and P.

Hence, S and T are brothers of I.

Hence, Q is son of O.

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