DAY – 71 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : Ancient & Medieval India Full Syllabus

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Bahmani kingdom: It was founded by Hassan Gangu, who assumed the title Alauddin Hassan Bahman Shah. Their capital was initially at Gulbarga before being shifted to Bidar by Ahmad Shah I. Mahmud Gawan established a madrasa at Bidar modeled on Al-Azhar university of Cairo. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: D All statements are correct. The Bahmani kingdom was founded by Hassan Gangu, who rebelled against the Tughlaq dynasty and established an independent state in the Deccan in 1347 CE. He assumed the title Alauddin Hassan Bahman Shah, claiming descent from the legendary Iranian hero Bahman to legitimize his rule. The capital of the Bahmani kingdom was initially established at Gulbarga (1347-1425 CE) and was later shifted to Bidar in 1425 CE by Ahmad Shah I (r. 1422-1436 CE) due to strategic considerations and healthier climate. This shift also marked a change in architectural styles with greater Persian influence in Bidar. Mahmud Gawan, the prime minister under Muhammad Shah III, established a famous madrasa at Bidar in 1472 CE that was inspired by Al-Azhar University in Cairo. This madrasa had a library with reportedly 3,000 manuscripts and attracted scholars from Persia, Turkey, and Central Asia. Incorrect Answer: D All statements are correct. The Bahmani kingdom was founded by Hassan Gangu, who rebelled against the Tughlaq dynasty and established an independent state in the Deccan in 1347 CE. He assumed the title Alauddin Hassan Bahman Shah, claiming descent from the legendary Iranian hero Bahman to legitimize his rule. The capital of the Bahmani kingdom was initially established at Gulbarga (1347-1425 CE) and was later shifted to Bidar in 1425 CE by Ahmad Shah I (r. 1422-1436 CE) due to strategic considerations and healthier climate. This shift also marked a change in architectural styles with greater Persian influence in Bidar. Mahmud Gawan, the prime minister under Muhammad Shah III, established a famous madrasa at Bidar in 1472 CE that was inspired by Al-Azhar University in Cairo. This madrasa had a library with reportedly 3,000 manuscripts and attracted scholars from Persia, Turkey, and Central Asia.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Bahmani kingdom:

• It was founded by Hassan Gangu, who assumed the title Alauddin Hassan Bahman Shah.

• Their capital was initially at Gulbarga before being shifted to Bidar by Ahmad Shah I.

• Mahmud Gawan established a madrasa at Bidar modeled on Al-Azhar university of Cairo.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: D

All statements are correct.

The Bahmani kingdom was founded by Hassan Gangu, who rebelled against the Tughlaq dynasty and established an independent state in the Deccan in 1347 CE. He assumed the title Alauddin Hassan Bahman Shah, claiming descent from the legendary Iranian hero Bahman to legitimize his rule. The capital of the Bahmani kingdom was initially established at Gulbarga (1347-1425 CE) and was later shifted to Bidar in 1425 CE by Ahmad Shah I (r. 1422-1436 CE) due to strategic considerations and healthier climate. This shift also marked a change in architectural styles with greater Persian influence in Bidar. Mahmud Gawan, the prime minister under Muhammad Shah III, established a famous madrasa at Bidar in 1472 CE that was inspired by Al-Azhar University in Cairo. This madrasa had a library with reportedly 3,000 manuscripts and attracted scholars from Persia, Turkey, and Central Asia.

Answer: D

All statements are correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points How many of the following pairs of medieval rulers and their literary/artistic contributions is/are correctly matched? Ibrahim Adil Shah II – Kitab-i-Nauras Sultan Husain Sharqi – Patron of Hindustani classical music Raja Man Singh of Gwalior – Dhrupad style of music Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah – First to compose poetry in Dakhani Urdu Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: D All pairs are correctly matched. Ibrahim Adil Shah II of Bijapur (r. 1580-1627) composed the Kitab-i-Nauras, a collection of poems and songs dedicated to Saraswati, Ganapati, and other Hindu deities along with Muslim saints. He was known as “Jagat Guru” for his patronage of music, art, and tolerance toward Hinduism. Sultan Husain Sharqi of Jaunpur (r. 1458-1479) was a noted patron of Hindustani classical music. Under his patronage, the Jaunpur Gharana developed which emphasized dhrupad singing. Contemporary texts refer to him as a proficient musician himself who introduced several innovations in North Indian classical music. Raja Man Singh of Gwalior (r. 1486-1516) was a key figure in the development of the Dhrupad style of music. He was a patron of Nayak Bakshu, who systematized Dhrupad, and the classic text Man Kautuhal on music is attributed to him. The Gwalior court became a major center for classical music during his reign. Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the fifth ruler of Golconda (r. 1580-1611) and founder of Hyderabad, was indeed the first to compose poetry in Dakhani Urdu (southern dialect of Urdu). His divan (collection of poems) contains the earliest known Urdu ghazals and established a literary tradition that influenced the development of Urdu literature in the Deccan. Incorrect Answer: D All pairs are correctly matched. Ibrahim Adil Shah II of Bijapur (r. 1580-1627) composed the Kitab-i-Nauras, a collection of poems and songs dedicated to Saraswati, Ganapati, and other Hindu deities along with Muslim saints. He was known as “Jagat Guru” for his patronage of music, art, and tolerance toward Hinduism. Sultan Husain Sharqi of Jaunpur (r. 1458-1479) was a noted patron of Hindustani classical music. Under his patronage, the Jaunpur Gharana developed which emphasized dhrupad singing. Contemporary texts refer to him as a proficient musician himself who introduced several innovations in North Indian classical music. Raja Man Singh of Gwalior (r. 1486-1516) was a key figure in the development of the Dhrupad style of music. He was a patron of Nayak Bakshu, who systematized Dhrupad, and the classic text Man Kautuhal on music is attributed to him. The Gwalior court became a major center for classical music during his reign. Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the fifth ruler of Golconda (r. 1580-1611) and founder of Hyderabad, was indeed the first to compose poetry in Dakhani Urdu (southern dialect of Urdu). His divan (collection of poems) contains the earliest known Urdu ghazals and established a literary tradition that influenced the development of Urdu literature in the Deccan.

#### 2. Question

How many of the following pairs of medieval rulers and their literary/artistic contributions is/are correctly matched?

• Ibrahim Adil Shah II – Kitab-i-Nauras

• Sultan Husain Sharqi – Patron of Hindustani classical music

• Raja Man Singh of Gwalior – Dhrupad style of music

• Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah – First to compose poetry in Dakhani Urdu

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: D

All pairs are correctly matched.

Ibrahim Adil Shah II of Bijapur (r. 1580-1627) composed the Kitab-i-Nauras, a collection of poems and songs dedicated to Saraswati, Ganapati, and other Hindu deities along with Muslim saints. He was known as “Jagat Guru” for his patronage of music, art, and tolerance toward Hinduism.

Sultan Husain Sharqi of Jaunpur (r. 1458-1479) was a noted patron of Hindustani classical music. Under his patronage, the Jaunpur Gharana developed which emphasized dhrupad singing. Contemporary texts refer to him as a proficient musician himself who introduced several innovations in North Indian classical music.

Raja Man Singh of Gwalior (r. 1486-1516) was a key figure in the development of the Dhrupad style of music. He was a patron of Nayak Bakshu, who systematized Dhrupad, and the classic text Man Kautuhal on music is attributed to him. The Gwalior court became a major center for classical music during his reign.

Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the fifth ruler of Golconda (r. 1580-1611) and founder of Hyderabad, was indeed the first to compose poetry in Dakhani Urdu (southern dialect of Urdu). His divan (collection of poems) contains the earliest known Urdu ghazals and established a literary tradition that influenced the development of Urdu literature in the Deccan.

Answer: D

All pairs are correctly matched.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which of the following methods of land assessment and revenue collection existed during the Delhi Sultanate period? Ghalla-bakshi – Crop-sharing system where state claimed a share of the actual produce Wazifa – Fixed amount assessed on a region regardless of actual cultivation Kankut – Estimation of crop yield before harvest for revenue assessment Nasaq – Assessment based on the average yield of different crops over a period of time Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: D All statements are correct. Ghalla-bakshi was a crop-sharing system where the state claimed a share of the actual harvested produce, typically one-third to one-half depending on soil fertility and irrigation facilities. This system was practiced particularly during the early Sultanate period and was considered fairer during times of crop failures as the risk was shared between the peasant and the state. Wazifa (also known as Muqta’i) was a fixed amount assessed on a region regardless of the actual cultivation. Under this system, the region was assigned a lump sum revenue amount, which the muqta (governor/assignee) had to collect regardless of agricultural conditions. It was particularly prevalent during the early Sultanate and Khalji periods. Kankut involved the estimation of crop yield before harvest for revenue assessment. Officials would inspect the standing crop and make an estimation (kan = grain, kut = assessment) of the expected yield, based on which revenue was determined. This method was widely used during the Sultanate period as it allowed for quicker revenue collection. Nasaq was a system of assessment based on the average yield of different crops over a period of time (usually 3-10 years). This method was introduced during the later Sultanate period and became more systematized under the Mughals. It considered past production records to establish a reasonable average revenue expectation. Incorrect Answer: D All statements are correct. Ghalla-bakshi was a crop-sharing system where the state claimed a share of the actual harvested produce, typically one-third to one-half depending on soil fertility and irrigation facilities. This system was practiced particularly during the early Sultanate period and was considered fairer during times of crop failures as the risk was shared between the peasant and the state. Wazifa (also known as Muqta’i) was a fixed amount assessed on a region regardless of the actual cultivation. Under this system, the region was assigned a lump sum revenue amount, which the muqta (governor/assignee) had to collect regardless of agricultural conditions. It was particularly prevalent during the early Sultanate and Khalji periods. Kankut involved the estimation of crop yield before harvest for revenue assessment. Officials would inspect the standing crop and make an estimation (kan = grain, kut = assessment) of the expected yield, based on which revenue was determined. This method was widely used during the Sultanate period as it allowed for quicker revenue collection. Nasaq was a system of assessment based on the average yield of different crops over a period of time (usually 3-10 years). This method was introduced during the later Sultanate period and became more systematized under the Mughals. It considered past production records to establish a reasonable average revenue expectation.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following methods of land assessment and revenue collection existed during the Delhi Sultanate period?

• Ghalla-bakshi – Crop-sharing system where state claimed a share of the actual produce

• Wazifa – Fixed amount assessed on a region regardless of actual cultivation

• Kankut – Estimation of crop yield before harvest for revenue assessment

• Nasaq – Assessment based on the average yield of different crops over a period of time

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

All statements are correct.

Ghalla-bakshi was a crop-sharing system where the state claimed a share of the actual harvested produce, typically one-third to one-half depending on soil fertility and irrigation facilities. This system was practiced particularly during the early Sultanate period and was considered fairer during times of crop failures as the risk was shared between the peasant and the state.

Wazifa (also known as Muqta’i) was a fixed amount assessed on a region regardless of the actual cultivation. Under this system, the region was assigned a lump sum revenue amount, which the muqta (governor/assignee) had to collect regardless of agricultural conditions. It was particularly prevalent during the early Sultanate and Khalji periods.

Kankut involved the estimation of crop yield before harvest for revenue assessment. Officials would inspect the standing crop and make an estimation (kan = grain, kut = assessment) of the expected yield, based on which revenue was determined. This method was widely used during the Sultanate period as it allowed for quicker revenue collection.

Nasaq was a system of assessment based on the average yield of different crops over a period of time (usually 3-10 years). This method was introduced during the later Sultanate period and became more systematized under the Mughals. It considered past production records to establish a reasonable average revenue expectation.

Answer: D

All statements are correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Archaeological site : Important finding Kaveripoompattinam : Roman amphorae and Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions Sannati : Major Ashokan rock edict Adichanallur : Iron age burial site with bronze figurines Pattanam : Evidence of Indo-Roman trade and Chinese pottery How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: D All pairs are correctly matched. Kaveripoompattinam (ancient Poompuhar) in Tamil Nadu has yielded significant archaeological evidence including Roman amphorae (wine containers), Rouletted Ware pottery, and Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions dating to the late centuries BCE and early centuries CE, confirming its role as a major port city mentioned in Sangam literature. Sannati in Karnataka is notable for the discovery of a major Ashokan rock edict (a complete version of a Major Rock Edict) in 1989. This is significant because it’s the only Ashokan Major Rock Edict found in present-day Karnataka and includes inscriptions in Prakrit with Brahmi script. Adichanallur in Tamil Nadu is an important Iron Age burial site where excavations have revealed urn burials containing human remains along with iron implements and distinctive bronze figurines. Carbon dating has established its antiquity to around 905-696 BCE. Pattanam in Kerala (identified by many scholars as ancient Muziris) has yielded extensive evidence of Indo-Roman trade including Roman amphorae, Mesopotamian pottery, West Asian glass, gold ornaments, and significantly, Chinese pottery-establishing it as a crucial link in maritime networks extending from Rome to China during the 1st century BCE to 5th century CE. Incorrect Answer: D All pairs are correctly matched. Kaveripoompattinam (ancient Poompuhar) in Tamil Nadu has yielded significant archaeological evidence including Roman amphorae (wine containers), Rouletted Ware pottery, and Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions dating to the late centuries BCE and early centuries CE, confirming its role as a major port city mentioned in Sangam literature. Sannati in Karnataka is notable for the discovery of a major Ashokan rock edict (a complete version of a Major Rock Edict) in 1989. This is significant because it’s the only Ashokan Major Rock Edict found in present-day Karnataka and includes inscriptions in Prakrit with Brahmi script. Adichanallur in Tamil Nadu is an important Iron Age burial site where excavations have revealed urn burials containing human remains along with iron implements and distinctive bronze figurines. Carbon dating has established its antiquity to around 905-696 BCE. Pattanam in Kerala (identified by many scholars as ancient Muziris) has yielded extensive evidence of Indo-Roman trade including Roman amphorae, Mesopotamian pottery, West Asian glass, gold ornaments, and significantly, Chinese pottery-establishing it as a crucial link in maritime networks extending from Rome to China during the 1st century BCE to 5th century CE.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Archaeological site : Important finding

• Kaveripoompattinam : Roman amphorae and Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions

• Sannati : Major Ashokan rock edict

• Adichanallur : Iron age burial site with bronze figurines

• Pattanam : Evidence of Indo-Roman trade and Chinese pottery

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: D

All pairs are correctly matched.

Kaveripoompattinam (ancient Poompuhar) in Tamil Nadu has yielded significant archaeological evidence including Roman amphorae (wine containers), Rouletted Ware pottery, and Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions dating to the late centuries BCE and early centuries CE, confirming its role as a major port city mentioned in Sangam literature.

Sannati in Karnataka is notable for the discovery of a major Ashokan rock edict (a complete version of a Major Rock Edict) in 1989. This is significant because it’s the only Ashokan Major Rock Edict found in present-day Karnataka and includes inscriptions in Prakrit with Brahmi script.

Adichanallur in Tamil Nadu is an important Iron Age burial site where excavations have revealed urn burials containing human remains along with iron implements and distinctive bronze figurines. Carbon dating has established its antiquity to around 905-696 BCE.

Pattanam in Kerala (identified by many scholars as ancient Muziris) has yielded extensive evidence of Indo-Roman trade including Roman amphorae, Mesopotamian pottery, West Asian glass, gold ornaments, and significantly, Chinese pottery-establishing it as a crucial link in maritime networks extending from Rome to China during the 1st century BCE to 5th century CE.

Answer: D

All pairs are correctly matched.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the religious developments in ancient India: The Vajrayana tradition emerged within Mahayana Buddhism and incorporated tantric practices and esoteric rituals. The Bhagavata cult centered on the worship of Vasudeva Krishna originated independently of Vedic traditions. The concept of Trimurti-synthesizing Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva-first appears in the Markandeya Purana. The Alvars and Nayanars were both associated with the Bhakti movement in Tamil Nadu, but revered different deities. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: A Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Vajrayana Buddhism emerged within the Mahayana tradition around the 6th-7th centuries CE, incorporating tantric practices, mantras, mandalas, and esoteric rituals. It developed elaborate initiatory practices and the concept of achieving enlightenment in a single lifetime. The Bhagavata cult centered on Vasudeva Krishna did originate independently of Vedic traditions, as evidenced by Panini’s reference to “Vasudevaka” (devotee of Vasudeva) in the 5th-4th century BCE, and Megasthenes’ mention of “Herakles” (identified as Krishna) worship. This cult was initially non-Brahmanical before being integrated into Brahmanical traditions. The Alvars (Vaishnavite) and Nayanars (Shaivite) were both groups of Tamil poet-saints associated with the Bhakti movement in Tamil Nadu (6th-9th centuries CE) but revered different deities-Alvars were devoted to Vishnu and his avatars, while Nayanars were devoted to Shiva. Statement 3 is incorrect. The concept of Trimurti (Brahma as creator, Vishnu as preserver, and Shiva as destroyer) first appears prominently in the Maitri Upanishad and is elaborated in the Puranas, particularly the Vishnu Purana and Shiva Purana, not specifically in the Markandeya Purana. The Markandeya Purana is more famous for containing the Devi Mahatmya, which glorifies the supreme goddess. Incorrect Answer: A Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Vajrayana Buddhism emerged within the Mahayana tradition around the 6th-7th centuries CE, incorporating tantric practices, mantras, mandalas, and esoteric rituals. It developed elaborate initiatory practices and the concept of achieving enlightenment in a single lifetime. The Bhagavata cult centered on Vasudeva Krishna did originate independently of Vedic traditions, as evidenced by Panini’s reference to “Vasudevaka” (devotee of Vasudeva) in the 5th-4th century BCE, and Megasthenes’ mention of “Herakles” (identified as Krishna) worship. This cult was initially non-Brahmanical before being integrated into Brahmanical traditions. The Alvars (Vaishnavite) and Nayanars (Shaivite) were both groups of Tamil poet-saints associated with the Bhakti movement in Tamil Nadu (6th-9th centuries CE) but revered different deities-Alvars were devoted to Vishnu and his avatars, while Nayanars were devoted to Shiva. Statement 3 is incorrect. The concept of Trimurti (Brahma as creator, Vishnu as preserver, and Shiva as destroyer) first appears prominently in the Maitri Upanishad and is elaborated in the Puranas, particularly the Vishnu Purana and Shiva Purana, not specifically in the Markandeya Purana. The Markandeya Purana is more famous for containing the Devi Mahatmya, which glorifies the supreme goddess.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the religious developments in ancient India:

• The Vajrayana tradition emerged within Mahayana Buddhism and incorporated tantric practices and esoteric rituals.

• The Bhagavata cult centered on the worship of Vasudeva Krishna originated independently of Vedic traditions.

• The concept of Trimurti-synthesizing Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva-first appears in the Markandeya Purana.

• The Alvars and Nayanars were both associated with the Bhakti movement in Tamil Nadu, but revered different deities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Vajrayana Buddhism emerged within the Mahayana tradition around the 6th-7th centuries CE, incorporating tantric practices, mantras, mandalas, and esoteric rituals. It developed elaborate initiatory practices and the concept of achieving enlightenment in a single lifetime.

The Bhagavata cult centered on Vasudeva Krishna did originate independently of Vedic traditions, as evidenced by Panini’s reference to “Vasudevaka” (devotee of Vasudeva) in the 5th-4th century BCE, and Megasthenes’ mention of “Herakles” (identified as Krishna) worship. This cult was initially non-Brahmanical before being integrated into Brahmanical traditions.

The Alvars (Vaishnavite) and Nayanars (Shaivite) were both groups of Tamil poet-saints associated with the Bhakti movement in Tamil Nadu (6th-9th centuries CE) but revered different deities-Alvars were devoted to Vishnu and his avatars, while Nayanars were devoted to Shiva.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The concept of Trimurti (Brahma as creator, Vishnu as preserver, and Shiva as destroyer) first appears prominently in the Maitri Upanishad and is elaborated in the Puranas, particularly the Vishnu Purana and Shiva Purana, not specifically in the Markandeya Purana. The Markandeya Purana is more famous for containing the Devi Mahatmya, which glorifies the supreme goddess.

Answer: A

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points How many of the following ancient Indian texts is/are correctly matched with its subject? Panchasiddhantika – Astronomy Brihad-dharma Purana – Vaishnavite religious traditions Ashtangasamgraha – Medicine Vayupurana – Shaivite traditions Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: (c) Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Panchasiddhantika, written by Varahamihira in the 6th century CE, is an astronomical text that summarizes five earlier astronomical treatises: Surya Siddhanta, Romaka Siddhanta, Paulisa Siddhanta, Vasishtha Siddhanta, and Paitamaha Siddhanta. It represents an important compilation of ancient Indian astronomical knowledge. Ashtangasamgraha is a foundational text of Ayurveda (traditional Indian medicine) attributed to Vagbhata (c. 6th century CE). It covers eight branches of Ayurveda and systematically presents medical knowledge on diagnosis, treatment, pharmaceuticals, and surgery. Vayupurana is one of the eighteen Mahapuranas and is primarily dedicated to the glorification of Shiva, containing details of Shaivite cosmology, philosophy, and worship practices. Statement 2 is incorrectly matched. The Brihad-dharma Purana is not primarily focused on Vaishnavite traditions but is a Shakta text that mainly glorifies the goddess Durga and other feminine deities. It contains sections on rituals, cosmology, and religious practices associated with goddess worship, particularly popular in eastern India (Bengal region). The Vaishnava Puranas are texts like the Vishnu Purana, Bhagavata Purana, and Padma Purana that focus on Vishnu and his avatars. Incorrect Answer: (c) Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Panchasiddhantika, written by Varahamihira in the 6th century CE, is an astronomical text that summarizes five earlier astronomical treatises: Surya Siddhanta, Romaka Siddhanta, Paulisa Siddhanta, Vasishtha Siddhanta, and Paitamaha Siddhanta. It represents an important compilation of ancient Indian astronomical knowledge. Ashtangasamgraha is a foundational text of Ayurveda (traditional Indian medicine) attributed to Vagbhata (c. 6th century CE). It covers eight branches of Ayurveda and systematically presents medical knowledge on diagnosis, treatment, pharmaceuticals, and surgery. Vayupurana is one of the eighteen Mahapuranas and is primarily dedicated to the glorification of Shiva, containing details of Shaivite cosmology, philosophy, and worship practices. Statement 2 is incorrectly matched. The Brihad-dharma Purana is not primarily focused on Vaishnavite traditions but is a Shakta text that mainly glorifies the goddess Durga and other feminine deities. It contains sections on rituals, cosmology, and religious practices associated with goddess worship, particularly popular in eastern India (Bengal region). The Vaishnava Puranas are texts like the Vishnu Purana, Bhagavata Purana, and Padma Purana that focus on Vishnu and his avatars.

#### 6. Question

How many of the following ancient Indian texts is/are correctly matched with its subject?

• Panchasiddhantika – Astronomy

• Brihad-dharma Purana – Vaishnavite religious traditions

• Ashtangasamgraha – Medicine

• Vayupurana – Shaivite traditions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: (c)

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Panchasiddhantika, written by Varahamihira in the 6th century CE, is an astronomical text that summarizes five earlier astronomical treatises: Surya Siddhanta, Romaka Siddhanta, Paulisa Siddhanta, Vasishtha Siddhanta, and Paitamaha Siddhanta. It represents an important compilation of ancient Indian astronomical knowledge.

Ashtangasamgraha is a foundational text of Ayurveda (traditional Indian medicine) attributed to Vagbhata (c. 6th century CE). It covers eight branches of Ayurveda and systematically presents medical knowledge on diagnosis, treatment, pharmaceuticals, and surgery.

Vayupurana is one of the eighteen Mahapuranas and is primarily dedicated to the glorification of Shiva, containing details of Shaivite cosmology, philosophy, and worship practices.

Statement 2 is incorrectly matched.

The Brihad-dharma Purana is not primarily focused on Vaishnavite traditions but is a Shakta text that mainly glorifies the goddess Durga and other feminine deities. It contains sections on rituals, cosmology, and religious practices associated with goddess worship, particularly popular in eastern India (Bengal region). The Vaishnava Puranas are texts like the Vishnu Purana, Bhagavata Purana, and Padma Purana that focus on Vishnu and his avatars.

Answer: (c)

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Vayupurana is one of the eighteen Mahapuranas and is primarily dedicated to the glorification of Shiva, containing details of Shaivite cosmology, philosophy, and worship practices.

Statement 2 is incorrectly matched.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Chola temple architecture: The Brihadisvara temple at Thanjavur, built by Raja Raja Chola I, has one of the tallest vimanas in South India. Chola bronzes were created using the lost-wax process and often depicted Shiva as Nataraja. The Airavatesvara temple at Darasuram features miniature shrines carved along the plinth in imitation of the main shrine. Unlike North Indian temples, Chola temples rarely incorporated mandapas as part of their structural design. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: A Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Brihadisvara temple at Thanjavur, built by Raja Raja Chola I (c. 1010 CE), indeed features one of the tallest vimanas (temple towers) in South India, reaching approximately 66 meters in height with a massive monolithic granite cupola weighing about 80 tons. Chola bronzes were created using the lost-wax (cire perdue) process, a sophisticated metal-casting technique, and the dancing form of Shiva as Nataraja became an iconic representation during this period, symbolizing the cosmic dance of creation and destruction. The Airavatesvara temple at Darasuram, built by Rajaraja Chola II in the 12th century CE, features miniature shrines carved along its plinth, replicating the main shrine’s design in smaller scale-a characteristic known as “miniature shrine replication.” Statement 4 is incorrect. Chola temples extensively incorporated mandapas (pillared halls) as integral components of their architectural design. These included ardha-mandapas (entrance porches), maha-mandapas (great halls), mukha-mandapas (front halls), and nritta-mandapas (dance halls). The Brihadisvara temple complex at Thanjavur contains multiple elaborate mandapas, and mandapas became increasingly prominent and ornate in later Chola temples like those at Gangaikondacholapuram and Darasuram. Incorrect Answer: A Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Brihadisvara temple at Thanjavur, built by Raja Raja Chola I (c. 1010 CE), indeed features one of the tallest vimanas (temple towers) in South India, reaching approximately 66 meters in height with a massive monolithic granite cupola weighing about 80 tons. Chola bronzes were created using the lost-wax (cire perdue) process, a sophisticated metal-casting technique, and the dancing form of Shiva as Nataraja became an iconic representation during this period, symbolizing the cosmic dance of creation and destruction. The Airavatesvara temple at Darasuram, built by Rajaraja Chola II in the 12th century CE, features miniature shrines carved along its plinth, replicating the main shrine’s design in smaller scale-a characteristic known as “miniature shrine replication.” Statement 4 is incorrect. Chola temples extensively incorporated mandapas (pillared halls) as integral components of their architectural design. These included ardha-mandapas (entrance porches), maha-mandapas (great halls), mukha-mandapas (front halls), and nritta-mandapas (dance halls). The Brihadisvara temple complex at Thanjavur contains multiple elaborate mandapas, and mandapas became increasingly prominent and ornate in later Chola temples like those at Gangaikondacholapuram and Darasuram.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the Chola temple architecture:

• The Brihadisvara temple at Thanjavur, built by Raja Raja Chola I, has one of the tallest vimanas in South India.

• Chola bronzes were created using the lost-wax process and often depicted Shiva as Nataraja.

• The Airavatesvara temple at Darasuram features miniature shrines carved along the plinth in imitation of the main shrine.

• Unlike North Indian temples, Chola temples rarely incorporated mandapas as part of their structural design.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

The Brihadisvara temple at Thanjavur, built by Raja Raja Chola I (c. 1010 CE), indeed features one of the tallest vimanas (temple towers) in South India, reaching approximately 66 meters in height with a massive monolithic granite cupola weighing about 80 tons. Chola bronzes were created using the lost-wax (cire perdue) process, a sophisticated metal-casting technique, and the dancing form of Shiva as Nataraja became an iconic representation during this period, symbolizing the cosmic dance of creation and destruction. The Airavatesvara temple at Darasuram, built by Rajaraja Chola II in the 12th century CE, features miniature shrines carved along its plinth, replicating the main shrine’s design in smaller scale-a characteristic known as “miniature shrine replication.”

Statement 4 is incorrect.

Chola temples extensively incorporated mandapas (pillared halls) as integral components of their architectural design. These included ardha-mandapas (entrance porches), maha-mandapas (great halls), mukha-mandapas (front halls), and nritta-mandapas (dance halls). The Brihadisvara temple complex at Thanjavur contains multiple elaborate mandapas, and mandapas became increasingly prominent and ornate in later Chola temples like those at Gangaikondacholapuram and Darasuram.

Answer: A

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points In the context of ancient Indian literature, how many of the following works can be attributed to Kalidasa? Ritusamhara Kiratarjuniya Raghuvamsa Buddhacharita Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: B Options 1 and 3 are correctly attributed to Kalidasa. Ritusamhara (The Gathering of Seasons) is a lyrical poem in six cantos describing the six seasons of the Indian year and their effects on human emotions. While some scholars have questioned its authorship, it is traditionally attributed to Kalidasa and is considered one of his earlier works. Raghuvamsa (Dynasty of Raghu) is a mahakavya that traces the lineage of Lord Rama’s dynasty, focusing on the lives of kings in the Ikshvaku/Solar dynasty. It is widely accepted as one of Kalidasa’s major works. Option 2, Kiratarjuniya, is incorrectly attributed to Kalidasa. This mahakavya, describing the encounter between Arjuna and Lord Shiva disguised as a Kirata (hunter), was composed by Bharavi, likely in the 6th century CE. Option 4, Buddhacharita (Acts of the Buddha), is also incorrectly attributed to Kalidasa. This epic poem on the life of Buddha was composed by Ashvaghosa in the 1st-2nd century CE. Kalidasa is definitively attributed with seven works: three plays (Malavikagnimitra, Vikramorvasiya, and Abhijnanasakuntala), two epic poems (Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava), and two lyric poems (Meghaduta and, traditionally, Ritusamhara). Incorrect Answer: B Options 1 and 3 are correctly attributed to Kalidasa. Ritusamhara (The Gathering of Seasons) is a lyrical poem in six cantos describing the six seasons of the Indian year and their effects on human emotions. While some scholars have questioned its authorship, it is traditionally attributed to Kalidasa and is considered one of his earlier works. Raghuvamsa (Dynasty of Raghu) is a mahakavya that traces the lineage of Lord Rama’s dynasty, focusing on the lives of kings in the Ikshvaku/Solar dynasty. It is widely accepted as one of Kalidasa’s major works. Option 2, Kiratarjuniya, is incorrectly attributed to Kalidasa. This mahakavya, describing the encounter between Arjuna and Lord Shiva disguised as a Kirata (hunter), was composed by Bharavi, likely in the 6th century CE. Option 4, Buddhacharita (Acts of the Buddha), is also incorrectly attributed to Kalidasa. This epic poem on the life of Buddha was composed by Ashvaghosa in the 1st-2nd century CE. Kalidasa is definitively attributed with seven works: three plays (Malavikagnimitra, Vikramorvasiya, and Abhijnanasakuntala), two epic poems (Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava), and two lyric poems (Meghaduta and, traditionally, Ritusamhara).

#### 8. Question

In the context of ancient Indian literature, how many of the following works can be attributed to Kalidasa?

• Ritusamhara

• Kiratarjuniya

• Raghuvamsa

• Buddhacharita

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: B

Options 1 and 3 are correctly attributed to Kalidasa.

Ritusamhara (The Gathering of Seasons) is a lyrical poem in six cantos describing the six seasons of the Indian year and their effects on human emotions. While some scholars have questioned its authorship, it is traditionally attributed to Kalidasa and is considered one of his earlier works.

Raghuvamsa (Dynasty of Raghu) is a mahakavya that traces the lineage of Lord Rama’s dynasty, focusing on the lives of kings in the Ikshvaku/Solar dynasty. It is widely accepted as one of Kalidasa’s major works.

Option 2, Kiratarjuniya, is incorrectly attributed to Kalidasa. This mahakavya, describing the encounter between Arjuna and Lord Shiva disguised as a Kirata (hunter), was composed by Bharavi, likely in the 6th century CE.

Option 4, Buddhacharita (Acts of the Buddha), is also incorrectly attributed to Kalidasa. This epic poem on the life of Buddha was composed by Ashvaghosa in the 1st-2nd century CE.

Kalidasa is definitively attributed with seven works: three plays (Malavikagnimitra, Vikramorvasiya, and Abhijnanasakuntala), two epic poems (Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava), and two lyric poems (Meghaduta and, traditionally, Ritusamhara).

Answer: B

Options 1 and 3 are correctly attributed to Kalidasa.

Option 4, Buddhacharita (Acts of the Buddha), is also incorrectly attributed to Kalidasa. This epic poem on the life of Buddha was composed by Ashvaghosa in the 1st-2nd century CE.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Neolithic phase in the Indian subcontinent: The earliest evidence of Neolithic culture in India comes from Mehrgarh in present-day Pakistan. Burzahom and Gufkral in Kashmir show evidence of dwelling pits and the use of polished stone tools. The Southern Neolithic complex is characterized by ashmounds containing cattle dung ash and hand-made grey pottery. The Eastern Neolithic sites show strong cultural similarities with Southeast Asian Neolithic traditions. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: D Statement 1 is correct. The earliest evidence of Neolithic culture in the Indian subcontinent indeed comes from Mehrgarh in Baluchistan (present-day Pakistan), dating back to c. 7000 BCE. This site shows a gradual transition from hunting-gathering to early farming and herding. Statement 2 is correct. Burzahom and Gufkral in Kashmir Valley are characterized by pit dwellings (likely as adaptation to cold climate), polished stone tools, and bone tools. These sites date to c. 3000-1500 BCE and represent a distinct Neolithic tradition in the northwestern region. Statement 3 is correct. The Southern Neolithic complex (c. 3000-1000 BCE), found in parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu, is characterized by distinctive ashmounds containing cattle dung ash, suggesting a ritual or cultural practice related to cattle. Hand-made grey pottery is also characteristic of this cultural complex. Statement 4 is correct. The Eastern Neolithic sites in regions like Assam, Meghalaya, and Nagaland show strong cultural similarities with Southeast Asian Neolithic traditions, including cord-impressed pottery, stone adzes, and similar agricultural practices. This suggests cultural connections and possibly population movements between Northeast India and Southeast Asia during the Neolithic period. Incorrect Answer: D Statement 1 is correct. The earliest evidence of Neolithic culture in the Indian subcontinent indeed comes from Mehrgarh in Baluchistan (present-day Pakistan), dating back to c. 7000 BCE. This site shows a gradual transition from hunting-gathering to early farming and herding. Statement 2 is correct. Burzahom and Gufkral in Kashmir Valley are characterized by pit dwellings (likely as adaptation to cold climate), polished stone tools, and bone tools. These sites date to c. 3000-1500 BCE and represent a distinct Neolithic tradition in the northwestern region. Statement 3 is correct. The Southern Neolithic complex (c. 3000-1000 BCE), found in parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu, is characterized by distinctive ashmounds containing cattle dung ash, suggesting a ritual or cultural practice related to cattle. Hand-made grey pottery is also characteristic of this cultural complex. Statement 4 is correct. The Eastern Neolithic sites in regions like Assam, Meghalaya, and Nagaland show strong cultural similarities with Southeast Asian Neolithic traditions, including cord-impressed pottery, stone adzes, and similar agricultural practices. This suggests cultural connections and possibly population movements between Northeast India and Southeast Asia during the Neolithic period.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the Neolithic phase in the Indian subcontinent:

• The earliest evidence of Neolithic culture in India comes from Mehrgarh in present-day Pakistan.

• Burzahom and Gufkral in Kashmir show evidence of dwelling pits and the use of polished stone tools.

• The Southern Neolithic complex is characterized by ashmounds containing cattle dung ash and hand-made grey pottery.

• The Eastern Neolithic sites show strong cultural similarities with Southeast Asian Neolithic traditions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: D

Statement 1 is correct.

The earliest evidence of Neolithic culture in the Indian subcontinent indeed comes from Mehrgarh in Baluchistan (present-day Pakistan), dating back to c. 7000 BCE. This site shows a gradual transition from hunting-gathering to early farming and herding.

Statement 2 is correct.

Burzahom and Gufkral in Kashmir Valley are characterized by pit dwellings (likely as adaptation to cold climate), polished stone tools, and bone tools. These sites date to c. 3000-1500 BCE and represent a distinct Neolithic tradition in the northwestern region.

Statement 3 is correct.

The Southern Neolithic complex (c. 3000-1000 BCE), found in parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu, is characterized by distinctive ashmounds containing cattle dung ash, suggesting a ritual or cultural practice related to cattle. Hand-made grey pottery is also characteristic of this cultural complex.

Statement 4 is correct.

The Eastern Neolithic sites in regions like Assam, Meghalaya, and Nagaland show strong cultural similarities with Southeast Asian Neolithic traditions, including cord-impressed pottery, stone adzes, and similar agricultural practices. This suggests cultural connections and possibly population movements between Northeast India and Southeast Asia during the Neolithic period.

Answer: D

Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is correct.

Statement 3 is correct.

Statement 4 is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points In the context of ancient Indian trade networks, which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Barygaza – Modern-day Bharuch Muziris – Modern-day Kodungallur Arikamedu – Modern-day Pondicherry Tamralipti – Modern-day Tamluk Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: D All the pairs are correctly matched. Barygaza, mentioned in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea as a major trading port on the western coast of India, corresponds to modern-day Bharuch in Gujarat. Archaeological excavations and literary evidence confirm its importance in Indo-Roman trade. Muziris, another significant port mentioned in ancient Greco-Roman accounts and the Tamil Sangam literature, is identified with modern-day Kodungallur (or Cranganore) in Kerala. Recent archaeological excavations at Pattanam near Kodungallur have yielded evidence supporting this identification. Arikamedu, an archaeological site near Pondicherry (now Puducherry), was a significant Indo-Roman trading port from the 1st century BCE to the 2nd century CE. Excavations led by Sir Mortimer Wheeler revealed extensive Roman artifacts, including amphorae and Roman lamps. Tamralipti, mentioned in various ancient texts including Buddhist sources and the Arthashastra as an important port in eastern India, corresponds to modern-day Tamluk in West Bengal. It served as a crucial link in maritime trade routes connecting the Gangetic plain to Southeast Asia. Incorrect Answer: D All the pairs are correctly matched. Barygaza, mentioned in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea as a major trading port on the western coast of India, corresponds to modern-day Bharuch in Gujarat. Archaeological excavations and literary evidence confirm its importance in Indo-Roman trade. Muziris, another significant port mentioned in ancient Greco-Roman accounts and the Tamil Sangam literature, is identified with modern-day Kodungallur (or Cranganore) in Kerala. Recent archaeological excavations at Pattanam near Kodungallur have yielded evidence supporting this identification. Arikamedu, an archaeological site near Pondicherry (now Puducherry), was a significant Indo-Roman trading port from the 1st century BCE to the 2nd century CE. Excavations led by Sir Mortimer Wheeler revealed extensive Roman artifacts, including amphorae and Roman lamps. Tamralipti, mentioned in various ancient texts including Buddhist sources and the Arthashastra as an important port in eastern India, corresponds to modern-day Tamluk in West Bengal. It served as a crucial link in maritime trade routes connecting the Gangetic plain to Southeast Asia.

#### 10. Question

In the context of ancient Indian trade networks, which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

• Barygaza – Modern-day Bharuch

• Muziris – Modern-day Kodungallur

• Arikamedu – Modern-day Pondicherry

• Tamralipti – Modern-day Tamluk

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

All the pairs are correctly matched.

Barygaza, mentioned in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea as a major trading port on the western coast of India, corresponds to modern-day Bharuch in Gujarat. Archaeological excavations and literary evidence confirm its importance in Indo-Roman trade.

Muziris, another significant port mentioned in ancient Greco-Roman accounts and the Tamil Sangam literature, is identified with modern-day Kodungallur (or Cranganore) in Kerala. Recent archaeological excavations at Pattanam near Kodungallur have yielded evidence supporting this identification.

Arikamedu, an archaeological site near Pondicherry (now Puducherry), was a significant Indo-Roman trading port from the 1st century BCE to the 2nd century CE. Excavations led by Sir Mortimer Wheeler revealed extensive Roman artifacts, including amphorae and Roman lamps.

Tamralipti, mentioned in various ancient texts including Buddhist sources and the Arthashastra as an important port in eastern India, corresponds to modern-day Tamluk in West Bengal. It served as a crucial link in maritime trade routes connecting the Gangetic plain to Southeast Asia.

Answer: D

All the pairs are correctly matched.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following: Emergence of self sufficient village communities Discovery and use of fire Domestication of animals How many of the above developments were associated with the Mesolithic period? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : A Domestication of animals was initiated during the Later stages of Mesolithic period; it represented a fundamental change and man began to transform from a food consumer to a food producer. Hence option 1 is correct The later phases of Neolithic era witnessed emergence of self sufficient village community; people lead a more self-sufficient life and lived in circular and rectangular houses made of mud. Use of Fire was discovered and it was used by the Lower Paleolithic people. It continued in the Mesolithic period and succeeding periods. Hence option 2 and 3 are incorrect Incorrect Solution : A Domestication of animals was initiated during the Later stages of Mesolithic period; it represented a fundamental change and man began to transform from a food consumer to a food producer. Hence option 1 is correct The later phases of Neolithic era witnessed emergence of self sufficient village community; people lead a more self-sufficient life and lived in circular and rectangular houses made of mud. Use of Fire was discovered and it was used by the Lower Paleolithic people. It continued in the Mesolithic period and succeeding periods. Hence option 2 and 3 are incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following:

• Emergence of self sufficient village communities

• Discovery and use of fire

• Domestication of animals

How many of the above developments were associated with the Mesolithic period?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : A

Domestication of animals was initiated during the Later stages of Mesolithic period; it represented a fundamental change and man began to transform from a food consumer to a food producer.

Hence option 1 is correct

• The later phases of Neolithic era witnessed emergence of self sufficient village community; people lead a more self-sufficient life and lived in circular and rectangular houses made of mud.

• Use of Fire was discovered and it was used by the Lower Paleolithic people.

• It continued in the Mesolithic period and succeeding periods.

Hence option 2 and 3 are incorrect

Solution : A

Domestication of animals was initiated during the Later stages of Mesolithic period; it represented a fundamental change and man began to transform from a food consumer to a food producer.

Hence option 1 is correct

• The later phases of Neolithic era witnessed emergence of self sufficient village community; people lead a more self-sufficient life and lived in circular and rectangular houses made of mud.

• Use of Fire was discovered and it was used by the Lower Paleolithic people.

• It continued in the Mesolithic period and succeeding periods.

Hence option 2 and 3 are incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Atis Dipankara : He preached Theravada Buddhism in Tibet and Sumatra. He was a contemporary of Harshavardhana. He founded the Kadam School of Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution : C Atis Dipankara (982-1054 CE) was a Buddhist religious teacher and leader; he was not a contemporary of Harshavardhana (590-647 AD) who was a prominent North Indian ruler of Pushyabhuti dynasty. He was associated with Vikramshila Monastery in current day Bihar. The Vikramshila monastery was founded by Dharmapala in the early 9th century. He was a major figure in the spread of 11th century Mahayana and Vajrayana Buddhism in Asia; he travelled to Sumatra and Tibet. Hence statements 1 and 2 are incorrect The Kadam School of Tibetan Buddhism was an 11th century Buddhist tradition founded by Atis Dipankara and his students including Dromton. The school stressed on compassion, pure discipline and study. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : C Atis Dipankara (982-1054 CE) was a Buddhist religious teacher and leader; he was not a contemporary of Harshavardhana (590-647 AD) who was a prominent North Indian ruler of Pushyabhuti dynasty. He was associated with Vikramshila Monastery in current day Bihar. The Vikramshila monastery was founded by Dharmapala in the early 9th century. He was a major figure in the spread of 11th century Mahayana and Vajrayana Buddhism in Asia; he travelled to Sumatra and Tibet. Hence statements 1 and 2 are incorrect The Kadam School of Tibetan Buddhism was an 11th century Buddhist tradition founded by Atis Dipankara and his students including Dromton. The school stressed on compassion, pure discipline and study. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Atis Dipankara :

• He preached Theravada Buddhism in Tibet and Sumatra.

• He was a contemporary of Harshavardhana.

• He founded the Kadam School of Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : C

• Atis Dipankara (982-1054 CE) was a Buddhist religious teacher and leader; he was not a contemporary of Harshavardhana (590-647 AD) who was a prominent North Indian ruler of Pushyabhuti dynasty.

• He was associated with Vikramshila Monastery in current day Bihar.

• The Vikramshila monastery was founded by Dharmapala in the early 9th century.

• He was a major figure in the spread of 11th century Mahayana and Vajrayana Buddhism in Asia; he travelled to Sumatra and Tibet.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

• The Kadam School of Tibetan Buddhism was an 11th century Buddhist tradition founded by Atis Dipankara and his students including Dromton.

• The school stressed on compassion, pure discipline and study.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution : C

• Atis Dipankara (982-1054 CE) was a Buddhist religious teacher and leader; he was not a contemporary of Harshavardhana (590-647 AD) who was a prominent North Indian ruler of Pushyabhuti dynasty.

• He was associated with Vikramshila Monastery in current day Bihar.

• The Vikramshila monastery was founded by Dharmapala in the early 9th century.

• He was a major figure in the spread of 11th century Mahayana and Vajrayana Buddhism in Asia; he travelled to Sumatra and Tibet.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

• The Kadam School of Tibetan Buddhism was an 11th century Buddhist tradition founded by Atis Dipankara and his students including Dromton.

• The school stressed on compassion, pure discipline and study.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Bali was introduced as a compulsory tax collected at 1/6th of the produce from the Later Vedic Period. Balisadhakas collected Bali during the period of Mahajanapadas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Bali was a tax which was prominent from the Vedic period. During the Rig Vedic period Bali was a voluntary contribution made by the tribe to the chief. However during the Later Vedic period, the nature of Bali changed and it was more a tax than a contribution; but there was no fixed rate. Bali was continued during the Mahajanapada period, that is 6th century BC in Northern India. The Mahajanapadas had a large professional army and in order to sustain such a huge Army a robust fiscal system was required Bali continued as a compulsory payment during this period also; Bali was collected at 1/6th of the produce. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Special officers called Balisadhakas were appointed to collect Bali during the Period of Mahajanapadas and the Magadha empires. These Royal agents collected the taxes with the help of village headman. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Bali was a tax which was prominent from the Vedic period. During the Rig Vedic period Bali was a voluntary contribution made by the tribe to the chief. However during the Later Vedic period, the nature of Bali changed and it was more a tax than a contribution; but there was no fixed rate. Bali was continued during the Mahajanapada period, that is 6th century BC in Northern India. The Mahajanapadas had a large professional army and in order to sustain such a huge Army a robust fiscal system was required Bali continued as a compulsory payment during this period also; Bali was collected at 1/6th of the produce. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Special officers called Balisadhakas were appointed to collect Bali during the Period of Mahajanapadas and the Magadha empires. These Royal agents collected the taxes with the help of village headman. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Bali was introduced as a compulsory tax collected at 1/6th of the produce from the Later Vedic Period.

• Balisadhakas collected Bali during the period of Mahajanapadas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Bali was a tax which was prominent from the Vedic period.

• During the Rig Vedic period Bali was a voluntary contribution made by the tribe to the chief.

• However during the Later Vedic period, the nature of Bali changed and it was more a tax than a contribution; but there was no fixed rate.

• Bali was continued during the Mahajanapada period, that is 6th century BC in Northern India.

• The Mahajanapadas had a large professional army and in order to sustain such a huge Army a robust fiscal system was required

• Bali continued as a compulsory payment during this period also; Bali was collected at 1/6th of the produce.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Special officers called Balisadhakas were appointed to collect Bali during the Period of Mahajanapadas and the Magadha empires.

• These Royal agents collected the taxes with the help of village headman.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• Bali was a tax which was prominent from the Vedic period.

• During the Rig Vedic period Bali was a voluntary contribution made by the tribe to the chief.

• However during the Later Vedic period, the nature of Bali changed and it was more a tax than a contribution; but there was no fixed rate.

• Bali was continued during the Mahajanapada period, that is 6th century BC in Northern India.

• The Mahajanapadas had a large professional army and in order to sustain such a huge Army a robust fiscal system was required

• Bali continued as a compulsory payment during this period also; Bali was collected at 1/6th of the produce.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Special officers called Balisadhakas were appointed to collect Bali during the Period of Mahajanapadas and the Magadha empires.

• These Royal agents collected the taxes with the help of village headman.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Who among the following rulers divided Bengal into three independent administrative units – Lakhnauti, Satgaon and Sonargaon ? (a) Lakshman Sena (b) Sher Shah Suri (c) Siraj-ud-dallah (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq Correct Solution : D Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, who ruled Delhi sultanate from 1320 to 1325 AD, aimed to expand his Empire; he brought Bengal under his control. He divided Bengal into 3 separate administrative units- Lakhnauti, Satgaon and Sonargaon. Bengal was an important regional Kingdom under the Palas in the 8th century and under the Senas in the 12th century It was the easternmost province of the delhi Sultanate; long distance, uncomfortable climate and poor means of transport and communication made it difficult for the sultan to control the province. After the death of Balban, his son Bughra Khan (who was appointed as the Governor by his father), declared his independence ; to solve the problem, Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq partitioned the province into separate administrative divisions. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution : D Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, who ruled Delhi sultanate from 1320 to 1325 AD, aimed to expand his Empire; he brought Bengal under his control. He divided Bengal into 3 separate administrative units- Lakhnauti, Satgaon and Sonargaon. Bengal was an important regional Kingdom under the Palas in the 8th century and under the Senas in the 12th century It was the easternmost province of the delhi Sultanate; long distance, uncomfortable climate and poor means of transport and communication made it difficult for the sultan to control the province. After the death of Balban, his son Bughra Khan (who was appointed as the Governor by his father), declared his independence ; to solve the problem, Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq partitioned the province into separate administrative divisions. Hence option D is correct

#### 14. Question

Who among the following rulers divided Bengal into three independent administrative units – Lakhnauti, Satgaon and Sonargaon ?

• (a) Lakshman Sena

• (b) Sher Shah Suri

• (c) Siraj-ud-dallah

• (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

Solution : D

• Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, who ruled Delhi sultanate from 1320 to 1325 AD, aimed to expand his Empire; he brought Bengal under his control.

• He divided Bengal into 3 separate administrative units- Lakhnauti, Satgaon and Sonargaon.

• Bengal was an important regional Kingdom under the Palas in the 8th century and under the Senas in the 12th century

• It was the easternmost province of the delhi Sultanate; long distance, uncomfortable climate and poor means of transport and communication made it difficult for the sultan to control the province.

• After the death of Balban, his son Bughra Khan (who was appointed as the Governor by his father), declared his independence ; to solve the problem, Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq partitioned the province into separate administrative divisions.

Hence option D is correct

Solution : D

• Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, who ruled Delhi sultanate from 1320 to 1325 AD, aimed to expand his Empire; he brought Bengal under his control.

• He divided Bengal into 3 separate administrative units- Lakhnauti, Satgaon and Sonargaon.

• Bengal was an important regional Kingdom under the Palas in the 8th century and under the Senas in the 12th century

Hence option D is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Chalcolithic cultural sites provides evidence of Spindle whorls and threads made of flax and silk, which proves their knowledge of spinning and weaving. Chalcolithic people cultivated Wheat and rice by Slash and burn agriculture method. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Chalcolithic people were well acquainted with the art of spinning and weaving The presence of spindle whorls (small circular objects used to spin thread), at sites like Malwa and Inamgaon indicates that they were familiar with the process of spinning yarn. Cotton, flax and Silk threads have been found in Chalcolithic sites in Maharashtra. Hence statement 1 is correct Chalcolithic people practiced slash and burn or jhum cultivation. Iron was not known to them; The cultivated wheat and rice (which were their staple crops), along with pulses such as lentil; and bajra. Cotton was grown in the black cotton soil of the Deccan. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Chalcolithic people were well acquainted with the art of spinning and weaving The presence of spindle whorls (small circular objects used to spin thread), at sites like Malwa and Inamgaon indicates that they were familiar with the process of spinning yarn. Cotton, flax and Silk threads have been found in Chalcolithic sites in Maharashtra. Hence statement 1 is correct Chalcolithic people practiced slash and burn or jhum cultivation. Iron was not known to them; The cultivated wheat and rice (which were their staple crops), along with pulses such as lentil; and bajra. Cotton was grown in the black cotton soil of the Deccan. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Chalcolithic cultural sites provides evidence of Spindle whorls and threads made of flax and silk, which proves their knowledge of spinning and weaving.

• Chalcolithic people cultivated Wheat and rice by Slash and burn agriculture method.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Chalcolithic people were well acquainted with the art of spinning and weaving

• The presence of spindle whorls (small circular objects used to spin thread), at sites like Malwa and Inamgaon indicates that they were familiar with the process of spinning yarn.

• Cotton, flax and Silk threads have been found in Chalcolithic sites in Maharashtra.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Chalcolithic people practiced slash and burn or jhum cultivation.

• Iron was not known to them;

• The cultivated wheat and rice (which were their staple crops), along with pulses such as lentil; and bajra.

• Cotton was grown in the black cotton soil of the Deccan.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• Chalcolithic people were well acquainted with the art of spinning and weaving

• The presence of spindle whorls (small circular objects used to spin thread), at sites like Malwa and Inamgaon indicates that they were familiar with the process of spinning yarn.

• Cotton, flax and Silk threads have been found in Chalcolithic sites in Maharashtra.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Chalcolithic people practiced slash and burn or jhum cultivation.

• Iron was not known to them;

• The cultivated wheat and rice (which were their staple crops), along with pulses such as lentil; and bajra.

• Cotton was grown in the black cotton soil of the Deccan.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points With reference to medieval Indian history, *Bohra* and *Banik* were : (a) District judge (b) Traders (c) Village bankers (d) Tax collectors Correct Solution : B Bohra and Banik were traders. The Mughal period saw important developments in social and economic field; during this period many European travelers and traders came to India and their accounts contain lot of information about social and economic conditions of India The Indian trading classes were large in numbers, well spread throughout the country and were well organised and highly professional. Seth, Bohra traders specialised in long distance trade while local traders were called Banik. Another class of traders known as Banjara specialised in carrying bulk goods and used to move long distances with their goods on the back of animals The trading class, however did not belong to anyone caste or religion. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B Bohra and Banik were traders. The Mughal period saw important developments in social and economic field; during this period many European travelers and traders came to India and their accounts contain lot of information about social and economic conditions of India The Indian trading classes were large in numbers, well spread throughout the country and were well organised and highly professional. Seth, Bohra traders specialised in long distance trade while local traders were called Banik. Another class of traders known as Banjara specialised in carrying bulk goods and used to move long distances with their goods on the back of animals The trading class, however did not belong to anyone caste or religion. Hence option B is correct

#### 16. Question

With reference to medieval Indian history, *Bohra* and *Banik* were :

• (a) District judge

• (b) Traders

• (c) Village bankers

• (d) Tax collectors

Solution : B

• Bohra and Banik were traders.

• The Mughal period saw important developments in social and economic field; during this period many European travelers and traders came to India and their accounts contain lot of information about social and economic conditions of India

• The Indian trading classes were large in numbers, well spread throughout the country and were well organised and highly professional.

• Seth, Bohra traders specialised in long distance trade while local traders were called Banik.

• Another class of traders known as Banjara specialised in carrying bulk goods and used to move long distances with their goods on the back of animals

• The trading class, however did not belong to anyone caste or religion.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• Bohra and Banik were traders.

• The Indian trading classes were large in numbers, well spread throughout the country and were well organised and highly professional.

• Seth, Bohra traders specialised in long distance trade while local traders were called Banik.

• Another class of traders known as Banjara specialised in carrying bulk goods and used to move long distances with their goods on the back of animals

• The trading class, however did not belong to anyone caste or religion.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points According to Bernier’s ‘Travels in the Mughal Empire ‘, consider the following statements: Land was owned by individual tenants as well as by community of sharecroppers. Land ownership was hereditary. The society was characterized by presence of three distinct social strata- the ruler, middle class and slaves. How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Bernier’s ‘Travel in the Mughal Empire’ contains detailed observations critical inside during the Mughal period. His account contains discussions trying to place history of the Mughals with some sort of a universal framework ; he constantly compared Mughal India with contemporary Europe. According to him one of the fundamental differences between Mughal India and Europe was the lack of private property in land in India At that period the ruler was the owner of land and the Mughal emperor distributed it among his nobels – this system had harmful consequences for the economy and the society. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Due to crown ownership of land, according to Bernier, land holders could not pass on their land to their children Also, for this reason, land owners were not interested in long term investment in expansion of production. Hence statement 2 is incorrect In his account Bernier has described Indian society as consisting of undifferentiated masses of impoverished people subjugated by a small minority of a very rich and powerful ruling class; Between the poorest of the poor and richest of the rich, there was no social group or class worth the name ; he confidently stated that there was no middle state in India. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D Bernier’s ‘Travel in the Mughal Empire’ contains detailed observations critical inside during the Mughal period. His account contains discussions trying to place history of the Mughals with some sort of a universal framework ; he constantly compared Mughal India with contemporary Europe. According to him one of the fundamental differences between Mughal India and Europe was the lack of private property in land in India At that period the ruler was the owner of land and the Mughal emperor distributed it among his nobels – this system had harmful consequences for the economy and the society. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Due to crown ownership of land, according to Bernier, land holders could not pass on their land to their children Also, for this reason, land owners were not interested in long term investment in expansion of production. Hence statement 2 is incorrect In his account Bernier has described Indian society as consisting of undifferentiated masses of impoverished people subjugated by a small minority of a very rich and powerful ruling class; Between the poorest of the poor and richest of the rich, there was no social group or class worth the name ; he confidently stated that there was no middle state in India. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

According to Bernier’s ‘Travels in the Mughal Empire ‘, consider the following statements:

• Land was owned by individual tenants as well as by community of sharecroppers.

• Land ownership was hereditary.

• The society was characterized by presence of three distinct social strata- the ruler, middle class and slaves.

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Bernier’s ‘Travel in the Mughal Empire’ contains detailed observations critical inside during the Mughal period.

• His account contains discussions trying to place history of the Mughals with some sort of a universal framework ; he constantly compared Mughal India with contemporary Europe.

• According to him one of the fundamental differences between Mughal India and Europe was the lack of private property in land in India

• At that period the ruler was the owner of land and the Mughal emperor distributed it among his nobels – this system had harmful consequences for the economy and the society.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Due to crown ownership of land, according to Bernier, land holders could not pass on their land to their children

• Also, for this reason, land owners were not interested in long term investment in expansion of production.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• In his account Bernier has described Indian society as consisting of undifferentiated masses of impoverished people subjugated by a small minority of a very rich and powerful ruling class;

• Between the poorest of the poor and richest of the rich, there was no social group or class worth the name ; he confidently stated that there was no middle state in India.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

• Bernier’s ‘Travel in the Mughal Empire’ contains detailed observations critical inside during the Mughal period.

• His account contains discussions trying to place history of the Mughals with some sort of a universal framework ; he constantly compared Mughal India with contemporary Europe.

• According to him one of the fundamental differences between Mughal India and Europe was the lack of private property in land in India

• At that period the ruler was the owner of land and the Mughal emperor distributed it among his nobels – this system had harmful consequences for the economy and the society.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Due to crown ownership of land, according to Bernier, land holders could not pass on their land to their children

• Also, for this reason, land owners were not interested in long term investment in expansion of production.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• In his account Bernier has described Indian society as consisting of undifferentiated masses of impoverished people subjugated by a small minority of a very rich and powerful ruling class;

• Between the poorest of the poor and richest of the rich, there was no social group or class worth the name ; he confidently stated that there was no middle state in India.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points With reference to history of Medieval India as described by Ibn Battuta, *Dawa *and *Uluq *referred to which of the following ? (a) Ayurvedic doctors (b) Religious teachers (c) Postal System (d) Royal order Correct Solution : C Dawa and Uluq referred to postal system in medieval India. The Postal System in medieval India during the Delhi sultanate has been described by Ibn Battuta, who visited India during that period According to him the Postal System was of two kinds – the horse post was called Uluq; it was run by Royal horses stationed at a distance of every four miles The foot post had three stations per mile – it was known as dawa ;that is one third of a mile. At every third of a mile there was a well populated village outside which were three pavilions in which men waited with a rod, two cubits in length with copper bells at the top. When the courier started from the city he held the letter in one hand and the road on the other running as fast as he could When the men in the pavilion heard the ringing of the bell they got ready; and, as soon as the courier reached them one of them took the letter from the courier and ran fast, until he reached the next dawa, and the same process continued till the letter reached its destination This foot post was quicker than the horse post. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution : C Dawa and Uluq referred to postal system in medieval India. The Postal System in medieval India during the Delhi sultanate has been described by Ibn Battuta, who visited India during that period According to him the Postal System was of two kinds – the horse post was called Uluq; it was run by Royal horses stationed at a distance of every four miles The foot post had three stations per mile – it was known as dawa ;that is one third of a mile. At every third of a mile there was a well populated village outside which were three pavilions in which men waited with a rod, two cubits in length with copper bells at the top. When the courier started from the city he held the letter in one hand and the road on the other running as fast as he could When the men in the pavilion heard the ringing of the bell they got ready; and, as soon as the courier reached them one of them took the letter from the courier and ran fast, until he reached the next dawa, and the same process continued till the letter reached its destination This foot post was quicker than the horse post. Hence option C is correct

#### 18. Question

With reference to history of Medieval India as described by Ibn Battuta, *Dawa *and *Uluq *referred to which of the following ?

• (a) Ayurvedic doctors

• (b) Religious teachers

• (c) Postal System

• (d) Royal order

Solution : C

• Dawa and Uluq referred to postal system in medieval India.

• The Postal System in medieval India during the Delhi sultanate has been described by Ibn Battuta, who visited India during that period

• According to him the Postal System was of two kinds – the horse post was called Uluq; it was run by Royal horses stationed at a distance of every four miles

• The foot post had three stations per mile – it was known as dawa ;that is one third of a mile.

• At every third of a mile there was a well populated village outside which were three pavilions in which men waited with a rod, two cubits in length with copper bells at the top.

• When the courier started from the city he held the letter in one hand and the road on the other running as fast as he could

• When the men in the pavilion heard the ringing of the bell they got ready; and, as soon as the courier reached them one of them took the letter from the courier and ran fast, until he reached the next dawa, and the same process continued till the letter reached its destination

• This foot post was quicker than the horse post.

Hence option C is correct

Solution : C

• Dawa and Uluq referred to postal system in medieval India.

• The Postal System in medieval India during the Delhi sultanate has been described by Ibn Battuta, who visited India during that period

• According to him the Postal System was of two kinds – the horse post was called Uluq; it was run by Royal horses stationed at a distance of every four miles

• The foot post had three stations per mile – it was known as dawa ;that is one third of a mile.

• At every third of a mile there was a well populated village outside which were three pavilions in which men waited with a rod, two cubits in length with copper bells at the top.

• When the courier started from the city he held the letter in one hand and the road on the other running as fast as he could

• This foot post was quicker than the horse post.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following : Right Speech Right faith Right Belief Right Conduct Right Knowledge How many of the above are considered as Triratnas in Jainism ? (a) 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3, 4 and 5 Correct Solution : A The Jaina Doctrine is much older than Buddhism and it is accepted that in each half cycle of time there are total 24 Tirthankars. To achieve liberation of soul, Jainism proposes that are three jewels that a Jaina must follow, these are called Triratnas; they are : Right faith or Samyag Darshana : this means seeing, hearing or feeling things properly and does not believing what one is told and avoiding preconceptions and superstitions that get in the way of seeing things clearly. Right knowledge or Samyag jnana : this means having an accurate and sufficient knowledge of the real universe. This requires a true knowledge of the five substances and nine truths of the universe and having that knowledge with the right mental attitude. Right conduct or Samyag charitra : this means that living one’s life according to Jaina ethical rules, to avoid harm to living things and freeing oneself from attachment and other impure attitude and thoughts. Hence options 2, 4 and 5 are correct Incorrect Solution : A The Jaina Doctrine is much older than Buddhism and it is accepted that in each half cycle of time there are total 24 Tirthankars. To achieve liberation of soul, Jainism proposes that are three jewels that a Jaina must follow, these are called Triratnas; they are : Right faith or Samyag Darshana : this means seeing, hearing or feeling things properly and does not believing what one is told and avoiding preconceptions and superstitions that get in the way of seeing things clearly. Right knowledge or Samyag jnana : this means having an accurate and sufficient knowledge of the real universe. This requires a true knowledge of the five substances and nine truths of the universe and having that knowledge with the right mental attitude. Right conduct or Samyag charitra : this means that living one’s life according to Jaina ethical rules, to avoid harm to living things and freeing oneself from attachment and other impure attitude and thoughts. Hence options 2, 4 and 5 are correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following :

• Right Speech

• Right faith

• Right Belief

• Right Conduct

• Right Knowledge

How many of the above are considered as Triratnas in Jainism ?

• (a) 2, 4 and 5

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 1, 3 and 4

• (d) 3, 4 and 5

Solution : A

The Jaina Doctrine is much older than Buddhism and it is accepted that in each half cycle of time there are total 24 Tirthankars. To achieve liberation of soul, Jainism proposes that are three jewels that a Jaina must follow, these are called Triratnas; they are :

• Right faith or Samyag Darshana : this means seeing, hearing or feeling things properly and does not believing what one is told and avoiding preconceptions and superstitions that get in the way of seeing things clearly.

• Right knowledge or Samyag jnana : this means having an accurate and sufficient knowledge of the real universe. This requires a true knowledge of the five substances and nine truths of the universe and having that knowledge with the right mental attitude.

• Right conduct or Samyag charitra : this means that living one’s life according to Jaina ethical rules, to avoid harm to living things and freeing oneself from attachment and other impure attitude and thoughts.

Hence options 2, 4 and 5 are correct

Solution : A

Hence options 2, 4 and 5 are correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Due to patriarchal nature, education and Upanayana were denied to women during the Rig Vedic period. The earliest evidence of child marriage dates back to the Rig Vedic period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The Vedic society (both Rig Vedic and Later Vedic), was a patriarchal society. But during the Rig Vedic period women had important position in the society and they were educated and had access to the tribal assemblies like Sabha and Samiti Women even composed hymns and received Upanayana. During the Later Vedic period there was significant decline in the status of women as they assumed subordinate position to men They lost access to Tribal assemblies Education was restricted to men and only few women received education during the Later Vedic period. In the early Vedic period women played a vital role in the society; their political condition was significantly better than women in later periods. During the time of the Vedas, women held leadership positions and received education along with their male counterparts. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Rig Vedic society though patriarchal in nature, women had important positions and were educated and had access to the Vedic Assemblies like Vidhata. There were no instances of child marriage or the or sati system in the Rig Veda. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Vedic society (both Rig Vedic and Later Vedic), was a patriarchal society. But during the Rig Vedic period women had important position in the society and they were educated and had access to the tribal assemblies like Sabha and Samiti Women even composed hymns and received Upanayana. During the Later Vedic period there was significant decline in the status of women as they assumed subordinate position to men They lost access to Tribal assemblies Education was restricted to men and only few women received education during the Later Vedic period. In the early Vedic period women played a vital role in the society; their political condition was significantly better than women in later periods. During the time of the Vedas, women held leadership positions and received education along with their male counterparts. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Rig Vedic society though patriarchal in nature, women had important positions and were educated and had access to the Vedic Assemblies like Vidhata. There were no instances of child marriage or the or sati system in the Rig Veda. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Due to patriarchal nature, education and Upanayana were denied to women during the Rig Vedic period.

• The earliest evidence of child marriage dates back to the Rig Vedic period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• The Vedic society (both Rig Vedic and Later Vedic), was a patriarchal society.

• But during the Rig Vedic period women had important position in the society and they were educated and had access to the tribal assemblies like Sabha and Samiti

• Women even composed hymns and received Upanayana.

• During the Later Vedic period there was significant decline in the status of women as they assumed subordinate position to men

• They lost access to Tribal assemblies

• Education was restricted to men and only few women received education during the Later Vedic period.

• In the early Vedic period women played a vital role in the society; their political condition was significantly better than women in later periods.

• During the time of the Vedas, women held leadership positions and received education along with their male counterparts.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Rig Vedic society though patriarchal in nature, women had important positions and were educated and had access to the Vedic Assemblies like Vidhata.

• There were no instances of child marriage or the or sati system in the Rig Veda.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The Vedic society (both Rig Vedic and Later Vedic), was a patriarchal society.

• But during the Rig Vedic period women had important position in the society and they were educated and had access to the tribal assemblies like Sabha and Samiti

• Women even composed hymns and received Upanayana.

• During the Later Vedic period there was significant decline in the status of women as they assumed subordinate position to men

• They lost access to Tribal assemblies

• Education was restricted to men and only few women received education during the Later Vedic period.

• In the early Vedic period women played a vital role in the society; their political condition was significantly better than women in later periods.

• During the time of the Vedas, women held leadership positions and received education along with their male counterparts.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Rig Vedic society though patriarchal in nature, women had important positions and were educated and had access to the Vedic Assemblies like Vidhata.

• There were no instances of child marriage or the or sati system in the Rig Veda.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to the admission of new members to the United Nations, consider the following statements: A recommendation from the Security Council is a prerequisite for General Assembly approval of membership. Any peace-loving State that accepts the obligations of the UN Charter is entitled to automatic admission to the United Nations. The recommendation of the Security Council for admission requires unanimous approval of all its members. Which of the above given statements is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A UN Membership Membership in the Organization, in accordance with the Charter of the United Nations, “is open to all peace-loving States that accept the obligations contained in the United Nations Charter and, in the judgment of the Organization, are able to carry out these obligations”. While Article 4(1) mentions that peace-loving states which accept the obligations of the Charter may be admitted, admission is not automatic. It requires Security Council endorsement (subject to P5 veto) and a two-thirds General Assembly vote (e.g., Kosovo’s bids stalled by Russia). The term “automatic” overlooks this scrutiny, as seen in Palestine’s 2024 rejection. Even eligible applicants can be vetoed (as in Cold War-era membership rejections). As per Article 4(2) of the UN Charter, admission of a new member requires a recommendation from the Security Council, followed by a decision of the General Assembly. Without Security Council recommendation, the General Assembly cannot proceed. A decision on admission requires at least 9 out of 15 votes, including the concurring votes of all 5 permanent members (i.e., no veto). Unanimous approval by all 15 members is not required. Hence, only Statement 1 is correct. Incorrect Solution: A UN Membership Membership in the Organization, in accordance with the Charter of the United Nations, “is open to all peace-loving States that accept the obligations contained in the United Nations Charter and, in the judgment of the Organization, are able to carry out these obligations”. While Article 4(1) mentions that peace-loving states which accept the obligations of the Charter may be admitted, admission is not automatic. It requires Security Council endorsement (subject to P5 veto) and a two-thirds General Assembly vote (e.g., Kosovo’s bids stalled by Russia). The term “automatic” overlooks this scrutiny, as seen in Palestine’s 2024 rejection. Even eligible applicants can be vetoed (as in Cold War-era membership rejections). As per Article 4(2) of the UN Charter, admission of a new member requires a recommendation from the Security Council, followed by a decision of the General Assembly. Without Security Council recommendation, the General Assembly cannot proceed. A decision on admission requires at least 9 out of 15 votes, including the concurring votes of all 5 permanent members (i.e., no veto). Unanimous approval by all 15 members is not required. Hence, only Statement 1 is correct.

#### 21. Question

With reference to the admission of new members to the United Nations, consider the following statements:

• A recommendation from the Security Council is a prerequisite for General Assembly approval of membership.

• Any peace-loving State that accepts the obligations of the UN Charter is entitled to automatic admission to the United Nations.

• The recommendation of the Security Council for admission requires unanimous approval of all its members.

Which of the above given statements is/ are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

UN Membership

• Membership in the Organization, in accordance with the Charter of the United Nations, “is open to all peace-loving States that accept the obligations contained in the United Nations Charter and, in the judgment of the Organization, are able to carry out these obligations”. While Article 4(1) mentions that peace-loving states which accept the obligations of the Charter may be admitted, admission is not automatic. It requires Security Council endorsement (subject to P5 veto) and a two-thirds General Assembly vote (e.g., Kosovo’s bids stalled by Russia). The term “automatic” overlooks this scrutiny, as seen in Palestine’s 2024 rejection. Even eligible applicants can be vetoed (as in Cold War-era membership rejections).

• While Article 4(1) mentions that peace-loving states which accept the obligations of the Charter may be admitted, admission is not automatic. It requires Security Council endorsement (subject to P5 veto) and a two-thirds General Assembly vote (e.g., Kosovo’s bids stalled by Russia). The term “automatic” overlooks this scrutiny, as seen in Palestine’s 2024 rejection.

• Even eligible applicants can be vetoed (as in Cold War-era membership rejections).

• As per Article 4(2) of the UN Charter, admission of a new member requires a recommendation from the Security Council, followed by a decision of the General Assembly. Without Security Council recommendation, the General Assembly cannot proceed.

• A decision on admission requires at least 9 out of 15 votes, including the concurring votes of all 5 permanent members (i.e., no veto). Unanimous approval by all 15 members is not required.

Hence, only Statement 1 is correct.

Solution: A

UN Membership

• Even eligible applicants can be vetoed (as in Cold War-era membership rejections).

Hence, only Statement 1 is correct.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following countries Kenya Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) Burundi Rwanda Tanzania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Uganda? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: C Uganda Uganda is a landlocked country located in east-central Africa. It shares land borders with five countries: Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Kenya, Rwanda, South Sudan, and Tanzania. Among the options listed: Democratic Republic of the Congo – Shares a border Kenya – Shares a border Rwanda – Shares a border South Sudan – Shares a border Tanzania – Shares a border Note: Countries like Ethiopia, Burundi, or Somalia do not share borders with Uganda. Therefore, if a question were to list only four of these five neighboring countries (excluding one), the correct count would be four, assuming one listed option is not a neighbour. Key Geographical Features: Equator passes through Uganda. Uganda lies mostly on a central plateau with rainforests and is surrounded by high volcanic mountains. Virunga and Ruwenzori Mountains along with the Western Rift Valley form natural boundaries. The highest peak, Margherita Peak (5,109 m), is in the Ruwenzori Range. Incorrect Solution: C Uganda Uganda is a landlocked country located in east-central Africa. It shares land borders with five countries: Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Kenya, Rwanda, South Sudan, and Tanzania. Among the options listed: Democratic Republic of the Congo – Shares a border Kenya – Shares a border Rwanda – Shares a border South Sudan – Shares a border Tanzania – Shares a border Note: Countries like Ethiopia, Burundi, or Somalia do not share borders with Uganda. Therefore, if a question were to list only four of these five neighboring countries (excluding one), the correct count would be four, assuming one listed option is not a neighbour. Key Geographical Features: Equator passes through Uganda. Uganda lies mostly on a central plateau with rainforests and is surrounded by high volcanic mountains. Virunga and Ruwenzori Mountains along with the Western Rift Valley form natural boundaries. The highest peak, Margherita Peak (5,109 m), is in the Ruwenzori Range.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following countries

• Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC)

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Uganda?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: C

Uganda

• Uganda is a landlocked country located in east-central Africa.

• It shares land borders with five countries: Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Kenya, Rwanda, South Sudan, and Tanzania.

• Among the options listed: Democratic Republic of the Congo – Shares a border Kenya – Shares a border Rwanda – Shares a border South Sudan – Shares a border Tanzania – Shares a border

• Democratic Republic of the Congo – Shares a border

• Kenya – Shares a border

• Rwanda – Shares a border

• South Sudan – Shares a border

• Tanzania – Shares a border

Note: Countries like Ethiopia, Burundi, or Somalia do not share borders with Uganda.

• Therefore, if a question were to list only four of these five neighboring countries (excluding one), the correct count would be four, assuming one listed option is not a neighbour.

Key Geographical Features:

• Equator passes through Uganda.

• Uganda lies mostly on a central plateau with rainforests and is surrounded by high volcanic mountains.

• Virunga and Ruwenzori Mountains along with the Western Rift Valley form natural boundaries.

• The highest peak, Margherita Peak (5,109 m), is in the Ruwenzori Range.

Solution: C

Uganda

• Uganda is a landlocked country located in east-central Africa.

• It shares land borders with five countries: Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Kenya, Rwanda, South Sudan, and Tanzania.

• Among the options listed: Democratic Republic of the Congo – Shares a border Kenya – Shares a border Rwanda – Shares a border South Sudan – Shares a border Tanzania – Shares a border

• Democratic Republic of the Congo – Shares a border

• Kenya – Shares a border

• Rwanda – Shares a border

• South Sudan – Shares a border

• Tanzania – Shares a border

Note: Countries like Ethiopia, Burundi, or Somalia do not share borders with Uganda.

• Therefore, if a question were to list only four of these five neighboring countries (excluding one), the correct count would be four, assuming one listed option is not a neighbour.

Key Geographical Features:

• Equator passes through Uganda.

• Uganda lies mostly on a central plateau with rainforests and is surrounded by high volcanic mountains.

• Virunga and Ruwenzori Mountains along with the Western Rift Valley form natural boundaries.

• The highest peak, Margherita Peak (5,109 m), is in the Ruwenzori Range.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points WOH G64, recently observed by the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope Interferometer (ESO’s VLTI), is (a) A newly discovered exoplanet in the Milky Way galaxy (b) A red supergiant star located in the Large Magellanic Cloud (c) A black hole discovered at the center of the Andromeda galaxy (d) A neutron star formed from a recent supernova explosion in our solar system Correct Solution: B WOH G64 – Red Supergiant Star WOH G64 is a massive red supergiant star located in the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) — a nearby dwarf galaxy that orbits the Milky Way. (Hence, Option (b) is correct) It is situated around 1,60,000 light years away from Earth. The star was originally discovered in the 1970s by astronomers Westerlund, Olander, and Hedin, and its name WOH is derived from the initials of their surnames. WOH G64 is estimated to be about 2,000 times the size of the Sun, classifying it among the largest known stars by radius. Recently, it was imaged with high clarity by the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope Interferometer (ESO’s VLTI). Current stage: The star is in the final stages of its life, having expelled much of its outer layers, now surrounded by arcs of gas and dust. Incorrect Solution: B WOH G64 – Red Supergiant Star WOH G64 is a massive red supergiant star located in the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) — a nearby dwarf galaxy that orbits the Milky Way. (Hence, Option (b) is correct) It is situated around 1,60,000 light years away from Earth. The star was originally discovered in the 1970s by astronomers Westerlund, Olander, and Hedin, and its name WOH is derived from the initials of their surnames. WOH G64 is estimated to be about 2,000 times the size of the Sun, classifying it among the largest known stars by radius. Recently, it was imaged with high clarity by the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope Interferometer (ESO’s VLTI). Current stage: The star is in the final stages of its life, having expelled much of its outer layers, now surrounded by arcs of gas and dust.

#### 23. Question

WOH G64, recently observed by the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope Interferometer (ESO’s VLTI), is

• (a) A newly discovered exoplanet in the Milky Way galaxy

• (b) A red supergiant star located in the Large Magellanic Cloud

• (c) A black hole discovered at the center of the Andromeda galaxy

• (d) A neutron star formed from a recent supernova explosion in our solar system

Solution: B

WOH G64 – Red Supergiant Star

• WOH G64 is a massive red supergiant star located in the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) — a nearby dwarf galaxy that orbits the Milky Way. (Hence, Option (b) is correct)

• (Hence, Option (b) is correct)

• It is situated around 1,60,000 light years away from Earth.

• The star was originally discovered in the 1970s by astronomers Westerlund, Olander, and Hedin, and its name WOH is derived from the initials of their surnames.

• WOH G64 is estimated to be about 2,000 times the size of the Sun, classifying it among the largest known stars by radius.

• Recently, it was imaged with high clarity by the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope Interferometer (ESO’s VLTI).

• Current stage: The star is in the final stages of its life, having expelled much of its outer layers, now surrounded by arcs of gas and dust.

Solution: B

WOH G64 – Red Supergiant Star

• WOH G64 is a massive red supergiant star located in the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) — a nearby dwarf galaxy that orbits the Milky Way. (Hence, Option (b) is correct)

• (Hence, Option (b) is correct)

• It is situated around 1,60,000 light years away from Earth.

• The star was originally discovered in the 1970s by astronomers Westerlund, Olander, and Hedin, and its name WOH is derived from the initials of their surnames.

• WOH G64 is estimated to be about 2,000 times the size of the Sun, classifying it among the largest known stars by radius.

• Recently, it was imaged with high clarity by the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope Interferometer (ESO’s VLTI).

• Current stage: The star is in the final stages of its life, having expelled much of its outer layers, now surrounded by arcs of gas and dust.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with respect to the State of Forest Report 2023: There is an increasing trend in the Forest Cover at the national level as compared to the previous assessment. The maximum increase in forest and tree cover has been observed in the State of Maharashtra. The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Chhattisgarh. Karnataka has shown the highest increase in the bamboo bearing area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Statement 1 correct – The State of Forest Report 2023 shows a net increase in forest and tree cover at the national level, mainly due to promotion of agroforestry in 21 States and UTs. Statement 2 incorrect – Chhattisgarh recorded the highest increase in combined forest and tree cover (+683.62 km²), followed by Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan. Statement 3 incorrect – The maximum tree cover is in Maharashtra (14,524.88 km²), not Chhattisgarh. Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh follow next. Statement 4 incorrect – Karnataka showed the largest decline in bamboo area (−1,290 km²), followed by Manipur. More about ISFR 2023: Total Forest Cover: India’s total forest cover stands at 7,13,789 km², accounting for 21.71% of the total geographical area. Top States in Forest Cover (by Area): Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra. Top States in Forest Cover (by % of geographical area): Mizoram leads with 84.53%, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Nagaland. Mangrove Cover: India’s mangrove cover increased by 17 km², reaching 4,992 km² in total. Odisha, Maharashtra, and Karnataka showed the highest gains. Carbon Stock Increase: The total carbon stock in India’s forests is estimated at 7,204 million tonnes, marking an increase of 147 million tonnes compared to the previous assessment. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 correct – The State of Forest Report 2023 shows a net increase in forest and tree cover at the national level, mainly due to promotion of agroforestry in 21 States and UTs. Statement 2 incorrect – Chhattisgarh recorded the highest increase in combined forest and tree cover (+683.62 km²), followed by Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan. Statement 3 incorrect – The maximum tree cover is in Maharashtra (14,524.88 km²), not Chhattisgarh. Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh follow next. Statement 4 incorrect – Karnataka showed the largest decline in bamboo area (−1,290 km²), followed by Manipur. More about ISFR 2023: Total Forest Cover: India’s total forest cover stands at 7,13,789 km², accounting for 21.71% of the total geographical area. Top States in Forest Cover (by Area): Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra. Top States in Forest Cover (by % of geographical area): Mizoram leads with 84.53%, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Nagaland. Mangrove Cover: India’s mangrove cover increased by 17 km², reaching 4,992 km² in total. Odisha, Maharashtra, and Karnataka showed the highest gains. Carbon Stock Increase: The total carbon stock in India’s forests is estimated at 7,204 million tonnes, marking an increase of 147 million tonnes compared to the previous assessment.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements with respect to the State of Forest Report 2023:

• There is an increasing trend in the Forest Cover at the national level as compared to the previous assessment.

• The maximum increase in forest and tree cover has been observed in the State of Maharashtra.

• The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Chhattisgarh.

• Karnataka has shown the highest increase in the bamboo bearing area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 4 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

Statement 1 correct – The State of Forest Report 2023 shows a net increase in forest and tree cover at the national level, mainly due to promotion of agroforestry in 21 States and UTs.

Statement 2 incorrect – Chhattisgarh recorded the highest increase in combined forest and tree cover (+683.62 km²), followed by Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan.

Statement 3 incorrect – The maximum tree cover is in Maharashtra (14,524.88 km²), not Chhattisgarh. Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh follow next.

Statement 4 incorrect – Karnataka showed the largest decline in bamboo area (−1,290 km²), followed by Manipur.

More about ISFR 2023:

• Total Forest Cover: India’s total forest cover stands at 7,13,789 km², accounting for 21.71% of the total geographical area.

• Top States in Forest Cover (by Area): Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra.

• Top States in Forest Cover (by % of geographical area): Mizoram leads with 84.53%, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Nagaland.

• Mangrove Cover: India’s mangrove cover increased by 17 km², reaching 4,992 km² in total. Odisha, Maharashtra, and Karnataka showed the highest gains.

• Carbon Stock Increase: The total carbon stock in India’s forests is estimated at 7,204 million tonnes, marking an increase of 147 million tonnes compared to the previous assessment.

Solution: A

Statement 2 incorrect – Chhattisgarh recorded the highest increase in combined forest and tree cover (+683.62 km²), followed by Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan.

Statement 3 incorrect – The maximum tree cover is in Maharashtra (14,524.88 km²), not Chhattisgarh. Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh follow next.

Statement 4 incorrect – Karnataka showed the largest decline in bamboo area (−1,290 km²), followed by Manipur.

More about ISFR 2023:

• Total Forest Cover: India’s total forest cover stands at 7,13,789 km², accounting for 21.71% of the total geographical area.

• Top States in Forest Cover (by Area): Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra.

• Top States in Forest Cover (by % of geographical area): Mizoram leads with 84.53%, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Nagaland.

• Mangrove Cover: India’s mangrove cover increased by 17 km², reaching 4,992 km² in total. Odisha, Maharashtra, and Karnataka showed the highest gains.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW): IFAW operates under the United Nations Environment Programme as an intergovernmental treaty body. It has collaborated with African governments on elephant relocation and anti-poaching missions. IFAW’s projects span across marine and terrestrial animal welfare, including whales, elephants, and big cats. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statements 2 and 3 are correct. IFAW has worked with African countries like Malawi, Kenya, and Zambia on elephant translocations, anti-poaching patrols, and community conservation. Its scope includes both marine and terrestrial animals—notably, it campaigns against whaling, rescues stranded marine mammals, and protects land animals such as elephants, lions, and koalas. Statement 1 is incorrect—IFAW is an independent NGO, not part of the United Nations system or any intergovernmental treaty mechanism. Therefore, only two statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Statements 2 and 3 are correct. IFAW has worked with African countries like Malawi, Kenya, and Zambia on elephant translocations, anti-poaching patrols, and community conservation. Its scope includes both marine and terrestrial animals—notably, it campaigns against whaling, rescues stranded marine mammals, and protects land animals such as elephants, lions, and koalas. Statement 1 is incorrect—IFAW is an independent NGO, not part of the United Nations system or any intergovernmental treaty mechanism. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements regarding International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW):

• IFAW operates under the United Nations Environment Programme as an intergovernmental treaty body.

• It has collaborated with African governments on elephant relocation and anti-poaching missions.

• IFAW’s projects span across marine and terrestrial animal welfare, including whales, elephants, and big cats.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• IFAW has worked with African countries like Malawi, Kenya, and Zambia on elephant translocations, anti-poaching patrols, and community conservation.

• Its scope includes both marine and terrestrial animals—notably, it campaigns against whaling, rescues stranded marine mammals, and protects land animals such as elephants, lions, and koalas.

Statement 1 is incorrect—IFAW is an independent NGO, not part of the United Nations system or any intergovernmental treaty mechanism. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

Solution: B

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• IFAW has worked with African countries like Malawi, Kenya, and Zambia on elephant translocations, anti-poaching patrols, and community conservation.

Statement 1 is incorrect—IFAW is an independent NGO, not part of the United Nations system or any intergovernmental treaty mechanism. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Privatisation is not a default option; rather, it is resorted to only out of extreme necessity. Privatization is resorted not just when the firm makes losses, but only when the physical performance is so bad that the PSU becomes a political embarrassment to the Government. This may explain the hesitation to privatise some of the largest loss-making PSUs — Air India, the BSNL and MTNL — as the embarrassment threshold may not have been reached as yet. But why privatise a profit-making PSU. What comes into play here is not the lofty ―business is not the business of government‖ argument, but a more mundane fiscal imperative. The Finance Minister‘s disinvestment target of a little over a lakh of crores for the current fiscal has to be met. It is this fiscal requirement that now drives privatisation. Let us revisit the question: Should profit-making PSUs be privatised? It is good to remember what former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh once said on the issue. He made the assurance that the government would not ―privatise profit making PSUs working in competitive environments‖. That is, if the output price is a competitive price and you still make a profit, then you are efficient and the need to privatise does not arise. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Government should interfere into the market. Disinvestment is the major contributor to fiscal consolidation. Government should not privatize any profit making PSUs. Which of the above assumptions is/re valid? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. None of the above Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Statements 1 and 2 are neither mentioned directly in nor can be inferred from the passage given above. Statement 3 is incorrect as the passage suggests that only those profit making PSUs which are working in competitive environments should not be privatised. This means that other profit making PSUs can be privatised. Hence Option (d) is correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Statements 1 and 2 are neither mentioned directly in nor can be inferred from the passage given above. Statement 3 is incorrect as the passage suggests that only those profit making PSUs which are working in competitive environments should not be privatised. This means that other profit making PSUs can be privatised. Hence Option (d) is correct answer.

#### 26. Question

Privatisation is not a default option; rather, it is resorted to only out of extreme necessity. Privatization is resorted not just when the firm makes losses, but only when the physical performance is so bad that the PSU becomes a political embarrassment to the Government. This may explain the hesitation to privatise some of the largest loss-making PSUs — Air India, the BSNL and MTNL — as the embarrassment threshold may not have been reached as yet. But why privatise a profit-making PSU. What comes into play here is not the lofty ―business is not the business of government‖ argument, but a more mundane fiscal imperative. The Finance Minister‘s disinvestment target of a little over a lakh of crores for the current fiscal has to be met. It is this fiscal requirement that now drives privatisation. Let us revisit the question: Should profit-making PSUs be privatised? It is good to remember what former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh once said on the issue. He made the assurance that the government would not ―privatise profit making PSUs working in competitive environments‖. That is, if the output price is a competitive price and you still make a profit, then you are efficient and the need to privatise does not arise.

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

• Government should interfere into the market.

• Disinvestment is the major contributor to fiscal consolidation.

• Government should not privatize any profit making PSUs.

Which of the above assumptions is/re valid?

• a. 1 and 2 only

• c. 1 and 3 only

• d. None of the above

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Statements 1 and 2 are neither mentioned directly in nor can be inferred from the passage given above.

Statement 3 is incorrect as the passage suggests that only those profit making PSUs which are working in competitive environments should not be privatised. This means that other profit making PSUs can be privatised. Hence Option (d) is correct answer.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Statements 1 and 2 are neither mentioned directly in nor can be inferred from the passage given above.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The radius of the sphere is 25% more than the length of the rectangle. The breadth of the rectangle is 22cm. If the area of the rectangle is equal to the curved surface area of the sphere, then what will be the curved surface area of the sphere? a. 24.64 b. 30.64 c. 28.64 d. 32.64 Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Answer A) 24.64 Let the length of the rectangle=x Radius of the sphere=125x/100=5x/4 422/7(5x/4)(5x/4)=22x X=28/25 Radius=5/428/25=7/5 CSA of sphere=422/77/57/5=24.64 Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Answer A) 24.64 Let the length of the rectangle=x Radius of the sphere=125x/100=5x/4 422/7(5x/4)(5x/4)=22x X=28/25 Radius=5/428/25=7/5 CSA of sphere=422/77/57/5=24.64

#### 27. Question

The radius of the sphere is 25% more than the length of the rectangle. The breadth of the rectangle is 22cm. If the area of the rectangle is equal to the curved surface area of the sphere, then what will be the curved surface area of the sphere?

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Answer A) 24.64

Let the length of the rectangle=x

Radius of the sphere=125x/100=5x/4

422/7(5x/4)(5x/4)=22*x

Radius=5/4*28/25=7/5

CSA of sphere=422/77/5*7/5=24.64

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Answer A) 24.64

Let the length of the rectangle=x

Radius of the sphere=125x/100=5x/4

422/7(5x/4)(5x/4)=22*x

Radius=5/4*28/25=7/5

CSA of sphere=422/77/5*7/5=24.64

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Alok and Rudra started from two places Gadag and Dharwad towards Dharwad and Gadag respectively at 8:20am. The speeds of Alok and Rudra are in the ratio 4:5. They meet at Hubli Channamma Circle, somewhere between Gadag and Dharwad spent some time together for coffee and burger and then both started towards their destination at 9:27 am. If Alok reaches Dharwad at 10:32 am, how much time did they spend together? a. 60 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 15 minutes d. 30 minutes Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Time taken by Alok to travel from the meeting point to Dharwad, =10:32 am − 9:27 am = 1 hr 5 min Speed of Alok and Rudra = 4: 5 Since time is inversely proportional to speed, time taken by Rudra to travel from Dharwad to the meeting point = (1 hr 5 min) × 4/5 = 48 + 4 = 52 min Therefore, time at which they both reached the meeting point = 8:20 am + 52 min = 9:12 am Time that they spent together for coffee and burger = 9:27 am − 9:12 am = 15 minutes. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Time taken by Alok to travel from the meeting point to Dharwad, =10:32 am − 9:27 am = 1 hr 5 min Speed of Alok and Rudra = 4: 5 Since time is inversely proportional to speed, time taken by Rudra to travel from Dharwad to the meeting point = (1 hr 5 min) × 4/5 = 48 + 4 = 52 min Therefore, time at which they both reached the meeting point = 8:20 am + 52 min = 9:12 am Time that they spent together for coffee and burger = 9:27 am − 9:12 am = 15 minutes. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

#### 28. Question

Alok and Rudra started from two places Gadag and Dharwad towards Dharwad and Gadag respectively at 8:20am. The speeds of Alok and Rudra are in the ratio 4:5. They meet at Hubli Channamma Circle, somewhere between Gadag and Dharwad spent some time together for coffee and burger and then both started towards their destination at 9:27 am. If Alok reaches Dharwad at 10:32 am, how much time did they spend together?

• a. 60 minutes

• b. 20 minutes

• c. 15 minutes

• d. 30 minutes

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Time taken by Alok to travel from the meeting point to Dharwad,

=10:32 am − 9:27 am = 1 hr 5 min Speed of Alok and Rudra = 4: 5

Since time is inversely proportional to speed, time taken by Rudra to travel from Dharwad to the meeting point = (1 hr 5 min) × 4/5 = 48 + 4 = 52 min

Therefore, time at which they both reached the meeting point = 8:20 am + 52 min = 9:12 am

Time that they spent together for coffee and burger = 9:27 am − 9:12 am = 15 minutes. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Time taken by Alok to travel from the meeting point to Dharwad,

=10:32 am − 9:27 am = 1 hr 5 min Speed of Alok and Rudra = 4: 5

Since time is inversely proportional to speed, time taken by Rudra to travel from Dharwad to the meeting point = (1 hr 5 min) × 4/5 = 48 + 4 = 52 min

Therefore, time at which they both reached the meeting point = 8:20 am + 52 min = 9:12 am

Time that they spent together for coffee and burger = 9:27 am − 9:12 am = 15 minutes. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (A), (B) and (C). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Statement: A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last two days has paralyzed the normal life in the state in which five persons were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the state. Courses of action: (A). The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation. (B). The state government should immediately remove all the restrictions on use of potable water in all the major cities in the state. (C). The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state. a. None b. Only (A) c. Only (B) and (C) d. Only (C) Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Explanation: The alarming situation is pretty obvious. So a review committee is not required. Hence I does not follow. Water crisis is not the concern of the statement. Hence II does not follow. Merely two days of downpour does not merit “relief supplies”; one assumes there is not a flood-like situation as yet. Hence III does not follow. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Explanation: The alarming situation is pretty obvious. So a review committee is not required. Hence I does not follow. Water crisis is not the concern of the statement. Hence II does not follow. Merely two days of downpour does not merit “relief supplies”; one assumes there is not a flood-like situation as yet. Hence III does not follow.

#### 29. Question

In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered (A), (B) and (C). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement: A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last two days has paralyzed the normal life in the state in which five persons were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the state.

Courses of action:

(A). The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation.

(B). The state government should immediately remove all the restrictions on use of potable water in all the major cities in the state.

(C). The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state.

• b. Only (A)

• c. Only (B) and (C)

• d. Only (C)

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Explanation:

The alarming situation is pretty obvious. So a review committee is not required. Hence I does not follow. Water crisis is not the concern of the statement. Hence II does not follow. Merely two days of downpour does not merit “relief supplies”; one assumes there is not a flood-like situation as yet. Hence III does not follow.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Explanation:

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Consider the following statements and a question: Question: What is the minimum possible number of persons in a queue if P, Q, and R are among them? Statement I: There are 10 persons between P and Q, and 4 persons between Q and R. Statement II: R is third from the front, and 18 people are behind P. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question? a. Statement I alone is sufficient b. Statement II alone is sufficient c. Both statements together are not sufficient d. Both statements together are sufficient Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Statement I: Order of P, Q, R unknown → multiple sequences possible → insufficient Statement II: R is 3rd from front, P has 18 behind → still does not clarify positions of Q or total Combine both: Try case where R is 3rd, then Q and P must follow. Try R-Q-P arrangement: → 2 + R + 4 + Q + 10 + P + 18 = 2 + 1 + 4 + 1 + 10 + 1 + 18 = 37 Hence, both together are sufficient Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Statement I: Order of P, Q, R unknown → multiple sequences possible → insufficient Statement II: R is 3rd from front, P has 18 behind → still does not clarify positions of Q or total Combine both: Try case where R is 3rd, then Q and P must follow. Try R-Q-P arrangement: → 2 + R + 4 + Q + 10 + P + 18 = 2 + 1 + 4 + 1 + 10 + 1 + 18 = 37 Hence, both together are sufficient

#### 30. Question

Consider the following statements and a question:

Question: What is the minimum possible number of persons in a queue if P, Q, and R are among them?

Statement I: There are 10 persons between P and Q, and 4 persons between Q and R. Statement II: R is third from the front, and 18 people are behind P.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

• a. Statement I alone is sufficient

• b. Statement II alone is sufficient

• c. Both statements together are not sufficient

• d. Both statements together are sufficient

Correct Option : D

Justification :

• Statement I: Order of P, Q, R unknown → multiple sequences possible → insufficient

• Statement II: R is 3rd from front, P has 18 behind → still does not clarify positions of Q or total

Combine both:

Try case where R is 3rd, then Q and P must follow. Try R-Q-P arrangement: → 2 + R + 4 + Q + 10 + P + 18 = 2 + 1 + 4 + 1 + 10 + 1 + 18 = 37

Hence, both together are sufficient

Correct Option : D

Justification :

• Statement I: Order of P, Q, R unknown → multiple sequences possible → insufficient

• Statement II: R is 3rd from front, P has 18 behind → still does not clarify positions of Q or total

Combine both:

Try case where R is 3rd, then Q and P must follow. Try R-Q-P arrangement: → 2 + R + 4 + Q + 10 + P + 18 = 2 + 1 + 4 + 1 + 10 + 1 + 18 = 37