DAY – 71 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – Ancient & Medieval , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2019 and Mar 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

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• Question 1 of 20 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the UMANG Initiative: It aims to provide a seamless integration with popular customer-centric services like Digilocker and Myscheme. It is jointly developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and National e-Governance Division Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is developed by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and National e-Governance Division (NeGD) to drive Mobile Governance in India. UMANG is a step towards the goal of less government and more governance. The app has many features that make it a convenient and user-friendly platform for accessing government services. UMANG provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens to access pan India e-Gov services ranging from Central to Local Government bodies. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is developed by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and National e-Governance Division (NeGD) to drive Mobile Governance in India. UMANG is a step towards the goal of less government and more governance. The app has many features that make it a convenient and user-friendly platform for accessing government services. UMANG provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens to access pan India e-Gov services ranging from Central to Local Government bodies.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the UMANG Initiative:

• It aims to provide a seamless integration with popular customer-centric services like Digilocker and Myscheme.

• It is jointly developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and National e-Governance Division

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is developed by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and National e-Governance Division (NeGD) to drive Mobile Governance in India.

UMANG is a step towards the goal of less government and more governance. The app has many features that make it a convenient and user-friendly platform for accessing government services.

UMANG provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens to access pan India e-Gov services ranging from Central to Local Government bodies.

Solution: C

Explanation:

UMANG is a step towards the goal of less government and more governance. The app has many features that make it a convenient and user-friendly platform for accessing government services.

UMANG provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens to access pan India e-Gov services ranging from Central to Local Government bodies.

• Question 2 of 20 2. Question 1 points With reference to Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana, consider the following statements: It was introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It recognizes the contribution of working women towards the society. It has another component called the Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY), introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, is a comprehensive initiative aimed at empowering senior citizens in India. Statement 2 is not correct: This scheme recognizes the invaluable contribution made by the elderly to society and seeks to ensure their well-being and social inclusion. Statement 3 is correct: Another component under the AVYAY Scheme is Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY), to provide eligible senior citizens suffering from any of the age-related disability/ infirmity, with assisted living devices which can restore near normalcy in their bodily functions, overcoming the disability/ infirmity manifested such as low vision, hearing impairment, loss of teeth and loco-motor disabilities. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY), introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, is a comprehensive initiative aimed at empowering senior citizens in India. Statement 2 is not correct: This scheme recognizes the invaluable contribution made by the elderly to society and seeks to ensure their well-being and social inclusion. Statement 3 is correct: Another component under the AVYAY Scheme is Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY), to provide eligible senior citizens suffering from any of the age-related disability/ infirmity, with assisted living devices which can restore near normalcy in their bodily functions, overcoming the disability/ infirmity manifested such as low vision, hearing impairment, loss of teeth and loco-motor disabilities.

#### 2. Question

With reference to Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana, consider the following statements:

• It was introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

• It recognizes the contribution of working women towards the society.

• It has another component called the Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY), introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, is a comprehensive initiative aimed at empowering senior citizens in India.

Statement 2 is not correct: This scheme recognizes the invaluable contribution made by the elderly to society and seeks to ensure their well-being and social inclusion.

Statement 3 is correct: Another component under the AVYAY Scheme is Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY), to provide eligible senior citizens suffering from any of the age-related disability/ infirmity, with assisted living devices which can restore near normalcy in their bodily functions, overcoming the disability/ infirmity manifested such as low vision, hearing impairment, loss of teeth and loco-motor disabilities.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is not correct: This scheme recognizes the invaluable contribution made by the elderly to society and seeks to ensure their well-being and social inclusion.

• Question 3 of 20 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Nitrous oxide is more potent than methane as a greenhouse gas. Nitrogen oxides cannot be generated from coal power plants. Nitrogen pollution can create “dead zones” in the ocean. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Nitrous oxide is 300 times more potent than methane and carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas. It is also the biggest human-made threat to the ozone layer. Statement 2 is not correct: Nitrogen oxides generate from coal power plants, factory emissions and vehicle exhausts, can lead to smog and ground-level ozone. With an atmospheric lifetime of 200 years, nitrous oxide poses a much more long-term threat than other forms of pollutants. Statement 3 is correct: Nitrogen pollution can create “dead zones” in the ocean and cause toxic algal blooms to spread in marine ecosystems. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Nitrous oxide is 300 times more potent than methane and carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas. It is also the biggest human-made threat to the ozone layer. Statement 2 is not correct: Nitrogen oxides generate from coal power plants, factory emissions and vehicle exhausts, can lead to smog and ground-level ozone. With an atmospheric lifetime of 200 years, nitrous oxide poses a much more long-term threat than other forms of pollutants. Statement 3 is correct: *Nitrogen pollution can create “dead zones” in the ocean and cause toxic algal blooms to spread in marine ecosystems.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Nitrous oxide is more potent than methane as a greenhouse gas.

• Nitrogen oxides cannot be generated from coal power plants.

• Nitrogen pollution can create “dead zones” in the ocean.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Nitrous oxide is 300 times more potent than methane and carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.

It is also the biggest human-made threat to the ozone layer.

Statement 2 is not correct: Nitrogen oxides generate from coal power plants, factory emissions and vehicle exhausts, can lead to smog and ground-level ozone.

With an atmospheric lifetime of 200 years, nitrous oxide poses a much more long-term threat than other forms of pollutants.

Statement 3 is correct: Nitrogen pollution can create “dead zones” in the ocean and cause toxic algal blooms to spread in marine ecosystems.

Solution: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Nitrous oxide is 300 times more potent than methane and carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.

It is also the biggest human-made threat to the ozone layer.

Statement 2 is not correct: Nitrogen oxides generate from coal power plants, factory emissions and vehicle exhausts, can lead to smog and ground-level ozone.

With an atmospheric lifetime of 200 years, nitrous oxide poses a much more long-term threat than other forms of pollutants.

Statement 3 is correct: Nitrogen pollution can create “dead zones” in the ocean and cause toxic algal blooms to spread in marine ecosystems.

• Question 4 of 20 4. Question 1 points The KALIA Scheme recently seen in the news has been enacted to- (a) Encourage students to realize their full potential through an Innovative Learning Programme. (b) Provide farmers with a flexible support system ensuring accelerated agricultural prosperity. (c) Improve access to the quality mental health counselling and care services in the country. (d) Make rural households digitally literate by providing them with access to digital devices. Correct Solution: B Explanation: Option (B) is correct: KALIA scheme is a package for farmer’s welfare. KALIA stands for “Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation”. This scheme has been launched by Odisha Government to accelerate Agricultural Prosperity and reduce poverty in the State. Financing agriculture and insuring the cultivators is essential to eradicate poverty and to boost shared prosperity of the state. Through the implementation of Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation – KALIA Scheme , the State Government aims to lend farmers with an all-inclusive and flexible support system, ensuring accelerated agricultural prosperity. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Option (B) is correct: KALIA scheme is a package for farmer’s welfare. KALIA stands for “Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation”. This scheme has been launched by Odisha Government to accelerate Agricultural Prosperity and reduce poverty in the State. Financing agriculture and insuring the cultivators is essential to eradicate poverty and to boost shared prosperity of the state. Through the implementation of Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation – KALIA Scheme , the State Government aims to lend farmers with an all-inclusive and flexible support system, ensuring accelerated agricultural prosperity.

#### 4. Question

The KALIA Scheme recently seen in the news has been enacted to-

• (a) Encourage students to realize their full potential through an Innovative Learning Programme.

• (b) Provide farmers with a flexible support system ensuring accelerated agricultural prosperity.

• (c) Improve access to the quality mental health counselling and care services in the country.

• (d) Make rural households digitally literate by providing them with access to digital devices.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Option (B) is correct: KALIA scheme is a package for farmer’s welfare. KALIA stands for “Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation”.

This scheme has been launched by Odisha Government to accelerate Agricultural Prosperity and reduce poverty in the State.

Financing agriculture and insuring the cultivators is essential to eradicate poverty and to boost shared prosperity of the state.

Through the implementation of Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation – KALIA Scheme , the State Government aims to lend farmers with an all-inclusive and flexible support system, ensuring accelerated agricultural prosperity.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Option (B) is correct: KALIA scheme is a package for farmer’s welfare. KALIA stands for “Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation”.

This scheme has been launched by Odisha Government to accelerate Agricultural Prosperity and reduce poverty in the State.

Financing agriculture and insuring the cultivators is essential to eradicate poverty and to boost shared prosperity of the state.

• Question 5 of 20 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The AYUSHMAN SAHAKAR Scheme was launched- To assist cooperatives in creation of healthcare infrastructure in the country. Autonomously under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are *not correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: Union Minister of State for Agriculture launched AYUSHMAN SAHAKAR, a unique scheme to assist cooperatives play an important role in creation of healthcare infrastructure in the country formulated by the apex autonomous development finance institution under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC). Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Option (b) is correct: *Union Minister of State for Agriculture launched AYUSHMAN SAHAKAR, a unique scheme to assist cooperatives play an important role in creation of healthcare infrastructure in the country formulated by the apex autonomous development finance institution under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

The AYUSHMAN SAHAKAR Scheme was launched-

• To assist cooperatives in creation of healthcare infrastructure in the country.

• Autonomously under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Union Minister of State for Agriculture launched AYUSHMAN SAHAKAR, a unique scheme to assist cooperatives play an important role in creation of healthcare infrastructure in the country formulated by the apex autonomous development finance institution under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Question 6 of 20 6. Question 1 points A change in which of the following shows a change in the Gross Fixed Capital Formation? Machinery Factory buildings Inventory stock How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Gross Fixed Capital Formation, measures the growth in fixed capital in an economy, including assets like buildings and machinery. It serves as an indicator of private sector investment willingness and includes government investment. GFCF is important because fixed capital boosts economic growth by increasing productivity and living standards. Developed economies tend to have more fixed capital per capita compared to developing ones. Q Source: April current events Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Gross Fixed Capital Formation, measures the growth in fixed capital in an economy, including assets like buildings and machinery. It serves as an indicator of private sector investment willingness and includes government investment. GFCF is important because fixed capital boosts economic growth by increasing productivity and living standards. Developed economies tend to have more fixed capital per capita compared to developing ones. Q Source: April current events

#### 6. Question

A change in which of the following shows a change in the Gross Fixed Capital Formation?

• Factory buildings

• Inventory stock

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: Gross Fixed Capital Formation, measures the growth in fixed capital in an economy, including assets like buildings and machinery. It serves as an indicator of private sector investment willingness and includes government investment. GFCF is important because fixed capital boosts economic growth by increasing productivity and living standards. Developed economies tend to have more fixed capital per capita compared to developing ones.

Q Source: April current events

Solution: b)

Q Source: April current events

• Question 7 of 20 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched by UNESCO. WCC aims to establish a network of craft cities globally, promoting the principles of the creative economy and preserving traditional crafts. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI), a Kuwait-based organization. It acknowledges the contributions of local authorities, craftspeople, and communities to cultural, economic, and social development worldwide. WCC aims to establish a network of craft cities globally, promoting the principles of the creative economy and preserving traditional crafts. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI), a Kuwait-based organization. It acknowledges the contributions of local authorities, craftspeople, and communities to cultural, economic, and social development worldwide. WCC aims to establish a network of craft cities globally, promoting the principles of the creative economy and preserving traditional crafts. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched by UNESCO.

• WCC aims to establish a network of craft cities globally, promoting the principles of the creative economy and preserving traditional crafts.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: b)

Justification: The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI), a Kuwait-based organization.

It acknowledges the contributions of local authorities, craftspeople, and communities to cultural, economic, and social development worldwide. WCC aims to establish a network of craft cities globally, promoting the principles of the creative economy and preserving traditional crafts.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/

Solution: b)

Justification: The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI), a Kuwait-based organization.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/

• Question 8 of 20 8. Question 1 points The mandate of the United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFPA) includes mainly dealing with voluntary family planning maternal health care labour rights Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above Correct Solution: a) Justification: UNFPA, headquartered in New York, USA, was established in 1969 as the United Nations sexual and reproductive health agency. Its mandate, established by the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), includes supporting access to various sexual and reproductive health services, such as voluntary family planning, maternal health care, and comprehensive sexuality education. State of World Population 2024 report is released by the United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFPA). The report, titled “Interwoven Lives, Threads of Hope: Ending Inequalities in Sexual and Reproductive Health (SRH) and Rights,” highlights women’s sexual and reproductive health and rights (SRHR), encompassing freedom from torture, right to health, privacy, education, life, and discrimination prohibition. Q Source: April current events Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: UNFPA, headquartered in New York, USA, was established in 1969 as the United Nations sexual and reproductive health agency. Its mandate, established by the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), includes supporting access to various sexual and reproductive health services, such as voluntary family planning, maternal health care, and comprehensive sexuality education. State of World Population 2024 report is released by the United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFPA). The report, titled “Interwoven Lives, Threads of Hope: Ending Inequalities in Sexual and Reproductive Health (SRH) and Rights,” highlights women’s sexual and reproductive health and rights (SRHR), encompassing freedom from torture, right to health, privacy, education, life, and discrimination prohibition. Q Source: April current events

#### 8. Question

The mandate of the United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFPA) includes mainly dealing with

• voluntary family planning

• maternal health care

• labour rights

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• c) 1, 2 and 3

• d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Justification: UNFPA, headquartered in New York, USA, was established in 1969 as the United Nations sexual and reproductive health agency. Its mandate, established by the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), includes supporting access to various sexual and reproductive health services, such as voluntary family planning, maternal health care, and comprehensive sexuality education.

State of World Population 2024 report is released by the United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFPA).

The report, titled “Interwoven Lives, Threads of Hope: Ending Inequalities in Sexual and Reproductive Health (SRH) and Rights,” highlights women’s sexual and reproductive health and rights (SRHR), encompassing freedom from torture, right to health, privacy, education, life, and discrimination prohibition.

Q Source: April current events

Solution: a)

State of World Population 2024 report is released by the United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFPA).

Q Source: April current events

• Question 9 of 20 9. Question 1 points As per the Global Forest Watch (GFW) Report, which of these states contributed to 60% of all tree cover loss between 2001-2023? a) Assam, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Manipur b) Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka c) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Manipur and Assam d) Assam, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Arunachal Pradesh Correct Solution: a) Justification: India has lost 2.33 million hectares (Mha) of tree cover since 2000, marking a 6% decrease during 2001-2023. Notably, five states—Assam, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Manipur—contributed to 60% of all tree cover loss between 2001-2023. Deforestation and climate change, leading to extreme heat and wildfires, are major drivers of tree cover loss, with Odisha and Arunachal Pradesh experiencing the highest tree cover loss due to fires according to GFW. The World Resources Institute (WRI) established Global Forest Watch (GFW) in 1997 as an online platform offering data and tools to monitor forests. GFW provides access to near real-time information on global forest changes, enabling users to track and analyze forest dynamics worldwide. Q Source: April current events Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: India has lost 2.33 million hectares (Mha) of tree cover since 2000, marking a 6% decrease during 2001-2023. Notably, five states—Assam, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Manipur—contributed to 60% of all tree cover loss between 2001-2023. Deforestation and climate change, leading to extreme heat and wildfires, are major drivers of tree cover loss, with Odisha and Arunachal Pradesh experiencing the highest tree cover loss due to fires according to GFW. The World Resources Institute (WRI) established Global Forest Watch (GFW) in 1997 as an online platform offering data and tools to monitor forests. GFW provides access to near real-time information on global forest changes, enabling users to track and analyze forest dynamics worldwide. Q Source: April current events

#### 9. Question

As per the Global Forest Watch (GFW) Report, which of these states contributed to 60% of all tree cover loss between 2001-2023?

• a) Assam, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Manipur

• b) Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

• c) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Manipur and Assam

• d) Assam, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Arunachal Pradesh

Solution: a)

Justification: India has lost 2.33 million hectares (Mha) of tree cover since 2000, marking a 6% decrease during 2001-2023.

Notably, five states—Assam, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Manipur—contributed to 60% of all tree cover loss between 2001-2023.

Deforestation and climate change, leading to extreme heat and wildfires, are major drivers of tree cover loss, with Odisha and Arunachal Pradesh experiencing the highest tree cover loss due to fires according to GFW.

The World Resources Institute (WRI) established Global Forest Watch (GFW) in 1997 as an online platform offering data and tools to monitor forests. GFW provides access to near real-time information on global forest changes, enabling users to track and analyze forest dynamics worldwide.

Q Source: April current events

Solution: a)

Justification: India has lost 2.33 million hectares (Mha) of tree cover since 2000, marking a 6% decrease during 2001-2023.

Notably, five states—Assam, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Manipur—contributed to 60% of all tree cover loss between 2001-2023.

Q Source: April current events

• Question 10 of 20 10. Question 1 points Which of the following kinds of arts or handicrafts primarily come from the region of Srinagar? Papier mâché Walnut wood carving Kani shawls Khatamband How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: Srinagar is being considered for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) title by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI). For instance, Kani shawls are woven using the Kani technique, where each thread is individually looped and woven into the fabric, creating intricate patterns and designs. Read about other forms of arts and craft here https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/ Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Srinagar is being considered for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) title by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI). For instance, Kani shawls are woven using the Kani technique, where each thread is individually looped and woven into the fabric, creating intricate patterns and designs. Read about other forms of arts and craft here https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/ Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/

#### 10. Question

Which of the following kinds of arts or handicrafts primarily come from the region of Srinagar?

• Papier mâché

• Walnut wood carving

• Kani shawls

• Khatamband

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification: Srinagar is being considered for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) title by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI).

For instance, Kani shawls are woven using the Kani technique, where each thread is individually looped and woven into the fabric, creating intricate patterns and designs.

Read about other forms of arts and craft here https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification: Srinagar is being considered for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) title by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI).

For instance, Kani shawls are woven using the Kani technique, where each thread is individually looped and woven into the fabric, creating intricate patterns and designs.

Read about other forms of arts and craft here https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-april-2024/

• Question 11 of 20 11. Question 1 points Directions: Below question consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is ,’strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Statement: Should foreign films be banned in India? Arguments: I. Yes. They depict an alien culture which adversely affects our values. II. No. Foreign films are of a high artistic standard.. Give answer (a) if only argument I is strong; (b) if only argument II is strong; (c) if neither I nor II is strong (d) if both 1 and If are strong. Correct Answer C) Explanation: Clearly, foreign films depict the alien culture but this only helps in learning more. So, argument I does not hold. Also, the reason stated in argument II is not strong enough in contradicting the ban. So, it also does not hold. Incorrect Answer C) Explanation: Clearly, foreign films depict the alien culture but this only helps in learning more. So, argument I does not hold. Also, the reason stated in argument II is not strong enough in contradicting the ban. So, it also does not hold.

#### 11. Question

Directions: Below question consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is ,’strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement: Should foreign films be banned in India?

Arguments: I. Yes. They depict an alien culture which adversely affects our values.

II. No. Foreign films are of a high artistic standard..

Give answer

• (a) if only argument I is strong;

• (b) if only argument II is strong;

• (c) if neither I nor II is strong

• (d) if both 1 and If are strong.

Explanation:

Clearly, foreign films depict the alien culture but this only helps in learning more. So, argument I does not hold. Also, the reason stated in argument II is not strong enough in contradicting the ban. So, it also does not hold.

Explanation:

• Question 12 of 20 12. Question 1 points Statement: From the next academic year, students will have the option of dropping Mathematics and Science for their school leaving certificate examination. Conclusions: I. Students who are weak in Science and Mathematics will be admitted. II. Earlier students did not have the choice of continuing their education without taking these subjects. (a) if only conclusion I follows; (b) if either I or II follows; (c) if neither I nor II follows; and (d) if both I and II follow. Correct Answer D) Explanation : Since the new system gives the students the option of dropping Science and Mathematics, so students weak in these subjects can also be admitted. So, I follows. Also, it is mentioned that the new system will come into effect from the next academic year. This means that it did not exist previously. So, II also follows. Incorrect Answer D) Explanation : Since the new system gives the students the option of dropping Science and Mathematics, so students weak in these subjects can also be admitted. So, I follows. Also, it is mentioned that the new system will come into effect from the next academic year. This means that it did not exist previously. So, II also follows.

#### 12. Question

Statement: From the next academic year, students will have the option of dropping Mathematics and Science for their school leaving certificate examination.

Conclusions: I. Students who are weak in Science and Mathematics will be admitted.

II. Earlier students did not have the choice of continuing their education without taking these subjects.

• (a) if only conclusion I follows;

• (b) if either I or II follows;

• (c) if neither I nor II follows; and

• (d) if both I and II follow.

Explanation :

Since the new system gives the students the option of dropping Science and Mathematics, so students weak in these subjects can also be admitted. So, I follows. Also, it is mentioned that the new system will come into effect from the next academic year. This means that it did not exist previously. So, II also follows.

Explanation :

• Question 13 of 20 13. Question 1 points Statement : Courts take too long in deciding important disputes of various departments. Courses of Action : I) Courts should be ordered to speed up matters. II) Special powers should be granted to officers to settle disputes concerning their department. (a) if only I follows (b) if only II follows (c) if either I or II follows (d) if both I and II follow Correct Answer: (d) For quick disposal of cases, either the matters in the court should be speeded up or the matters should be cleared up in their respective departments to prevent the delay. So both the courses follow Incorrect Answer: (d) For quick disposal of cases, either the matters in the court should be speeded up or the matters should be cleared up in their respective departments to prevent the delay. So both the courses follow

#### 13. Question

Statement : Courts take too long in deciding important disputes of various departments.

Courses of Action :

I) Courts should be ordered to speed up matters.

II) Special powers should be granted to officers to settle disputes concerning their department.

• (a) if only I follows

• (b) if only II follows

• (c) if either I or II follows

• (d) if both I and II follow

Answer: (d)

For quick disposal of cases, either the matters in the court should be speeded

up or the matters should be cleared up in their respective departments to prevent

the delay. So both the courses follow

Answer: (d)

For quick disposal of cases, either the matters in the court should be speeded

up or the matters should be cleared up in their respective departments to prevent

the delay. So both the courses follow

• Question 14 of 20 14. Question 1 points Automation will likely impact most jobs involving highly structured physical activity in predictable environments, such as manufacturing and retail, alongside data collection and processing. Also, automation threatens to impact women more than men, suggests the report. It points out that women are a large component of the workforce in retail, business processing outsourcing and textiles/clothing /footwear. Which of the following is the most logical and crucial inference that can be drawn from the passage? (a) Jobs that have some semblance of a routine are more at threat than others because of automation (b) Women are mostly employed in routine jobs (c) Automation is a threat to capitalistic pattern of economy (d) Unemployment will increase in future Correct Answer. A. The most crucial and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage is A as the passage does give example of jobs involving routine work which are more at threat due to automation. Hence A. Incorrect Answer. A. The most crucial and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage is A as the passage does give example of jobs involving routine work which are more at threat due to automation. Hence A.

#### 14. Question

Automation will likely impact most jobs involving highly structured physical activity in predictable environments, such as manufacturing and retail, alongside data collection and processing. Also, automation threatens to impact women more than men, suggests the report. It points out that women are a large component of the workforce in retail, business processing outsourcing and textiles/clothing /footwear.

Which of the following is the most logical and crucial inference that can be drawn from the passage?

• (a) Jobs that have some semblance of a routine are more at threat than others because of automation

• (b) Women are mostly employed in routine jobs

• (c) Automation is a threat to capitalistic pattern of economy

• (d) Unemployment will increase in future

Answer. A. The most crucial and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage is A as the passage does give example of jobs involving routine work which are more at threat due to automation. Hence A.

• Question 15 of 20 15. Question 1 points Individuals, groups and leaders who promote human development operate under strong institutional, structural and political constraints that affect policy options. But experience suggests broad principles for shaping an appropriate agenda for human development. One important finding from several decades of human development experience is that focusing exclusively on economic growth is problematic. While we have good knowledge about how to advance health and education, the causes of growth are much less certain and growth is often elusive. Further, an unbalanced emphasis on growth is often associated with negative environmental consequences and adverse distributional effects. The experience of China, with its impressive growth record, reflects these broader concerns and underlines the importance of balanced approaches that emphasize investments in the non-income aspects of human development. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements: In developing countries, a strong institutional framework is the only requirement for human development and policy options Human development and economic growth are not always positively inter-related. Focusing only on human development should be the goal of economic growth Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only Correct Answer. D. III is wrong as the passage states that focussing solely on economic growth is problematic. The corollary of this is not that the focus should only be on human development. I is wrong as there are structural and political constraints as well that need to be taken into account. Hence D is the most accurate answer. Incorrect Answer. D. III is wrong as the passage states that focussing solely on economic growth is problematic. The corollary of this is not that the focus should only be on human development. I is wrong as there are structural and political constraints as well that need to be taken into account. Hence D is the most accurate answer.

#### 15. Question

Individuals, groups and leaders who promote human development operate under strong institutional, structural and political constraints that affect policy options. But experience suggests broad principles for shaping an appropriate agenda for human development. One important finding from several decades of human development experience is that focusing exclusively on economic growth is problematic. While we have good knowledge about how to advance health and education, the causes of growth are much less certain and growth is often elusive. Further, an unbalanced emphasis on growth is often associated with negative environmental consequences and adverse distributional effects. The experience of China, with its impressive growth record, reflects these broader concerns and underlines the importance of balanced approaches that emphasize investments in the non-income aspects of human development.

With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:

• In developing countries, a strong institutional framework is the only requirement for human development and policy options Human development and economic growth are not always positively inter-related. Focusing only on human development should be the goal of economic growth

• In developing countries, a strong institutional framework is the only requirement for human development and policy options

• Human development and economic growth are not always positively inter-related.

• Focusing only on human development should be the goal of economic growth

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 2 only

Answer. D. III is wrong as the passage states that focussing solely on economic growth is problematic. The corollary of this is not that the focus should only be on human development. I is wrong as there are structural and political constraints as well that need to be taken into account. Hence D is the most accurate answer.

• Question 16 of 20 16. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes the term “Ergosphere”? (a) It is a zone of Earth’s lying beneath the lithosphere, more fluid than the mantle. (b) It is used to define the border between outer space and the Earth’s atmosphere. (c) It is a unique region present outside the Rotating black holes’ outer event horizon. (d) It is a part of the Ionosphere that absorbs the ultraviolet radiation of the Sun. Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Rotating black holes have a unique feature: a region outside their outer event horizon called the ergosphere. The label ‘ergosphere’ is so named because it is possible to extract matter and energy from the ergosphere, but not from beyond the event horizon. The centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a point where the general theory of relativity breaks down, i.e. where its predictions don’t apply. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Rotating black holes have a unique feature: a region outside their outer event horizon called the ergosphere. The label ‘ergosphere’ is so named because it is possible to extract matter and energy from the ergosphere, but not from beyond the event horizon. The centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a point where the general theory of relativity breaks down, i.e. where its predictions don’t apply.

#### 16. Question

Which one of the following statements best describes the term “Ergosphere”?

• (a) It is a zone of Earth’s lying beneath the lithosphere, more fluid than the mantle.

• (b) It is used to define the border between outer space and the Earth’s atmosphere.

• (c) It is a unique region present outside the Rotating black holes’ outer event horizon.

• (d) It is a part of the Ionosphere that absorbs the ultraviolet radiation of the Sun.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Rotating black holes have a unique feature: a region outside their outer event horizon called the ergosphere.

The label ‘ergosphere’ is so named because it is possible to extract matter and energy from the ergosphere, but not from beyond the event horizon.

The centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a point where the general theory of relativity breaks down, i.e. where its predictions don’t apply.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Rotating black holes have a unique feature: a region outside their outer event horizon called the ergosphere.

The label ‘ergosphere’ is so named because it is possible to extract matter and energy from the ergosphere, but not from beyond the event horizon.

The centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a point where the general theory of relativity breaks down, i.e. where its predictions don’t apply.

• Question 17 of 20 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The prominent symptoms of Parkinson’s disease occur when the cells in the basal ganglia degenerate. The basal ganglia play a significant role in the selection and maintenance of new and learnt behaviours. The Tourette’s syndrome involves the neurochemical disruption of specific basal ganglia networks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The most prominent signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease occur when nerve cells in the basal ganglia, an area of the brain that controls movement, become impaired and/or die. Normally, these nerve cells, or neurons, produce an important brain chemical known as dopamine. Statement 2 is correct: The basal ganglia play a role in the selection and performance of learnt behaviours, and also in the effects of reinforcement on acquisition and maintenance of new behaviours. Statement 3 is correct: Tourette’s syndrome, attention deficit disorders, and depression, involve neurochemical disruption of basal ganglia networks and/or pathology of specific basal ganglia circuits. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The most prominent signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease occur when nerve cells in the basal ganglia, an area of the brain that controls movement, become impaired and/or die. Normally, these nerve cells, or neurons, produce an important brain chemical known as dopamine. Statement 2 is correct: The basal ganglia play a role in the selection and performance of learnt behaviours, and also in the effects of reinforcement on acquisition and maintenance of new behaviours. Statement 3 is correct: Tourette’s syndrome, attention deficit disorders, and depression, involve neurochemical disruption of basal ganglia networks and/or pathology of specific basal ganglia circuits.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The prominent symptoms of Parkinson’s disease occur when the cells in the basal ganglia degenerate.

• The basal ganglia play a significant role in the selection and maintenance of new and learnt behaviours.

• The Tourette’s syndrome involves the neurochemical disruption of specific basal ganglia networks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The most prominent signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease occur when nerve cells in the basal ganglia, an area of the brain that controls movement, become impaired and/or die.

Normally, these nerve cells, or neurons, produce an important brain chemical known as dopamine.

Statement 2 is correct: The basal ganglia play a role in the selection and performance of learnt behaviours, and also in the effects of reinforcement on acquisition and maintenance of new behaviours.

Statement 3 is correct: Tourette’s syndrome, attention deficit disorders, and depression, involve neurochemical disruption of basal ganglia networks and/or pathology of specific basal ganglia circuits.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Normally, these nerve cells, or neurons, produce an important brain chemical known as dopamine.

• Question 18 of 20 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Olive Ridley Turtles- Are the smallest of all sea turtles found in the world. Are only found in the warm waters of the Indian Ocean. Are recognized as ‘Vulnerable’ by the IUCN Red list. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. Statement 2 is not correct: They inhabit the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada. Statement 3 is correct: The species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list. Though international trade in these turtles and their products is banned under CITES Appendix I, they are still extensively poached for their meat, shell and leather, and their eggs. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. Statement 2 is not correct: They inhabit the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada. Statement 3 is correct: The species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list. Though international trade in these turtles and their products is banned under CITES Appendix I, they are still extensively poached for their meat, shell and leather, and their eggs.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

The Olive Ridley Turtles-

• Are the smallest of all sea turtles found in the world.

• Are only found in the warm waters of the Indian Ocean.

• Are recognized as ‘Vulnerable’ by the IUCN Red list.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.

Statement 2 is not correct: They inhabit the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.

These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada.

Statement 3 is correct: The species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list. Though international trade in these turtles and their products is banned under CITES Appendix I, they are still extensively poached for their meat, shell and leather, and their eggs.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.

Statement 2 is not correct: They inhabit the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.

These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada.

• Question 19 of 20 19. Question 1 points The Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in the North Eastern part of Telangana along the River: (a) Godavari (b) Krishna (c) Mahananda (d) Cauvery Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in North Eastern part of Telangana having Godavari River on one side and Maharashtra border on other side. The Kawal wildlife sanctuary was declared as Tiger Reserve in 2012. This sanctuary is catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary. The Kawal Tiger Reserve extends in the districts of Nirmal, Mancherial, Adilabad and KB Asifabad Districts. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in North Eastern part of Telangana having Godavari River on one side and Maharashtra border on other side. The Kawal wildlife sanctuary was declared as Tiger Reserve in 2012. This sanctuary is catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary. The Kawal Tiger Reserve extends in the districts of Nirmal, Mancherial, Adilabad and KB Asifabad Districts.

#### 19. Question

The Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in the North Eastern part of Telangana along the River:

• (a) Godavari

• (b) Krishna

• (c) Mahananda

• (d) Cauvery

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in North Eastern part of Telangana having Godavari River on one side and Maharashtra border on other side.

• The Kawal wildlife sanctuary was declared as Tiger Reserve in 2012.

• This sanctuary is catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary.

The Kawal Tiger Reserve extends in the districts of Nirmal, Mancherial, Adilabad and KB Asifabad Districts.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in North Eastern part of Telangana having Godavari River on one side and Maharashtra border on other side.

• The Kawal wildlife sanctuary was declared as Tiger Reserve in 2012.

• This sanctuary is catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary.

The Kawal Tiger Reserve extends in the districts of Nirmal, Mancherial, Adilabad and KB Asifabad Districts.

• Question 20 of 20 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Water storage in the upper layer of soil is called soil moisture, while water storage in the saturated zone is known as groundwater. The groundwater can flow into a river below the water table which is generally referred to as baseflow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Water storage in the upper layer of soil (the unsaturated zone) is referred to as soil moisture, while water storage in the saturated zone is known as groundwater. Statement 2 is correct: Below the water table, groundwater can flow into a river, which is generally referred to as baseflow. Baseflow is the dominant factor for shorter time lags, while rainfall plays a more significant role at longer antecedent periods. A catchment with higher baseflow indicates wetter conditions, leading to an increased likelihood of rapid runoff with incoming rainfall events. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Water storage in the upper layer of soil (the unsaturated zone) is referred to as soil moisture, while water storage in the saturated zone is known as groundwater. Statement 2 is correct: Below the water table, groundwater can flow into a river, which is generally referred to as baseflow. Baseflow is the dominant factor for shorter time lags, while rainfall plays a more significant role at longer antecedent periods. A catchment with higher baseflow indicates wetter conditions, leading to an increased likelihood of rapid runoff with incoming rainfall events.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Water storage in the upper layer of soil is called soil moisture, while water storage in the saturated zone is known as groundwater.

• The groundwater can flow into a river below the water table which is generally referred to as baseflow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Water storage in the upper layer of soil (the unsaturated zone) is referred to as soil moisture, while water storage in the saturated zone is known as groundwater.

Statement 2 is correct: Below the water table, groundwater can flow into a river, which is generally referred to as baseflow.

Baseflow is the dominant factor for shorter time lags, while rainfall plays a more significant role at longer antecedent periods.

A catchment with higher baseflow indicates wetter conditions, leading to an increased likelihood of rapid runoff with incoming rainfall events.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Water storage in the upper layer of soil (the unsaturated zone) is referred to as soil moisture, while water storage in the saturated zone is known as groundwater.

Statement 2 is correct: Below the water table, groundwater can flow into a river, which is generally referred to as baseflow.

Baseflow is the dominant factor for shorter time lags, while rainfall plays a more significant role at longer antecedent periods.

A catchment with higher baseflow indicates wetter conditions, leading to an increased likelihood of rapid runoff with incoming rainfall events.

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