DAY – 70 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : Polity Full Syllabus

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the National Judicial Infrastructure Authority (NJIA): It is established under the Constitution of India as an independent body. The Chief Justice of India serves as its ex-officio Chairperson. It has financial autonomy with a dedicated fund for judicial infrastructure. It monitors and implements infrastructure projects for subordinate courts only. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The National Judicial Infrastructure Authority (NJIA), established in 2024, has the Chief Justice of India as its ex-officio Chairperson, ensuring judicial leadership in infrastructure development. It has financial autonomy with a dedicated National Judicial Infrastructure Fund that receives budgetary allocations from both the Central and State governments, enabling it to plan and execute projects without procedural delays. Statement 1 is incorrect. NJIA is established through legislation, not under the Constitution of India as an independent constitutional body. It functions as a statutory body under the administrative control of the Supreme Court. Statement 4 is incorrect. NJIA monitors and implements infrastructure projects for all levels of the judiciary, including High Courts and the Supreme Court, not just subordinate courts. Its mandate covers the entire judicial system’s infrastructure needs, including physical infrastructure, digital infrastructure, and support facilities. The Authority includes representatives from both judiciary and government, aiming to address the long-standing issue of inadequate judicial infrastructure that has contributed to case backlogs and delays in the Indian judicial system. Incorrect Solution: B Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The National Judicial Infrastructure Authority (NJIA), established in 2024, has the Chief Justice of India as its ex-officio Chairperson, ensuring judicial leadership in infrastructure development. It has financial autonomy with a dedicated National Judicial Infrastructure Fund that receives budgetary allocations from both the Central and State governments, enabling it to plan and execute projects without procedural delays. Statement 1 is incorrect. NJIA is established through legislation, not under the Constitution of India as an independent constitutional body. It functions as a statutory body under the administrative control of the Supreme Court. Statement 4 is incorrect. NJIA monitors and implements infrastructure projects for all levels of the judiciary, including High Courts and the Supreme Court, not just subordinate courts. Its mandate covers the entire judicial system’s infrastructure needs, including physical infrastructure, digital infrastructure, and support facilities. The Authority includes representatives from both judiciary and government, aiming to address the long-standing issue of inadequate judicial infrastructure that has contributed to case backlogs and delays in the Indian judicial system.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the National Judicial Infrastructure Authority (NJIA):

• It is established under the Constitution of India as an independent body.

• The Chief Justice of India serves as its ex-officio Chairperson.

• It has financial autonomy with a dedicated fund for judicial infrastructure.

• It monitors and implements infrastructure projects for subordinate courts only.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

The National Judicial Infrastructure Authority (NJIA), established in 2024, has the Chief Justice of India as its ex-officio Chairperson, ensuring judicial leadership in infrastructure development. It has financial autonomy with a dedicated National Judicial Infrastructure Fund that receives budgetary allocations from both the Central and State governments, enabling it to plan and execute projects without procedural delays.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

NJIA is established through legislation, not under the Constitution of India as an independent constitutional body. It functions as a statutory body under the administrative control of the Supreme Court.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

NJIA monitors and implements infrastructure projects for all levels of the judiciary, including High Courts and the Supreme Court, not just subordinate courts. Its mandate covers the entire judicial system’s infrastructure needs, including physical infrastructure, digital infrastructure, and support facilities. The Authority includes representatives from both judiciary and government, aiming to address the long-standing issue of inadequate judicial infrastructure that has contributed to case backlogs and delays in the Indian judicial system.

Solution: B

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, which of the following statements is/are correct? It establishes a Data Protection Board with powers equivalent to a civil court. It exempts government agencies from all consent requirements for processing data. It requires data fiduciaries to obtain verifiable parental consent for processing children’s data. It allows individuals to nominate another person to exercise their rights after death. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 establishes a Data Protection Board with powers equivalent to a civil court for determining non-compliance, conducting inquiry, and imposing penalties. The Act requires data fiduciaries to obtain verifiable parental consent before processing personal data of children (individuals under 18 years). This requirement aims to protect children’s privacy rights and ensure responsible data handling. The Act allows individuals to nominate another person to exercise their rights after death, providing a mechanism for managing digital legacy and ensuring data protection rights don’t terminate with death. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Act does provide certain exemptions to government agencies for reasons like national security and public order, it does not exempt them from “all” consent requirements. The exemptions are specific and limited to certain situations rather than being blanket exemptions, and government agencies still need to adhere to principles of necessity and proportionality when processing data under exemptions. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 establishes a Data Protection Board with powers equivalent to a civil court for determining non-compliance, conducting inquiry, and imposing penalties. The Act requires data fiduciaries to obtain verifiable parental consent before processing personal data of children (individuals under 18 years). This requirement aims to protect children’s privacy rights and ensure responsible data handling. The Act allows individuals to nominate another person to exercise their rights after death, providing a mechanism for managing digital legacy and ensuring data protection rights don’t terminate with death. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Act does provide certain exemptions to government agencies for reasons like national security and public order, it does not exempt them from “all” consent requirements. The exemptions are specific and limited to certain situations rather than being blanket exemptions, and government agencies still need to adhere to principles of necessity and proportionality when processing data under exemptions.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It establishes a Data Protection Board with powers equivalent to a civil court.

• It exempts government agencies from all consent requirements for processing data.

• It requires data fiduciaries to obtain verifiable parental consent for processing children’s data.

• It allows individuals to nominate another person to exercise their rights after death.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 establishes a Data Protection Board with powers equivalent to a civil court for determining non-compliance, conducting inquiry, and imposing penalties. The Act requires data fiduciaries to obtain verifiable parental consent before processing personal data of children (individuals under 18 years). This requirement aims to protect children’s privacy rights and ensure responsible data handling. The Act allows individuals to nominate another person to exercise their rights after death, providing a mechanism for managing digital legacy and ensuring data protection rights don’t terminate with death.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

While the Act does provide certain exemptions to government agencies for reasons like national security and public order, it does not exempt them from “all” consent requirements. The exemptions are specific and limited to certain situations rather than being blanket exemptions, and government agencies still need to adhere to principles of necessity and proportionality when processing data under exemptions.

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) cardholders: They enjoy parity with Non-Resident Indians in all financial matters. They have the right to vote in Indian elections if physically present in India. They require special permission to undertake research activities in India. They are exempt from registration with the Foreigners Regional Registration Office. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: C Statements 1 and 4 are correct. OCI cardholders enjoy parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in all financial matters, including maintaining bank accounts, purchasing non-agricultural property, conducting investments, and participating in various financial transactions, except for agricultural/plantation properties. They are exempt from registration with the Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO) regardless of the length of their stay in India, unlike other foreign nationals who must register if staying beyond 180 days. Statement 2 is incorrect. OCI cardholders do not have the right to vote in Indian elections under any circumstances. Voting rights are available only to Indian citizens. Statement 3 is incorrect. While earlier regulations required special permissions for research activities, the Ministry of Home Affairs amended the OCI rules in 2021, removing the restriction that required OCI cardholders to seek special permission to undertake “research” activities. They can now conduct research without special permission, though certain sensitive areas may still have restrictions. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1 and 4 are correct. OCI cardholders enjoy parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in all financial matters, including maintaining bank accounts, purchasing non-agricultural property, conducting investments, and participating in various financial transactions, except for agricultural/plantation properties. They are exempt from registration with the Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO) regardless of the length of their stay in India, unlike other foreign nationals who must register if staying beyond 180 days. Statement 2 is incorrect. OCI cardholders do not have the right to vote in Indian elections under any circumstances. Voting rights are available only to Indian citizens. Statement 3 is incorrect. While earlier regulations required special permissions for research activities, the Ministry of Home Affairs amended the OCI rules in 2021, removing the restriction that required OCI cardholders to seek special permission to undertake “research” activities. They can now conduct research without special permission, though certain sensitive areas may still have restrictions.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) cardholders:

• They enjoy parity with Non-Resident Indians in all financial matters.

• They have the right to vote in Indian elections if physically present in India.

• They require special permission to undertake research activities in India.

• They are exempt from registration with the Foreigners Regional Registration Office.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1 and 4 only

• (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: C

Statements 1 and 4 are correct. OCI cardholders enjoy parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in all financial matters, including maintaining bank accounts, purchasing non-agricultural property, conducting investments, and participating in various financial transactions, except for agricultural/plantation properties. They are exempt from registration with the Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO) regardless of the length of their stay in India, unlike other foreign nationals who must register if staying beyond 180 days.

Statement 2 is incorrect. OCI cardholders do not have the right to vote in Indian elections under any circumstances. Voting rights are available only to Indian citizens.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While earlier regulations required special permissions for research activities, the Ministry of Home Affairs amended the OCI rules in 2021, removing the restriction that required OCI cardholders to seek special permission to undertake “research” activities. They can now conduct research without special permission, though certain sensitive areas may still have restrictions.

Solution: C

Statement 2 is incorrect. OCI cardholders do not have the right to vote in Indian elections under any circumstances. Voting rights are available only to Indian citizens.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996: It mandates that the Chairperson of Panchayats at all levels shall be from Scheduled Tribes. It gives ownership rights of minor forest produce to Gram Sabhas. State governments can overrule Gram Sabha recommendations for mining leases. It requires consultation with Gram Sabhas before land acquisition for development projects. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. The PESA Act mandates that the Chairperson of Panchayats at all levels in Scheduled Areas shall be from Scheduled Tribes. This ensures tribal leadership in these special areas. It explicitly gives ownership rights of minor forest produce to Gram Sabhas, recognizing the traditional relationship between tribal communities and forest resources. The Act makes consultation with Gram Sabhas mandatory before land acquisition for development projects in Scheduled Areas, ensuring tribal communities have a say in development affecting their lands. Statement 3 is incorrect. State governments cannot unilaterally overrule Gram Sabha recommendations for mining leases. The Act requires that Gram Sabhas must be consulted before granting mining leases, and their recommendations must be considered. The Supreme Court has reinforced this in cases like Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997), emphasizing that mining activities in Scheduled Areas require Gram Sabha consent. PESA covers Fifth Schedule areas across 10 states and aims to extend provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment to these areas while protecting tribal customs and traditional rights. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. The PESA Act mandates that the Chairperson of Panchayats at all levels in Scheduled Areas shall be from Scheduled Tribes. This ensures tribal leadership in these special areas. It explicitly gives ownership rights of minor forest produce to Gram Sabhas, recognizing the traditional relationship between tribal communities and forest resources. The Act makes consultation with Gram Sabhas mandatory before land acquisition for development projects in Scheduled Areas, ensuring tribal communities have a say in development affecting their lands. Statement 3 is incorrect. State governments cannot unilaterally overrule Gram Sabha recommendations for mining leases. The Act requires that Gram Sabhas must be consulted before granting mining leases, and their recommendations must be considered. The Supreme Court has reinforced this in cases like Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997), emphasizing that mining activities in Scheduled Areas require Gram Sabha consent. PESA covers Fifth Schedule areas across 10 states and aims to extend provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment to these areas while protecting tribal customs and traditional rights.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996:

• It mandates that the Chairperson of Panchayats at all levels shall be from Scheduled Tribes.

• It gives ownership rights of minor forest produce to Gram Sabhas.

• State governments can overrule Gram Sabha recommendations for mining leases.

• It requires consultation with Gram Sabhas before land acquisition for development projects.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

The PESA Act mandates that the Chairperson of Panchayats at all levels in Scheduled Areas shall be from Scheduled Tribes. This ensures tribal leadership in these special areas. It explicitly gives ownership rights of minor forest produce to Gram Sabhas, recognizing the traditional relationship between tribal communities and forest resources. The Act makes consultation with Gram Sabhas mandatory before land acquisition for development projects in Scheduled Areas, ensuring tribal communities have a say in development affecting their lands.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

State governments cannot unilaterally overrule Gram Sabha recommendations for mining leases. The Act requires that Gram Sabhas must be consulted before granting mining leases, and their recommendations must be considered. The Supreme Court has reinforced this in cases like Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997), emphasizing that mining activities in Scheduled Areas require Gram Sabha consent. PESA covers Fifth Schedule areas across 10 states and aims to extend provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment to these areas while protecting tribal customs and traditional rights.

Solution: C

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to the State Election Commissions, consider the following statements: The Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner, but can remove them only on the recommendation of the Supreme Court. Their jurisdiction is limited to elections for urban local bodies only. They are constitutionally mandated bodies under Part IX of the Constitution. State Election Commissioners have the same service conditions as High Court Judges. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 3 is the only correct statement. State Election Commissions are constitutionally mandated bodies under Article 243K (Part IX) and Article 243ZA (Part IXA) of the Constitution for panchayat and municipal elections respectively. Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner, removal requires a process similar to that of a High Court Judge-by the Governor based on proven misbehavior or incapacity, after an inquiry by the Supreme Court upon a reference made by the President. This is different from requiring a “recommendation” from the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is incorrect. State Election Commissions have jurisdiction over elections to both panchayats (rural local bodies) and municipalities (urban local bodies), not just urban local bodies. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Constitution does not mandate that State Election Commissioners must have the same service conditions as High Court Judges. Their conditions of service and tenure are determined by state laws and vary across states. The Supreme Court in Kishan Singh Tomar v. Municipal Corporation of Ahmedabad (2006) emphasized the independent status of SECs but did not equate their service conditions with High Court Judges. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 3 is the only correct statement. State Election Commissions are constitutionally mandated bodies under Article 243K (Part IX) and Article 243ZA (Part IXA) of the Constitution for panchayat and municipal elections respectively. Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner, removal requires a process similar to that of a High Court Judge-by the Governor based on proven misbehavior or incapacity, after an inquiry by the Supreme Court upon a reference made by the President. This is different from requiring a “recommendation” from the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is incorrect. State Election Commissions have jurisdiction over elections to both panchayats (rural local bodies) and municipalities (urban local bodies), not just urban local bodies. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Constitution does not mandate that State Election Commissioners must have the same service conditions as High Court Judges. Their conditions of service and tenure are determined by state laws and vary across states. The Supreme Court in Kishan Singh Tomar v. Municipal Corporation of Ahmedabad (2006) emphasized the independent status of SECs but did not equate their service conditions with High Court Judges.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the State Election Commissions, consider the following statements:

• The Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner, but can remove them only on the recommendation of the Supreme Court.

• Their jurisdiction is limited to elections for urban local bodies only.

• They are constitutionally mandated bodies under Part IX of the Constitution.

• State Election Commissioners have the same service conditions as High Court Judges.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

Statement 3 is the only correct statement.

State Election Commissions are constitutionally mandated bodies under Article 243K (Part IX) and Article 243ZA (Part IXA) of the Constitution for panchayat and municipal elections respectively.

Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner, removal requires a process similar to that of a High Court Judge-by the Governor based on proven misbehavior or incapacity, after an inquiry by the Supreme Court upon a reference made by the President. This is different from requiring a “recommendation” from the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

State Election Commissions have jurisdiction over elections to both panchayats (rural local bodies) and municipalities (urban local bodies), not just urban local bodies.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

The Constitution does not mandate that State Election Commissioners must have the same service conditions as High Court Judges. Their conditions of service and tenure are determined by state laws and vary across states. The Supreme Court in Kishan Singh Tomar v. Municipal Corporation of Ahmedabad (2006) emphasized the independent status of SECs but did not equate their service conditions with High Court Judges.

Solution: A

Statement 3 is the only correct statement.

State Election Commissions are constitutionally mandated bodies under Article 243K (Part IX) and Article 243ZA (Part IXA) of the Constitution for panchayat and municipal elections respectively.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

State Election Commissions have jurisdiction over elections to both panchayats (rural local bodies) and municipalities (urban local bodies), not just urban local bodies.

Statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra, recently in news, aims at: (a) Raising awareness about government schemes among target beneficiaries (b) Promoting sustainable tourism in aspirational districts (c) Building infrastructure connectivity between rural and urban areas (d) Creating entrepreneurship opportunities for youth in tribal areas Correct Solution: A Option (a) is correct. The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra (VBSY) is a nationwide outreach campaign launched in November 2024 that aims at raising awareness about various government schemes among target beneficiaries who have not yet enrolled or benefited from them. The campaign focuses on nine key schemes, including Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, PM Surya Ghar Yojana, Ayushman Bharat, PM Kisan Samman Nidhi, and others. The yatra uses Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) vans equipped with LED screens that travel to villages and urban wards across the country. These vans conduct awareness sessions, enrollment drives, and health camps while facilitating on-the-spot enrollment for eligible beneficiaries. The campaign also includes testimonials from existing beneficiaries to build trust and encourage participation. By taking a saturation approach, the yatra aims to ensure that government welfare schemes reach every eligible citizen, particularly those in remote and underserved areas, as part of the vision for a developed India (Viksit Bharat) by 2047. Incorrect Solution: A Option (a) is correct. The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra (VBSY) is a nationwide outreach campaign launched in November 2024 that aims at raising awareness about various government schemes among target beneficiaries who have not yet enrolled or benefited from them. The campaign focuses on nine key schemes, including Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, PM Surya Ghar Yojana, Ayushman Bharat, PM Kisan Samman Nidhi, and others. The yatra uses Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) vans equipped with LED screens that travel to villages and urban wards across the country. These vans conduct awareness sessions, enrollment drives, and health camps while facilitating on-the-spot enrollment for eligible beneficiaries. The campaign also includes testimonials from existing beneficiaries to build trust and encourage participation. By taking a saturation approach, the yatra aims to ensure that government welfare schemes reach every eligible citizen, particularly those in remote and underserved areas, as part of the vision for a developed India (Viksit Bharat) by 2047.

#### 6. Question

The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra, recently in news, aims at:

• (a) Raising awareness about government schemes among target beneficiaries

• (b) Promoting sustainable tourism in aspirational districts

• (c) Building infrastructure connectivity between rural and urban areas

• (d) Creating entrepreneurship opportunities for youth in tribal areas

Solution: A

Option (a) is correct.

The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra (VBSY) is a nationwide outreach campaign launched in November 2024 that aims at raising awareness about various government schemes among target beneficiaries who have not yet enrolled or benefited from them. The campaign focuses on nine key schemes, including Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, PM Surya Ghar Yojana, Ayushman Bharat, PM Kisan Samman Nidhi, and others. The yatra uses Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) vans equipped with LED screens that travel to villages and urban wards across the country. These vans conduct awareness sessions, enrollment drives, and health camps while facilitating on-the-spot enrollment for eligible beneficiaries. The campaign also includes testimonials from existing beneficiaries to build trust and encourage participation. By taking a saturation approach, the yatra aims to ensure that government welfare schemes reach every eligible citizen, particularly those in remote and underserved areas, as part of the vision for a developed India (Viksit Bharat) by 2047.

Solution: A

Option (a) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points In the context of the recently amended Waqf Act, consider the following statements: It mandates inclusion of at least two women in every State Waqf Board. It establishes a Central Waqf Council with regulatory powers over State Waqf Boards. District Collectors are empowered to determine whether a property is Waqf property. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) None Correct Solution: A Statements 1 and 3 are correct. T he amended Waqf Act mandates the inclusion of at least two women in every State Waqf Board, ensuring gender representation in these important religious administrative bodies. The amendments empower District Collectors to determine whether a property is Waqf property, with their decisions being appealable to the Tribunal. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Central Waqf Council exists, the amendments do not transform it into a regulatory body with powers over State Waqf Boards. It continues to function primarily as an advisory body, not a regulatory one with direct control over the State Boards. Incorrect Solution: A Statements 1 and 3 are correct. T he amended Waqf Act mandates the inclusion of at least two women in every State Waqf Board, ensuring gender representation in these important religious administrative bodies. The amendments empower District Collectors to determine whether a property is Waqf property, with their decisions being appealable to the Tribunal. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Central Waqf Council exists, the amendments do not transform it into a regulatory body with powers over State Waqf Boards. It continues to function primarily as an advisory body, not a regulatory one with direct control over the State Boards.

#### 7. Question

In the context of the recently amended Waqf Act, consider the following statements:

• It mandates inclusion of at least two women in every State Waqf Board.

• It establishes a Central Waqf Council with regulatory powers over State Waqf Boards.

• District Collectors are empowered to determine whether a property is Waqf property.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 only

Solution: A

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. T

he amended Waqf Act mandates the inclusion of at least two women in every State Waqf Board, ensuring gender representation in these important religious administrative bodies. The amendments empower District Collectors to determine whether a property is Waqf property, with their decisions being appealable to the Tribunal.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

While the Central Waqf Council exists, the amendments do not transform it into a regulatory body with powers over State Waqf Boards. It continues to function primarily as an advisory body, not a regulatory one with direct control over the State Boards.

Solution: A

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. T

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The term ‘Prison Statistics India’ recently seen in the news refers to: (a) A Supreme Court mandated survey of prison conditions across India (b) An annual report published by the National Crime Records Bureau (c) A Parliamentary Standing Committee report on criminal justice reform (d) A digital database created under the e-Prisons project Correct Solution: B Option (b) is correct. ‘Prison Statistics India’ is an annual report published by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The report provides comprehensive data on prison population, demographics of inmates, prison capacity utilization, and various aspects of prison administration across India. It highlights statistics on undertrial prisoners, convicted inmates, detenues, and foreign nationals in Indian prisons. The report made headlines recently due to findings about increasing prison occupancy rates, which reached 130.7% in 2024, indicating significant overcrowding in Indian prisons. Other notable statistics included the high proportion of undertrial prisoners (approximately 77% of the total prison population) and the extended periods many spend awaiting trial. The report serves as an important resource for policymakers, legal researchers, and human rights organizations working on criminal justice reform and prison conditions in India. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is correct. ‘Prison Statistics India’ is an annual report published by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The report provides comprehensive data on prison population, demographics of inmates, prison capacity utilization, and various aspects of prison administration across India. It highlights statistics on undertrial prisoners, convicted inmates, detenues, and foreign nationals in Indian prisons. The report made headlines recently due to findings about increasing prison occupancy rates, which reached 130.7% in 2024, indicating significant overcrowding in Indian prisons. Other notable statistics included the high proportion of undertrial prisoners (approximately 77% of the total prison population) and the extended periods many spend awaiting trial. The report serves as an important resource for policymakers, legal researchers, and human rights organizations working on criminal justice reform and prison conditions in India.

#### 8. Question

The term ‘Prison Statistics India’ recently seen in the news refers to:

• (a) A Supreme Court mandated survey of prison conditions across India

• (b) An annual report published by the National Crime Records Bureau

• (c) A Parliamentary Standing Committee report on criminal justice reform

• (d) A digital database created under the e-Prisons project

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

‘Prison Statistics India’ is an annual report published by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The report provides comprehensive data on prison population, demographics of inmates, prison capacity utilization, and various aspects of prison administration across India. It highlights statistics on undertrial prisoners, convicted inmates, detenues, and foreign nationals in Indian prisons. The report made headlines recently due to findings about increasing prison occupancy rates, which reached 130.7% in 2024, indicating significant overcrowding in Indian prisons. Other notable statistics included the high proportion of undertrial prisoners (approximately 77% of the total prison population) and the extended periods many spend awaiting trial. The report serves as an important resource for policymakers, legal researchers, and human rights organizations working on criminal justice reform and prison conditions in India.

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points In the context of the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PM-JUNGA), which of the following statements is/are correct? It targets villages with at least 25% tribal population. It is a convergence of nearly 30 central government schemes. It provides habitat development for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). The scheme incorporates traditional tribal knowledge in its implementation framework. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. PM-JUNGA is designed as a convergence of approximately 30 central government schemes to ensure holistic development of tribal areas. The scheme provides habitat development for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) to improve their living conditions. It incorporates traditional tribal knowledge in agriculture, forest management, medicine, and conservation practices within its implementation framework. Statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme targets villages with at least 50% tribal population (not 25%), with priority given to villages with higher percentages of tribal residents. Launched in late 2024, the scheme aims to transform more than 63,000 tribal villages into model villages by focusing on critical areas such as education, healthcare, livelihood support, cultural preservation, and sustainable development, with an outlay of approximately ₹80,000 crore. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. PM-JUNGA is designed as a convergence of approximately 30 central government schemes to ensure holistic development of tribal areas. The scheme provides habitat development for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) to improve their living conditions. It incorporates traditional tribal knowledge in agriculture, forest management, medicine, and conservation practices within its implementation framework. Statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme targets villages with at least 50% tribal population (not 25%), with priority given to villages with higher percentages of tribal residents. Launched in late 2024, the scheme aims to transform more than 63,000 tribal villages into model villages by focusing on critical areas such as education, healthcare, livelihood support, cultural preservation, and sustainable development, with an outlay of approximately ₹80,000 crore.

#### 9. Question

In the context of the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PM-JUNGA), which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It targets villages with at least 25% tribal population.

• It is a convergence of nearly 30 central government schemes.

• It provides habitat development for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).

• The scheme incorporates traditional tribal knowledge in its implementation framework.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

PM-JUNGA is designed as a convergence of approximately 30 central government schemes to ensure holistic development of tribal areas. The scheme provides habitat development for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) to improve their living conditions. It incorporates traditional tribal knowledge in agriculture, forest management, medicine, and conservation practices within its implementation framework.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The scheme targets villages with at least 50% tribal population (not 25%), with priority given to villages with higher percentages of tribal residents. Launched in late 2024, the scheme aims to transform more than 63,000 tribal villages into model villages by focusing on critical areas such as education, healthcare, livelihood support, cultural preservation, and sustainable development, with an outlay of approximately ₹80,000 crore.

Solution: C

Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana: The scheme aims to install rooftop solar power plants for 1 crore households. It provides both Central Financial Assistance and concessional bank loans to beneficiaries. Online portal integration with DigiLocker enables verification of property ownership. Only residential buildings are eligible under this scheme. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana aims to install rooftop solar power plants for 1 crore households (10 million) to avail free electricity up to 300 units every month. It provides Central Financial Assistance (CFA) directly to beneficiaries’ bank accounts and enables concessional bank loans for those who need financing support. The scheme’s online portal is integrated with DigiLocker for property ownership verification, simplifying the application process. Statement 4 is incorrect as the scheme covers both residential and non-residential buildings, including resident welfare associations, group housing societies, and cooperative housing societies. The scheme targets 30 GW of solar capacity and aims to reduce household electricity bills while promoting green energy adoption. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana aims to install rooftop solar power plants for 1 crore households (10 million) to avail free electricity up to 300 units every month. It provides Central Financial Assistance (CFA) directly to beneficiaries’ bank accounts and enables concessional bank loans for those who need financing support. The scheme’s online portal is integrated with DigiLocker for property ownership verification, simplifying the application process. Statement 4 is incorrect as the scheme covers both residential and non-residential buildings, including resident welfare associations, group housing societies, and cooperative housing societies. The scheme targets 30 GW of solar capacity and aims to reduce household electricity bills while promoting green energy adoption.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana:

• The scheme aims to install rooftop solar power plants for 1 crore households.

• It provides both Central Financial Assistance and concessional bank loans to beneficiaries.

• Online portal integration with DigiLocker enables verification of property ownership.

• Only residential buildings are eligible under this scheme.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana aims to install rooftop solar power plants for 1 crore households (10 million) to avail free electricity up to 300 units every month. It provides Central Financial Assistance (CFA) directly to beneficiaries’ bank accounts and enables concessional bank loans for those who need financing support. The scheme’s online portal is integrated with DigiLocker for property ownership verification, simplifying the application process.

Statement 4 is incorrect as the scheme covers both residential and non-residential buildings, including resident welfare associations, group housing societies, and cooperative housing societies. The scheme targets 30 GW of solar capacity and aims to reduce household electricity bills while promoting green energy adoption.

Solution: C

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : No member of the Parliament or state legislature can be elected as the President without vacating his/her seat. A person responsible for discharging functions of the president cannot take an oath or affirmation similar to the office of the President which is administered by the seniormost judge of the supreme court. The Constitution empowers the President to be representated at an investigation regarding impeachment charges initiated by either House of the Parliament against him. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The constitution provides that the president should not be a member of either House of the Parliament or a state legislature ; If such a person is elected as the President, he/she is deemed to have vacated his/her seat in the House on the date on which he/she enters upon the office of the president. Hence statement 1 is correct The oath of office to the president is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the seniormost judge of the supreme court available Any other person acting as the President or discharging the functions of the president, is also required to undertake the similar oath or affirmation Hence statement 2 is incorrect The president can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the constitution the impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of the Parliament and should be signed by 1/4th members of the house that frames the charges and a 14 days notice should be given to the president After impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two third of total membership of that house it is sent to the other house which should also investigate the charges ; the president has the right to appear and to be representated at such investigation. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The constitution provides that the president should not be a member of either House of the Parliament or a state legislature ; If such a person is elected as the President, he/she is deemed to have vacated his/her seat in the House on the date on which he/she enters upon the office of the president. Hence statement 1 is correct The oath of office to the president is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the seniormost judge of the supreme court available Any other person acting as the President or discharging the functions of the president, is also required to undertake the similar oath or affirmation Hence statement 2 is incorrect The president can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the constitution the impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of the Parliament and should be signed by 1/4th members of the house that frames the charges and a 14 days notice should be given to the president After impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two third of total membership of that house it is sent to the other house which should also investigate the charges ; the president has the right to appear and to be representated at such investigation. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements :

• No member of the Parliament or state legislature can be elected as the President without vacating his/her seat.

• A person responsible for discharging functions of the president cannot take an oath or affirmation similar to the office of the President which is administered by the seniormost judge of the supreme court.

• The Constitution empowers the President to be representated at an investigation regarding impeachment charges initiated by either House of the Parliament against him.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The constitution provides that the president should not be a member of either House of the Parliament or a state legislature ;

• If such a person is elected as the President, he/she is deemed to have vacated his/her seat in the House on the date on which he/she enters upon the office of the president.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The oath of office to the president is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the seniormost judge of the supreme court available

• Any other person acting as the President or discharging the functions of the president, is also required to undertake the similar oath or affirmation

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The president can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the constitution

• the impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of the Parliament and should be signed by 1/4th members of the house that frames the charges and a 14 days notice should be given to the president

• After impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two third of total membership of that house it is sent to the other house which should also investigate the charges ;

• the president has the right to appear and to be representated at such investigation.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The constitution provides that the president should not be a member of either House of the Parliament or a state legislature ;

• If such a person is elected as the President, he/she is deemed to have vacated his/her seat in the House on the date on which he/she enters upon the office of the president.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The oath of office to the president is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the seniormost judge of the supreme court available

• Any other person acting as the President or discharging the functions of the president, is also required to undertake the similar oath or affirmation

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The president can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the constitution

• After impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two third of total membership of that house it is sent to the other house which should also investigate the charges ;

• the president has the right to appear and to be representated at such investigation.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Special powers of the Rajya Sabha : The Vice President being the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha, a resolution for his removal can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha only. The approval of the Rajya Sabha is enough to continue a financial emergency imposed at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved. A No confidence motion against the Council of Ministers including the Prime Minister can be initiated by the Rajya Sabha only at a time the Lok Sabha has been dissolved. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct Solution: B The Rajya Sabha has been given certain exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha The Rajya Sabha alone can initiate a move for the removal of the vice president; in other words, a resolution for the removal of the vice president can be initiated by the Rajya Sabha only (article 67). Hence statement 1 is correct If a proclamation is issued by the president for imposing national emergency or president’s rule or financial emergency at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation can remain effective even if it is approved by the Rajya Sabha alone (Articles 352, 356 and 360). Hence statement 2 is correct The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the Council of Ministers by passing or no confidence motion; this is because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and a no confidence motion can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The Rajya Sabha has been given certain exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha The Rajya Sabha alone can initiate a move for the removal of the vice president; in other words, a resolution for the removal of the vice president can be initiated by the Rajya Sabha only (article 67). Hence statement 1 is correct If a proclamation is issued by the president for imposing national emergency or president’s rule or financial emergency at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation can remain effective even if it is approved by the Rajya Sabha alone (Articles 352, 356 and 360). Hence statement 2 is correct The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the Council of Ministers by passing or no confidence motion; this is because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and a no confidence motion can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Special powers of the Rajya Sabha :

• The Vice President being the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha, a resolution for his removal can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha only.

• The approval of the Rajya Sabha is enough to continue a financial emergency imposed at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.

• A No confidence motion against the Council of Ministers including the Prime Minister can be initiated by the Rajya Sabha only at a time the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 3 only

Solution: B

• The Rajya Sabha has been given certain exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha

• The Rajya Sabha alone can initiate a move for the removal of the vice president; in other words, a resolution for the removal of the vice president can be initiated by the Rajya Sabha only (article 67).

Hence statement 1 is correct

• If a proclamation is issued by the president for imposing national emergency or president’s rule or financial emergency at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation can remain effective even if it is approved by the Rajya Sabha alone (Articles 352, 356 and 360).

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the Council of Ministers by passing or no confidence motion; this is because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and a no confidence motion can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• The Rajya Sabha has been given certain exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha

Hence statement 1 is correct

Hence statement 2 is correct

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Executive power of a state do not extend to scheduled areas within it. Statement – II : The Constitution empowers only the President to declare an area to be a scheduled area within a state, as well as increasing or decreasing its area. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : D The executive power of a state extends to the schedule areas there in; but the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas He has to submit a report to the president regarding administration of such areas annually or whenever so required by the president the executive power of the centre extends to giving direction to States regarding administration of such areas. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Fifth schedule of the Constitution deals with administration of scheduled areas in a state The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area He can also increase or decrease its area, alter boundary lines and make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with governor of the state concerned Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : D The executive power of a state extends to the schedule areas there in; but the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas He has to submit a report to the president regarding administration of such areas annually or whenever so required by the president the executive power of the centre extends to giving direction to States regarding administration of such areas. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Fifth schedule of the Constitution deals with administration of scheduled areas in a state The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area He can also increase or decrease its area, alter boundary lines and make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with governor of the state concerned Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Executive power of a state do not extend to scheduled areas within it.

Statement – II :

The Constitution empowers only the President to declare an area to be a scheduled area within a state, as well as increasing or decreasing its area.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : D

• The executive power of a state extends to the schedule areas there in; but the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas

• He has to submit a report to the president regarding administration of such areas annually or whenever so required by the president

• the executive power of the centre extends to giving direction to States regarding administration of such areas.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Fifth schedule of the Constitution deals with administration of scheduled areas in a state

• The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area

• He can also increase or decrease its area, alter boundary lines and make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with governor of the state concerned

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

• The executive power of a state extends to the schedule areas there in; but the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas

• He has to submit a report to the president regarding administration of such areas annually or whenever so required by the president

• the executive power of the centre extends to giving direction to States regarding administration of such areas.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Fifth schedule of the Constitution deals with administration of scheduled areas in a state

• The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area

• He can also increase or decrease its area, alter boundary lines and make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with governor of the state concerned

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding State Information Commission : It is an independent authority constituted under the Right to Information act 2005. The Governor can appoint members of the commission only on recommendation of a committee consisting of both the chief minister and leader of opposition in the Legislative Assembly. A State Information Commissioner can hold office for a period of 3 years and cannot be reappointed. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Right to Information Act of 2005 provides for creation of the Central information commission and a State Information Commission at the state level The State Commission is a high powered independent body which looks into complaints made to it and decide appeals It hears complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, Financial Institutions, public sector undertakings under the concerned state government. Hence statement 1 is correct The commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 State Information Commissioners they are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of Chief Minister (chairman), Leader of Opposition in the legislative assembly and a state cabinet minister nominated by the Chief Minister. Hence statement 2 is correct The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner can hold office for such term as prescribed by the central government or until they attend 65 years of age whichever is earlier however, they are not eligible for reappointment; but a state Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as the state Chief Information Commissioner, but cannot hold office for more than a total of 5 years including term as state Information Commissioner Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The Right to Information Act of 2005 provides for creation of the Central information commission and a State Information Commission at the state level The State Commission is a high powered independent body which looks into complaints made to it and decide appeals It hears complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, Financial Institutions, public sector undertakings under the concerned state government. Hence statement 1 is correct The commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 State Information Commissioners they are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of Chief Minister (chairman), Leader of Opposition in the legislative assembly and a state cabinet minister nominated by the Chief Minister. Hence statement 2 is correct The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner can hold office for such term as prescribed by the central government or until they attend 65 years of age whichever is earlier however, they are not eligible for reappointment; but a state Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as the state Chief Information Commissioner, but cannot hold office for more than a total of 5 years including term as state Information Commissioner Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding State Information Commission :

• It is an independent authority constituted under the Right to Information act 2005.

• The Governor can appoint members of the commission only on recommendation of a committee consisting of both the chief minister and leader of opposition in the Legislative Assembly.

• A State Information Commissioner can hold office for a period of 3 years and cannot be reappointed.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Right to Information Act of 2005 provides for creation of the Central information commission and a State Information Commission at the state level

• The State Commission is a high powered independent body which looks into complaints made to it and decide appeals

• It hears complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, Financial Institutions, public sector undertakings under the concerned state government.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 State Information Commissioners

• they are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of Chief Minister (chairman), Leader of Opposition in the legislative assembly and a state cabinet minister nominated by the Chief Minister.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner can hold office for such term as prescribed by the central government or until they attend 65 years of age whichever is earlier

• however, they are not eligible for reappointment; but a state Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as the state Chief Information Commissioner, but cannot hold office for more than a total of 5 years including term as state Information Commissioner

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• The Right to Information Act of 2005 provides for creation of the Central information commission and a State Information Commission at the state level

• The State Commission is a high powered independent body which looks into complaints made to it and decide appeals

• It hears complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, Financial Institutions, public sector undertakings under the concerned state government.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 State Information Commissioners

Hence statement 2 is correct

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: A Financial bill (II) cannot be introduced and passed by the Parliament without approval of the president. A Financial Bill (I), unlike the Money Bill, can be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B A Financial Bill (II) contents provisions involving expenditure from the consolidated fund of India but does not include any of the matters mentioned in article 110 (Money bill). Such a bill is treated as an ordinary bill and in all respects, is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable to an ordinary bill The only special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of the Parliament unless the president has recommended to that house consideration of the bill. Hence it can be introduced in either House of the Parliament and recommendation of the president is not necessary for its introduction. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A Financial Bill (I) is a bill that contains not only any or all the matter matters mentioned in article 110 but also other matters of general legislation It is similar to the money bill in two respects- i. both of them can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and ii. both of them can be introduced only on recommendation of the president In all other respects the financial bill (I) is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable on an ordinary bill; hence it can either be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B A Financial Bill (II) contents provisions involving expenditure from the consolidated fund of India but does not include any of the matters mentioned in article 110 (Money bill). Such a bill is treated as an ordinary bill and in all respects, is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable to an ordinary bill The only special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of the Parliament unless the president has recommended to that house consideration of the bill. Hence it can be introduced in either House of the Parliament and recommendation of the president is not necessary for its introduction. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A Financial Bill (I) is a bill that contains not only any or all the matter matters mentioned in article 110 but also other matters of general legislation It is similar to the money bill in two respects- i. both of them can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and ii. both of them can be introduced only on recommendation of the president In all other respects the financial bill (I) is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable on an ordinary bill; hence it can either be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

• A Financial bill (II) cannot be introduced and passed by the Parliament without approval of the president.

• A Financial Bill (I), unlike the Money Bill, can be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• A Financial Bill (II) contents provisions involving expenditure from the consolidated fund of India but does not include any of the matters mentioned in article 110 (Money bill).

• Such a bill is treated as an ordinary bill and in all respects, is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable to an ordinary bill

• The only special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of the Parliament unless the president has recommended to that house consideration of the bill.

• Hence it can be introduced in either House of the Parliament and recommendation of the president is not necessary for its introduction.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• A Financial Bill (I) is a bill that contains not only any or all the matter matters mentioned in article 110 but also other matters of general legislation

• It is similar to the money bill in two respects- i. both of them can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and ii. both of them can be introduced only on recommendation of the president

• In all other respects the financial bill (I) is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable on an ordinary bill; hence it can either be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• A Financial Bill (II) contents provisions involving expenditure from the consolidated fund of India but does not include any of the matters mentioned in article 110 (Money bill).

• Such a bill is treated as an ordinary bill and in all respects, is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable to an ordinary bill

• The only special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of the Parliament unless the president has recommended to that house consideration of the bill.

• Hence it can be introduced in either House of the Parliament and recommendation of the president is not necessary for its introduction.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• A Financial Bill (I) is a bill that contains not only any or all the matter matters mentioned in article 110 but also other matters of general legislation

• It is similar to the money bill in two respects- i. both of them can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and ii. both of them can be introduced only on recommendation of the president

• In all other respects the financial bill (I) is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable on an ordinary bill; hence it can either be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following : No judge of the supreme court can start any quote or any authority after retirement. The Chief Justice is empowered to appoint officers of the Supreme Court without interference from the executive. The jurisdiction of the supreme court cannot be extended or curtailed by the Parliament. How many of the above provisions insured independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B The constitution has made several provisions to safeguard and ensure Independence and impartial functioning of the supreme court : The judges of the supreme court are provided with security of tenure The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the supreme court without any interference from the executive; he can also prescribe their conditions of service The retired judges of the supreme court are not allowed to plead or act in any Court or before any authority within the territory of India; this entires that they do not favour anyone in the hope of future favour The salaries and pensions of the judges and staff and administrative expense of the supreme court are charged on the consolidated fund of India and are non votable by the parliament. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct The parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the supreme court the constitution has guaranteed to the supreme court jurisdiction of various kinds However, the Parliament can extend jurisdiction of the supreme court. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B The constitution has made several provisions to safeguard and ensure Independence and impartial functioning of the supreme court : The judges of the supreme court are provided with security of tenure The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the supreme court without any interference from the executive; he can also prescribe their conditions of service The retired judges of the supreme court are not allowed to plead or act in any Court or before any authority within the territory of India; this entires that they do not favour anyone in the hope of future favour The salaries and pensions of the judges and staff and administrative expense of the supreme court are charged on the consolidated fund of India and are non votable by the parliament. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct The parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the supreme court the constitution has guaranteed to the supreme court jurisdiction of various kinds However, the Parliament can extend jurisdiction of the supreme court. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following :

• No judge of the supreme court can start any quote or any authority after retirement.

• The Chief Justice is empowered to appoint officers of the Supreme Court without interference from the executive.

• The jurisdiction of the supreme court cannot be extended or curtailed by the Parliament.

How many of the above provisions insured independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

The constitution has made several provisions to safeguard and ensure Independence and impartial functioning of the supreme court :

• The judges of the supreme court are provided with security of tenure

• The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the supreme court without any interference from the executive; he can also prescribe their conditions of service

• The retired judges of the supreme court are not allowed to plead or act in any Court or before any authority within the territory of India; this entires that they do not favour anyone in the hope of future favour

• The salaries and pensions of the judges and staff and administrative expense of the supreme court are charged on the consolidated fund of India and are non votable by the parliament.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

• The parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the supreme court

• the constitution has guaranteed to the supreme court jurisdiction of various kinds

• However, the Parliament can extend jurisdiction of the supreme court.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution : B

The constitution has made several provisions to safeguard and ensure Independence and impartial functioning of the supreme court :

• The judges of the supreme court are provided with security of tenure

• The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the supreme court without any interference from the executive; he can also prescribe their conditions of service

• The salaries and pensions of the judges and staff and administrative expense of the supreme court are charged on the consolidated fund of India and are non votable by the parliament.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

• The parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the supreme court

• the constitution has guaranteed to the supreme court jurisdiction of various kinds

• However, the Parliament can extend jurisdiction of the supreme court.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The States Reorganisation Commission 1953-55 originally recommended for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 provided for Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities (CLM). Under provisions of the Eighth Schedule of the constitution, CLM functions under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only Correct Solution: A Originally the constitution did not make any provision with respect to Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities Later, the states reorganisation Commission 1953-55 made a recommendation in this regard; accordingly the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new article 350B in Part XVII in the constitution In pursuance of provisions of this article of the constitution, the Office of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957; he is designated as Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct At the Central level CLM falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs hence the officer submits annual reports or other reports to the president through the Minority Affairs Minister. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Originally the constitution did not make any provision with respect to Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities Later, the states reorganisation Commission 1953-55 made a recommendation in this regard; accordingly the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new article 350B in Part XVII in the constitution In pursuance of provisions of this article of the constitution, the Office of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957; he is designated as Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct At the Central level CLM falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs hence the officer submits annual reports or other reports to the president through the Minority Affairs Minister. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The States Reorganisation Commission 1953-55 originally recommended for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

• The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 provided for Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities (CLM).

• Under provisions of the Eighth Schedule of the constitution, CLM functions under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1 only

Solution: A

• Originally the constitution did not make any provision with respect to Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

• Later, the states reorganisation Commission 1953-55 made a recommendation in this regard; accordingly the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new article 350B in Part XVII in the constitution

• In pursuance of provisions of this article of the constitution, the Office of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957; he is designated as Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• At the Central level CLM falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs

• hence the officer submits annual reports or other reports to the president through the Minority Affairs Minister.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Originally the constitution did not make any provision with respect to Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• At the Central level CLM falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs

• hence the officer submits annual reports or other reports to the president through the Minority Affairs Minister.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Unlike Certiorari, the writ of Prohibition is issued after passage of final order with an aim for quashing the same. Unlike Habeas Corpus, Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a Lower court or Tribunal to quash the order passed by the latter in any case. Prohibition is issued by a higher to a Lower court or Tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. However these two are issued at different stages of proceedings before a Lower court or Tribunal Prohibition is issued before final order is passed for stopping further continuation of proceeding while Certiorari is issued after final order is passed for quashing the same. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Habeas Corpus is an order issued by a code to a person who has the things and other person to produce body of the latter before it. This writ can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. Mandamus is a command issued by a court to a public official asking him to perform official duties that he has failed or refused to do This writ cannot be issued against a private individual or body. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a Lower court or Tribunal to quash the order passed by the latter in any case. Prohibition is issued by a higher to a Lower court or Tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. However these two are issued at different stages of proceedings before a Lower court or Tribunal Prohibition is issued before final order is passed for stopping further continuation of proceeding while Certiorari is issued after final order is passed for quashing the same. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Habeas Corpus is an order issued by a code to a person who has the things and other person to produce body of the latter before it. This writ can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. Mandamus is a command issued by a court to a public official asking him to perform official duties that he has failed or refused to do This writ cannot be issued against a private individual or body. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Unlike Certiorari, the writ of Prohibition is issued after passage of final order with an aim for quashing the same.

• Unlike Habeas Corpus, Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a Lower court or Tribunal to quash the order passed by the latter in any case.

• Prohibition is issued by a higher to a Lower court or Tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess.

• However these two are issued at different stages of proceedings before a Lower court or Tribunal

• Prohibition is issued before final order is passed for stopping further continuation of proceeding while Certiorari is issued after final order is passed for quashing the same.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Habeas Corpus is an order issued by a code to a person who has the things and other person to produce body of the latter before it.

• This writ can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.

• Mandamus is a command issued by a court to a public official asking him to perform official duties that he has failed or refused to do

• This writ cannot be issued against a private individual or body.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a Lower court or Tribunal to quash the order passed by the latter in any case.

• Prohibition is issued by a higher to a Lower court or Tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess.

• However these two are issued at different stages of proceedings before a Lower court or Tribunal

• Prohibition is issued before final order is passed for stopping further continuation of proceeding while Certiorari is issued after final order is passed for quashing the same.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Habeas Corpus is an order issued by a code to a person who has the things and other person to produce body of the latter before it.

• This writ can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.

• Mandamus is a command issued by a court to a public official asking him to perform official duties that he has failed or refused to do

• This writ cannot be issued against a private individual or body.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Backward Classes : It is a constitutional body under provisions of 102nd Amendment Act 2018. It is a multi member body whose members including chairperson, are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. The members are not eligible for reappointment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The National Commission for backward classes was set up in 1993 Under the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018, constitutional status was conferred on the commission The amendment inserted a new article 338 B in the constitution and hence it became a constitutional body from the earlier statutory body. The commission consists of a chairperson, vice chairperson and 3 other members They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct The members of the commission for backward classes hold office for a term of 3 years under the rules made by the president. They are not eligible for appointment for more than two terms. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C The National Commission for backward classes was set up in 1993 Under the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018, constitutional status was conferred on the commission The amendment inserted a new article 338 B in the constitution and hence it became a constitutional body from the earlier statutory body. The commission consists of a chairperson, vice chairperson and 3 other members They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct The members of the commission for backward classes hold office for a term of 3 years under the rules made by the president. They are not eligible for appointment for more than two terms. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Backward Classes :

• It is a constitutional body under provisions of 102nd Amendment Act 2018.

• It is a multi member body whose members including chairperson, are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.

• The members are not eligible for reappointment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The National Commission for backward classes was set up in 1993

• Under the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018, constitutional status was conferred on the commission

• The amendment inserted a new article 338 B in the constitution and hence it became a constitutional body from the earlier statutory body.

• The commission consists of a chairperson, vice chairperson and 3 other members

• They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The members of the commission for backward classes hold office for a term of 3 years under the rules made by the president.

• They are not eligible for appointment for more than two terms.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: C

• The National Commission for backward classes was set up in 1993

• Under the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018, constitutional status was conferred on the commission

• The amendment inserted a new article 338 B in the constitution and hence it became a constitutional body from the earlier statutory body.

• The commission consists of a chairperson, vice chairperson and 3 other members

• They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The members of the commission for backward classes hold office for a term of 3 years under the rules made by the president.

• They are not eligible for appointment for more than two terms.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : A person elected to both the Parliament and a state legislature, should vacate his seat in the state legislature within 14 days, failure of which results in losing of both the seats. A person elected to both houses of the Parliament loses his seat in the Lok Sabha if he fails to intimate the house he wants to serve within 30 days from declaration of the result of the election. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The Representation of People Act 1951 provides that a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time If a person is so elected, his/her seat in the Parliament becomes vacant if he/she does not resign his/her seat in the state legislature within 14 days. Similarly, a person elected to two seats in a house should exercise his opinion for one, otherwise both seats become vacant. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A person cannot be a member of both houses of the Parliament at the same time The Representation of People Act 1951 provides that if a person is elected to both houses of the Parliament he must intimate within 10 days in which house he desires to serve; in default of such intimation his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Representation of People Act 1951 provides that a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time If a person is so elected, his/her seat in the Parliament becomes vacant if he/she does not resign his/her seat in the state legislature within 14 days. Similarly, a person elected to two seats in a house should exercise his opinion for one, otherwise both seats become vacant. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A person cannot be a member of both houses of the Parliament at the same time The Representation of People Act 1951 provides that if a person is elected to both houses of the Parliament he must intimate within 10 days in which house he desires to serve; in default of such intimation his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements :

• A person elected to both the Parliament and a state legislature, should vacate his seat in the state legislature within 14 days, failure of which results in losing of both the seats.

• A person elected to both houses of the Parliament loses his seat in the Lok Sabha if he fails to intimate the house he wants to serve within 30 days from declaration of the result of the election.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• The Representation of People Act 1951 provides that a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time

• If a person is so elected, his/her seat in the Parliament becomes vacant if he/she does not resign his/her seat in the state legislature within 14 days.

• Similarly, a person elected to two seats in a house should exercise his opinion for one, otherwise both seats become vacant.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• A person cannot be a member of both houses of the Parliament at the same time

• The Representation of People Act 1951 provides that if a person is elected to both houses of the Parliament he must intimate within 10 days in which house he desires to serve; in default of such intimation his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The Representation of People Act 1951 provides that a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time

• If a person is so elected, his/her seat in the Parliament becomes vacant if he/she does not resign his/her seat in the state legislature within 14 days.

• Similarly, a person elected to two seats in a house should exercise his opinion for one, otherwise both seats become vacant.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• A person cannot be a member of both houses of the Parliament at the same time

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to the Jnanpith Award, consider the following statements: It is the highest literary award in India, awarded annually for creative literary work. The award is open to all citizens of SAARC countries. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The Jnanpith Award is widely recognized as India’s highest literary honor, instituted in 1965 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith. It is conferred annually to an Indian writer for outstanding contribution to literature in any of the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution (and English since 2013). The Jnanpith Award is open only to Indian citizens. Writers from SAARC countries or other foreign nations are not eligible, even if they write in an Indian language. Hence, only statement 1 is correct. Incorrect Solution: A The Jnanpith Award is widely recognized as India’s highest literary honor, instituted in 1965 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith. It is conferred annually to an Indian writer for outstanding contribution to literature in any of the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution (and English since 2013). The Jnanpith Award is open only to Indian citizens. Writers from SAARC countries or other foreign nations are not eligible, even if they write in an Indian language. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

#### 21. Question

With reference to the Jnanpith Award, consider the following statements:

• It is the highest literary award in India, awarded annually for creative literary work.

• The award is open to all citizens of SAARC countries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

The Jnanpith Award is widely recognized as India’s highest literary honor, instituted in 1965 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith. It is conferred annually to an Indian writer for outstanding contribution to literature in any of the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution (and English since 2013).

The Jnanpith Award is open only to Indian citizens. Writers from SAARC countries or other foreign nations are not eligible, even if they write in an Indian language.

Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Solution: A

The Jnanpith Award is open only to Indian citizens. Writers from SAARC countries or other foreign nations are not eligible, even if they write in an Indian language.

Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to the International Olympic Committee (IOC), consider the following statements: The IOC is a government-funded body responsible for organizing Olympic Games. Its headquarters is located in Lausanne, Switzerland. It works to promote the Olympic Movement and supports athletes through private funding. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is an independent, non-governmental, not-for-profit international organization. It is not government-funded. It is privately funded through broadcasting rights, sponsorships, and marketing deals. While it plays a leading role in organizing the Olympic Games, the local Organizing Committees and host nations carry the logistical and financial burden. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: its Headquarter is in Lausanne, and 90% of its revenue is privately raised and reinvested in sports development. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is an independent, non-governmental, not-for-profit international organization. It is not government-funded. It is privately funded through broadcasting rights, sponsorships, and marketing deals. While it plays a leading role in organizing the Olympic Games, the local Organizing Committees and host nations carry the logistical and financial burden. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: its Headquarter is in Lausanne, and 90% of its revenue is privately raised and reinvested in sports development.

#### 22. Question

With reference to the International Olympic Committee (IOC), consider the following statements:

• The IOC is a government-funded body responsible for organizing Olympic Games.

• Its headquarters is located in Lausanne, Switzerland.

• It works to promote the Olympic Movement and supports athletes through private funding.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is an independent, non-governmental, not-for-profit international organization. It is not government-funded. It is privately funded through broadcasting rights, sponsorships, and marketing deals. While it plays a leading role in organizing the Olympic Games, the local Organizing Committees and host nations carry the logistical and financial burden.

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: its Headquarter is in Lausanne, and 90% of its revenue is privately raised and reinvested in sports development.

Solution: B

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: its Headquarter is in Lausanne, and 90% of its revenue is privately raised and reinvested in sports development.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the purpose of the e-Pashu Haat – Nakul Prajnan Bazaar platform under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission? (a) Online registration of animal husbandry professionals for training programs (b) Market integration platform for dairy cooperatives (c) National digital registry of AI technicians (d) Marketplace for quality germplasm and bovine genetic material Correct Solution: D e-Pashu Haat – Nakul Prajnan Bazaar is a digital initiative under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission aimed at connecting farmers and breeders to facilitate the availability of disease-free and quality bovine germplasm. This marketplace provides a transparent platform for genetic resource exchange and supports indigenous breed improvement. It also helps ensure traceability and disease control in breeding stock. Options (a), (b), and (c) do not reflect the specialized genetic marketplace intent of the platform. Incorrect Solution: D e-Pashu Haat – Nakul Prajnan Bazaar is a digital initiative under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission aimed at connecting farmers and breeders to facilitate the availability of disease-free and quality bovine germplasm. This marketplace provides a transparent platform for genetic resource exchange and supports indigenous breed improvement. It also helps ensure traceability and disease control in breeding stock. Options (a), (b), and (c) do not reflect the specialized genetic marketplace intent of the platform.

#### 23. Question

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the e-Pashu Haat – Nakul Prajnan Bazaar platform under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission?

• (a) Online registration of animal husbandry professionals for training programs

• (b) Market integration platform for dairy cooperatives

• (c) National digital registry of AI technicians

• (d) Marketplace for quality germplasm and bovine genetic material

Solution: D e-Pashu Haat – Nakul Prajnan Bazaar is a digital initiative under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission aimed at connecting farmers and breeders to facilitate the availability of disease-free and quality bovine germplasm. This marketplace provides a transparent platform for genetic resource exchange and supports indigenous breed improvement. It also helps ensure traceability and disease control in breeding stock. Options (a), (b), and (c) do not reflect the specialized genetic marketplace intent of the platform.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the evolution and usage of Prakrit and its associated dialects: The Ashokan edicts are primarily composed in standardized Sanskrit. Pali, used in the Theravāda Buddhist canon, is a Prakrit dialect linked to eastern India. Bengali and Assamese both trace their linguistic roots to Pali and Sanskrit hybrid forms. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Ashokan edicts were mainly composed in Prakrit, not Sanskrit, and represented local linguistic variations. Statement 2 is correct: Pali is closely associated with Magadhi Prakrit, prevalent in eastern India. Statement 3 is correct: By the Gupta period, local Prakrits were increasingly standardized, leading to diminished regional variations. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Ashokan edicts were mainly composed in Prakrit, not Sanskrit, and represented local linguistic variations. Statement 2 is correct: Pali is closely associated with Magadhi Prakrit, prevalent in eastern India. Statement 3 is correct: By the Gupta period, local Prakrits were increasingly standardized, leading to diminished regional variations.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the evolution and usage of Prakrit and its associated dialects:

• The Ashokan edicts are primarily composed in standardized Sanskrit.

• Pali, used in the Theravāda Buddhist canon, is a Prakrit dialect linked to eastern India.

• Bengali and Assamese both trace their linguistic roots to Pali and Sanskrit hybrid forms.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Ashokan edicts were mainly composed in Prakrit, not Sanskrit, and represented local linguistic variations.

• Statement 2 is correct: Pali is closely associated with Magadhi Prakrit, prevalent in eastern India.

• Statement 3 is correct: By the Gupta period, local Prakrits were increasingly standardized, leading to diminished regional variations.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Ashokan edicts were mainly composed in Prakrit, not Sanskrit, and represented local linguistic variations.

• Statement 2 is correct: Pali is closely associated with Magadhi Prakrit, prevalent in eastern India.

• Statement 3 is correct: By the Gupta period, local Prakrits were increasingly standardized, leading to diminished regional variations.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points With reference to the Western Chalukyas (Kalyani Chalukyas), consider the following statements: They ruled the Deccan during the 6th–8th century CE and were succeeded by the Rashtrakutas. Mahadeva Temple at Itagi is regarded as the “Emperor among temples” of their era. Chalukya Vikrama era began under the rule of Someswara I Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Context: Archaeologists have discovered 900-year-old Kannada inscriptions from the Kalyani Chalukya era in Kankal village, Vikarabad district, Telangana. These inscriptions, dating back to 1129-1132 CE, detail temple construction and land donations during the reign of Emperor Someswara III Bhulokamalladeva. Kalyani Chalukya Founder: Founded by Tailapa II after defeating the Rashtrakutas. Capital: Kalyani (modern-day Bidar, Karnataka). Controlled Deccan Plateau, including present-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. Statement 1 is incorrect: This refers to the Badami Chalukyas. The Kalyani Chalukyas ruled from the 10th–12th centuries CE, and were successors to the Rashtrakutas, not predecessors. Statement 2 is correct: The Mahadeva Temple at Itagi (Koppal, Karnataka) is famed for its craftsmanship and is described as “Emperor among temples.” Earlier Kannada inscriptions date to Badami Chalukyas and even Kadambas; hence, not exclusive to Kalyani Chalukyas. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chalukya Vikrama era began under Vikramaditya VI (1076–1126 CE), not Someswara I Incorrect Solution: B Context: Archaeologists have discovered 900-year-old Kannada inscriptions from the Kalyani Chalukya era in Kankal village, Vikarabad district, Telangana. These inscriptions, dating back to 1129-1132 CE, detail temple construction and land donations during the reign of Emperor Someswara III Bhulokamalladeva. Kalyani Chalukya Founder: Founded by Tailapa II after defeating the Rashtrakutas. Capital: Kalyani (modern-day Bidar, Karnataka). Controlled Deccan Plateau, including present-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. Statement 1 is incorrect: This refers to the Badami Chalukyas. The Kalyani Chalukyas ruled from the 10th–12th centuries CE, and were successors to the Rashtrakutas, not predecessors. Statement 2 is correct: The Mahadeva Temple at Itagi (Koppal, Karnataka) is famed for its craftsmanship and is described as “Emperor among temples.” Earlier Kannada inscriptions date to Badami Chalukyas and even Kadambas; hence, not exclusive to Kalyani Chalukyas. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chalukya Vikrama era began under Vikramaditya VI (1076–1126 CE), not Someswara I

#### 25. Question

With reference to the Western Chalukyas (Kalyani Chalukyas), consider the following statements:

• They ruled the Deccan during the 6th–8th century CE and were succeeded by the Rashtrakutas.

• Mahadeva Temple at Itagi is regarded as the “Emperor among temples” of their era.

• Chalukya Vikrama era began under the rule of Someswara I

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Context: Archaeologists have discovered 900-year-old Kannada inscriptions from the Kalyani Chalukya era in Kankal village, Vikarabad district, Telangana.

• These inscriptions, dating back to 1129-1132 CE, detail temple construction and land donations during the reign of Emperor Someswara III Bhulokamalladeva.

Kalyani Chalukya

• Founder: Founded by Tailapa II after defeating the Rashtrakutas.

• Capital: Kalyani (modern-day Bidar, Karnataka).

• Controlled Deccan Plateau, including present-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: This refers to the Badami Chalukyas. The Kalyani Chalukyas ruled from the 10th–12th centuries CE, and were successors to the Rashtrakutas, not predecessors.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Mahadeva Temple at Itagi (Koppal, Karnataka) is famed for its craftsmanship and is described as “Emperor among temples.”

• Earlier Kannada inscriptions date to Badami Chalukyas and even Kadambas; hence, not exclusive to Kalyani Chalukyas.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chalukya Vikrama era began under Vikramaditya VI (1076–1126 CE), not Someswara I

Solution: B

Context: Archaeologists have discovered 900-year-old Kannada inscriptions from the Kalyani Chalukya era in Kankal village, Vikarabad district, Telangana.

• These inscriptions, dating back to 1129-1132 CE, detail temple construction and land donations during the reign of Emperor Someswara III Bhulokamalladeva.

Kalyani Chalukya

• Founder: Founded by Tailapa II after defeating the Rashtrakutas.

• Capital: Kalyani (modern-day Bidar, Karnataka).

• Controlled Deccan Plateau, including present-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Mahadeva Temple at Itagi (Koppal, Karnataka) is famed for its craftsmanship and is described as “Emperor among temples.”

• Earlier Kannada inscriptions date to Badami Chalukyas and even Kadambas; hence, not exclusive to Kalyani Chalukyas.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chalukya Vikrama era began under Vikramaditya VI (1076–1126 CE), not Someswara I

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Ukraine has been granted permission to use Western weapons to target military sites inside Russia, marking a significant shift in the conflict dynamics. Previously, Western countries limited their support to Ukraine to military targets within its territory. However, the recent Russian advance near Kharkiv prompted allies to reconsider, acknowledging the need for Ukraine to defend itself by striking targets across the border. While the US has allowed Ukraine to use certain weapons, such as multiple rocket launchers, with a shorter range, long-range weapons like ATACMS are excluded to prevent escalation. This policy change enhances Ukraine’s ability to disrupt Russian operations near its border but poses challenges in countering specific threats like glide bombs. Although intercepting planes dropping these bombs requires advanced air defence systems, such as the US Patriot system, deploying them near Kharkiv entails significant risks. Meanwhile, the UK and France’s provision of Storm Shadow air-launched cruise missiles offers additional capabilities, albeit with operational limitations. However, Ukraine is also pursuing the development of its own weapons, such as drones, to target Russian military assets deep within Russia. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT a reason cited for the exclusion of long-range weapons like ATACMS from the support granted by the US to Ukraine? Long-range weapons could potentially escalate the conflict between Ukraine and Russia. Ukraine lacks the capability to effectively deploy and utilize long-range weapons like ATACMS. The recent Russian advance near Kharkiv prompted Western allies to reconsider their support strategy. ATACMS is deemed unnecessary for Ukraine’s immediate defence needs against Russian military operations near its border. Choose the correct Option: A. 1 only b. 1 and 4 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 only Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Statement 1: The passage states that long-range weapons like ATACMS are excluded to prevent escalation, supporting this option as a cited reason. Statement 2: The passage does not mention Ukraine’s capability to deploy or utilize long-range weapons like ATACMS as a reason for their exclusion. It focuses on preventing escalation and meeting immediate defence needs. Statement 3: The passage mentions that the recent Russian advance near Kharkiv prompted allies to reconsider their support strategy. However, this does not specifically relate to the exclusion of long-range weapons but rather to the broader reconsideration of support. Thus, this isn’t directly linked to the exclusion of ATACMS. Statement 4: The passage implies that the immediate defence needs against Russian military operations near the border are being met with shorter-range weapons and other systems, supporting this as a cited reason. Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage clearly downplays technology as the sole solution, saying “pollution is not merely a by-product of industry” and “no legislation can succeed where conscience has failed.” Statement 2 is correct: The emphasis on “rebirth of humility” and “fundamental change in human values” suggests the author sees moral transformation as essential. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Statement 1: The passage states that long-range weapons like ATACMS are excluded to prevent escalation, supporting this option as a cited reason. Statement 2: The passage does not mention Ukraine’s capability to deploy or utilize long-range weapons like ATACMS as a reason for their exclusion. It focuses on preventing escalation and meeting immediate defence needs. Statement 3: The passage mentions that the recent Russian advance near Kharkiv prompted allies to reconsider their support strategy. However, this does not specifically relate to the exclusion of long-range weapons but rather to the broader reconsideration of support. Thus, this isn’t directly linked to the exclusion of ATACMS. Statement 4: The passage implies that the immediate defence needs against Russian military operations near the border are being met with shorter-range weapons and other systems, supporting this as a cited reason.

#### 26. Question

Ukraine has been granted permission to use Western weapons to target military sites inside Russia, marking a significant shift in the conflict dynamics. Previously, Western countries limited their support to Ukraine to military targets within its territory. However, the recent Russian advance near Kharkiv prompted allies to reconsider, acknowledging the need for Ukraine to defend itself by striking targets across the border. While the US has allowed Ukraine to use certain weapons, such as multiple rocket launchers, with a shorter range, long-range weapons like ATACMS are excluded to prevent escalation. This policy change enhances Ukraine’s ability to disrupt Russian operations near its border but poses challenges in countering specific threats like glide bombs. Although intercepting planes dropping these bombs requires advanced air defence systems, such as the US Patriot system, deploying them near Kharkiv entails significant risks. Meanwhile, the UK and France’s provision of Storm Shadow air-launched cruise missiles offers additional capabilities, albeit with operational limitations. However, Ukraine is also pursuing the development of its own weapons, such as drones, to target Russian military assets deep within Russia.

According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT a reason cited for the exclusion of long-range weapons like ATACMS from the support granted by the US to Ukraine?

• Long-range weapons could potentially escalate the conflict between Ukraine and Russia.

• Ukraine lacks the capability to effectively deploy and utilize long-range weapons like ATACMS.

• The recent Russian advance near Kharkiv prompted Western allies to reconsider their support strategy.

• ATACMS is deemed unnecessary for Ukraine’s immediate defence needs against Russian military operations near its border.

Choose the correct Option:

• b. 1 and 4 only

• c. 2 and 3 only

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Statement 1: The passage states that long-range weapons like ATACMS are excluded to prevent escalation, supporting this option as a cited reason.

Statement 2: The passage does not mention Ukraine’s capability to deploy or utilize long-range weapons like ATACMS as a reason for their exclusion. It focuses on preventing escalation and meeting immediate defence needs.

Statement 3: The passage mentions that the recent Russian advance near Kharkiv prompted allies to reconsider their support strategy. However, this does not specifically relate to the exclusion of long-range weapons but rather to the broader reconsideration of support. Thus, this isn’t directly linked to the exclusion of ATACMS.

Statement 4: The passage implies that the immediate defence needs against Russian military operations near the border are being met with shorter-range weapons and other systems, supporting this as a cited reason.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage clearly downplays technology as the sole solution, saying “pollution is not merely a by-product of industry” and “no legislation can succeed where conscience has failed.”

Statement 2 is correct: The emphasis on “rebirth of humility” and “fundamental change in human values” suggests the author sees moral transformation as essential.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Statement 1: The passage states that long-range weapons like ATACMS are excluded to prevent escalation, supporting this option as a cited reason.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A man travels 150 km to a place in 3 hours 20 minutes and he returns to the starting point in 4 hours 10 minutes. Let x be the rate for the entire trip. Then in how many kilometres per hour more or less than x ? a. 4 km/hr b. 2 km/hr c. 4.5 km/hr d. 5 km/hr Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Time taken to cover 150 km in going trip 3 hours 20 minutes = 3 20/60 = 3 1/3 hours speed in going trip = 150 3/10 = 45 km/hr time taken to cover 150 km in return trip = 4 hours 10 minutes = 4 1/6 hours speed in return trip = 150 6/25 = 36 km/hr average speed = 2 45 36/ 45 + 36 = 40 km/hr required difference = 45 – 40 = 5 km/hr Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Time taken to cover 150 km in going trip 3 hours 20 minutes = 3 20/60 = 3 1/3 hours speed in going trip = 150 3/10 = 45 km/hr time taken to cover 150 km in return trip = 4 hours 10 minutes = 4 1/6 hours speed in return trip = 150 6/25 = 36 km/hr average speed = 2 45 36/ 45 + 36 = 40 km/hr required difference = 45 – 40 = 5 km/hr

#### 27. Question

A man travels 150 km to a place in 3 hours 20 minutes and he returns to the starting point in 4 hours 10 minutes. Let x be the rate for the entire trip. Then in how many kilometres per hour more or less than x ?

• a. 4 km/hr

• b. 2 km/hr

• c. 4.5 km/hr

• d. 5 km/hr

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Time taken to cover 150 km in going trip

3 hours 20 minutes = 3 20/60 = 3 1/3 hours

speed in going trip = 150 *3/10 = 45 km/hr

time taken to cover 150 km in return trip = 4 hours 10 minutes = 4 1/6 hours

speed in return trip = 150 * 6/25 = 36 km/hr

average speed = 2 45 36/ 45 + 36 = 40 km/hr

required difference = 45 – 40 = 5 km/hr

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Time taken to cover 150 km in going trip

3 hours 20 minutes = 3 20/60 = 3 1/3 hours

speed in going trip = 150 *3/10 = 45 km/hr

time taken to cover 150 km in return trip = 4 hours 10 minutes = 4 1/6 hours

speed in return trip = 150 * 6/25 = 36 km/hr

average speed = 2 45 36/ 45 + 36 = 40 km/hr

required difference = 45 – 40 = 5 km/hr

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Find the greatest 6 digits number, which is a multiple of 12 a. 999980 b. 999990 c. 999984 d. None of these Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Greatest 6 digit number is 999999 Divide this number by 12 and get remainder as 3 Since the remainder is 3, If you subtract 3 from the number , the remaining number will be a multiple of 12 So the greatest such number will be 999999-3 = 999996 Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Greatest 6 digit number is 999999 Divide this number by 12 and get remainder as 3 Since the remainder is 3, If you subtract 3 from the number , the remaining number will be a multiple of 12 So the greatest such number will be 999999-3 = 999996

#### 28. Question

Find the greatest 6 digits number, which is a multiple of 12

• d. None of these

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Greatest 6 digit number is 999999

Divide this number by 12 and get remainder as 3

Since the remainder is 3,

If you subtract 3 from the number , the remaining number will be a multiple of 12

So the greatest such number will be 999999-3

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Greatest 6 digit number is 999999

Divide this number by 12 and get remainder as 3

Since the remainder is 3,

If you subtract 3 from the number , the remaining number will be a multiple of 12

So the greatest such number will be 999999-3

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Riya’s father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old when her brother four years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages of her parents? a. 2 years b. 4 years c. 6 years d. 8 years Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Mother’s age when Riya’s brother was born = 36 years. Father’s age when Riya ‘s brother was born = (38 + 4) years = 42 years. Required difference = (42 – 36) years = 6 years. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Mother’s age when Riya’s brother was born = 36 years. Father’s age when Riya ‘s brother was born = (38 + 4) years = 42 years. Required difference = (42 – 36) years = 6 years.

#### 29. Question

Riya’s father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old when her brother four years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages of her parents?

• a. 2 years

• b. 4 years

• c. 6 years

• d. 8 years

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Mother’s age when Riya’s brother was born = 36 years.

Father’s age when Riya ‘s brother was born = (38 + 4) years = 42 years.

Required difference = (42 – 36) years = 6 years.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Mother’s age when Riya’s brother was born = 36 years.

Father’s age when Riya ‘s brother was born = (38 + 4) years = 42 years.

Required difference = (42 – 36) years = 6 years.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points There are 6 tasks and 6 persons. Task 1 cannot be assigned either to person 1 or to person 2; task 2 must be assigned to either person 3 or person 4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be done? a. 144 b. 180 c. 192 d. 360 Correct Correct Option : A Justification : If the first task is assigned to either person 3 or person 4, the second task can be assigned in only 1 way. If the first task is assigned to either person 5 or person 6, the second task can be assigned in 2 ways. Therefore, the number of ways in which the first two tasks can be assigned is 21 + 22 = 6. The other 4 tasks can be assigned to 4 people in 4! ways. The total number of ways of assigning the 6 tasks is, therefore, 64! = 144 Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : If the first task is assigned to either person 3 or person 4, the second task can be assigned in only 1 way. If the first task is assigned to either person 5 or person 6, the second task can be assigned in 2 ways. Therefore, the number of ways in which the first two tasks can be assigned is 21 + 22 = 6. The other 4 tasks can be assigned to 4 people in 4! ways. The total number of ways of assigning the 6 tasks is, therefore, 64! = 144

#### 30. Question

There are 6 tasks and 6 persons. Task 1 cannot be assigned either to person 1 or to person 2; task 2 must be assigned to either person 3 or person 4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be done?

Correct Option : A

Justification :

If the first task is assigned to either person 3 or person 4, the second task can be assigned in only 1 way. If the first task is assigned to

either person 5 or person 6, the second task can be assigned in 2 ways. Therefore, the number of ways in which the first two tasks can

be assigned is 21 + 22 = 6.

The other 4 tasks can be assigned to 4 people in 4! ways.

The total number of ways of assigning the 6 tasks is, therefore, 6*4! = 144

Correct Option : A

Justification :

If the first task is assigned to either person 3 or person 4, the second task can be assigned in only 1 way. If the first task is assigned to

either person 5 or person 6, the second task can be assigned in 2 ways. Therefore, the number of ways in which the first two tasks can