DAY – 70 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – Polity , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2019 and Mar 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Article 102(1) of the Indian Constitution: It disqualifies a person from being elected as a Member of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the government of India or any state. It applies only to Members of the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Article 102(1) indeed states that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the government of India or any state. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Article 102(1) applies to members of both Houses of Parliament, which includes both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Article 102(1) indeed states that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the government of India or any state. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Article 102(1) applies to members of both Houses of Parliament, which includes both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Article 102(1) of the Indian Constitution:

• It disqualifies a person from being elected as a Member of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the government of India or any state.

• It applies only to Members of the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Article 102(1) indeed states that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the government of India or any state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Article 102(1) applies to members of both Houses of Parliament, which includes both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Article 102(1) applies to members of both Houses of Parliament, which includes both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha: The Rajya Sabha can introduce Constitutional amendment bills. The Lok Sabha can vote on demands for grants, while the Rajya Sabha can only discuss them. Both houses of Parliament have equal power in the impeachment of the President. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Rajya Sabha has the power to introduce and pass Constitutional amendment bills. While such bills can be introduced in either house of Parliament, they must be passed by both houses separately. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has the authority to initiate and pass Constitutional amendments. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha have equal powers in the election and impeachment of the President. The President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of both houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories. Similarly, in case of impeachment, both houses have equal powers in initiating and carrying out the process. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Rajya Sabha has the power to introduce and pass Constitutional amendment bills. While such bills can be introduced in either house of Parliament, they must be passed by both houses separately. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has the authority to initiate and pass Constitutional amendments. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha have equal powers in the election and impeachment of the President. The President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of both houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories. Similarly, in case of impeachment, both houses have equal powers in initiating and carrying out the process. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha:

• The Rajya Sabha can introduce Constitutional amendment bills.

• The Lok Sabha can vote on demands for grants, while the Rajya Sabha can only discuss them.

• Both houses of Parliament have equal power in the impeachment of the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

• The Rajya Sabha has the power to introduce and pass Constitutional amendment bills. While such bills can be introduced in either house of Parliament, they must be passed by both houses separately. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has the authority to initiate and pass Constitutional amendments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha have equal powers in the election and impeachment of the President. The President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of both houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories. Similarly, in case of impeachment, both houses have equal powers in initiating and carrying out the process. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following: Judicial review by the Supreme Court. Executive orders issued by the President. Public referendums on constitutional matters. Amendments passed by a simple majority in Parliament. How many of the above factors contributes to the flexibility of interpretation in a living document? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: A living document refers to a text or instrument, typically a legal or constitutional document that is considered dynamic and adaptable rather than static and unchanging. The term suggests that the document has the capacity to evolve and respond to changing circumstances, societal values, and interpretations over time. Judicial review by the Supreme Court: This contributes significantly to the flexibility of interpretation. The Supreme Court has the authority to interpret the Constitution and strike down laws or executive actions that it deems unconstitutional. Its interpretations can adapt to changing societal norms and circumstances, enhancing the flexibility of the document. Executive orders issued by the President: Executive orders can influence the interpretation of the Constitution, especially when they involve matters of policy or administration. However, their impact on flexibility is limited compared to judicial review, as they are subject to review by the judiciary and can be overridden by subsequent administrations. Public referendums on constitutional matters: Public referendums provide a direct mechanism for constitutional change based on popular will. They can introduce flexibility by allowing the Constitution to evolve in response to changing public attitudes and values. However, their frequency and impact vary depending on the political context and the level of public engagement. Amendments passed by a simple majority in Parliament: Amendments are a formal mechanism for changing the Constitution, their contribution to flexibility depends on the ease with which they can be passed. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: A living document refers to a text or instrument, typically a legal or constitutional document that is considered dynamic and adaptable rather than static and unchanging. The term suggests that the document has the capacity to evolve and respond to changing circumstances, societal values, and interpretations over time. Judicial review by the Supreme Court: This contributes significantly to the flexibility of interpretation. The Supreme Court has the authority to interpret the Constitution and strike down laws or executive actions that it deems unconstitutional. Its interpretations can adapt to changing societal norms and circumstances, enhancing the flexibility of the document. Executive orders issued by the President: Executive orders can influence the interpretation of the Constitution, especially when they involve matters of policy or administration. However, their impact on flexibility is limited compared to judicial review, as they are subject to review by the judiciary and can be overridden by subsequent administrations. Public referendums on constitutional matters: Public referendums provide a direct mechanism for constitutional change based on popular will. They can introduce flexibility by allowing the Constitution to evolve in response to changing public attitudes and values. However, their frequency and impact vary depending on the political context and the level of public engagement. Amendments passed by a simple majority in Parliament: Amendments are a formal mechanism for changing the Constitution, their contribution to flexibility depends on the ease with which they can be passed. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following:

• Judicial review by the Supreme Court.

• Executive orders issued by the President.

• Public referendums on constitutional matters.

• Amendments passed by a simple majority in Parliament.

How many of the above factors contributes to the flexibility of interpretation in a living document?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• A living document refers to a text or instrument, typically a legal or constitutional document that is considered dynamic and adaptable rather than static and unchanging. The term suggests that the document has the capacity to evolve and respond to changing circumstances, societal values, and interpretations over time.

• Judicial review by the Supreme Court: This contributes significantly to the flexibility of interpretation. The Supreme Court has the authority to interpret the Constitution and strike down laws or executive actions that it deems unconstitutional. Its interpretations can adapt to changing societal norms and circumstances, enhancing the flexibility of the document.

• Executive orders issued by the President: Executive orders can influence the interpretation of the Constitution, especially when they involve matters of policy or administration. However, their impact on flexibility is limited compared to judicial review, as they are subject to review by the judiciary and can be overridden by subsequent administrations.

• Public referendums on constitutional matters: Public referendums provide a direct mechanism for constitutional change based on popular will. They can introduce flexibility by allowing the Constitution to evolve in response to changing public attitudes and values. However, their frequency and impact vary depending on the political context and the level of public engagement.

• Amendments passed by a simple majority in Parliament: Amendments are a formal mechanism for changing the Constitution, their contribution to flexibility depends on the ease with which they can be passed.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the Council of Ministers: The powers and functions of the Cabinet in India are mentioned in Article 352 of the Constitution. The principle of political homogeneity in the Cabinet ensures efficient decision-making but may not apply in coalition governments. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: The word ‘cabinet’ was added to Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. It was not present in the original text of the Constitution. Article 352 only mentions the Cabinet as “the council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under Article 75“, and does not elaborate on its powers and functions. The cabinet’s role in the political and administrative system is based on parliamentary government conventions. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Political homogeneity refers to a situation where all Cabinet members belong to the same political party. In such a scenario, decision-making tends to be more efficient because the Cabinet operates with a shared ideology and policy agenda, leading to cohesive governance. However, in coalition governments where multiple parties are involved, achieving political homogeneity becomes challenging. Cabinet members may belong to different parties with diverse interests and priorities, which can lead to disagreements and conflicts within the Cabinet. As a result, decision-making may be slower, and consensus-building becomes essential to govern effectively. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The word ‘cabinet’ was added to Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. It was not present in the original text of the Constitution. Article 352 only mentions the Cabinet as “the council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under Article 75“, and does not elaborate on its powers and functions. The cabinet’s role in the political and administrative system is based on parliamentary government conventions. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Political homogeneity refers to a situation where all Cabinet members belong to the same political party. In such a scenario, decision-making tends to be more efficient because the Cabinet operates with a shared ideology and policy agenda, leading to cohesive governance. However, in coalition governments where multiple parties are involved, achieving political homogeneity becomes challenging. Cabinet members may belong to different parties with diverse interests and priorities, which can lead to disagreements and conflicts within the Cabinet. As a result, decision-making may be slower, and consensus-building becomes essential to govern effectively. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the Council of Ministers:

• The powers and functions of the Cabinet in India are mentioned in Article 352 of the Constitution.

• The principle of political homogeneity in the Cabinet ensures efficient decision-making but may not apply in coalition governments.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The word ‘cabinet’ was added to Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.

• It was not present in the original text of the Constitution. Article 352 only mentions the Cabinet as “the council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under Article 75“, and does not elaborate on its powers and functions. The cabinet’s role in the political and administrative system is based on parliamentary government conventions. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Political homogeneity refers to a situation where all Cabinet members belong to the same political party. In such a scenario, decision-making tends to be more efficient because the Cabinet operates with a shared ideology and policy agenda, leading to cohesive governance. However, in coalition governments where multiple parties are involved, achieving political homogeneity becomes challenging. Cabinet members may belong to different parties with diverse interests and priorities, which can lead to disagreements and conflicts within the Cabinet. As a result, decision-making may be slower, and consensus-building becomes essential to govern effectively. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The word ‘cabinet’ was added to Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Cabinet Committees in India are extra-constitutional bodies established under the parliamentary conventions. The Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is chaired by the Defence Minister, while the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is chaired by the Home Minister. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: d Explanation: In India, Cabinet Committees are formed to aid the Cabinet in its decision-making process and to handle specific issues efficiently. These committees are not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution but are established under the Rules of Business. The Rules of Business outline the procedures and guidelines for the transaction of business in government ministries and departments. They provide a framework for the functioning of the executive branch, including the formation and operation of Cabinet Committees. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is responsible for the allotment of accommodation to various government officials, including ministers, members of parliament, and other dignitaries. It ensures the efficient management of government housing facilities. The Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is chaired by the Home Minister, not the Defence Minister. The Home Minister is typically responsible for matters related to internal security, law and order, and administrative affairs, including accommodation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: In India, Cabinet Committees are formed to aid the Cabinet in its decision-making process and to handle specific issues efficiently. These committees are not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution but are established under the Rules of Business. The Rules of Business outline the procedures and guidelines for the transaction of business in government ministries and departments. They provide a framework for the functioning of the executive branch, including the formation and operation of Cabinet Committees. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is responsible for the allotment of accommodation to various government officials, including ministers, members of parliament, and other dignitaries. It ensures the efficient management of government housing facilities. The Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is chaired by the Home Minister, not the Defence Minister. The Home Minister is typically responsible for matters related to internal security, law and order, and administrative affairs, including accommodation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Cabinet Committees in India are extra-constitutional bodies established under the parliamentary conventions.

• The Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is chaired by the Defence Minister, while the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is chaired by the Home Minister.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• In India, Cabinet Committees are formed to aid the Cabinet in its decision-making process and to handle specific issues efficiently. These committees are not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution but are established under the Rules of Business.

• The Rules of Business outline the procedures and guidelines for the transaction of business in government ministries and departments. They provide a framework for the functioning of the executive branch, including the formation and operation of Cabinet Committees. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is responsible for the allotment of accommodation to various government officials, including ministers, members of parliament, and other dignitaries. It ensures the efficient management of government housing facilities.

• The Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is chaired by the Home Minister, not the Defence Minister. The Home Minister is typically responsible for matters related to internal security, law and order, and administrative affairs, including accommodation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following: Making false or baseless allegations against fellow members during parliamentary sessions. Revealing sensitive national security information discussed in closed parliamentary sessions without proper authorization. Publishing a tell-all memoir revealing non- confidential discussions and disagreements among parliamentary colleagues. Leading a campaign outside parliamentary premises demanding the arrest of fellow MPs accused of a crime. How many of the above would be considered as violation of the rights and immunities of the Parliament or its members? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: Here are some more examples of breaches of parliamentary privileges: Obstructing Parliamentary Proceedings Intimidating or Coercing Members Misuse of Parliamentary Resources Interfering with the Duties of Parliamentary Officials Violating Confidentiality Engaging in Defamatory Speech Making false or baseless allegations against fellow members during parliamentary sessions would be considered a violation as it undermines the integrity and decorum of parliamentary proceedings and can harm the reputation of fellow members. Revealing sensitive national security information discussed in closed parliamentary sessions without proper authorization: This is a serious breach of confidentiality and could jeopardize national security. It directly violates parliamentary privileges. Publishing a tell-all memoir revealing non-confidential discussions and disagreements among parliamentary colleagues does not directly violate parliamentary privileges since the discussions are non-confidential. Leading a campaign outside parliamentary premises demanding the arrest of fellow MPs accused of a crime: This action, while outside the immediate purview of parliamentary privileges, may not directly violate such privileges unless it involves defamation or other illegal activities. It is more of a political action than a breach of parliamentary privileges. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Here are some more examples of breaches of parliamentary privileges: Obstructing Parliamentary Proceedings Intimidating or Coercing Members Misuse of Parliamentary Resources Interfering with the Duties of Parliamentary Officials Violating Confidentiality Engaging in Defamatory Speech Making false or baseless allegations against fellow members during parliamentary sessions would be considered a violation as it undermines the integrity and decorum of parliamentary proceedings and can harm the reputation of fellow members. Revealing sensitive national security information discussed in closed parliamentary sessions without proper authorization: This is a serious breach of confidentiality and could jeopardize national security. It directly violates parliamentary privileges. Publishing a tell-all memoir revealing non-confidential discussions and disagreements among parliamentary colleagues does not directly violate parliamentary privileges since the discussions are non-confidential. Leading a campaign outside parliamentary premises demanding the arrest of fellow MPs accused of a crime: This action, while outside the immediate purview of parliamentary privileges, may not directly violate such privileges unless it involves defamation or other illegal activities. It is more of a political action than a breach of parliamentary privileges. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following:

• Making false or baseless allegations against fellow members during parliamentary sessions.

• Revealing sensitive national security information discussed in closed parliamentary sessions without proper authorization.

• Publishing a tell-all memoir revealing non- confidential discussions and disagreements among parliamentary colleagues.

• Leading a campaign outside parliamentary premises demanding the arrest of fellow MPs accused of a crime.

How many of the above would be considered as violation of the rights and immunities of the Parliament or its members?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Here are some more examples of breaches of parliamentary privileges:

• Obstructing Parliamentary Proceedings

• Intimidating or Coercing Members

• Misuse of Parliamentary Resources

• Interfering with the Duties of Parliamentary Officials

• Violating Confidentiality

• Engaging in Defamatory Speech

• Making false or baseless allegations against fellow members during parliamentary sessions would be considered a violation as it undermines the integrity and decorum of parliamentary proceedings and can harm the reputation of fellow members.

• Revealing sensitive national security information discussed in closed parliamentary sessions without proper authorization: This is a serious breach of confidentiality and could jeopardize national security. It directly violates parliamentary privileges.

• Publishing a tell-all memoir revealing non-confidential discussions and disagreements among parliamentary colleagues does not directly violate parliamentary privileges since the discussions are non-confidential.

• Leading a campaign outside parliamentary premises demanding the arrest of fellow MPs accused of a crime: This action, while outside the immediate purview of parliamentary privileges, may not directly violate such privileges unless it involves defamation or other illegal activities. It is more of a political action than a breach of parliamentary privileges.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Here are some more examples of breaches of parliamentary privileges:

• Obstructing Parliamentary Proceedings

• Intimidating or Coercing Members

• Misuse of Parliamentary Resources

• Interfering with the Duties of Parliamentary Officials

• Violating Confidentiality

• Engaging in Defamatory Speech

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to the political and electoral Reforms in India, consider the following statements: Voting rights extended to Non-Resident Indians (NRIs). Disclosure of criminal records along with nomination papers made compulsory. Introduction of NOTA option in General Election to State Legislative Assemblies. Arrange the above in correct chronological order: a) 1-3-2 b) 2-3-1 c) 2-1-3 d) 3-2-1 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Based on the recommendations made by various Committees and Commissions, various reforms have been introduced in our electoral system, election machinery and election process. Some of the important reforms include: In 2003, the election Commission issued an order directing every candidate seeking election to the Parliament or a State Legislature to furnish on his nomination paper the declaration of Criminal Antecedents, Assets, etc., by Candidates. In 2010, a provision was made to confer voting rights to the citizens of India residing outside India due to various reasons. Accordingly, every citizen of India – (a) whose name is not included in the electoral roll (b) who has not acquired the citizenship of any other country (c) who is absent from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or otherwise outside India (whether temporarily or not) – shall be entitled to have his name registered in the electoral roll in the Parliamentary / Assembly constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located. The Supreme Court in September 2013 upheld the right of voters to reject all candidates contesting the elections, saying it would go a long way in cleansing the political system of the country. The top court directed the Election Commission to have an option of NOTA on EVMs and ballot papers in a major electoral reform. The NOTA option was first used in the assembly elections held in five states in 2013. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Based on the recommendations made by various Committees and Commissions, various reforms have been introduced in our electoral system, election machinery and election process. Some of the important reforms include: In 2003, the election Commission issued an order directing every candidate seeking election to the Parliament or a State Legislature to furnish on his nomination paper the declaration of Criminal Antecedents, Assets, etc., by Candidates. In 2010, a provision was made to confer voting rights to the citizens of India residing outside India due to various reasons. Accordingly, every citizen of India – (a) whose name is not included in the electoral roll (b) who has not acquired the citizenship of any other country (c) who is absent from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or otherwise outside India (whether temporarily or not) – shall be entitled to have his name registered in the electoral roll in the Parliamentary / Assembly constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located. The Supreme Court in September 2013 upheld the right of voters to reject all candidates contesting the elections, saying it would go a long way in cleansing the political system of the country. The top court directed the Election Commission to have an option of NOTA on EVMs and ballot papers in a major electoral reform. The NOTA option was first used in the assembly elections held in five states in 2013. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the political and electoral Reforms in India, consider the following statements:

• Voting rights extended to Non-Resident Indians (NRIs).

• Disclosure of criminal records along with nomination papers made compulsory.

• Introduction of NOTA option in General Election to State Legislative Assemblies.

Arrange the above in correct chronological order:

Explanation:

• Based on the recommendations made by various Committees and Commissions, various reforms have been introduced in our electoral system, election machinery and election process. Some of the important reforms include:

• In 2003, the election Commission issued an order directing every candidate seeking election to the Parliament or a State Legislature to furnish on his nomination paper the declaration of Criminal Antecedents, Assets, etc., by Candidates.

• In 2010, a provision was made to confer voting rights to the citizens of India residing outside India due to various reasons. Accordingly, every citizen of India – (a) whose name is not included in the electoral roll (b) who has not acquired the citizenship of any other country (c) who is absent from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or otherwise outside India (whether temporarily or not) – shall be entitled to have his name registered in the electoral roll in the Parliamentary / Assembly constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located.

• The Supreme Court in September 2013 upheld the right of voters to reject all candidates contesting the elections, saying it would go a long way in cleansing the political system of the country. The top court directed the Election Commission to have an option of NOTA on EVMs and ballot papers in a major electoral reform. The NOTA option was first used in the assembly elections held in five states in 2013.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points With reference to Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements: Transfer of an election official without prior approval of the Election Commission. Combining official visit with electioneering work by the Prime Minister. Fresh release of funds under MPs Local Area Development Fund. Combining official work with electioneering work by the ministers. How many of the above amounts to the violation of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit. The Election Commission ensures its observance by political parties in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India. It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed. Some of the features of MCC are: There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct. The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work. However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. o Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised not to participate and address the Convocation. The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions. Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit. The Election Commission ensures its observance by political parties in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India. It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed. Some of the features of MCC are: There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct. The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work. However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. o Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised not to participate and address the Convocation. The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions. Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 8. Question

With reference to Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:

• Transfer of an election official without prior approval of the Election Commission.

• Combining official visit with electioneering work by the Prime Minister.

• Fresh release of funds under MPs Local Area Development Fund.

• Combining official work with electioneering work by the ministers.

How many of the above amounts to the violation of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit.

• The Election Commission ensures its observance by political parties in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.

• It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken.

• The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed.

• Some of the features of MCC are:

• There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct.

• The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work.

• However, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. o Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised not to participate and address the Convocation.

• The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the occasions.

• Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed.

• Some of the features of MCC are:

• The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to Electronics Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following statements: Provisions for the use of EVMs are provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1950. EVM data is continuously monitored through a centralized storage server. EVMs completely eliminate the possibilities of booth capturing. How many of the above statements are* incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology. The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology. The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. *

#### 9. Question

With reference to Electronics Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following statements:

• Provisions for the use of EVMs are provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

• EVM data is continuously monitored through a centralized storage server.

• EVMs completely eliminate the possibilities of booth capturing.

How many of the above statements are* incorrect*?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology.

• The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The ‘constitutional right of citizens to cast a negative vote in elections’ was upheld in which of the following cases? a) Jan Chowkidar Case b) Lily Thomas Case c) People’s Union of Civil Liberty Case d) S.R Bommai case Correct Answer: c Explanation: PUCL Case, 2004 SC upheld the constitutional right of citizens to cast a negative vote in elections. Supreme Court held that a Right to vote also includes a right not to vote i.e. right to reject. Which has its genus in freedom of speech and expression. Also, the Right to secrecy is an integral part of a free and fair election. While the name of the voters who have not cast their votes was publically disclosed, but by casting a negative vote, secrecy will be maintained. The judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in this case, is significant not only because it introduced the option of NOTA on the EVMs but also because it dignified the right to vote. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: PUCL Case, 2004 SC upheld the constitutional right of citizens to cast a negative vote in elections. Supreme Court held that a Right to vote also includes a right not to vote i.e. right to reject. Which has its genus in freedom of speech and expression. Also, the Right to secrecy is an integral part of a free and fair election. While the name of the voters who have not cast their votes was publically disclosed, but by casting a negative vote, secrecy will be maintained. The judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in this case, is significant not only because it introduced the option of NOTA on the EVMs but also because it dignified the right to vote. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

The ‘constitutional right of citizens to cast a negative vote in elections’ was upheld in which of the following cases?

• a) Jan Chowkidar Case

• b) Lily Thomas Case

• c) People’s Union of Civil Liberty Case

• d) S.R Bommai case

Explanation:

PUCL Case, 2004

• SC upheld the constitutional right of citizens to cast a negative vote in elections. Supreme Court held that a Right to vote also includes a right not to vote i.e. right to reject. Which has its genus in freedom of speech and expression.

• Also, the Right to secrecy is an integral part of a free and fair election. While the name of the voters who have not cast their votes was publically disclosed, but by casting a negative vote, secrecy will be maintained.

• The judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in this case, is significant not only because it introduced the option of NOTA on the EVMs but also because it dignified the right to vote.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

PUCL Case, 2004

• The judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in this case, is significant not only because it introduced the option of NOTA on the EVMs but also because it dignified the right to vote.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points How many following countries share boundary with Kosovo, a self-declared independent nation? Romania Hungary Croatia Serbia North Macedonia Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only two countries (b) Only three countries (c) Only four countries (d) All five countries Correct Solution: A Kosovo, self-declared independent country in the Balkans region of Europe. Although the United States and most members of the European Union (EU) recognized Kosovo’s declaration of independence from Serbia in 2008, Serbia, Russia, and a significant number of other countries—including several EU members—did not. Given this lack of international consensus, Kosovo was not immediately admitted to the United Nations (UN). In 2010 the International Court of Justice ruled that Kosovo’s declaration of independence did not violate international law, but Serbia rejected that decision. https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/nato-soldiers-on-guard-in-kosovo-serb-town-after-clashes/article66911589.ece https://www.britannica.com/event/Kosovo-conflict Incorrect Solution: A Kosovo, self-declared independent country in the Balkans region of Europe. Although the United States and most members of the European Union (EU) recognized Kosovo’s declaration of independence from Serbia in 2008, Serbia, Russia, and a significant number of other countries—including several EU members—did not. Given this lack of international consensus, Kosovo was not immediately admitted to the United Nations (UN). In 2010 the International Court of Justice ruled that Kosovo’s declaration of independence did not violate international law, but Serbia rejected that decision. https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/nato-soldiers-on-guard-in-kosovo-serb-town-after-clashes/article66911589.ece https://www.britannica.com/event/Kosovo-conflict

#### 11. Question

How many following countries share boundary with Kosovo, a self-declared independent nation?

• North Macedonia

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (a) Only two countries

• (b) Only three countries

• (c) Only four countries

• (d) All five countries

Solution: A

Kosovo, self-declared independent country in the Balkans region of Europe. Although the United States and most members of the European Union (EU) recognized Kosovo’s declaration of independence from Serbia in 2008, Serbia, Russia, and a significant number of other countries—including several EU members—did not. Given this lack of international consensus, Kosovo was not immediately admitted to the United Nations (UN). In 2010 the International Court of Justice ruled that Kosovo’s declaration of independence did not violate international law, but Serbia rejected that decision.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/nato-soldiers-on-guard-in-kosovo-serb-town-after-clashes/article66911589.ece

https://www.britannica.com/event/Kosovo-conflict

Solution: A

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/nato-soldiers-on-guard-in-kosovo-serb-town-after-clashes/article66911589.ece

https://www.britannica.com/event/Kosovo-conflict

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points On an e-commerce platform that adds a charity in the basket using a phrase “charity is for rich, I don’t care””. The above explanation of Dark Pattern is a description of: (a) Drip pricing (b) Bait and switch (c) Interface interference (d) Confirm shaming Correct Solution: D Dark patterns involve using design and choice architecture to deceive, coerce, or influence consumers into making choices that are not in their best interest. Dark patterns encompass a wide range of manipulative practices such as drip pricing, disguised advertisement, bait and switch, false urgency etc. Such practices fall under the category of “unfair trade practices” as defined under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Central Consumer Protection Authority, in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 18 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, has issued “Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023” on 30th November, 2023 for prevention and regulation of dark patterns listing 13 specified dark patterns. “Confirm shaming” means using a phrase, video, audio or any other means to create a sense of fear or shame or ridicule or guilt in the mind of the user, so as to nudge the user to act in a certain way that results in the user purchasing a product or service from the platform or continuing a subscription of a service. Illustrations: (a) A platform for booking flight tickets using the phrase “I will stay unsecured”, when a user does not include insurance in their cart. (b) A platform that adds a charity in the basket using a phrase “charity is for rich, I don’t care” 13 specified dark patterns. “False Urgency”means falsely stating or implying the sense of urgency or scarcity so as to mislead a user into making an immediate purchase or take an immediate action, which may lead to a purchase “Basket sneaking” means inclusion of additional items such as products, services, payments to charity/donation at the time of checkout from a platform, without the consent of the user, such that the total amount payable by the user is more than the amount payable for the product(s) and/or service(s) chosen by the user iii. “Confirm shaming” means using a phrase, video, audio or any other means to create a sense of fear or shame or ridicule or guilt in the mind of the user, so as to nudge the user to act in a certain way that results in the user purchasing a product or service from the platform or continuing a subscription of a service. “Forced action”shall mean forcing a user into taking an action that would require the user to buy any additional good(s) or subscribe or sign up for an unrelated service, in order to buy or subscribe to the product/service originally intended by the user “Subscription trap”means the process of making cancellation of a paid subscription impossible or a complex and lengthy process including similar other practices “Interface interference” means a design element that manipulates the user interface in ways that (a) highlights certain specific information; and (b) obscures other relevant information relative to the other information; to misdirect a user from taking an action desired by her. vii. “Bait and switch” means the practice of advertising a particular outcome based on the user’s action but deceptively serving an alternate outcome. viii. “Drip pricing” means a practice whereby-elements of prices are not revealed upfront or are revealed surreptitiously within the user experience; and/or other such practices “Disguised advertisement”means a practice of posing, masking advertisements as other types of content such as user generated content or new articles or false advertisements. “Nagging”shall mean a dark pattern due to which users face an overload of requests, information, options, or interruptions; unrelated to the intended purchase of goods or services, which disrupts the intended transaction “Trick Question” means the deliberate use of confusing or vague language like confusing wording, double negatives, or other similar tricks, in order to misguide or misdirect a user from taking desired action or leading consumer to take a specific response or action xii. “Saas billing” refers to the process of generating and collecting payments from consumers on a recurring basis in a software as a service (SaaS) business model by exploiting positive acquisition loops in recurring subscriptions to get money from users as surreptitiously as possible. xiii. “Rogue Malwares” means using a ransomware or scareware to mislead or trick user into believing there is a virus on their computer and aims to convince them to pay for a fake malware removal tool that actually installs malware on their computer https://indianexpress.com/article/india/center-notifies-guidelines-against-dark-patterns-mislead-buyers-9049966/ Kindly refer below document to know about all 13 specified dark patterns. https://consumeraffairs.nic.in/sites/default/files/The%20Guidelines%20for%20Prevention%20and%20Regulation%20of%20Dark%20Patterns%2C%202023.pdf Incorrect Solution: D Dark patterns involve using design and choice architecture to deceive, coerce, or influence consumers into making choices that are not in their best interest. Dark patterns encompass a wide range of manipulative practices such as drip pricing, disguised advertisement, bait and switch, false urgency etc. Such practices fall under the category of “unfair trade practices” as defined under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Central Consumer Protection Authority, in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 18 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, has issued “Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023” on 30th November, 2023 for prevention and regulation of dark patterns listing 13 specified dark patterns. “Confirm shaming” means using a phrase, video, audio or any other means to create a sense of fear or shame or ridicule or guilt in the mind of the user, so as to nudge the user to act in a certain way that results in the user purchasing a product or service from the platform or continuing a subscription of a service. Illustrations: (a) A platform for booking flight tickets using the phrase “I will stay unsecured”, when a user does not include insurance in their cart. (b) A platform that adds a charity in the basket using a phrase “charity is for rich, I don’t care” 13 specified dark patterns. “False Urgency”means falsely stating or implying the sense of urgency or scarcity so as to mislead a user into making an immediate purchase or take an immediate action, which may lead to a purchase “Basket sneaking” means inclusion of additional items such as products, services, payments to charity/donation at the time of checkout from a platform, without the consent of the user, such that the total amount payable by the user is more than the amount payable for the product(s) and/or service(s) chosen by the user iii. “Confirm shaming” means using a phrase, video, audio or any other means to create a sense of fear or shame or ridicule or guilt in the mind of the user, so as to nudge the user to act in a certain way that results in the user purchasing a product or service from the platform or continuing a subscription of a service. “Forced action”shall mean forcing a user into taking an action that would require the user to buy any additional good(s) or subscribe or sign up for an unrelated service, in order to buy or subscribe to the product/service originally intended by the user “Subscription trap”means the process of making cancellation of a paid subscription impossible or a complex and lengthy process including similar other practices “Interface interference” means a design element that manipulates the user interface in ways that (a) highlights certain specific information; and (b) obscures other relevant information relative to the other information; to misdirect a user from taking an action desired by her. vii. “Bait and switch” means the practice of advertising a particular outcome based on the user’s action but deceptively serving an alternate outcome. viii. “Drip pricing” means a practice whereby-elements of prices are not revealed upfront or are revealed surreptitiously within the user experience; and/or other such practices “Disguised advertisement”means a practice of posing, masking advertisements as other types of content such as user generated content or new articles or false advertisements. “Nagging”shall mean a dark pattern due to which users face an overload of requests, information, options, or interruptions; unrelated to the intended purchase of goods or services, which disrupts the intended transaction “Trick Question” means the deliberate use of confusing or vague language like confusing wording, double negatives, or other similar tricks, in order to misguide or misdirect a user from taking desired action or leading consumer to take a specific response or action xii. “Saas billing” refers to the process of generating and collecting payments from consumers on a recurring basis in a software as a service (SaaS) business model by exploiting positive acquisition loops in recurring subscriptions to get money from users as surreptitiously as possible. xiii. “Rogue Malwares” means using a ransomware or scareware to mislead or trick user into believing there is a virus on their computer and aims to convince them to pay for a fake malware removal tool that actually installs malware on their computer https://indianexpress.com/article/india/center-notifies-guidelines-against-dark-patterns-mislead-buyers-9049966/ Kindly refer below document to know about all 13 specified dark patterns. https://consumeraffairs.nic.in/sites/default/files/The%20Guidelines%20for%20Prevention%20and%20Regulation%20of%20Dark%20Patterns%2C%202023.pdf

#### 12. Question

On an e-commerce platform that adds a charity in the basket using a phrase “charity is for rich, I don’t care””. The above explanation of Dark Pattern is a description of:

• (a) Drip pricing

• (b) Bait and switch

• (c) Interface interference

• (d) Confirm shaming

Solution: D

Dark patterns involve using design and choice architecture to deceive, coerce, or influence consumers into making choices that are not in their best interest. Dark patterns encompass a wide range of manipulative practices such as drip pricing, disguised advertisement, bait and switch, false urgency etc.

Such practices fall under the category of “unfair trade practices” as defined under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Central Consumer Protection Authority, in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 18 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, has issued “Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023” on 30th November, 2023 for prevention and regulation of dark patterns listing 13 specified dark patterns.

“Confirm shaming” means using a phrase, video, audio or any other means to create a sense of fear or shame or ridicule or guilt in the mind of the user, so as to nudge the user to act in a certain way that results in the user purchasing a product or service from the platform or continuing a subscription of a service.

Illustrations:

(a) A platform for booking flight tickets using the phrase “I will stay unsecured”, when a user does not include insurance in their cart.

(b) A platform that adds a charity in the basket using a phrase “charity is for rich, I don’t care”

13 specified dark patterns.

• “False Urgency”means falsely stating or implying the sense of urgency or scarcity so as to mislead a user into making an immediate purchase or take an immediate action, which may lead to a purchase

• “Basket sneaking” means inclusion of additional items such as products, services, payments to charity/donation at the time of checkout from a platform, without the consent of the user, such that the total amount payable by the user is more than the amount payable for the product(s) and/or service(s) chosen by the user

iii. “Confirm shaming” means using a phrase, video, audio or any other means to create a sense of fear or shame or ridicule or guilt in the mind of the user, so as to nudge the user to act in a certain way that results in the user purchasing a product or service from the platform or continuing a subscription of a service.

• “Forced action”shall mean forcing a user into taking an action that would require the user to buy any additional good(s) or subscribe or sign up for an unrelated service, in order to buy or subscribe to the product/service originally intended by the user

• “Subscription trap”means the process of making cancellation of a paid subscription impossible or a complex and lengthy process including similar other practices

• “Interface interference” means a design element that manipulates the user interface in ways that (a) highlights certain specific information; and (b) obscures other relevant information relative to the other information; to misdirect a user from taking an action desired by her.

vii. “Bait and switch” means the practice of advertising a particular outcome based on the user’s action but deceptively serving an alternate outcome.

viii. “Drip pricing” means a practice whereby-elements of prices are not revealed upfront or are revealed surreptitiously within the user experience; and/or other such practices

• “Disguised advertisement”means a practice of posing, masking advertisements as other types of content such as user generated content or new articles or false advertisements.

• “Nagging”shall mean a dark pattern due to which users face an overload of requests, information, options, or interruptions; unrelated to the intended purchase of goods or services, which disrupts the intended transaction

• “Trick Question” means the deliberate use of confusing or vague language like confusing wording, double negatives, or other similar tricks, in order to misguide or misdirect a user from taking desired action or leading consumer to take a specific response or action

xii. “Saas billing” refers to the process of generating and collecting payments from consumers on a recurring basis in a software as a service (SaaS) business model by exploiting positive acquisition loops in recurring subscriptions to get money from users as surreptitiously as possible.

xiii. “Rogue Malwares” means using a ransomware or scareware to mislead or trick user into believing there is a virus on their computer and aims to convince them to pay for a fake malware removal tool that actually installs malware on their computer

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/center-notifies-guidelines-against-dark-patterns-mislead-buyers-9049966/

Kindly refer below document to know about all 13 specified dark patterns.

https://consumeraffairs.nic.in/sites/default/files/The%20Guidelines%20for%20Prevention%20and%20Regulation%20of%20Dark%20Patterns%2C%202023.pdf

Solution: D

Illustrations:

(a) A platform for booking flight tickets using the phrase “I will stay unsecured”, when a user does not include insurance in their cart.

(b) A platform that adds a charity in the basket using a phrase “charity is for rich, I don’t care”

13 specified dark patterns.

• “Subscription trap”means the process of making cancellation of a paid subscription impossible or a complex and lengthy process including similar other practices

vii. “Bait and switch” means the practice of advertising a particular outcome based on the user’s action but deceptively serving an alternate outcome.

viii. “Drip pricing” means a practice whereby-elements of prices are not revealed upfront or are revealed surreptitiously within the user experience; and/or other such practices

• “Disguised advertisement”means a practice of posing, masking advertisements as other types of content such as user generated content or new articles or false advertisements.

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/center-notifies-guidelines-against-dark-patterns-mislead-buyers-9049966/

Kindly refer below document to know about all 13 specified dark patterns.

https://consumeraffairs.nic.in/sites/default/files/The%20Guidelines%20for%20Prevention%20and%20Regulation%20of%20Dark%20Patterns%2C%202023.pdf

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The “Naegleria fowleri”, recently seen in news, is a (a) A retro-virus (b) A Cyanobacteria (c) A free-living amoeba (d) Pathogenic fungus Correct Solution: C *Naegleria* is a free-living amoeba (a single-celled living organism). It is so small that it can only be seen with a microscope. It is commonly found in warm fresh water (such as lakes, rivers, and hot springs) and soil. Only one species of Naegleria infects people: Naegleria fowleri. *Naegleria fowleri* infects people when water containing the amoeba enters the body through the nose. This typically happens when people go swimming, diving, or when they put their heads under fresh water, like in lakes and rivers. The amoeba then travels up the nose to the brain, where it destroys the brain tissue and causes a devastating infection called primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). PAM is almost always fatal. Naegleria fowleri infections may also happen when people use contaminated tap water to cleanse their noses during religious practices or rinse their sinuses (sending water up the nose). In very rare instances, people have gotten Naegleria fowleri infections from recreational water that didn’t have enough chlorine in it, such as pools, splash pads, or surf parks. There is no evidence that Naegleria fowleri can spread through water vapor or aerosol droplets (such as shower mist or vapor from a humidifier). People cannot be infected with Naegleria fowleri by drinking contaminated water. https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/kerala-boy-dies-brain-eating-amoeba-what-how-8809693/ Incorrect Solution: C *Naegleria* is a free-living amoeba (a single-celled living organism). It is so small that it can only be seen with a microscope. It is commonly found in warm fresh water (such as lakes, rivers, and hot springs) and soil. Only one species of Naegleria infects people: Naegleria fowleri. *Naegleria fowleri* infects people when water containing the amoeba enters the body through the nose. This typically happens when people go swimming, diving, or when they put their heads under fresh water, like in lakes and rivers. The amoeba then travels up the nose to the brain, where it destroys the brain tissue and causes a devastating infection called primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). PAM is almost always fatal. Naegleria fowleri infections may also happen when people use contaminated tap water to cleanse their noses during religious practices or rinse their sinuses (sending water up the nose). In very rare instances, people have gotten Naegleria fowleri infections from recreational water that didn’t have enough chlorine in it, such as pools, splash pads, or surf parks. There is no evidence that Naegleria fowleri can spread through water vapor or aerosol droplets (such as shower mist or vapor from a humidifier). People cannot be infected with Naegleria fowleri by drinking contaminated water. https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/kerala-boy-dies-brain-eating-amoeba-what-how-8809693/

#### 13. Question

The “Naegleria fowleri”, recently seen in news, is a

• (a) A retro-virus

• (b) A Cyanobacteria

• (c) A free-living amoeba

• (d) Pathogenic fungus

Solution: C

*Naegleria* is a free-living amoeba (a single-celled living organism). It is so small that it can only be seen with a microscope. It is commonly found in warm fresh water (such as lakes, rivers, and hot springs) and soil. Only one species of Naegleria infects people: Naegleria fowleri.

*Naegleria fowleri* infects people when water containing the amoeba enters the body through the nose. This typically happens when people go swimming, diving, or when they put their heads under fresh water, like in lakes and rivers. The amoeba then travels up the nose to the brain, where it destroys the brain tissue and causes a devastating infection called primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). PAM is almost always fatal.

Naegleria fowleri infections may also happen when people use contaminated tap water to cleanse their noses during religious practices or rinse their sinuses (sending water up the nose).

In very rare instances, people have gotten Naegleria fowleri infections from recreational water that didn’t have enough chlorine in it, such as pools, splash pads, or surf parks.

There is no evidence that Naegleria fowleri can spread through water vapor or aerosol droplets (such as shower mist or vapor from a humidifier).

People cannot be infected with Naegleria fowleri by drinking contaminated water.

https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/kerala-boy-dies-brain-eating-amoeba-what-how-8809693/

Solution: C

Naegleria fowleri infections may also happen when people use contaminated tap water to cleanse their noses during religious practices or rinse their sinuses (sending water up the nose).

In very rare instances, people have gotten Naegleria fowleri infections from recreational water that didn’t have enough chlorine in it, such as pools, splash pads, or surf parks.

There is no evidence that Naegleria fowleri can spread through water vapor or aerosol droplets (such as shower mist or vapor from a humidifier).

People cannot be infected with Naegleria fowleri by drinking contaminated water.

https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/kerala-boy-dies-brain-eating-amoeba-what-how-8809693/

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Honeybee species of India: The dwarf honeybee is a wild species but is less ferocious as compared to the rock bee. The dwarf honeybee builds vertical combs and constructs palm-sized combs in bushes. The honey produced by dwarf bees is dramatically more when compared to rock bees. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Apis ﬂorea or dwarf honeybee is a wild honeybee species, but these bees are small and less ferocious when compared to the rock bees. Statement 2 is correct: These bees build single vertical combs. They also construct palm- sized combs in the bushes, hedges, buildings, caves, empty cases, etc. The major difference between the rock bee and little bee comb is that the little bees construct combs encircling the twigs while the rock bees construct the comb on the undersurface of the branch. Statement 3 is not correct: The honey produced by dwarf bees is dramatically less when compared to the rock bee as these bees produce only about half a kilo of honey per year per hive. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Apis ﬂorea or dwarf honeybee is a wild honeybee species, but these bees are small and less ferocious when compared to the rock bees. Statement 2 is correct: These bees build single vertical combs. They also construct palm- sized combs in the bushes, hedges, buildings, caves, empty cases, etc. The major difference between the rock bee and little bee comb is that the little bees construct combs encircling the twigs while the rock bees construct the comb on the undersurface of the branch. Statement 3 is not correct: The honey produced by dwarf bees is dramatically less when compared to the rock bee as these bees produce only about half a kilo of honey per year per hive.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Honeybee species of India:

• The dwarf honeybee is a wild species but is less ferocious as compared to the rock bee.

• The dwarf honeybee builds vertical combs and constructs palm-sized combs in bushes.

• The honey produced by dwarf bees is dramatically more when compared to rock bees.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Apis ﬂorea or dwarf honeybee is a wild honeybee species, but these bees are small and less ferocious when compared to the rock bees.

Statement 2 is correct: These bees build single vertical combs. They also construct palm- sized combs in the bushes, hedges, buildings, caves, empty cases, etc.

The major difference between the rock bee and little bee comb is that the little bees construct combs encircling the twigs while the rock bees construct the comb on the undersurface of the branch.

Statement 3 is not correct: The honey produced by dwarf bees is dramatically less when compared to the rock bee as these bees produce only about half a kilo of honey per year per hive.

Solution: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Apis ﬂorea or dwarf honeybee is a wild honeybee species, but these bees are small and less ferocious when compared to the rock bees.

Statement 2 is correct: These bees build single vertical combs. They also construct palm- sized combs in the bushes, hedges, buildings, caves, empty cases, etc.

The major difference between the rock bee and little bee comb is that the little bees construct combs encircling the twigs while the rock bees construct the comb on the undersurface of the branch.

Statement 3 is not correct: The honey produced by dwarf bees is dramatically less when compared to the rock bee as these bees produce only about half a kilo of honey per year per hive.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following: De-dieselisation of the farm sector Providing energy security to farmers Curbing environmental pollution Increasing the income of farmers Which one of the following schemes in India has the above-mentioned objectives? (a) The DHRUV Scheme (b) The HRIDAY Scheme (c) The ULPIN Scheme (d) The KUSUM Scheme Correct Solution: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Union Minister for New & Renewable Energy and Power has informed that the main objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) include de-dieselisation of the farm sector, providing water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of farmers, and curbing environmental pollution. The Scheme has three components targeted to achieve solar power capacity addition of 34.8 GW by 31.3.2026 with total central financial support of Rs. 34,422 Cr. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Union Minister for New & Renewable Energy and Power has informed that the main objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) include de-dieselisation of the farm sector, providing water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of farmers, and curbing environmental pollution. The Scheme has three components targeted to achieve solar power capacity addition of 34.8 GW by 31.3.2026 with total central financial support of Rs. 34,422 Cr.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following:

• De-dieselisation of the farm sector

• Providing energy security to farmers

• Curbing environmental pollution

• Increasing the income of farmers

Which one of the following schemes in India has the above-mentioned objectives?

• (a) The DHRUV Scheme

• (b) The HRIDAY Scheme

• (c) The ULPIN Scheme

• (d) The KUSUM Scheme

Solution: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The Union Minister for New & Renewable Energy and Power has informed that the main objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) include de-dieselisation of the farm sector, providing water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of farmers, and curbing environmental pollution.

The Scheme has three components targeted to achieve solar power capacity addition of 34.8 GW by 31.3.2026 with total central financial support of Rs. 34,422 Cr.

Solution: D

Explanation:

The Scheme has three components targeted to achieve solar power capacity addition of 34.8 GW by 31.3.2026 with total central financial support of Rs. 34,422 Cr.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Minamata Convention. It is a First global legally binding treaty to protect human health and environment from adverse effects of mercury. India has ratified the convention. India is the world’s largest producer of mercury. How many of the above statements are correct (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Minamata Convention: The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury and its compounds. It was agreed at the fifth session of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee in Geneva, Switzerland 2013. It entered into force in 2017. Controlling the anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout its lifecycle is one of the key obligations under the Convention. The Convention also addresses interim storage of mercury and its disposal once it becomes waste, sites contaminated by mercury as well as health issues. India has ratified the Convention. 1st global legally binding treaty to protect human health and environment from adverse effects of mercury. China is the world’s largest producer of mercury, producing an estimated 1,000 metric tons in 2023. Tajikistan is the second largest producer, producing one-tenth as much as China. Incorrect Solution: B Minamata Convention: The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury and its compounds. It was agreed at the fifth session of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee in Geneva, Switzerland 2013. It entered into force in 2017. Controlling the anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout its lifecycle is one of the key obligations under the Convention. The Convention also addresses interim storage of mercury and its disposal once it becomes waste, sites contaminated by mercury as well as health issues. India has ratified the Convention. 1st global legally binding treaty to protect human health and environment from adverse effects of mercury. China is the world’s largest producer of mercury, producing an estimated 1,000 metric tons in 2023. Tajikistan is the second largest producer, producing one-tenth as much as China.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Minamata Convention.

• It is a First global legally binding treaty to protect human health and environment from adverse effects of mercury.

• India has ratified the convention.

• India is the world’s largest producer of mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Minamata Convention:

• The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury and its compounds.

• It was agreed at the fifth session of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee in Geneva, Switzerland 2013. It entered into force in 2017.

• Controlling the anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout its lifecycle is one of the key obligations under the Convention.

• The Convention also addresses interim storage of mercury and its disposal once it becomes waste, sites contaminated by mercury as well as health issues.

• India has ratified the Convention.

• 1st global legally binding treaty to protect human health and environment from adverse effects of mercury.

• China is the world’s largest producer of mercury, producing an estimated 1,000 metric tons in 2023. Tajikistan is the second largest producer, producing one-tenth as much as China.

Solution: B

Minamata Convention:

• The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury and its compounds.

• It was agreed at the fifth session of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee in Geneva, Switzerland 2013. It entered into force in 2017.

• Controlling the anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout its lifecycle is one of the key obligations under the Convention.

• The Convention also addresses interim storage of mercury and its disposal once it becomes waste, sites contaminated by mercury as well as health issues.

• India has ratified the Convention.

• 1st global legally binding treaty to protect human health and environment from adverse effects of mercury.

• China is the world’s largest producer of mercury, producing an estimated 1,000 metric tons in 2023. Tajikistan is the second largest producer, producing one-tenth as much as China.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Lead Lead is a naturally occurring material that is found in small amounts in the earth’s crust, air, soil, and water. It has a higher melting point compared to most metals. Lead is highly resistant to corrosion in all kinds of acidic environments. How many of the above statements are correct (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Lead Lead is a bluish-white lustrous metal naturally found in the Earth’s crust. It is also found in small amounts in air, soil and water. It is very soft, highly malleable, ductile, and a relatively poor conductor of electricity compared to copper, gold, etc. Native lead is rare in nature. Currently, lead is usually found in ore with zinc, silver and copper and it is extracted together with these metals. It has a relatively low melting point compared to most metals. It has good resistance to corrosion, especially in non-acidic environments. It is the most dense (non-radioactive) common metal, which makes it invaluable for applications requiring high weight with small volumes. Incorrect Solution: A Lead Lead is a bluish-white lustrous metal naturally found in the Earth’s crust. It is also found in small amounts in air, soil and water. It is very soft, highly malleable, ductile, and a relatively poor conductor of electricity compared to copper, gold, etc. Native lead is rare in nature. Currently, lead is usually found in ore with zinc, silver and copper and it is extracted together with these metals. It has a relatively low melting point compared to most metals. It has good resistance to corrosion, especially in non-acidic environments. It is the most dense (non-radioactive) common metal, which makes it invaluable for applications requiring high weight with small volumes.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Lead

• Lead is a naturally occurring material that is found in small amounts in the earth’s crust, air, soil, and water.

• It has a higher melting point compared to most metals.

• Lead is highly resistant to corrosion in all kinds of acidic environments.

How many of the above statements are correct

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Lead is a bluish-white lustrous metal naturally found in the Earth’s crust.

• It is also found in small amounts in air, soil and water.

• It is very soft, highly malleable, ductile, and a relatively poor conductor of electricity compared to copper, gold, etc.

• Native lead is rare in nature. Currently, lead is usually found in ore with zinc, silver and copper and it is extracted together with these metals.

• It has a relatively low melting point compared to most metals.

• It has good resistance to corrosion, especially in non-acidic environments.

• It is the most dense (non-radioactive) common metal, which makes it invaluable for applications requiring high weight with small volumes.

Solution: A

• Lead is a bluish-white lustrous metal naturally found in the Earth’s crust.

• It is also found in small amounts in air, soil and water.

• It is very soft, highly malleable, ductile, and a relatively poor conductor of electricity compared to copper, gold, etc.

• Native lead is rare in nature. Currently, lead is usually found in ore with zinc, silver and copper and it is extracted together with these metals.

• It has a relatively low melting point compared to most metals.

• It has good resistance to corrosion, especially in non-acidic environments.

• It is the most dense (non-radioactive) common metal, which makes it invaluable for applications requiring high weight with small volumes.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following countries Brazil Paraguay Argentina Chile Ecuador How many of the above-mentioned countries share a border with Bolivia? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: C Bolivia is landlocked and located in western-central South America, between the Andes and the Amazon. It’s the world’s 28th largest country, extending 950 miles north-south and 800 miles east-west. The west half of the country is dominated by the Andes mountains, with snow-capped peaks and steep slopes. Bolivia is bordered by five countries in South America: North and east: Brazil Southeast: Paraguay South: Argentina Southwest and west: Chile Northwest: Peru Incorrect Solution: C Bolivia is landlocked and located in western-central South America, between the Andes and the Amazon. It’s the world’s 28th largest country, extending 950 miles north-south and 800 miles east-west. The west half of the country is dominated by the Andes mountains, with snow-capped peaks and steep slopes. Bolivia is bordered by five countries in South America: North and east: Brazil Southeast: Paraguay South: Argentina Southwest and west: Chile Northwest: Peru

#### 18. Question

Consider the following countries

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a border with Bolivia?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: C

Bolivia is landlocked and located in western-central South America, between the Andes and the Amazon. It’s the world’s 28th largest country, extending 950 miles north-south and 800 miles east-west. The west half of the country is dominated by the Andes mountains, with snow-capped peaks and steep slopes.

Bolivia is bordered by five countries in South America:

• North and east: Brazil

• Southeast: Paraguay

• South: Argentina

• Southwest and west: Chile

• Northwest: Peru

Solution: C

Bolivia is bordered by five countries in South America:

• North and east: Brazil

• Southeast: Paraguay

• South: Argentina

• Southwest and west: Chile

• Northwest: Peru

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following Countries Armenia Belarus Kazakhstan Kyrgyzstan Russia How many of the above-mentioned countries are Members of Eurasian Economic Union (EEU)? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: D Eurasian economic union: It is an international organization for regional economic integration. It has international legal personality and is established by the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union. Composition: Includes Russia, Belarus, Armenia, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan. It has free movement of goods, services and labour. It has its own bureaucratic structure. Incorrect Solution: D Eurasian economic union: It is an international organization for regional economic integration. It has international legal personality and is established by the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union. Composition: Includes Russia, Belarus, Armenia, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan. It has free movement of goods, services and labour. It has its own bureaucratic structure.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following Countries

• Kazakhstan

• Kyrgyzstan

How many of the above-mentioned countries are Members of Eurasian Economic Union (EEU)?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: D

Eurasian economic union:

• It is an international organization for regional economic integration.

• It has international legal personality and is established by the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union.

• Composition: Includes Russia, Belarus, Armenia, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan.

• It has free movement of goods, services and labour.

• It has its own bureaucratic structure.

Solution: D

Eurasian economic union:

• It is an international organization for regional economic integration.

• It has international legal personality and is established by the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union.

• Composition: Includes Russia, Belarus, Armenia, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan.

• It has free movement of goods, services and labour.

• It has its own bureaucratic structure.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points following statements regarding the Ural River. The Ural River is the second longest river in Europe. It flows through Russia and Kazakhstan. It serves as a natural boundary between Europe and Asia. How many of the above statements are correct (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Ural River: The Ural River originates near Mount Kruglaya in the Ural Mountains. It flows through Russia and Kazakhstan. It serves as a natural border between Europe and Asia. It originates in the southern Ural Mountains and ultimately empties into the Caspian Sea. It is the third-longest river in Europe, trailing behind the Volga and the Danube, and the 18th-longest river in Asia. Incorrect Solution: B Ural River: The Ural River originates near Mount Kruglaya in the Ural Mountains. It flows through Russia and Kazakhstan. It serves as a natural border between Europe and Asia. It originates in the southern Ural Mountains and ultimately empties into the Caspian Sea. It is the third-longest river in Europe, trailing behind the Volga and the Danube, and the 18th-longest river in Asia.

#### 20. Question

following statements regarding the Ural River.

• The Ural River is the second longest river in Europe.

• It flows through Russia and Kazakhstan.

• It serves as a natural boundary between Europe and Asia.

How many of the above statements are correct

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Ural River:

• The Ural River originates near Mount Kruglaya in the Ural Mountains.

• It flows through Russia and Kazakhstan.

• It serves as a natural border between Europe and Asia.

• It originates in the southern Ural Mountains and ultimately empties into the Caspian Sea.

• It is the third-longest river in Europe, trailing behind the Volga and the Danube, and the 18th-longest river in Asia.

Solution: B

Ural River:

• The Ural River originates near Mount Kruglaya in the Ural Mountains.

• It flows through Russia and Kazakhstan.

• It serves as a natural border between Europe and Asia.

• It originates in the southern Ural Mountains and ultimately empties into the Caspian Sea.

• It is the third-longest river in Europe, trailing behind the Volga and the Danube, and the 18th-longest river in Asia.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Conventional chemotherapy comprises molecules that block chemical pathways that allow the tumour to multiply and hence directly affect the immune system. Statement-II: Unlike most immunotherapies, which require mass-produced injectable medication, chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapies use the patient’s own cells. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: D Explanation: The three major forms of treatment for any cancer are surgery (removing the cancer), radiotherapy (delivering ionising radiation to the tumour), and systemic therapy (administering medicines that act on the tumour). Statement-I is incorrect: Conventional chemotherapy or immunotherapy comprises molecules that bind to the tumour or block chemical pathways that allow the tumour to grow or multiply – but don’t directly affect the immune system. Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapies represent a quantum leap in the sophistication of cancer treatment. Statement-II is correct: Unlike chemotherapy or immunotherapy, which require mass-produced injectable or oral medication, CAR T-cell therapies use a patient’s own cells. They are modified in the laboratory to activate T-cells, a component of immune cells, to attack tumours. In CAR T-cell therapy, the patient’s blood is drawn to harvest T-cells – immune cells that play a major role in destroying tumour cells. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: The three major forms of treatment for any cancer are surgery (removing the cancer), radiotherapy (delivering ionising radiation to the tumour), and systemic therapy (administering medicines that act on the tumour). Statement-I is incorrect: Conventional chemotherapy or immunotherapy comprises molecules that bind to the tumour or block chemical pathways that allow the tumour to grow or multiply – but don’t directly affect the immune system. Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapies represent a quantum leap in the sophistication of cancer treatment. Statement-II is correct: Unlike chemotherapy or immunotherapy, which require mass-produced injectable or oral medication, CAR T-cell therapies use a patient’s own cells. They are modified in the laboratory to activate T-cells, a component of immune cells, to attack tumours. In CAR T-cell therapy, the patient’s blood is drawn to harvest T-cells – immune cells that play a major role in destroying tumour cells.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Conventional chemotherapy comprises molecules that block chemical pathways that allow the tumour to multiply and hence directly affect the immune system.

Statement-II:

Unlike most immunotherapies, which require mass-produced injectable medication, chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapies use the patient’s own cells.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation:

The three major forms of treatment for any cancer are surgery (removing the cancer), radiotherapy (delivering ionising radiation to the tumour), and systemic therapy (administering medicines that act on the tumour).

Statement-I is incorrect: Conventional chemotherapy or immunotherapy comprises molecules that bind to the tumour or block chemical pathways that allow the tumour to grow or multiply – but don’t directly affect the immune system.

Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapies represent a quantum leap in the sophistication of cancer treatment.

Statement-II is correct: Unlike chemotherapy or immunotherapy, which require mass-produced injectable or oral medication, CAR T-cell therapies use a patient’s own cells.

They are modified in the laboratory to activate T-cells, a component of immune cells, to attack tumours.

In CAR T-cell therapy, the patient’s blood is drawn to harvest T-cells – immune cells that play a major role in destroying tumour cells.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapies represent a quantum leap in the sophistication of cancer treatment.

Statement-II is correct: Unlike chemotherapy or immunotherapy, which require mass-produced injectable or oral medication, CAR T-cell therapies use a patient’s own cells.

They are modified in the laboratory to activate T-cells, a component of immune cells, to attack tumours.

In CAR T-cell therapy, the patient’s blood is drawn to harvest T-cells – immune cells that play a major role in destroying tumour cells.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Eco-Sensitive Zones in India: These Zones are created as “shock absorbers” for the protected areas. Their concept was conceived in the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016). The activities in these zones are essentially prohibitory in nature. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: According to the guidelines issued by the Environment Ministry on February 9, 2011, ESZs are created as “shock absorbers” for the protected areas, to minimize the negative impact on the “fragile ecosystems” by certain human activities taking place nearby. Furthermore, these areas are meant to act as a transition zone from areas requiring higher protection to those requiring lesser protection. Statement 2 is not correct: The concept of Eco-Sensitive Zone was conceived during the XXI meeting of the Indian Board for Wildlife held on 21st January, 2002, when the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002 was adopted. Statement 3 is not correct: The ESZ Notification does not involve displacement and evacuation of farmers/people living in the villages. The activities in the ESZ are generally regulated and not prohibitory in nature barring a few such as commercial mining, stone quarrying and crushing units; major hydroelectric project; handling of hazardous substances; discharge of untreated effluents; setting up of brick kilns; setting up of polluting industries, which have high potential for environmental damage. As such, there is no prohibition on ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities, dairy farming, aquaculture, fisheries, poultry farm, goat farm, food related units etc. Further, the activities like infrastructure augmentation including civic amenities, widening of roads, non-polluting industries etc. are also under regulated category. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: According to the guidelines issued by the Environment Ministry on February 9, 2011, ESZs are created as “shock absorbers” for the protected areas, to minimize the negative impact on the “fragile ecosystems” by certain human activities taking place nearby. Furthermore, these areas are meant to act as a transition zone from areas requiring higher protection to those requiring lesser protection. Statement 2 is not correct: The concept of Eco-Sensitive Zone was conceived during the XXI meeting of the Indian Board for Wildlife held on 21st January, 2002, when the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002 was adopted. Statement 3 is not correct: The ESZ Notification does not involve displacement and evacuation of farmers/people living in the villages. The activities in the ESZ are generally regulated and not prohibitory in nature barring a few such as commercial mining, stone quarrying and crushing units; major hydroelectric project; handling of hazardous substances; discharge of untreated effluents; setting up of brick kilns; setting up of polluting industries, which have high potential for environmental damage. As such, there is no prohibition on ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities, dairy farming, aquaculture, fisheries, poultry farm, goat farm, food related units etc. Further, the activities like infrastructure augmentation including civic amenities, widening of roads, non-polluting industries etc. are also under regulated category.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Eco-Sensitive Zones in India:

• These Zones are created as “shock absorbers” for the protected areas.

• Their concept was conceived in the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016).

• The activities in these zones are essentially prohibitory in nature.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: According to the guidelines issued by the Environment Ministry on February 9, 2011, ESZs are created as “shock absorbers” for the protected areas, to minimize the negative impact on the “fragile ecosystems” by certain human activities taking place nearby. Furthermore, these areas are meant to act as a transition zone from areas requiring higher protection to those requiring lesser protection.

Statement 2 is not correct: The concept of Eco-Sensitive Zone was conceived during the XXI meeting of the Indian Board for Wildlife held on 21st January, 2002, when the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002 was adopted.

Statement 3 is not correct: The ESZ Notification does not involve displacement and evacuation of farmers/people living in the villages. The activities in the ESZ are generally regulated and not prohibitory in nature barring a few such as

• commercial mining, stone quarrying and crushing units;

• major hydroelectric project;

• handling of hazardous substances;

• discharge of untreated effluents;

• setting up of brick kilns;

• setting up of polluting industries, which have high potential for environmental damage.

As such, there is no prohibition on ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities, dairy farming, aquaculture, fisheries, poultry farm, goat farm, food related units etc.

Further, the activities like infrastructure augmentation including civic amenities, widening of roads, non-polluting industries etc. are also under regulated category.

Answer: A

Explanation:

• commercial mining, stone quarrying and crushing units;

• major hydroelectric project;

• handling of hazardous substances;

• discharge of untreated effluents;

• setting up of brick kilns;

• setting up of polluting industries, which have high potential for environmental damage.

As such, there is no prohibition on ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities, dairy farming, aquaculture, fisheries, poultry farm, goat farm, food related units etc.

Further, the activities like infrastructure augmentation including civic amenities, widening of roads, non-polluting industries etc. are also under regulated category.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Vortex: It is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. It exists near the poles as well as around the subtropical regions of the Earth. It strengthens in summer and as a feature it takes place at the Earth’s surface. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. Statement 2 is not correct: It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles. Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream. This occurs fairly regularly during wintertime and is often associated with large outbreaks of Arctic air in the United States. Statement 3 is not correct: There are several things the polar vortex is NOT. Polar vortexes are not something new. The term “polar vortex” brings attention to a weather feature that has always been present. It is not a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface. Weather forecasters examine the polar vortex by looking at conditions tens of thousands of feet up in the atmosphere; however, when we feel extremely cold air from the Arctic regions at Earth’s surface, it is sometimes associated with the polar vortex. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. Statement 2 is not correct: It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles. Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream. This occurs fairly regularly during wintertime and is often associated with large outbreaks of Arctic air in the United States. Statement 3 is not correct:* There are several things the polar vortex is NOT. Polar vortexes are not something new. The term “polar vortex” brings attention to a weather feature that has always been present. It is not a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface. Weather forecasters examine the polar vortex by looking at conditions tens of thousands of feet up in the atmosphere; however, when we feel extremely cold air from the Arctic regions at Earth’s surface, it is sometimes associated with the polar vortex.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Vortex:

• It is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.

• It exists near the poles as well as around the subtropical regions of the Earth.

• It strengthens in summer and as a feature it takes place at the Earth’s surface.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.

Statement 2 is not correct: It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.

Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream.

This occurs fairly regularly during wintertime and is often associated with large outbreaks of Arctic air in the United States.

Statement 3 is not correct: There are several things the polar vortex is NOT. Polar vortexes are not something new. The term “polar vortex” brings attention to a weather feature that has always been present. It is not a feature that exists at the Earth’s surface.

Weather forecasters examine the polar vortex by looking at conditions tens of thousands of feet up in the atmosphere; however, when we feel extremely cold air from the Arctic regions at Earth’s surface, it is sometimes associated with the polar vortex.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.

Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream.

This occurs fairly regularly during wintertime and is often associated with large outbreaks of Arctic air in the United States.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Asiatic Caracal: It is an elusive medium-sized and locally threatened felid species. The most suitable habitat for caracal includes the Aravalli Hill Range. It is included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Asiatic caracal (Caracal caracal schmitzi) is an elusive medium-sized and locally threatened felid (cat) species, which has been widely reported to be on the brink of extinction in India. The reasons are large-scale hunting, illegal trading and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species. Statement 2 is correct: The most suitable habitat for caracals in Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh is located in Kutch, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range and the Bundelkhand region, according to the researchers. Statement 3 is correct: The caracal is currently included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Near Threatened category by the Conservation Assessment and Management Plan and International Union for Conservation of Nature Red list assessment in India. The protected areas which provided high conservation potential for caracals included Kachchh Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS) in Gujarat, the tiger reserves of Ranthambhore, Mukundra hills and Sariska and the WLS of Kumbhalgarh, Mount Abu and Todgarh-Raoli in Rajasthan, as well as Gandhi Sagar WLS in Madhya Pradesh. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Asiatic caracal (Caracal caracal schmitzi) is an elusive medium-sized and locally threatened felid (cat) species, which has been widely reported to be on the brink of extinction in India. The reasons are large-scale hunting, illegal trading and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species. Statement 2 is correct: The most suitable habitat for caracals in Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh is located in Kutch, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range and the Bundelkhand region, according to the researchers. Statement 3 is correct: The caracal is currently included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Near Threatened category by the Conservation Assessment and Management Plan and International Union for Conservation of Nature Red list assessment in India. The protected areas which provided high conservation potential for caracals included Kachchh Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS) in Gujarat, the tiger reserves of Ranthambhore, Mukundra hills and Sariska and the WLS of Kumbhalgarh, Mount Abu and Todgarh-Raoli in Rajasthan, as well as Gandhi Sagar WLS in Madhya Pradesh.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Asiatic Caracal:

• It is an elusive medium-sized and locally threatened felid species.

• The most suitable habitat for caracal includes the Aravalli Hill Range.

• It is included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Asiatic caracal (Caracal caracal schmitzi) is an elusive medium-sized and locally threatened felid (cat) species, which has been widely reported to be on the brink of extinction in India.

The reasons are large-scale hunting, illegal trading and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species.

Statement 2 is correct: The most suitable habitat for caracals in Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh is located in Kutch, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range and the Bundelkhand region, according to the researchers.

Statement 3 is correct: The caracal is currently included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Near Threatened category by the Conservation Assessment and Management Plan and International Union for Conservation of Nature Red list assessment in India.

The protected areas which provided high conservation potential for caracals included Kachchh Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS) in Gujarat, the tiger reserves of Ranthambhore, Mukundra hills and Sariska and the WLS of Kumbhalgarh, Mount Abu and Todgarh-Raoli in Rajasthan, as well as Gandhi Sagar WLS in Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The reasons are large-scale hunting, illegal trading and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points The Global Unicorn Index 2024 was recently released by the- (a) Oxfam International (b) Amnesty International (c) World Resources Intitute (d) Hurun Research Institute Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Hurun Research Institute released the Global Unicorn Index 2024, a ranking of the world’s start-ups founded in the 2000s, worth at least a billion dollars and not yet listed on a public exchange. The cut-off was 1 January 2024, with significant changes in valuation updated up to the date of release. Hurun Research has been tracking unicorns since 2017. HURUN FINDS 1453 UNICORNS IN WORLD, NEW WORLD RECORD, UP 7% OR 92 UNICORNS USA LED WITH 703 UNICORNS, UP 37, ACCOUNTING FOR 48% OF WORLD TOTAL. CHINA SECOND WITH 340, UP 24. INDIA THIRD WITH 67 UNICORNS, DOWN 1. UK 4THWITH 53 UNICORNS, UP 4. EU COUNTRIES 109 UNICORNS, UP 5. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Hurun Research Institute released the Global Unicorn Index 2024, a ranking of the world’s start-ups founded in the 2000s, worth at least a billion dollars and not yet listed on a public exchange. The cut-off was 1 January 2024, with significant changes in valuation updated up to the date of release. Hurun Research has been tracking unicorns since 2017. HURUN FINDS 1453 UNICORNS IN WORLD, NEW WORLD RECORD, UP 7% OR 92 UNICORNS USA LED WITH 703 UNICORNS, UP 37, ACCOUNTING FOR 48% OF WORLD TOTAL. CHINA SECOND WITH 340, UP 24. INDIA THIRD WITH 67 UNICORNS, DOWN 1. UK 4THWITH 53 UNICORNS, UP 4. EU COUNTRIES 109 UNICORNS, UP 5.

#### 25. Question

The Global Unicorn Index 2024 was recently released by the-

• (a) Oxfam International

• (b) Amnesty International

• (c) World Resources Intitute

• (d) Hurun Research Institute

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The Hurun Research Institute released the Global Unicorn Index 2024, a ranking of the world’s start-ups founded in the 2000s, worth at least a billion dollars and not yet listed on a public exchange.

The cut-off was 1 January 2024, with significant changes in valuation updated up to the date of release. Hurun Research has been tracking unicorns since 2017.

• HURUN FINDS 1453 UNICORNS IN WORLD, NEW WORLD RECORD, UP 7% OR 92 UNICORNS

• USA LED WITH 703 UNICORNS, UP 37, ACCOUNTING FOR 48% OF WORLD TOTAL.

• CHINA SECOND WITH 340, UP 24.

• INDIA THIRD WITH 67 UNICORNS, DOWN 1.

• UK 4THWITH 53 UNICORNS, UP 4.

• EU COUNTRIES 109 UNICORNS, UP 5.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The cut-off was 1 January 2024, with significant changes in valuation updated up to the date of release. Hurun Research has been tracking unicorns since 2017.

• HURUN FINDS 1453 UNICORNS IN WORLD, NEW WORLD RECORD, UP 7% OR 92 UNICORNS

• USA LED WITH 703 UNICORNS, UP 37, ACCOUNTING FOR 48% OF WORLD TOTAL.

• CHINA SECOND WITH 340, UP 24.

• INDIA THIRD WITH 67 UNICORNS, DOWN 1.

• UK 4THWITH 53 UNICORNS, UP 4.

• EU COUNTRIES 109 UNICORNS, UP 5.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Many people in India feel that if we cut our defence expenditure on weapon-building, we can create a climate of peace with our neighbours, subsequently reducing the conflict or creating a no-war situation. People who proclaim such ideas are either the victims of war or the propagators of false argument. With reference to the above passage, which of the following is the most valid assumption? (a) Building of weapons systems by us has instigated our neighbours to wage wars against us. (b) The greater spending on weapon-building by us would lessen the possibility of armed conflict with our neighbours. (c) It is necessary to have state of the art weapons systems for national security. (d) Many people in India believe that we are wasting our resources on weapon-building. Correct Answer. B. The underlying assumption in the first part of the passage is captured by B. The passage states that curtailing defence expenditure would reduce the threat of war. Hence B. Incorrect Answer. B. The underlying assumption in the first part of the passage is captured by B. The passage states that curtailing defence expenditure would reduce the threat of war. Hence B.

#### 26. Question

Many people in India feel that if we cut our defence expenditure on weapon-building, we can create a climate of peace with our neighbours, subsequently reducing the conflict or creating a no-war situation. People who proclaim such ideas are either the victims of war or the propagators of false argument.

With reference to the above passage, which of the following is the most valid assumption?

• (a) Building of weapons systems by us has instigated our neighbours to wage wars against us.

• (b) The greater spending on weapon-building by us would lessen the possibility of armed conflict with our neighbours.

• (c) It is necessary to have state of the art weapons systems for national security.

• (d) Many people in India believe that we are wasting our resources on weapon-building.

Answer. B. The underlying assumption in the first part of the passage is captured by B. The passage states that curtailing defence expenditure would reduce the threat of war. Hence B.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points In 2019, women’s actual involvement in politics remains noticeably weak across parties. And nine out of ten of our legislators are men. In the matter of women’s actual political representation in Parliament, India ranks 151 globally among 190 countries. Among its eight South Asian neighbours, India ranks below Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Nepal. And (according to the Inter-Parliamentary Forum), as of 2014, India’s women occupied less than 12 per cent seats both in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Even in the state and national decision-making bodies, women remain hugely under-represented. Which of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage? (a) The fight for equal rights to women starts with equal representation rights (b) Patriarchy is steeped in Indian politics (c) The status of women in India is worse than its neighbouring countries (d) Women are not adequately represented in the Indian Parliament Correct Answer. A. The focus of the passage is on highlighting the missing women in Indian politics. The passage seems to suggest that is critical for ensuring equal rights to women. Hence A. Incorrect Answer. A. The focus of the passage is on highlighting the missing women in Indian politics. The passage seems to suggest that is critical for ensuring equal rights to women. Hence A.

#### 27. Question

In 2019, women’s actual involvement in politics remains noticeably weak across parties. And nine out of ten of our legislators are men. In the matter of women’s actual political representation in Parliament, India ranks 151 globally among 190 countries. Among its eight South Asian neighbours, India ranks below Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Nepal. And (according to the Inter-Parliamentary Forum), as of 2014, India’s women occupied less than 12 per cent seats both in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Even in the state and national decision-making bodies, women remain hugely under-represented.

Which of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?

• (a) The fight for equal rights to women starts with equal representation rights

• (b) Patriarchy is steeped in Indian politics

• (c) The status of women in India is worse than its neighbouring countries

• (d) Women are not adequately represented in the Indian Parliament

Answer. A. The focus of the passage is on highlighting the missing women in Indian politics. The passage seems to suggest that is critical for ensuring equal rights to women. Hence A.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Statement: In spite of the claim of the Government of terrorism being under check, killing continues. Conclusions: I. The terrorists have not come to an understanding with the government. The government has been constantly telling a lie. (a) if only conclusion I follows; (b) if either I or II follows; (c) if neither I nor II follows; and (d) if both I and II follow. Correct Answer A) Explanation : The statement implies that the government is continuously making efforts to curb terrorism but it still continues to prevail. Thus, I follows while II does not. Incorrect Answer A) Explanation : The statement implies that the government is continuously making efforts to curb terrorism but it still continues to prevail. Thus, I follows while II does not.

#### 28. Question

Statement: In spite of the claim of the Government of terrorism being under check, killing continues.

Conclusions: I. The terrorists have not come to an understanding with the government.

The government has been constantly telling a lie.

• (a) if only conclusion I follows;

• (b) if either I or II follows;

• (c) if neither I nor II follows; and

• (d) if both I and II follow.

Explanation :

The statement implies that the government is continuously making efforts to curb terrorism but it still continues to prevail. Thus, I follows while II does not.

Explanation :

The statement implies that the government is continuously making efforts to curb terrorism but it still continues to prevail. Thus, I follows while II does not.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Statements: Some beauties are ugly. All ugly are smart. No smart is handsome. Conclusions: I. Some smarts are beauties. Some smarts are ugly. III. No smart is ugly. (a) I and II follow (b) Either I or II follows (c) Either II or III follows (d) Only III follows Correct SOLUTION: (a) HENCE, I and II Follow Incorrect SOLUTION: (a) HENCE, I and II Follow

#### 29. Question

Statements: Some beauties are ugly.

All ugly are smart.

No smart is handsome.

Conclusions: I. Some smarts are beauties.

Some smarts are ugly.

III. No smart is ugly.

• (a) I and II follow

• (b) Either I or II follows

• (c) Either II or III follows

• (d) Only III follows

SOLUTION: (a)

HENCE, I and II Follow

SOLUTION: (a)

HENCE, I and II Follow

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western countries be first tried out on sample basis before giving licence for sale to general public in India? Arguments: I. Yes. Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and hence it is necessary. II. No. This is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented. A) Only argument I is strong B) Only argument II is strong C) Either I or II is strong D) Both I and II are strong Correct Answer: Option (A) Explanation: Clearly, health of the citizens is an issue of major concern for the Government. So, a product like drugs, must be first studied and tested in the Indian context before giving licence for its sale. So, only argument I holds strong.. Incorrect Answer: Option (A) Explanation: Clearly, health of the citizens is an issue of major concern for the Government. So, a product like drugs, must be first studied and tested in the Indian context before giving licence for its sale. So, only argument I holds strong..

#### 30. Question

Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western countries be first tried out on sample basis before giving licence for sale to general public in India?

Arguments: I. Yes. Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and hence it is necessary.

II. No. This is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.

• A) Only argument I is strong

• B) Only argument II is strong

• C) Either I or II is strong

• D) Both I and II are strong

Answer: Option (A)

Explanation:

Clearly, health of the citizens is an issue of major concern for the Government. So, a product like drugs, must be first studied and tested in the Indian context before giving licence for its sale. So, only argument I holds strong..