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DAY – 7 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GEOGRAPHY

Kartavya Desk Staff

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following information: Climate Type Location Characteristics 1. Monsoon Climate Western Ghats, India Experiences dry winters and extremely wet summers with onshore winds 2. Laurentian Climate Central Russia and Siberia Characterized by short, mild summers and long, severe winters 3. Tropical Savanna Climate Northern Australia Distinct wet and dry seasons with scattered drought-resistant trees In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Climate classification systems help organize our understanding of global weather patterns by categorizing regions based on temperature, precipitation, and seasonal variations. The Western Ghats in India do experience a monsoon climate with distinct dry winters and extremely wet summers. During summer months, air from the Arabian Sea carrying moisture flows eastward and is blocked by the Western Ghats, causing orographic precipitation along the western coast. This marks the onset of the monsoon season in June, bringing torrential downpours. The Western Ghats play a crucial role in determining this climate pattern, with winds bringing large masses of water in summer that condense to cause the monsoon rains. Hence Rows 1 is correctly matched The Laurentian climate is characterized by cold, dry winters and warm, wet summers with summer temperatures as warm as the tropics (~25°C). This contradicts the description of short, mild summers. Additionally, the primarily associate the Laurentian climate with North America, particularly around the Great Lakes and Newfoundland areas. Hence Rows 2 is incorrectly matched The savanna climate does have distinct wet and dry seasons. Hence Rows 3 is correctly matched Incorrect Solution: B Climate classification systems help organize our understanding of global weather patterns by categorizing regions based on temperature, precipitation, and seasonal variations. The Western Ghats in India do experience a monsoon climate with distinct dry winters and extremely wet summers. During summer months, air from the Arabian Sea carrying moisture flows eastward and is blocked by the Western Ghats, causing orographic precipitation along the western coast. This marks the onset of the monsoon season in June, bringing torrential downpours. The Western Ghats play a crucial role in determining this climate pattern, with winds bringing large masses of water in summer that condense to cause the monsoon rains. Hence Rows 1 is correctly matched The Laurentian climate is characterized by cold, dry winters and warm, wet summers with summer temperatures as warm as the tropics (~25°C). This contradicts the description of short, mild summers. Additionally, the primarily associate the Laurentian climate with North America, particularly around the Great Lakes and Newfoundland areas. Hence Rows 2 is incorrectly matched The savanna climate does have distinct wet and dry seasons. Hence Rows 3 is correctly matched

#### 1. Question

Consider the following information:

| Climate Type | Location | Characteristics

  1. 1.| Monsoon Climate | Western Ghats, India | Experiences dry winters and extremely wet summers with onshore winds
  2. 2.| Laurentian Climate | Central Russia and Siberia | Characterized by short, mild summers and long, severe winters
  3. 3.| Tropical Savanna Climate | Northern Australia | Distinct wet and dry seasons with scattered drought-resistant trees

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Climate classification systems help organize our understanding of global weather patterns by categorizing regions based on temperature, precipitation, and seasonal variations.

The Western Ghats in India do experience a monsoon climate with distinct dry winters and extremely wet summers. During summer months, air from the Arabian Sea carrying moisture flows eastward and is blocked by the Western Ghats, causing orographic precipitation along the western coast. This marks the onset of the monsoon season in June, bringing torrential downpours. The Western Ghats play a crucial role in determining this climate pattern, with winds bringing large masses of water in summer that condense to cause the monsoon rains.

Hence Rows 1 is correctly matched

The Laurentian climate is characterized by cold, dry winters and warm, wet summers with summer temperatures as warm as the tropics (~25°C). This contradicts the description of short, mild summers. Additionally, the primarily associate the Laurentian climate with North America, particularly around the Great Lakes and Newfoundland areas.

Hence Rows 2 is incorrectly matched

The savanna climate does have distinct wet and dry seasons.

Hence Rows 3 is correctly matched

Solution: B

Climate classification systems help organize our understanding of global weather patterns by categorizing regions based on temperature, precipitation, and seasonal variations.

The Western Ghats in India do experience a monsoon climate with distinct dry winters and extremely wet summers. During summer months, air from the Arabian Sea carrying moisture flows eastward and is blocked by the Western Ghats, causing orographic precipitation along the western coast. This marks the onset of the monsoon season in June, bringing torrential downpours. The Western Ghats play a crucial role in determining this climate pattern, with winds bringing large masses of water in summer that condense to cause the monsoon rains.

Hence Rows 1 is correctly matched

The Laurentian climate is characterized by cold, dry winters and warm, wet summers with summer temperatures as warm as the tropics (~25°C). This contradicts the description of short, mild summers. Additionally, the primarily associate the Laurentian climate with North America, particularly around the Great Lakes and Newfoundland areas.

Hence Rows 2 is incorrectly matched

The savanna climate does have distinct wet and dry seasons.

Hence Rows 3 is correctly matched

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The tropopause is higher during summer and lower during winter in mid-latitude regions. Statement-II: Seasonal changes in surface temperature affect the height of the tropopause due to thermal expansion and contraction of the troposphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct Correct Solution: A The tropopause is a crucial boundary layer in our atmosphere that separates the troposphere (lowest layer where most weather occurs) from the stratosphere. This transition zone is characterized by a significant change in the environmental lapse rate, where temperature stops decreasing with altitude and becomes relatively constant before increasing in the stratosphere. Seasonal changes also impact the height of the tropopause. During the summer, it is higher, and it becomes lower in winter. Hence statement 1 is correct Seasonal changes in surface temperature cause the troposphere to expand during warmer months (summer) and contract during colder months (winter), directly influencing the height of the tropopause. Hence statement 2 is correct As the troposphere warms (in summer), the air molecules gain energy and move farther apart, causing the troposphere to expand upwards. Conversely, as the troposphere cools (in winter), the air molecules lose energy and move closer together, causing the troposphere to contract downwards. The tropopause, being the boundary of the troposphere, follows this expansion and contraction, resulting in a higher tropopause during summer and a lower tropopause during winter. Hence, statement 2 explains statement 1/ Incorrect Solution: A The tropopause is a crucial boundary layer in our atmosphere that separates the troposphere (lowest layer where most weather occurs) from the stratosphere. This transition zone is characterized by a significant change in the environmental lapse rate, where temperature stops decreasing with altitude and becomes relatively constant before increasing in the stratosphere. Seasonal changes also impact the height of the tropopause. During the summer, it is higher, and it becomes lower in winter. Hence statement 1 is correct Seasonal changes in surface temperature cause the troposphere to expand during warmer months (summer) and contract during colder months (winter), directly influencing the height of the tropopause. Hence statement 2 is correct As the troposphere warms (in summer), the air molecules gain energy and move farther apart, causing the troposphere to expand upwards. Conversely, as the troposphere cools (in winter), the air molecules lose energy and move closer together, causing the troposphere to contract downwards. The tropopause, being the boundary of the troposphere, follows this expansion and contraction, resulting in a higher tropopause during summer and a lower tropopause during winter. Hence, statement 2 explains statement 1/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The tropopause is higher during summer and lower during winter in mid-latitude regions. Statement-II: Seasonal changes in surface temperature affect the height of the tropopause due to thermal expansion and contraction of the troposphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

• (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Solution: A

The tropopause is a crucial boundary layer in our atmosphere that separates the troposphere (lowest layer where most weather occurs) from the stratosphere. This transition zone is characterized by a significant change in the environmental lapse rate, where temperature stops decreasing with altitude and becomes relatively constant before increasing in the stratosphere.

Seasonal changes also impact the height of the tropopause. During the summer, it is higher, and it becomes lower in winter.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Seasonal changes in surface temperature cause the troposphere to expand during warmer months (summer) and contract during colder months (winter), directly influencing the height of the tropopause.

Hence statement 2 is correct

As the troposphere warms (in summer), the air molecules gain energy and move farther apart, causing the troposphere to expand upwards. Conversely, as the troposphere cools (in winter), the air molecules lose energy and move closer together, causing the troposphere to contract downwards.

The tropopause, being the boundary of the troposphere, follows this expansion and contraction, resulting in a higher tropopause during summer and a lower tropopause during winter.

Hence, statement 2 explains statement 1/

Solution: A

The tropopause is a crucial boundary layer in our atmosphere that separates the troposphere (lowest layer where most weather occurs) from the stratosphere. This transition zone is characterized by a significant change in the environmental lapse rate, where temperature stops decreasing with altitude and becomes relatively constant before increasing in the stratosphere.

Seasonal changes also impact the height of the tropopause. During the summer, it is higher, and it becomes lower in winter.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Seasonal changes in surface temperature cause the troposphere to expand during warmer months (summer) and contract during colder months (winter), directly influencing the height of the tropopause.

Hence statement 2 is correct

As the troposphere warms (in summer), the air molecules gain energy and move farther apart, causing the troposphere to expand upwards. Conversely, as the troposphere cools (in winter), the air molecules lose energy and move closer together, causing the troposphere to contract downwards.

The tropopause, being the boundary of the troposphere, follows this expansion and contraction, resulting in a higher tropopause during summer and a lower tropopause during winter.

Hence, statement 2 explains statement 1/

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which of the following statements is/are *not correct regarding ozone distribution in the atmosphere? The highest concentration of ozone is found in the uppermost stratosphere(between 45-50km above earth surface) due to maximum absorption of ultraviolet radiation. The atmospheric phenomenon known as “ozone hole” is more pronounced over Antarctica than the Arctic. Tropospheric ozone concentrations are higher in urban areas during summer afternoons. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) None of the above Correct Solution: A Ozone is a crucial atmospheric gas composed of three oxygen atoms (O₃) that plays a dual role in our environment. While stratospheric ozone forms a protective shield against harmful ultraviolet radiation, tropospheric ozone acts as a pollutant and greenhouse gas. Understanding ozone distribution throughout atmospheric layers is essential for addressing environmental concerns like ozone depletion and air quality management. Most ozone (about 90%) is found in the stratosphere, which begins about 10–15 kilometers (km) above Earth’s surface and extends up to about 50 km altitude. The stratospheric region with the highest concentration of ozone, between about 15 and 35 km altitude, is commonly known as the “ozone layer”. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Ozone reductions in the Arctic are much smaller than those observed currently each spring over the Antarctic (the ozone hole). This difference is explained by distinct weather patterns: The Antarctic continent is a very large land mass surrounded by oceans. This symmetrical condition produces very low stratospheric temperatures within a meteorologically isolated region, the so-called polar vortex. In contrast, large-scale weather systems disturb the wind flow, making it less stable over the Arctic region than over the Antarctic continent. Hence statement 2 is correct The tropospheric ozone concentrations tend to be higher in urban areas during summer afternoons due to increased sunlight and higher temperatures, which accelerate the photochemical reactions that produce ozone. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A Ozone is a crucial atmospheric gas composed of three oxygen atoms (O₃) that plays a dual role in our environment. While stratospheric ozone forms a protective shield against harmful ultraviolet radiation, tropospheric ozone acts as a pollutant and greenhouse gas. Understanding ozone distribution throughout atmospheric layers is essential for addressing environmental concerns like ozone depletion and air quality management. Most ozone (about 90%) is found in the stratosphere, which begins about 10–15 kilometers (km) above Earth’s surface and extends up to about 50 km altitude. The stratospheric region with the highest concentration of ozone, between about 15 and 35 km altitude, is commonly known as the “ozone layer”. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Ozone reductions in the Arctic are much smaller than those observed currently each spring over the Antarctic (the ozone hole). This difference is explained by distinct weather patterns: The Antarctic continent is a very large land mass surrounded by oceans. This symmetrical condition produces very low stratospheric temperatures within a meteorologically isolated region, the so-called polar vortex. In contrast, large-scale weather systems disturb the wind flow, making it less stable over the Arctic region than over the Antarctic continent. Hence statement 2 is correct The tropospheric ozone concentrations tend to be higher in urban areas during summer afternoons due to increased sunlight and higher temperatures, which accelerate the photochemical reactions that produce ozone. Hence statement 3 is correct*

#### 3. Question

Which of the following statements is/are *not correct* regarding ozone distribution in the atmosphere?

• The highest concentration of ozone is found in the uppermost stratosphere(between 45-50km above earth surface) due to maximum absorption of ultraviolet radiation.

• The atmospheric phenomenon known as “ozone hole” is more pronounced over Antarctica than the Arctic.

• Tropospheric ozone concentrations are higher in urban areas during summer afternoons.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) None of the above

Solution: A

Ozone is a crucial atmospheric gas composed of three oxygen atoms (O₃) that plays a dual role in our environment. While stratospheric ozone forms a protective shield against harmful ultraviolet radiation, tropospheric ozone acts as a pollutant and greenhouse gas. Understanding ozone distribution throughout atmospheric layers is essential for addressing environmental concerns like ozone depletion and air quality management.

Most ozone (about 90%) is found in the stratosphere, which begins about 10–15 kilometers (km) above Earth’s surface and extends up to about 50 km altitude. The stratospheric region with the highest concentration of ozone, between about 15 and 35 km altitude, is commonly known as the “ozone layer”.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Ozone reductions in the Arctic are much smaller than those observed currently each spring over the Antarctic (the ozone hole). This difference is explained by distinct weather patterns: The Antarctic continent is a very large land mass surrounded by oceans. This symmetrical condition produces very low stratospheric temperatures within a meteorologically isolated region, the so-called polar vortex. In contrast, large-scale weather systems disturb the wind flow, making it less stable over the Arctic region than over the Antarctic continent.

Hence statement 2 is correct

The tropospheric ozone concentrations tend to be higher in urban areas during summer afternoons due to increased sunlight and higher temperatures, which accelerate the photochemical reactions that produce ozone.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

Ozone is a crucial atmospheric gas composed of three oxygen atoms (O₃) that plays a dual role in our environment. While stratospheric ozone forms a protective shield against harmful ultraviolet radiation, tropospheric ozone acts as a pollutant and greenhouse gas. Understanding ozone distribution throughout atmospheric layers is essential for addressing environmental concerns like ozone depletion and air quality management.

Most ozone (about 90%) is found in the stratosphere, which begins about 10–15 kilometers (km) above Earth’s surface and extends up to about 50 km altitude. The stratospheric region with the highest concentration of ozone, between about 15 and 35 km altitude, is commonly known as the “ozone layer”.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Ozone reductions in the Arctic are much smaller than those observed currently each spring over the Antarctic (the ozone hole). This difference is explained by distinct weather patterns: The Antarctic continent is a very large land mass surrounded by oceans. This symmetrical condition produces very low stratospheric temperatures within a meteorologically isolated region, the so-called polar vortex. In contrast, large-scale weather systems disturb the wind flow, making it less stable over the Arctic region than over the Antarctic continent.

Hence statement 2 is correct

The tropospheric ozone concentrations tend to be higher in urban areas during summer afternoons due to increased sunlight and higher temperatures, which accelerate the photochemical reactions that produce ozone.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points In which atmospheric layer does the phenomenon of sprites primarily occur? (a) Upper Troposphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Mesosphere (d) Lower Thermosphere Correct Solution: C Transient Luminous Events (TLEs) are fascinating electrical phenomena that occur high in Earth’s atmosphere, well above typical thunderstorms. These short-lived optical events include sprites, elves, blue jets, and other less common types like pixies, gnomes, and trolls. Understanding where these phenomena occur helps scientists better comprehend atmospheric electricity and potentially its effects on aircraft, radio communications, and even planetary atmospheres beyond Earth. Altitude ranges, sprites (65-75 km) occur primarily within the mesosphere, while elves (80-100 km) occur primarily in the lower thermosphere, with some overlap into the uppermost mesosphere. Since sprites are fully contained within the mesosphere and represent one of the most commonly observed and studied TLEs. Incorrect Solution: C Transient Luminous Events (TLEs) are fascinating electrical phenomena that occur high in Earth’s atmosphere, well above typical thunderstorms. These short-lived optical events include sprites, elves, blue jets, and other less common types like pixies, gnomes, and trolls. Understanding where these phenomena occur helps scientists better comprehend atmospheric electricity and potentially its effects on aircraft, radio communications, and even planetary atmospheres beyond Earth. Altitude ranges, sprites (65-75 km) occur primarily within the mesosphere, while elves (80-100 km) occur primarily in the lower thermosphere, with some overlap into the uppermost mesosphere. Since sprites are fully contained within the mesosphere and represent one of the most commonly observed and studied TLEs.

#### 4. Question

In which atmospheric layer does the phenomenon of sprites primarily occur?

• (a) Upper Troposphere

• (b) Stratosphere

• (c) Mesosphere

• (d) Lower Thermosphere

Solution: C

Transient Luminous Events (TLEs) are fascinating electrical phenomena that occur high in Earth’s atmosphere, well above typical thunderstorms. These short-lived optical events include sprites, elves, blue jets, and other less common types like pixies, gnomes, and trolls. Understanding where these phenomena occur helps scientists better comprehend atmospheric electricity and potentially its effects on aircraft, radio communications, and even planetary atmospheres beyond Earth.

Altitude ranges, sprites (65-75 km) occur primarily within the mesosphere, while elves (80-100 km) occur primarily in the lower thermosphere, with some overlap into the uppermost mesosphere. Since sprites are fully contained within the mesosphere and represent one of the most commonly observed and studied TLEs.

Solution: C

Transient Luminous Events (TLEs) are fascinating electrical phenomena that occur high in Earth’s atmosphere, well above typical thunderstorms. These short-lived optical events include sprites, elves, blue jets, and other less common types like pixies, gnomes, and trolls. Understanding where these phenomena occur helps scientists better comprehend atmospheric electricity and potentially its effects on aircraft, radio communications, and even planetary atmospheres beyond Earth.

Altitude ranges, sprites (65-75 km) occur primarily within the mesosphere, while elves (80-100 km) occur primarily in the lower thermosphere, with some overlap into the uppermost mesosphere. Since sprites are fully contained within the mesosphere and represent one of the most commonly observed and studied TLEs.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Mediterranean climate receives most of its annual precipitation during winter months due to the equatorward shift of westerlies. The Madden-Julian Oscillation influences rainfall patterns in the tropics with a periodicity of approximately 30-60 days. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The Mediterranean climate is characterized by mild, wet winters and warm, dry summers, with the majority of its precipitation occurring during the winter months due to the equatorward shift of the westerlies. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is the major fluctuation in tropical weather on weekly to monthly timescales. The MJO can be characterised as an eastward moving ‘pulse’ of cloud and rainfall near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Mediterranean climate is characterized by mild, wet winters and warm, dry summers, with the majority of its precipitation occurring during the winter months due to the equatorward shift of the westerlies. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is the major fluctuation in tropical weather on weekly to monthly timescales. The MJO can be characterised as an eastward moving ‘pulse’ of cloud and rainfall near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Mediterranean climate receives most of its annual precipitation during winter months due to the equatorward shift of westerlies.

• The Madden-Julian Oscillation influences rainfall patterns in the tropics with a periodicity of approximately 30-60 days.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• The Mediterranean climate is characterized by mild, wet winters and warm, dry summers, with the majority of its precipitation occurring during the winter months due to the equatorward shift of the westerlies.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is the major fluctuation in tropical weather on weekly to monthly timescales. The MJO can be characterised as an eastward moving ‘pulse’ of cloud and rainfall near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: D

• The Mediterranean climate is characterized by mild, wet winters and warm, dry summers, with the majority of its precipitation occurring during the winter months due to the equatorward shift of the westerlies.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is the major fluctuation in tropical weather on weekly to monthly timescales. The MJO can be characterised as an eastward moving ‘pulse’ of cloud and rainfall near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Advection fog forms when warm, moist air moves over a cooler surface and is cooled below its dew point. Radiation fog typically forms in valleys and low-lying areas during winter anticyclonic conditions. Steam fog occurs when cold air moves over relatively warm water bodies causing rapid evaporation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Fog is a visible atmospheric phenomenon consisting of tiny water droplets suspended in the air, reducing visibility to less than 1 kilometer. It forms when water vapor in the air condenses into water droplets near the ground level. Understanding different types of fog, their formation mechanisms, and the conditions that favour them is crucial for aviation safety, transportation planning, and weather forecasting. Advection fog forms due to moist air moving over a colder surface, and the resulting cooling of the near-surface air to below its dew-point temperature. Advection fog occurs over both water (e.g., steam fog) and land. Hence statement 1 is correct radiation fog typically forms in valleys and low-lying areas during winter anticyclonic conditions, where clear skies and calm winds allow for effective radiative cooling of the ground and the air near it. Hence statement 2 is correct Steam fog (also known as sea smoke or evaporation fog) forms when cold air moves over relatively warm water bodies, causing rapid evaporation and subsequent condensation of the water vapor into visible fog. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D Fog is a visible atmospheric phenomenon consisting of tiny water droplets suspended in the air, reducing visibility to less than 1 kilometer. It forms when water vapor in the air condenses into water droplets near the ground level. Understanding different types of fog, their formation mechanisms, and the conditions that favour them is crucial for aviation safety, transportation planning, and weather forecasting. Advection fog forms due to moist air moving over a colder surface, and the resulting cooling of the near-surface air to below its dew-point temperature. Advection fog occurs over both water (e.g., steam fog) and land. Hence statement 1 is correct radiation fog typically forms in valleys and low-lying areas during winter anticyclonic conditions, where clear skies and calm winds allow for effective radiative cooling of the ground and the air near it. Hence statement 2 is correct Steam fog (also known as sea smoke or evaporation fog) forms when cold air moves over relatively warm water bodies, causing rapid evaporation and subsequent condensation of the water vapor into visible fog. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Advection fog forms when warm, moist air moves over a cooler surface and is cooled below its dew point.

• Radiation fog typically forms in valleys and low-lying areas during winter anticyclonic conditions.

• Steam fog occurs when cold air moves over relatively warm water bodies causing rapid evaporation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Fog is a visible atmospheric phenomenon consisting of tiny water droplets suspended in the air, reducing visibility to less than 1 kilometer. It forms when water vapor in the air condenses into water droplets near the ground level. Understanding different types of fog, their formation mechanisms, and the conditions that favour them is crucial for aviation safety, transportation planning, and weather forecasting.

Advection fog forms due to moist air moving over a colder surface, and the resulting cooling of the near-surface air to below its dew-point temperature. Advection fog occurs over both water (e.g., steam fog) and land.

Hence statement 1 is correct

radiation fog typically forms in valleys and low-lying areas during winter anticyclonic conditions, where clear skies and calm winds allow for effective radiative cooling of the ground and the air near it.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Steam fog (also known as sea smoke or evaporation fog) forms when cold air moves over relatively warm water bodies, causing rapid evaporation and subsequent condensation of the water vapor into visible fog.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

Fog is a visible atmospheric phenomenon consisting of tiny water droplets suspended in the air, reducing visibility to less than 1 kilometer. It forms when water vapor in the air condenses into water droplets near the ground level. Understanding different types of fog, their formation mechanisms, and the conditions that favour them is crucial for aviation safety, transportation planning, and weather forecasting.

Advection fog forms due to moist air moving over a colder surface, and the resulting cooling of the near-surface air to below its dew-point temperature. Advection fog occurs over both water (e.g., steam fog) and land.

Hence statement 1 is correct

radiation fog typically forms in valleys and low-lying areas during winter anticyclonic conditions, where clear skies and calm winds allow for effective radiative cooling of the ground and the air near it.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Steam fog (also known as sea smoke or evaporation fog) forms when cold air moves over relatively warm water bodies, causing rapid evaporation and subsequent condensation of the water vapor into visible fog.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The mid-latitude west coasts experience greater annual temperature range than the east coasts at the same latitude. Statement-II: The western margins of continents in the mid-latitudes are influenced by cold ocean currents, while the eastern margins are influenced by warm ocean currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct Correct Solution: D Mid-latitude coastal regions experience distinct climate patterns due to the complex interactions between land, ocean, and atmospheric circulation. These patterns significantly influence temperature ranges, precipitation, and seasonal variations, creating unique climate zones with specific characteristics. The mid-latitude east coasts generally experience greater annual temperature ranges than west coasts at the same latitude, due to the influence of continental air masses and the moderating effect of oceans on west coast climates. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The western margins of continents in the mid-latitudes are influenced by cold ocean currents, while the eastern margins are influenced by warm ocean currents, a pattern influenced by global wind patterns and ocean circulation. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: D Mid-latitude coastal regions experience distinct climate patterns due to the complex interactions between land, ocean, and atmospheric circulation. These patterns significantly influence temperature ranges, precipitation, and seasonal variations, creating unique climate zones with specific characteristics. The mid-latitude east coasts generally experience greater annual temperature ranges than west coasts at the same latitude, due to the influence of continental air masses and the moderating effect of oceans on west coast climates. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The western margins of continents in the mid-latitudes are influenced by cold ocean currents, while the eastern margins are influenced by warm ocean currents, a pattern influenced by global wind patterns and ocean circulation. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The mid-latitude west coasts experience greater annual temperature range than the east coasts at the same latitude.

Statement-II: The western margins of continents in the mid-latitudes are influenced by cold ocean currents, while the eastern margins are influenced by warm ocean currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

• (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Solution: D

Mid-latitude coastal regions experience distinct climate patterns due to the complex interactions between land, ocean, and atmospheric circulation. These patterns significantly influence temperature ranges, precipitation, and seasonal variations, creating unique climate zones with specific characteristics.

The mid-latitude east coasts generally experience greater annual temperature ranges than west coasts at the same latitude, due to the influence of continental air masses and the moderating effect of oceans on west coast climates.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The western margins of continents in the mid-latitudes are influenced by cold ocean currents, while the eastern margins are influenced by warm ocean currents, a pattern influenced by global wind patterns and ocean circulation.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: D

Mid-latitude coastal regions experience distinct climate patterns due to the complex interactions between land, ocean, and atmospheric circulation. These patterns significantly influence temperature ranges, precipitation, and seasonal variations, creating unique climate zones with specific characteristics.

The mid-latitude east coasts generally experience greater annual temperature ranges than west coasts at the same latitude, due to the influence of continental air masses and the moderating effect of oceans on west coast climates.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The western margins of continents in the mid-latitudes are influenced by cold ocean currents, while the eastern margins are influenced by warm ocean currents, a pattern influenced by global wind patterns and ocean circulation.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points With reference to the decay of tropical cyclones, consider the following statements: A tropical cyclone weakens rapidly upon making landfall due to increased surface friction and reduced moisture supply. When a tropical cyclone moves into higher latitudes, it may transform into an extratropical cyclone through a process called extratropical transition. The eye wall replacement cycle temporarily weakens a mature tropical cyclone. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: C Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure systems characterized by strong winds and heavy rainfall that form over warm ocean waters. These powerful storms, known as hurricanes in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific and typhoons in the western Pacific, undergo various physical processes throughout their lifecycle – from formation to intensification and eventually decay. Understanding the mechanisms of tropical cyclone decay is crucial for accurate forecasting, emergency management, and disaster preparedness in vulnerable coastal regions. Loss of Moisture Supply: Over oceans, cyclones continuously draw energy from warm waters. Upon reaching land, the absence of this moisture source disrupts the storm’s energy cycle. Increased Surface Friction: Land surfaces create more friction than ocean surfaces, which slows down surface winds, reducing the cyclone’s rotational momentum. When a cyclone moves over land, it is cut off from its supply of warm moist maritime air and starts to draw in dry continental air. Hence statement 1 is correct A tropical cyclone transitioning into an extratropical cyclone as it moves into higher latitudes is known as extratropical transition. During extratropical transition, the cyclone begins to tilt back into the colder airmass with height, and the cyclone’s primary energy source converts from the release of latent heat from condensation (from thunderstorms near the center) to baroclinic processes. Hence statement 2 is correct The eyewall replacement cycle is a common phenomenon with strong hurricanes and typhoons. A new eyewall may begin to form on the outside of the previous inner eyewall, cutting off the fuel for the inner wall New eyewall larger in radius but temporarily weaker in intensity, leading to a drop in the storm’s peak winds Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure systems characterized by strong winds and heavy rainfall that form over warm ocean waters. These powerful storms, known as hurricanes in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific and typhoons in the western Pacific, undergo various physical processes throughout their lifecycle – from formation to intensification and eventually decay. Understanding the mechanisms of tropical cyclone decay is crucial for accurate forecasting, emergency management, and disaster preparedness in vulnerable coastal regions. Loss of Moisture Supply: Over oceans, cyclones continuously draw energy from warm waters. Upon reaching land, the absence of this moisture source disrupts the storm’s energy cycle. Increased Surface Friction: Land surfaces create more friction than ocean surfaces, which slows down surface winds, reducing the cyclone’s rotational momentum. When a cyclone moves over land, it is cut off from its supply of warm moist maritime air and starts to draw in dry continental air. Hence statement 1 is correct A tropical cyclone transitioning into an extratropical cyclone as it moves into higher latitudes is known as extratropical transition. During extratropical transition, the cyclone begins to tilt back into the colder airmass with height, and the cyclone’s primary energy source converts from the release of latent heat from condensation (from thunderstorms near the center) to baroclinic processes. Hence statement 2 is correct The eyewall replacement cycle is a common phenomenon with strong hurricanes and typhoons. A new eyewall may begin to form on the outside of the previous inner eyewall, cutting off the fuel for the inner wall New eyewall larger in radius but temporarily weaker in intensity, leading to a drop in the storm’s peak winds Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 8. Question

With reference to the decay of tropical cyclones, consider the following statements:

• A tropical cyclone weakens rapidly upon making landfall due to increased surface friction and reduced moisture supply.

• When a tropical cyclone moves into higher latitudes, it may transform into an extratropical cyclone through a process called extratropical transition.

• The eye wall replacement cycle temporarily weakens a mature tropical cyclone.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: C

Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure systems characterized by strong winds and heavy rainfall that form over warm ocean waters. These powerful storms, known as hurricanes in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific and typhoons in the western Pacific, undergo various physical processes throughout their lifecycle – from formation to intensification and eventually decay. Understanding the mechanisms of tropical cyclone decay is crucial for accurate forecasting, emergency management, and disaster preparedness in vulnerable coastal regions.

Loss of Moisture Supply: Over oceans, cyclones continuously draw energy from warm waters. Upon reaching land, the absence of this moisture source disrupts the storm’s energy cycle.

Increased Surface Friction: Land surfaces create more friction than ocean surfaces, which slows down surface winds, reducing the cyclone’s rotational momentum.

• When a cyclone moves over land, it is cut off from its supply of warm moist maritime air and starts to draw in dry continental air.

Hence statement 1 is correct

A tropical cyclone transitioning into an extratropical cyclone as it moves into higher latitudes is known as extratropical transition. During extratropical transition, the cyclone begins to tilt back into the colder airmass with height, and the cyclone’s primary energy source converts from the release of latent heat from condensation (from thunderstorms near the center) to baroclinic processes.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The eyewall replacement cycle is a common phenomenon with strong hurricanes and typhoons.

• A new eyewall may begin to form on the outside of the previous inner eyewall, cutting off the fuel for the inner wall

• New eyewall larger in radius but temporarily weaker in intensity, leading to a drop in the storm’s peak winds

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure systems characterized by strong winds and heavy rainfall that form over warm ocean waters. These powerful storms, known as hurricanes in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific and typhoons in the western Pacific, undergo various physical processes throughout their lifecycle – from formation to intensification and eventually decay. Understanding the mechanisms of tropical cyclone decay is crucial for accurate forecasting, emergency management, and disaster preparedness in vulnerable coastal regions.

Loss of Moisture Supply: Over oceans, cyclones continuously draw energy from warm waters. Upon reaching land, the absence of this moisture source disrupts the storm’s energy cycle.

Increased Surface Friction: Land surfaces create more friction than ocean surfaces, which slows down surface winds, reducing the cyclone’s rotational momentum.

• When a cyclone moves over land, it is cut off from its supply of warm moist maritime air and starts to draw in dry continental air.

Hence statement 1 is correct

A tropical cyclone transitioning into an extratropical cyclone as it moves into higher latitudes is known as extratropical transition. During extratropical transition, the cyclone begins to tilt back into the colder airmass with height, and the cyclone’s primary energy source converts from the release of latent heat from condensation (from thunderstorms near the center) to baroclinic processes.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The eyewall replacement cycle is a common phenomenon with strong hurricanes and typhoons.

• A new eyewall may begin to form on the outside of the previous inner eyewall, cutting off the fuel for the inner wall

• New eyewall larger in radius but temporarily weaker in intensity, leading to a drop in the storm’s peak winds

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Walker Circulation: It represents an east-west atmospheric circulation along the equatorial Pacific Ocean. During El Niño events, the Walker Circulation weakens or reverses its direction. The ascending limb of the Walker Circulation is normally located over the western Pacific Ocean. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None Correct Solution: C The Walker Circulation is a key atmospheric phenomenon that plays a crucial role in regulating climate patterns across the tropical Pacific Ocean and beyond. Named after Sir Gilbert Walker who first proposed this zonal pattern in 1923, it represents a large-scale circulation system that significantly influences global weather patterns, particularly through its relationship with El Niño and La Niña events. The Walker Circulation is a large-scale east-west atmospheric circulation pattern along the equatorial Pacific Ocean, characterized by rising air in the western Pacific and sinking air in the eastern Pacific. Hence statement 1 is correct During El Niño events, the Walker Circulation, which normally features rising air over the western Pacific and sinking air over the eastern Pacific, weakens or even reverses its direction, leading to a shift in atmospheric pressure and rainfall patterns. . Hence statement 2 is correct The ascending limb of the Walker Circulation, a major atmospheric circulation feature, is normally located over the warm, western Pacific Ocean, specifically the Maritime Continent region. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Walker Circulation is a key atmospheric phenomenon that plays a crucial role in regulating climate patterns across the tropical Pacific Ocean and beyond. Named after Sir Gilbert Walker who first proposed this zonal pattern in 1923, it represents a large-scale circulation system that significantly influences global weather patterns, particularly through its relationship with El Niño and La Niña events. The Walker Circulation is a large-scale east-west atmospheric circulation pattern along the equatorial Pacific Ocean, characterized by rising air in the western Pacific and sinking air in the eastern Pacific. Hence statement 1 is correct During El Niño events, the Walker Circulation, which normally features rising air over the western Pacific and sinking air over the eastern Pacific, weakens or even reverses its direction, leading to a shift in atmospheric pressure and rainfall patterns. . Hence statement 2 is correct The ascending limb of the Walker Circulation, a major atmospheric circulation feature, is normally located over the warm, western Pacific Ocean, specifically the Maritime Continent region. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Walker Circulation:

• It represents an east-west atmospheric circulation along the equatorial Pacific Ocean.

• During El Niño events, the Walker Circulation weakens or reverses its direction.

• The ascending limb of the Walker Circulation is normally located over the western Pacific Ocean.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

The Walker Circulation is a key atmospheric phenomenon that plays a crucial role in regulating climate patterns across the tropical Pacific Ocean and beyond. Named after Sir Gilbert Walker who first proposed this zonal pattern in 1923, it represents a large-scale circulation system that significantly influences global weather patterns, particularly through its relationship with El Niño and La Niña events.

The Walker Circulation is a large-scale east-west atmospheric circulation pattern along the equatorial Pacific Ocean, characterized by rising air in the western Pacific and sinking air in the eastern Pacific.

Hence statement 1 is correct

During El Niño events, the Walker Circulation, which normally features rising air over the western Pacific and sinking air over the eastern Pacific, weakens or even reverses its direction, leading to a shift in atmospheric pressure and rainfall patterns. .

Hence statement 2 is correct

The ascending limb of the Walker Circulation, a major atmospheric circulation feature, is normally located over the warm, western Pacific Ocean, specifically the Maritime Continent region.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

The Walker Circulation is a key atmospheric phenomenon that plays a crucial role in regulating climate patterns across the tropical Pacific Ocean and beyond. Named after Sir Gilbert Walker who first proposed this zonal pattern in 1923, it represents a large-scale circulation system that significantly influences global weather patterns, particularly through its relationship with El Niño and La Niña events.

The Walker Circulation is a large-scale east-west atmospheric circulation pattern along the equatorial Pacific Ocean, characterized by rising air in the western Pacific and sinking air in the eastern Pacific.

Hence statement 1 is correct

During El Niño events, the Walker Circulation, which normally features rising air over the western Pacific and sinking air over the eastern Pacific, weakens or even reverses its direction, leading to a shift in atmospheric pressure and rainfall patterns. .

Hence statement 2 is correct

The ascending limb of the Walker Circulation, a major atmospheric circulation feature, is normally located over the warm, western Pacific Ocean, specifically the Maritime Continent region.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following information: Local Wind Region Characteristics 1. Chinook Eastern slopes of Rocky Mountains Warm, dry wind that causes rapid snowmelt and temperature rise 2. Harmattan West African coast Hot, dusty wind that blows during summer months from the Atlantic Ocean 3. Khamsin Egypt and Eastern Mediterranean Hot, sand-laden wind that blows from the northern direction In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Local winds are regional atmospheric phenomena characterized by specific temperature, humidity, and directional patterns that impact particular geographic areas. These winds have significant effects on local climate, agriculture, transportation, and daily life in the regions where they occur. Understanding these regional wind patterns is essential for weather forecasting, aviation safety, and local environmental management. Chinook winds are warm, dry winds that descend the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains, causing rapid temperature rises and snowmelt. Hence Row 1 is correctly matched Harmattan, is a cool dry wind that blows from the northeast or east in the western Sahara and is strongest from late November to mid-March. It usually carries large amounts of dust, which it can transport hundreds of miles out over the Atlantic Ocean; the dust often interferes with local aircraft operations. Hence Row 2 is incorrectly matched Khamsin, hot, dry, dusty wind in North Africa and the Arabian Peninsula that blows from the south or southeast in late winter and early spring. It often reaches temperatures above 40° C (104° F), and it may blow continuously for three or four days at a time and then be followed by an inflow of much cooler air. Hence Row 3 is incorrectly matched Incorrect Solution: A Local winds are regional atmospheric phenomena characterized by specific temperature, humidity, and directional patterns that impact particular geographic areas. These winds have significant effects on local climate, agriculture, transportation, and daily life in the regions where they occur. Understanding these regional wind patterns is essential for weather forecasting, aviation safety, and local environmental management. Chinook winds are warm, dry winds that descend the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains, causing rapid temperature rises and snowmelt. Hence Row 1 is correctly matched Harmattan, is a cool dry wind that blows from the northeast or east in the western Sahara and is strongest from late November to mid-March. It usually carries large amounts of dust, which it can transport hundreds of miles out over the Atlantic Ocean; the dust often interferes with local aircraft operations. Hence Row 2 is incorrectly matched Khamsin, hot, dry, dusty wind in North Africa and the Arabian Peninsula that blows from the south or southeast in late winter and early spring. It often reaches temperatures above 40° C (104° F), and it may blow continuously for three or four days at a time and then be followed by an inflow of much cooler air. Hence Row 3 is incorrectly matched

#### 10. Question

Consider the following information:

| Local Wind | Region | Characteristics

  1. 1.| Chinook | Eastern slopes of Rocky Mountains | Warm, dry wind that causes rapid snowmelt and temperature rise
  2. 2.| Harmattan | West African coast | Hot, dusty wind that blows during summer months from the Atlantic Ocean
  3. 3.| Khamsin | Egypt and Eastern Mediterranean | Hot, sand-laden wind that blows from the northern direction

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Local winds are regional atmospheric phenomena characterized by specific temperature, humidity, and directional patterns that impact particular geographic areas. These winds have significant effects on local climate, agriculture, transportation, and daily life in the regions where they occur. Understanding these regional wind patterns is essential for weather forecasting, aviation safety, and local environmental management.

Chinook winds are warm, dry winds that descend the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains, causing rapid temperature rises and snowmelt.

Hence Row 1 is correctly matched

Harmattan, is a cool dry wind that blows from the northeast or east in the western Sahara and is strongest from late November to mid-March. It usually carries large amounts of dust, which it can transport hundreds of miles out over the Atlantic Ocean; the dust often interferes with local aircraft operations.

Hence Row 2 is incorrectly matched

Khamsin, hot, dry, dusty wind in North Africa and the Arabian Peninsula that blows from the south or southeast in late winter and early spring. It often reaches temperatures above 40° C (104° F), and it may blow continuously for three or four days at a time and then be followed by an inflow of much cooler air.

Hence Row 3 is incorrectly matched

Solution: A

Local winds are regional atmospheric phenomena characterized by specific temperature, humidity, and directional patterns that impact particular geographic areas. These winds have significant effects on local climate, agriculture, transportation, and daily life in the regions where they occur. Understanding these regional wind patterns is essential for weather forecasting, aviation safety, and local environmental management.

Chinook winds are warm, dry winds that descend the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains, causing rapid temperature rises and snowmelt.

Hence Row 1 is correctly matched

Harmattan, is a cool dry wind that blows from the northeast or east in the western Sahara and is strongest from late November to mid-March. It usually carries large amounts of dust, which it can transport hundreds of miles out over the Atlantic Ocean; the dust often interferes with local aircraft operations.

Hence Row 2 is incorrectly matched

Khamsin, hot, dry, dusty wind in North Africa and the Arabian Peninsula that blows from the south or southeast in late winter and early spring. It often reaches temperatures above 40° C (104° F), and it may blow continuously for three or four days at a time and then be followed by an inflow of much cooler air.

Hence Row 3 is incorrectly matched

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The effects of frictional force on the speed of wind do not extend beyond 3km. Closely placed isobars results in slowing down the speed of wind. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The horizontal winds near the surface of the Earth respond to the combined effect of three forces viz., the pressure gradient, the frictional force and the Coriolis force The frictional force affect the speed of the wind; the frictional force act to slow down speed of the wind. It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends up to an elevation of 1-3 km Over the sea surface, friction is minimum. Hence statement 1 is correct The differences in atmospheric pressure produces a force. The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient The pressure radiant is strong where isobars are close to each other and weak where the isobars are apart. The strength of the pressure gradient force directly determines wind speed , as stronger pressure gradient (that is closer isobars) results in faster winds while a weaker gradient (farther isobars) leads to slower winds. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The horizontal winds near the surface of the Earth respond to the combined effect of three forces viz., the pressure gradient, the frictional force and the Coriolis force The frictional force affect the speed of the wind; the frictional force act to slow down speed of the wind. It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends up to an elevation of 1-3 km Over the sea surface, friction is minimum. Hence statement 1 is correct The differences in atmospheric pressure produces a force. The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient The pressure radiant is strong where isobars are close to each other and weak where the isobars are apart. The strength of the pressure gradient force directly determines wind speed , as stronger pressure gradient (that is closer isobars) results in faster winds while a weaker gradient (farther isobars) leads to slower winds. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The effects of frictional force on the speed of wind do not extend beyond 3km.

• Closely placed isobars results in slowing down the speed of wind.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The horizontal winds near the surface of the Earth respond to the combined effect of three forces viz., the pressure gradient, the frictional force and the Coriolis force

• The frictional force affect the speed of the wind; the frictional force act to slow down speed of the wind.

• It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends up to an elevation of 1-3 km

• Over the sea surface, friction is minimum.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The differences in atmospheric pressure produces a force.

• The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient

• The pressure radiant is strong where isobars are close to each other and weak where the isobars are apart.

• The strength of the pressure gradient force directly determines wind speed , as stronger pressure gradient (that is closer isobars) results in faster winds while a weaker gradient (farther isobars) leads to slower winds.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The horizontal winds near the surface of the Earth respond to the combined effect of three forces viz., the pressure gradient, the frictional force and the Coriolis force

• The frictional force affect the speed of the wind; the frictional force act to slow down speed of the wind.

• It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends up to an elevation of 1-3 km

• Over the sea surface, friction is minimum.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The differences in atmospheric pressure produces a force.

• The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient

• The pressure radiant is strong where isobars are close to each other and weak where the isobars are apart.

• The strength of the pressure gradient force directly determines wind speed , as stronger pressure gradient (that is closer isobars) results in faster winds while a weaker gradient (farther isobars) leads to slower winds.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Sirocco is a humid wind that blows from Sahara desert to the Mediterranean sea. Mistral is a cold wind that blows from the Barents Sea over the Tundra region during winter. Punas winds originate in Western side of the Andes Mountains. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Sirocco is a hot humid wind that blows from the Sahara desert to the Mediterranean Sea. It starts as a dry wind over north Africa and as it blows over the Mediterranean Sea , it picks up moisture and becomes humid. This blows throughout the year but are most common during spring. Hence statement 1 is correct Mistral is a strong cold northwesterly wind that blows from Southern France into the Gulf of Lion in the Mediterranean Sea. It is characterized by sustained winds with speed approximately 31 miles per hour and can reach up to 60 miles per hour. It is most common during winter and spring and becomes strongest during transition between these two seasons. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Punas is a cold and dry local wind that blows from the Western side of the Andes Mountains. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A Sirocco is a hot humid wind that blows from the Sahara desert to the Mediterranean Sea. It starts as a dry wind over north Africa and as it blows over the Mediterranean Sea , it picks up moisture and becomes humid. This blows throughout the year but are most common during spring. Hence statement 1 is correct Mistral is a strong cold northwesterly wind that blows from Southern France into the Gulf of Lion in the Mediterranean Sea. It is characterized by sustained winds with speed approximately 31 miles per hour and can reach up to 60 miles per hour. It is most common during winter and spring and becomes strongest during transition between these two seasons. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Punas is a cold and dry local wind that blows from the Western side of the Andes Mountains. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Sirocco is a humid wind that blows from Sahara desert to the Mediterranean sea.

• Mistral is a cold wind that blows from the Barents Sea over the Tundra region during winter.

• Punas winds originate in Western side of the Andes Mountains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Sirocco is a hot humid wind that blows from the Sahara desert to the Mediterranean Sea.

• It starts as a dry wind over north Africa and as it blows over the Mediterranean Sea , it picks up moisture and becomes humid.

• This blows throughout the year but are most common during spring.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Mistral is a strong cold northwesterly wind that blows from Southern France into the Gulf of Lion in the Mediterranean Sea.

• It is characterized by sustained winds with speed approximately 31 miles per hour and can reach up to 60 miles per hour.

• It is most common during winter and spring and becomes strongest during transition between these two seasons.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Punas is a cold and dry local wind that blows from the Western side of the Andes Mountains.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

Sirocco is a hot humid wind that blows from the Sahara desert to the Mediterranean Sea.

• It starts as a dry wind over north Africa and as it blows over the Mediterranean Sea , it picks up moisture and becomes humid.

• This blows throughout the year but are most common during spring.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Mistral is a strong cold northwesterly wind that blows from Southern France into the Gulf of Lion in the Mediterranean Sea.

• It is characterized by sustained winds with speed approximately 31 miles per hour and can reach up to 60 miles per hour.

• It is most common during winter and spring and becomes strongest during transition between these two seasons.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Punas is a cold and dry local wind that blows from the Western side of the Andes Mountains.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes a term ‘Lake effect Snow’ ? (a) Landscapes formed in polar regions due to erosion by moving glaciers (b) Structures formed in caves due to deposition of white calcium carbonate giving a snow like effect (c) Formation of snowfall due to interaction of cold air with warm water of lakes (d) A phenomenon in which water below the upper frozen layer of a Lake remains in liquid form Correct Solution: C Lake Effect Snow is a localised weather phenomenon producing intense snowfall due to the interaction of cold air with the warmer waters of large lakes. The major factors responsible include Cold Air which must be significantly colder than the lake surface temperature ; Wind direction that dictates the specific area affected by snowfall as well as physical features of land and water that influence intensity and location. It is common in regions near the Great lakes in the United States, particularly in New York, Ohio, Michigan and Pennsylvania. When cold air from Canada moves over the unfrozen and warmer Great Lakes, the warm water transfers moisture and heat to the lower atmosphere ; this causes the rising air to cool, forming narrow band of cloud that generates snowfall at the rate of 2 to 3 inches per hour or more. It creates localised heavy snowfall and causes disruptions in infrastructure, roof collapses and other damages. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C Lake Effect Snow is a localised weather phenomenon producing intense snowfall due to the interaction of cold air with the warmer waters of large lakes. The major factors responsible include Cold Air which must be significantly colder than the lake surface temperature ; Wind direction that dictates the specific area affected by snowfall as well as physical features of land and water that influence intensity and location. It is common in regions near the Great lakes in the United States, particularly in New York, Ohio, Michigan and Pennsylvania. When cold air from Canada moves over the unfrozen and warmer Great Lakes, the warm water transfers moisture and heat to the lower atmosphere ; this causes the rising air to cool, forming narrow band of cloud that generates snowfall at the rate of 2 to 3 inches per hour or more. It creates localised heavy snowfall and causes disruptions in infrastructure, roof collapses and other damages. Hence option C is correct

#### 13. Question

Which of the following best describes a term ‘Lake effect Snow’ ?

• (a) Landscapes formed in polar regions due to erosion by moving glaciers

• (b) Structures formed in caves due to deposition of white calcium carbonate giving a snow like effect

• (c) Formation of snowfall due to interaction of cold air with warm water of lakes

• (d) A phenomenon in which water below the upper frozen layer of a Lake remains in liquid form

Solution: C

• Lake Effect Snow is a localised weather phenomenon producing intense snowfall due to the interaction of cold air with the warmer waters of large lakes.

• The major factors responsible include Cold Air which must be significantly colder than the lake surface temperature ; Wind direction that dictates the specific area affected by snowfall as well as physical features of land and water that influence intensity and location.

• It is common in regions near the Great lakes in the United States, particularly in New York, Ohio, Michigan and Pennsylvania.

• When cold air from Canada moves over the unfrozen and warmer Great Lakes, the warm water transfers moisture and heat to the lower atmosphere ; this causes the rising air to cool, forming narrow band of cloud that generates snowfall at the rate of 2 to 3 inches per hour or more.

• It creates localised heavy snowfall and causes disruptions in infrastructure, roof collapses and other damages.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• Lake Effect Snow is a localised weather phenomenon producing intense snowfall due to the interaction of cold air with the warmer waters of large lakes.

• The major factors responsible include Cold Air which must be significantly colder than the lake surface temperature ; Wind direction that dictates the specific area affected by snowfall as well as physical features of land and water that influence intensity and location.

• It is common in regions near the Great lakes in the United States, particularly in New York, Ohio, Michigan and Pennsylvania.

• When cold air from Canada moves over the unfrozen and warmer Great Lakes, the warm water transfers moisture and heat to the lower atmosphere ; this causes the rising air to cool, forming narrow band of cloud that generates snowfall at the rate of 2 to 3 inches per hour or more.

• It creates localised heavy snowfall and causes disruptions in infrastructure, roof collapses and other damages.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Auroras are visible only beyond 66 ½ ° latitudes in the Northern and Southern hemispheres. Statement – II : Auroras are formed by interaction of charged particles from the sun with magnetic field of the Earth. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : D During strong solar activity like solar flares or coronal mass ejections, the solar wind intensifies leading to geomagnetic storms. These storms can cause Auroras to expand to mid latitudes, making them visible in regions distant from the poles. Recently in October 2024, Leh, Ladakh experienced a rare display of Aurora Borealis or Northern light due to a severe Geo magnetic storm triggered by a coronal mass ejection from the Sun. Ladakh is a mid latitude region ( 34.2268°N, 77.5619°E). Hence statement 1 is incorrect Auroras occur due to interaction of charged particles from the sun known as solar wind with Earth’s magnetic field As the solar wind reaches Earth , most particles are deflected by the magnetic field ; however, some particles get trapped and travel towards the poles. These charged particles collide with gases like oxygen and nitrogen in the upper atmosphere producing light; Oxygen emits green hues, while nitrogen produces blue and purple tones. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : D During strong solar activity like solar flares or coronal mass ejections, the solar wind intensifies leading to geomagnetic storms. These storms can cause Auroras to expand to mid latitudes, making them visible in regions distant from the poles. Recently in October 2024, Leh, Ladakh experienced a rare display of Aurora Borealis or Northern light due to a severe Geo magnetic storm triggered by a coronal mass ejection from the Sun. Ladakh is a mid latitude region ( 34.2268°N, 77.5619°E). Hence statement 1 is incorrect Auroras occur due to interaction of charged particles from the sun known as solar wind with Earth’s magnetic field As the solar wind reaches Earth , most particles are deflected by the magnetic field ; however, some particles get trapped and travel towards the poles. These charged particles collide with gases like oxygen and nitrogen in the upper atmosphere producing light; Oxygen emits green hues, while nitrogen produces blue and purple tones. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Auroras are visible only beyond 66 ½ ° latitudes in the Northern and Southern hemispheres.

Statement – II :

Auroras are formed by interaction of charged particles from the sun with magnetic field of the Earth.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : D

• During strong solar activity like solar flares or coronal mass ejections, the solar wind intensifies leading to geomagnetic storms.

These storms can cause Auroras to expand to mid latitudes, making them visible in regions distant from the poles.

• Recently in October 2024, Leh, Ladakh experienced a rare display of Aurora Borealis or Northern light due to a severe Geo magnetic storm triggered by a coronal mass ejection from the Sun.

• Ladakh is a mid latitude region ( 34.2268°N, 77.5619°E).

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Auroras occur due to interaction of charged particles from the sun known as solar wind with Earth’s magnetic field

• As the solar wind reaches Earth , most particles are deflected by the magnetic field ; however, some particles get trapped and travel towards the poles.

• These charged particles collide with gases like oxygen and nitrogen in the upper atmosphere producing light; Oxygen emits green hues, while nitrogen produces blue and purple tones.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

• During strong solar activity like solar flares or coronal mass ejections, the solar wind intensifies leading to geomagnetic storms.

These storms can cause Auroras to expand to mid latitudes, making them visible in regions distant from the poles.

• Recently in October 2024, Leh, Ladakh experienced a rare display of Aurora Borealis or Northern light due to a severe Geo magnetic storm triggered by a coronal mass ejection from the Sun.

• Ladakh is a mid latitude region ( 34.2268°N, 77.5619°E).

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Auroras occur due to interaction of charged particles from the sun known as solar wind with Earth’s magnetic field

• As the solar wind reaches Earth , most particles are deflected by the magnetic field ; however, some particles get trapped and travel towards the poles.

• These charged particles collide with gases like oxygen and nitrogen in the upper atmosphere producing light; Oxygen emits green hues, while nitrogen produces blue and purple tones.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points A particular type of climate is characterised by the following features : ‘Temperature remains uniform and there is no month without rain; convectional rain, often with thunder and lightning is almost a daily feature along with orographic rainfall in the mountainous regions. The regions experiencing this climate have forests where trees are not found in pure Strands of a single species’. It is : (a) Savannah climate (b) Warm temperate Western margin climate (c) Equatorial climate (d) Warm temperate Eastern margin climate Correct Solution : C The provided information corresponds to hot, wet Equatorial climate. It is found in between 5° and 10° north and south of the Equator The most outstanding feature is the great uniformity of temperature throughout the year; there is no winter ; cloudiness and heavy precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature. Precipitation is heavy and there is no month without rain Due to great heat in the equatorial belt, mornings are bright and Sunny. There is much evaporation and convectional air currents being set up, followed by heavy downpour of convectional rains in the afternoon of an accompanied by thunder and lightening. A great variety of vegetation, evergreen trees is the feature of equatorial vegetation But, unlike temperate forest where only a few species occur in a particular area, the trees of the tropical rainforests are not found in pure strands of a single species. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution : C The provided information corresponds to hot, wet Equatorial climate. It is found in between 5° and 10° north and south of the Equator The most outstanding feature is the great uniformity of temperature throughout the year; there is no winter ; cloudiness and heavy precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature. Precipitation is heavy and there is no month without rain Due to great heat in the equatorial belt, mornings are bright and Sunny. There is much evaporation and convectional air currents being set up, followed by heavy downpour of convectional rains in the afternoon of an accompanied by thunder and lightening. A great variety of vegetation, evergreen trees is the feature of equatorial vegetation But, unlike temperate forest where only a few species occur in a particular area, the trees of the tropical rainforests are not found in pure strands of a single species. Hence option C is correct

#### 15. Question

A particular type of climate is characterised by the following features :

‘Temperature remains uniform and there is no month without rain; convectional rain, often with thunder and lightning is almost a daily feature along with orographic rainfall in the mountainous regions. The regions experiencing this climate have forests where trees are not found in pure Strands of a single species’.

• (a) Savannah climate

• (b) Warm temperate Western margin climate

• (c) Equatorial climate

• (d) Warm temperate Eastern margin climate

Solution : C

• The provided information corresponds to hot, wet Equatorial climate.

• It is found in between 5° and 10° north and south of the Equator

• The most outstanding feature is the great uniformity of temperature throughout the year; there is no winter ; cloudiness and heavy precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature.

• Precipitation is heavy and there is no month without rain

• Due to great heat in the equatorial belt, mornings are bright and Sunny.

• There is much evaporation and convectional air currents being set up, followed by heavy downpour of convectional rains in the afternoon of an accompanied by thunder and lightening.

• A great variety of vegetation, evergreen trees is the feature of equatorial vegetation

• But, unlike temperate forest where only a few species occur in a particular area, the trees of the tropical rainforests are not found in pure strands of a single species.

Hence option C is correct

Solution : C

• The provided information corresponds to hot, wet Equatorial climate.

• It is found in between 5° and 10° north and south of the Equator

• The most outstanding feature is the great uniformity of temperature throughout the year; there is no winter ; cloudiness and heavy precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature.

• Precipitation is heavy and there is no month without rain

• Due to great heat in the equatorial belt, mornings are bright and Sunny.

• There is much evaporation and convectional air currents being set up, followed by heavy downpour of convectional rains in the afternoon of an accompanied by thunder and lightening.

• A great variety of vegetation, evergreen trees is the feature of equatorial vegetation

• But, unlike temperate forest where only a few species occur in a particular area, the trees of the tropical rainforests are not found in pure strands of a single species.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points With reference to various Geophysical phenomena, Rogue Waves are : (a) Waves whose origin depends on astronomical reasons. (b) Very Fast waves that run parallel to the coast bringing sediments and deposit them. (c) Deep water waves that generate cyclones that cause mass destruction. (d) Waves that are greater than twice the size of surrounding waves, forming from directions other than prevailing winds. Correct Solution : D Rogue Waves also called extreme storm waves by scientists, are waves which are greater than twice the size of surrounding waves These are very unpredictable and often come unexpectedly from directions other than prevailing wind and waves Most reports of such waves say that they look like walls of water often steep sided with unusually deep troughs. Extreme waves often form because swells while travelling across the ocean, do so at different speeds and directions; as the swells pass through one another their crests, troughs and length sometimes coincide and reinforce each other. This process can form unusually large towering waves that quickly disappear ; if the swells are travelling in the same direction, these mountainous waves last for several minutes before subsiding. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution : D Rogue Waves also called extreme storm waves by scientists, are waves which are greater than twice the size of surrounding waves These are very unpredictable and often come unexpectedly from directions other than prevailing wind and waves Most reports of such waves say that they look like walls of water often steep sided with unusually deep troughs. Extreme waves often form because swells while travelling across the ocean, do so at different speeds and directions; as the swells pass through one another their crests, troughs and length sometimes coincide and reinforce each other. This process can form unusually large towering waves that quickly disappear ; if the swells are travelling in the same direction, these mountainous waves last for several minutes before subsiding. Hence option D is correct

#### 16. Question

With reference to various Geophysical phenomena, Rogue Waves are :

• (a) Waves whose origin depends on astronomical reasons.

• (b) Very Fast waves that run parallel to the coast bringing sediments and deposit them.

• (c) Deep water waves that generate cyclones that cause mass destruction.

• (d) Waves that are greater than twice the size of surrounding waves, forming from directions other than prevailing winds.

Solution : D

Rogue Waves also called extreme storm waves by scientists, are waves which are greater than twice the size of surrounding waves

• These are very unpredictable and often come unexpectedly from directions other than prevailing wind and waves

• Most reports of such waves say that they look like walls of water often steep sided with unusually deep troughs.

• Extreme waves often form because swells while travelling across the ocean, do so at different speeds and directions; as the swells pass through one another their crests, troughs and length sometimes coincide and reinforce each other.

• This process can form unusually large towering waves that quickly disappear ; if the swells are travelling in the same direction, these mountainous waves last for several minutes before subsiding.

Hence option D is correct

Solution : D

Rogue Waves also called extreme storm waves by scientists, are waves which are greater than twice the size of surrounding waves

• These are very unpredictable and often come unexpectedly from directions other than prevailing wind and waves

• Most reports of such waves say that they look like walls of water often steep sided with unusually deep troughs.

• Extreme waves often form because swells while travelling across the ocean, do so at different speeds and directions; as the swells pass through one another their crests, troughs and length sometimes coincide and reinforce each other.

• This process can form unusually large towering waves that quickly disappear ; if the swells are travelling in the same direction, these mountainous waves last for several minutes before subsiding.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Ionosphere reflects radio waves used for communication on earth. The Ionosphere thins out during night time on Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The Ionosphere is part of the Earth’s upper atmosphere between 80km and about 600 km where extreme ultraviolet and extreme solar radiation ionizes the atoms and molecules thus creating a layer of electrons. The ionosphere is important because it reflects and modifies radio waves used for communication and navigation Other phenomena such as energetic charged particles and cosmic rays also have an ionizing effect and can contribute to the ionosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct The ionosphere is constantly changing Because it is formed when particles are ionized by the sun’s energy, the ionosphere changes from the Earth day side to night side When night falls, this layer of atmosphere thins out as previously ionized particles relax and recombine back into neutral particles. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Ionosphere is part of the Earth’s upper atmosphere between 80km and about 600 km where extreme ultraviolet and extreme solar radiation ionizes the atoms and molecules thus creating a layer of electrons. The ionosphere is important because it reflects and modifies radio waves used for communication and navigation Other phenomena such as energetic charged particles and cosmic rays also have an ionizing effect and can contribute to the ionosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct The ionosphere is constantly changing Because it is formed when particles are ionized by the sun’s energy, the ionosphere changes from the Earth day side to night side When night falls, this layer of atmosphere thins out as previously ionized particles relax and recombine back into neutral particles. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Ionosphere reflects radio waves used for communication on earth.

• The Ionosphere thins out during night time on Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The Ionosphere is part of the Earth’s upper atmosphere between 80km and about 600 km where extreme ultraviolet and extreme solar radiation ionizes the atoms and molecules thus creating a layer of electrons.

• The ionosphere is important because it reflects and modifies radio waves used for communication and navigation

• Other phenomena such as energetic charged particles and cosmic rays also have an ionizing effect and can contribute to the ionosphere.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The ionosphere is constantly changing

• Because it is formed when particles are ionized by the sun’s energy, the ionosphere changes from the Earth day side to night side

When night falls, this layer of atmosphere thins out as previously ionized particles relax and recombine back into neutral particles.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• The Ionosphere is part of the Earth’s upper atmosphere between 80km and about 600 km where extreme ultraviolet and extreme solar radiation ionizes the atoms and molecules thus creating a layer of electrons.

• The ionosphere is important because it reflects and modifies radio waves used for communication and navigation

• Other phenomena such as energetic charged particles and cosmic rays also have an ionizing effect and can contribute to the ionosphere.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The ionosphere is constantly changing

• Because it is formed when particles are ionized by the sun’s energy, the ionosphere changes from the Earth day side to night side

When night falls, this layer of atmosphere thins out as previously ionized particles relax and recombine back into neutral particles.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Pustaz is a temperate grassland located in Hungary. Pampas region is characterized by perennial grasses that occur in strata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Pustaz is a temperate grassland biome of the Great Hungarian Plain. It is an exclave of the Pannonian Steppe and lies mainly around the River Tisza in the Eastern part of Hungary as well as western part of the country and part of Austria. The landscape is composed of tree less plains, saline steppes, Salt Lakes, scattered sand dunes, wet forests and freshwater marshes along the flood plains of rivers Hence statement 1 is correct Pampas are fertile South American low grasslands. The vast plains are a natural region interrupted by low Ventana and Tandil hills. The dominant vegetation type here are grassy prairie and grass Steppe Vegetation typically include perennial grasses and herbs. Different strata of grasses occur because of gradients of water availability. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Pustaz is a temperate grassland biome of the Great Hungarian Plain. It is an exclave of the Pannonian Steppe and lies mainly around the River Tisza in the Eastern part of Hungary as well as western part of the country and part of Austria. The landscape is composed of tree less plains, saline steppes, Salt Lakes, scattered sand dunes, wet forests and freshwater marshes along the flood plains of rivers Hence statement 1 is correct Pampas are fertile South American low grasslands. The vast plains are a natural region interrupted by low Ventana and Tandil hills. The dominant vegetation type here are grassy prairie and grass Steppe Vegetation typically include perennial grasses and herbs. Different strata of grasses occur because of gradients of water availability. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Pustaz is a temperate grassland located in Hungary.

• Pampas region is characterized by perennial grasses that occur in strata.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Pustaz is a temperate grassland biome of the Great Hungarian Plain.

• It is an exclave of the Pannonian Steppe and lies mainly around the River Tisza in the Eastern part of Hungary as well as western part of the country and part of Austria.

• The landscape is composed of tree less plains, saline steppes, Salt Lakes, scattered sand dunes, wet forests and freshwater marshes along the flood plains of rivers

Hence statement 1 is correct

Pampas are fertile South American low grasslands.

• The vast plains are a natural region interrupted by low Ventana and Tandil hills.

• The dominant vegetation type here are grassy prairie and grass Steppe

• Vegetation typically include perennial grasses and herbs.

• Different strata of grasses occur because of gradients of water availability.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• Pustaz is a temperate grassland biome of the Great Hungarian Plain.

• It is an exclave of the Pannonian Steppe and lies mainly around the River Tisza in the Eastern part of Hungary as well as western part of the country and part of Austria.

• The landscape is composed of tree less plains, saline steppes, Salt Lakes, scattered sand dunes, wet forests and freshwater marshes along the flood plains of rivers

Hence statement 1 is correct

Pampas are fertile South American low grasslands.

• The vast plains are a natural region interrupted by low Ventana and Tandil hills.

• The dominant vegetation type here are grassy prairie and grass Steppe

• Vegetation typically include perennial grasses and herbs.

• Different strata of grasses occur because of gradients of water availability.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator. Statement – II : Coriolis force is zero at the Equator. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : A The rotation of the Earth about its Axis affects direction of the wind; this force is called Coriolis force; it deflects the wind to the right direction in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude; it is maximum at the poles and absent at the equator. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradiant force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar ; the higher the pressure gradient force the more is the velocity of the winds and larger is the deflection in the direction of wind As a result of these two forces acting perpendicular to each other, in the low pressure areas, the wind blows around it. At the equator, Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified; that is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution : A The rotation of the Earth about its Axis affects direction of the wind; this force is called Coriolis force; it deflects the wind to the right direction in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude; it is maximum at the poles and absent at the equator. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradiant force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar ; the higher the pressure gradient force the more is the velocity of the winds and larger is the deflection in the direction of wind As a result of these two forces acting perpendicular to each other, in the low pressure areas, the wind blows around it. At the equator, Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified; that is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator.

Statement – II :

Coriolis force is zero at the Equator.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : A

• The rotation of the Earth about its Axis affects direction of the wind; this force is called Coriolis force; it deflects the wind to the right direction in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.

• The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high.

• The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude; it is maximum at the poles and absent at the equator.

• The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradiant force.

• The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar ; the higher the pressure gradient force the more is the velocity of the winds and larger is the deflection in the direction of wind

• As a result of these two forces acting perpendicular to each other, in the low pressure areas, the wind blows around it.

At the equator, Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars.

• The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified; that is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

Solution : A

• The rotation of the Earth about its Axis affects direction of the wind; this force is called Coriolis force; it deflects the wind to the right direction in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.

• The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high.

• The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude; it is maximum at the poles and absent at the equator.

• The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradiant force.

• The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar ; the higher the pressure gradient force the more is the velocity of the winds and larger is the deflection in the direction of wind

• As a result of these two forces acting perpendicular to each other, in the low pressure areas, the wind blows around it.

At the equator, Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars.

• The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified; that is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Waterspouts are : (a) A whirling column of air and mist over water similar to a tornado but weaker in nature (b) Emergence of geothermally heated groundwater on to the surface of the Earth (c) An intermittently erupting spring that sends jets of steam and hot water into the air (d) Emergence of water from small holes in beaches having quicksand Correct Solution : A Waterspouts are rotating column of air and water mist. These fall into two categories – Fair weather waterspout and tornadic waterspout. Tornadic waterspouts are tornadoes that form over Water or move from land to water; they have the same characteristics as a land tornado and are associated with severe thunderstorms and often accompanied by high wind, frequent dangerous lightnings and cause damage to life and property Fair weather waterspouts usually form along dark flat base of a line of developing cumulus clouds; this type of water spouse is generally not associated with thunderstorms. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution : A Waterspouts are rotating column of air and water mist. These fall into two categories – Fair weather waterspout and tornadic waterspout. Tornadic waterspouts are tornadoes that form over Water or move from land to water; they have the same characteristics as a land tornado and are associated with severe thunderstorms and often accompanied by high wind, frequent dangerous lightnings and cause damage to life and property Fair weather waterspouts usually form along dark flat base of a line of developing cumulus clouds; this type of water spouse is generally not associated with thunderstorms. Hence option A is correct

#### 20. Question

Waterspouts are :

• (a) A whirling column of air and mist over water similar to a tornado but weaker in nature

• (b) Emergence of geothermally heated groundwater on to the surface of the Earth

• (c) An intermittently erupting spring that sends jets of steam and hot water into the air

• (d) Emergence of water from small holes in beaches having quicksand

Solution : A

Waterspouts are rotating column of air and water mist.

• These fall into two categories – Fair weather waterspout and tornadic waterspout.

• Tornadic waterspouts are tornadoes that form over Water or move from land to water; they have the same characteristics as a land tornado and are associated with severe thunderstorms and often accompanied by high wind, frequent dangerous lightnings and cause damage to life and property

• Fair weather waterspouts usually form along dark flat base of a line of developing cumulus clouds; this type of water spouse is generally not associated with thunderstorms.

Hence option A is correct

Solution : A

Waterspouts are rotating column of air and water mist.

• These fall into two categories – Fair weather waterspout and tornadic waterspout.

• Tornadic waterspouts are tornadoes that form over Water or move from land to water; they have the same characteristics as a land tornado and are associated with severe thunderstorms and often accompanied by high wind, frequent dangerous lightnings and cause damage to life and property

• Fair weather waterspouts usually form along dark flat base of a line of developing cumulus clouds; this type of water spouse is generally not associated with thunderstorms.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to Project PARI (Public Art of India), consider the following statements It is an initiative of the Ministry of Culture, executed by Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art. The project aims to promote public art inspired by both traditional and contemporary Indian art forms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Project PARI (Public Art of India): Launched by the Ministry of Culture to coincide with the 46th World Heritage Committee Meeting in New Delhi (21-31 July 2024). Executed by Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA). Aims to promote public art that fosters dialogue, reflection, and inspiration, enriching India’s cultural landscape. Features a diverse range of artworks inspired by traditional and contemporary Indian art forms. Encourages art in public spaces, making it accessible to a wider audience. Highlights India’s rich artistic heritage while promoting modern interpretations and creative expression. Strengthens India’s cultural diplomacy and showcases its artistic excellence on a global platform. Aligns with the government’s vision to preserve, promote, and modernize Indian art and heritage. Enhances the visibility of Indian art forms, reinforcing India’s identity as a global cultural hub. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2031268 Incorrect Solution: C Project PARI (Public Art of India): Launched by the Ministry of Culture to coincide with the 46th World Heritage Committee Meeting in New Delhi (21-31 July 2024). Executed by Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA). Aims to promote public art that fosters dialogue, reflection, and inspiration, enriching India’s cultural landscape. Features a diverse range of artworks inspired by traditional and contemporary Indian art forms. Encourages art in public spaces, making it accessible to a wider audience. Highlights India’s rich artistic heritage while promoting modern interpretations and creative expression. Strengthens India’s cultural diplomacy and showcases its artistic excellence on a global platform. Aligns with the government’s vision to preserve, promote, and modernize Indian art and heritage. Enhances the visibility of Indian art forms, reinforcing India’s identity as a global cultural hub. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2031268

#### 21. Question

With reference to Project PARI (Public Art of India), consider the following statements

• It is an initiative of the Ministry of Culture, executed by Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art.

• The project aims to promote public art inspired by both traditional and contemporary Indian art forms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Project PARI (Public Art of India):

Launched by the Ministry of Culture to coincide with the 46th World Heritage Committee Meeting in New Delhi (21-31 July 2024).

Executed by Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA).

• Aims to promote public art that fosters dialogue, reflection, and inspiration, enriching India’s cultural landscape.

• Features a diverse range of artworks inspired by traditional and contemporary Indian art forms.

• Encourages art in public spaces, making it accessible to a wider audience.

• Highlights India’s rich artistic heritage while promoting modern interpretations and creative expression.

• Strengthens India’s cultural diplomacy and showcases its artistic excellence on a global platform.

• Aligns with the government’s vision to preserve, promote, and modernize Indian art and heritage.

• Enhances the visibility of Indian art forms, reinforcing India’s identity as a global cultural hub.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2031268

Solution: C

Project PARI (Public Art of India):

Launched by the Ministry of Culture to coincide with the 46th World Heritage Committee Meeting in New Delhi (21-31 July 2024).

Executed by Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA).

• Aims to promote public art that fosters dialogue, reflection, and inspiration, enriching India’s cultural landscape.

• Features a diverse range of artworks inspired by traditional and contemporary Indian art forms.

• Encourages art in public spaces, making it accessible to a wider audience.

• Highlights India’s rich artistic heritage while promoting modern interpretations and creative expression.

• Strengthens India’s cultural diplomacy and showcases its artistic excellence on a global platform.

• Aligns with the government’s vision to preserve, promote, and modernize Indian art and heritage.

• Enhances the visibility of Indian art forms, reinforcing India’s identity as a global cultural hub.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2031268

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points The ‘Right to be forgotten’ is primarily associated with (a) The right to seek removal of personal data from public records and online platforms. (b) The right to access government-held information under the Right to Information Act. (c) The right to erase criminal records from judicial databases. (d) The right to restrict public access to personal information in specific circumstances. Correct Solution: A Right to be Forgotten: A digital privacy concept that allows individuals to request the removal of their personal data (such as names and photos) from public records and online platforms. Aims to give individuals greater control over their personal information in the digital space. Legal Status in India: Considered part of the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution. No specific legal framework explicitly provides for this right. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 includes penalties for data misuse but does not explicitly mention the Right to be Forgotten. The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 provide a mechanism for filing complaints about unauthorized data exposure, but do not comprehensively cover this right. https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/supreme-court-to-examine-plea-on-right-to-be-forgotten-what-it-means-124072400874_1.html Incorrect Solution: A Right to be Forgotten: A digital privacy concept that allows individuals to request the removal of their personal data (such as names and photos) from public records and online platforms. Aims to give individuals greater control over their personal information in the digital space. Legal Status in India: Considered part of the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution. No specific legal framework explicitly provides for this right. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 includes penalties for data misuse but does not explicitly mention the Right to be Forgotten. The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 provide a mechanism for filing complaints about unauthorized data exposure, but do not comprehensively cover this right. https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/supreme-court-to-examine-plea-on-right-to-be-forgotten-what-it-means-124072400874_1.html

#### 22. Question

The ‘Right to be forgotten’ is primarily associated with

• (a) The right to seek removal of personal data from public records and online platforms.

• (b) The right to access government-held information under the Right to Information Act.

• (c) The right to erase criminal records from judicial databases.

• (d) The right to restrict public access to personal information in specific circumstances.

Solution: A

Right to be Forgotten:

• A digital privacy concept that allows individuals to request the removal of their personal data (such as names and photos) from public records and online platforms.

• Aims to give individuals greater control over their personal information in the digital space.

Legal Status in India: Considered part of the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution. No specific legal framework explicitly provides for this right. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 includes penalties for data misuse but does not explicitly mention the Right to be Forgotten. The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 provide a mechanism for filing complaints about unauthorized data exposure, but do not comprehensively cover this right.

• Considered part of the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution.

• No specific legal framework explicitly provides for this right.

• The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 includes penalties for data misuse but does not explicitly mention the Right to be Forgotten.

• The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 provide a mechanism for filing complaints about unauthorized data exposure, but do not comprehensively cover this right.

https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/supreme-court-to-examine-plea-on-right-to-be-forgotten-what-it-means-124072400874_1.html

Solution: A

Right to be Forgotten:

• A digital privacy concept that allows individuals to request the removal of their personal data (such as names and photos) from public records and online platforms.

• Aims to give individuals greater control over their personal information in the digital space.

Legal Status in India: Considered part of the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution. No specific legal framework explicitly provides for this right. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 includes penalties for data misuse but does not explicitly mention the Right to be Forgotten. The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 provide a mechanism for filing complaints about unauthorized data exposure, but do not comprehensively cover this right.

• Considered part of the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution.

• No specific legal framework explicitly provides for this right.

• The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 includes penalties for data misuse but does not explicitly mention the Right to be Forgotten.

• The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 provide a mechanism for filing complaints about unauthorized data exposure, but do not comprehensively cover this right.

https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/supreme-court-to-examine-plea-on-right-to-be-forgotten-what-it-means-124072400874_1.html

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points With reference to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967, consider the following statements UAPA applies only to Indian citizens and offenses committed within the territory of India. The Act allows for the death penalty and life imprisonment as the highest forms of punishment. Under UAPA, the maximum time given to the investigating agency to file a report is 180 days, which can be extended. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: B Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967: Enacted in 1967, the law empowers the central government to act against activities that threaten India’s sovereignty, integrity, and security. Applies to both Indian citizens and foreigners and can be enforced for offenses committed both within and outside India. Allows the government to designate individuals and organizations as terrorists and declare groups as unlawful associations. Provides for severe punishments, including death penalty and life imprisonment for the most serious offenses. Investigating agencies can detain individuals for up to 180 days (extendable) before filing a charge sheet. Grants the National Investigation Agency (NIA) more powers, including authority to seize property and freeze financial assets. Strict bail provisions require the accused to prove innocence before seeking bail, making it difficult to get released during trials. 2019 Amendment expanded the scope of the Act, allowing the government to label individuals as terrorists, not just organizations. Criticized for potential misuse, especially against activists and political dissenters, raising concerns about violation of fundamental rights. https://indianexpress.com/article/india/uapa-supreme-court-nepali-citizen-bail-9463056/ Incorrect Solution: B Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967: Enacted in 1967, the law empowers the central government to act against activities that threaten India’s sovereignty, integrity, and security. Applies to both Indian citizens and foreigners and can be enforced for offenses committed both within and outside India. Allows the government to designate individuals and organizations as terrorists and declare groups as unlawful associations. Provides for severe punishments, including death penalty and life imprisonment for the most serious offenses. Investigating agencies can detain individuals for up to 180 days (extendable) before filing a charge sheet. Grants the National Investigation Agency (NIA) more powers, including authority to seize property and freeze financial assets. Strict bail provisions require the accused to prove innocence before seeking bail, making it difficult to get released during trials. 2019 Amendment expanded the scope of the Act, allowing the government to label individuals as terrorists, not just organizations. Criticized for potential misuse, especially against activists and political dissenters, raising concerns about violation of fundamental rights. https://indianexpress.com/article/india/uapa-supreme-court-nepali-citizen-bail-9463056/

#### 23. Question

With reference to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967, consider the following statements

• UAPA applies only to Indian citizens and offenses committed within the territory of India.

• The Act allows for the death penalty and life imprisonment as the highest forms of punishment.

• Under UAPA, the maximum time given to the investigating agency to file a report is 180 days, which can be extended.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967:

Enacted in 1967, the law empowers the central government to act against activities that threaten India’s sovereignty, integrity, and security.

Applies to both Indian citizens and foreigners and can be enforced for offenses committed both within and outside India.

Allows the government to designate individuals and organizations as terrorists and declare groups as unlawful associations.

Provides for severe punishments, including death penalty and life imprisonment for the most serious offenses.

Investigating agencies can detain individuals for up to 180 days (extendable) before filing a charge sheet.

Grants the National Investigation Agency (NIA) more powers, including authority to seize property and freeze financial assets.

Strict bail provisions require the accused to prove innocence before seeking bail, making it difficult to get released during trials.

2019 Amendment expanded the scope of the Act, allowing the government to label individuals as terrorists, not just organizations.

• Criticized for potential misuse, especially against activists and political dissenters, raising concerns about violation of fundamental rights.

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/uapa-supreme-court-nepali-citizen-bail-9463056/

Solution: B

Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967:

Enacted in 1967, the law empowers the central government to act against activities that threaten India’s sovereignty, integrity, and security.

Applies to both Indian citizens and foreigners and can be enforced for offenses committed both within and outside India.

Allows the government to designate individuals and organizations as terrorists and declare groups as unlawful associations.

Provides for severe punishments, including death penalty and life imprisonment for the most serious offenses.

Investigating agencies can detain individuals for up to 180 days (extendable) before filing a charge sheet.

Grants the National Investigation Agency (NIA) more powers, including authority to seize property and freeze financial assets.

Strict bail provisions require the accused to prove innocence before seeking bail, making it difficult to get released during trials.

2019 Amendment expanded the scope of the Act, allowing the government to label individuals as terrorists, not just organizations.

• Criticized for potential misuse, especially against activists and political dissenters, raising concerns about violation of fundamental rights.

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/uapa-supreme-court-nepali-citizen-bail-9463056/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Credit-Deposit (CD) ratio indicates the proportion of a bank’s total deposits that are given out as loans. Statement-II: A consistently high CD ratio may indicate increased credit risk and potential liquidity constraints for banks. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: A Credit-Deposit (CD) Ratio: The CD ratio measures the proportion of a bank’s total deposits that are used for lending, indicating the liquidity and credit risk in the banking system. A higher CD ratio means a larger share of deposits is given out as loans, which can increase financial risk if not managed properly. RBI’s Financial Stability Report (Dec 2023) shows that the CD ratio in India reached 78.8%, with many private sector banks exceeding 75%. Factors driving high CD ratios include strong credit growth in retail and MSME sectors, slower deposit growth, and a shift in savings behavior toward investment instruments like mutual funds. A high CD ratio can lead to liquidity constraints, making it difficult for banks to meet withdrawal demands and increase credit risk due to greater exposure to loan defaults. Net Interest Margins (NIMs) are impacted, as banks may face pressure to manage interest rates on deposits and loans effectively. RBI has directed banks to monitor and manage their CD ratios to maintain financial stability and prevent excessive credit expansion. Balanced CD ratios are essential to ensure that banks can support economic growth while maintaining sufficient liquidity to meet obligations. https://www.financialexpress.com/business/banking-finance-rbi-concerned-over-high-cd-ratios-of-banks-3365508/ Incorrect Solution: A Credit-Deposit (CD) Ratio: The CD ratio measures the proportion of a bank’s total deposits that are used for lending, indicating the liquidity and credit risk in the banking system. A higher CD ratio means a larger share of deposits is given out as loans, which can increase financial risk if not managed properly. RBI’s Financial Stability Report (Dec 2023) shows that the CD ratio in India reached 78.8%, with many private sector banks exceeding 75%. Factors driving high CD ratios include strong credit growth in retail and MSME sectors, slower deposit growth, and a shift in savings behavior toward investment instruments like mutual funds. A high CD ratio can lead to liquidity constraints, making it difficult for banks to meet withdrawal demands and increase credit risk due to greater exposure to loan defaults. Net Interest Margins (NIMs) are impacted, as banks may face pressure to manage interest rates on deposits and loans effectively. RBI has directed banks to monitor and manage their CD ratios to maintain financial stability and prevent excessive credit expansion. Balanced CD ratios are essential to ensure that banks can support economic growth while maintaining sufficient liquidity to meet obligations. https://www.financialexpress.com/business/banking-finance-rbi-concerned-over-high-cd-ratios-of-banks-3365508/

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements

Statement-I:

The Credit-Deposit (CD) ratio indicates the proportion of a bank’s total deposits that are given out as loans.

Statement-II:

A consistently high CD ratio may indicate increased credit risk and potential liquidity constraints for banks.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: A

Credit-Deposit (CD) Ratio:

• The CD ratio measures the proportion of a bank’s total deposits that are used for lending, indicating the liquidity and credit risk in the banking system.

• A higher CD ratio means a larger share of deposits is given out as loans, which can increase financial risk if not managed properly.

• RBI’s Financial Stability Report (Dec 2023) shows that the CD ratio in India reached 78.8%, with many private sector banks exceeding 75%.

Factors driving high CD ratios include strong credit growth in retail and MSME sectors, slower deposit growth, and a shift in savings behavior toward investment instruments like mutual funds.

• A high CD ratio can lead to liquidity constraints, making it difficult for banks to meet withdrawal demands and increase credit risk due to greater exposure to loan defaults.

Net Interest Margins (NIMs) are impacted, as banks may face pressure to manage interest rates on deposits and loans effectively.

• RBI has directed banks to monitor and manage their CD ratios to maintain financial stability and prevent excessive credit expansion.

Balanced CD ratios are essential to ensure that banks can support economic growth while maintaining sufficient liquidity to meet obligations.

https://www.financialexpress.com/business/banking-finance-rbi-concerned-over-high-cd-ratios-of-banks-3365508/

Solution: A

Credit-Deposit (CD) Ratio:

• The CD ratio measures the proportion of a bank’s total deposits that are used for lending, indicating the liquidity and credit risk in the banking system.

• A higher CD ratio means a larger share of deposits is given out as loans, which can increase financial risk if not managed properly.

• RBI’s Financial Stability Report (Dec 2023) shows that the CD ratio in India reached 78.8%, with many private sector banks exceeding 75%.

Factors driving high CD ratios include strong credit growth in retail and MSME sectors, slower deposit growth, and a shift in savings behavior toward investment instruments like mutual funds.

• A high CD ratio can lead to liquidity constraints, making it difficult for banks to meet withdrawal demands and increase credit risk due to greater exposure to loan defaults.

Net Interest Margins (NIMs) are impacted, as banks may face pressure to manage interest rates on deposits and loans effectively.

• RBI has directed banks to monitor and manage their CD ratios to maintain financial stability and prevent excessive credit expansion.

Balanced CD ratios are essential to ensure that banks can support economic growth while maintaining sufficient liquidity to meet obligations.

https://www.financialexpress.com/business/banking-finance-rbi-concerned-over-high-cd-ratios-of-banks-3365508/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs Strait Water Bodies Connected 1. Kerch Strait : Black Sea and Sea of Azov 2. Malacca Strait : Andaman Sea and South China Sea 3. Bab el-Mandeb : Red Sea and Gulf of Aden 4. Palk Strait : Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Important Straits: Straits are narrow water passages that connect two larger water bodies and separate two landmasses. They are crucial for maritime trade, naval strategy, and geopolitical importance. Key Straits and Their Connections: Kerch Strait – Connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov (Strategic for Russia-Ukraine conflict). Malacca Strait – Connects the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea (Vital for global trade, busiest shipping route). Bab el-Mandeb – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (Controls access to the Suez Canal). Palk Strait – Connects the Bay of Bengal and the Gulf of Mannar (Separates India and Sri Lanka). Incorrect Solution: C Important Straits: Straits are narrow water passages that connect two larger water bodies and separate two landmasses. They are crucial for maritime trade, naval strategy, and geopolitical importance. Key Straits and Their Connections: Kerch Strait – Connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov (Strategic for Russia-Ukraine conflict). Malacca Strait – Connects the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea (Vital for global trade, busiest shipping route). Bab el-Mandeb – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (Controls access to the Suez Canal). Palk Strait – Connects the Bay of Bengal and the Gulf of Mannar (Separates India and Sri Lanka).

#### 25. Question

Consider the following pairs

Strait | Water Bodies Connected

  1. 1.Kerch Strait | : Black Sea and Sea of Azov
  2. 2.Malacca Strait | : Andaman Sea and South China Sea
  3. 3.Bab el-Mandeb | : Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
  4. 4.Palk Strait | : Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Important Straits:

Straits are narrow water passages that connect two larger water bodies and separate two landmasses.

• They are crucial for maritime trade, naval strategy, and geopolitical importance.

Key Straits and Their Connections: Kerch Strait – Connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov (Strategic for Russia-Ukraine conflict). Malacca Strait – Connects the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea (Vital for global trade, busiest shipping route). Bab el-Mandeb – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (Controls access to the Suez Canal). Palk Strait – Connects the Bay of Bengal and the Gulf of Mannar (Separates India and Sri Lanka).

Kerch Strait – Connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov (Strategic for Russia-Ukraine conflict).

Malacca Strait – Connects the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea (Vital for global trade, busiest shipping route).

Bab el-Mandeb – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (Controls access to the Suez Canal).

Palk Strait – Connects the Bay of Bengal and the Gulf of Mannar (Separates India and Sri Lanka).

Solution: C

Important Straits:

Straits are narrow water passages that connect two larger water bodies and separate two landmasses.

• They are crucial for maritime trade, naval strategy, and geopolitical importance.

Key Straits and Their Connections: Kerch Strait – Connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov (Strategic for Russia-Ukraine conflict). Malacca Strait – Connects the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea (Vital for global trade, busiest shipping route). Bab el-Mandeb – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (Controls access to the Suez Canal). Palk Strait – Connects the Bay of Bengal and the Gulf of Mannar (Separates India and Sri Lanka).

Kerch Strait – Connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov (Strategic for Russia-Ukraine conflict).

Malacca Strait – Connects the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea (Vital for global trade, busiest shipping route).

Bab el-Mandeb – Connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden (Controls access to the Suez Canal).

Palk Strait – Connects the Bay of Bengal and the Gulf of Mannar (Separates India and Sri Lanka).

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points In the age of social media and hyperconnectivity, we are constantly exposed to the lives of others—often, not their authentic lives, but their most polished, curated versions. Every scroll through a feed reveals carefully selected moments of happiness, success, beauty, and achievement. These are the “highlight reels” of people’s lives, where imperfections are hidden and only the best moments are broadcast. The effect of this endless comparison can be psychologically damaging, leading many to question their own self-worth and feel increasingly insecure about their lives. The issue arises when we start measuring our own insecurities, failures, and mundane realities against these highlight reels. While we are acutely aware of our own struggles—our fears, doubts, and mistakes—we are only shown the successes and triumphs of others. This creates a distorted perception of reality, where it feels like everyone else is thriving while we are falling behind. The more we compare, the more isolated and inadequate we feel, even though the reality is that everyone experiences insecurity and hardship, just not in ways that are always visible. Philosophically, this dilemma touches on the concept of appearance versus reality—a theme that has been explored by thinkers for centuries. In this case, the polished lives we see online are mere appearances, not the full truth. The human condition is one of complexity; joy and suffering, success and failure, coexist in every life. Yet, the digital world fosters a superficial understanding of each other’s existence, reducing the full range of human experience into bite-sized, aesthetically pleasing snapshots. This has profound implications for our sense of self. By constantly comparing our raw, unfiltered lives with the idealized versions of others’ lives, we fail to appreciate the richness of our own existence. The philosopher Søren Kierkegaard once wrote about the concept of “despair” stemming from the disjunction between who we are and who we feel we ought to be. In many ways, social media amplifies this sense of despair. It enforces societal expectations of success, happiness, and perfection, which most of us can never fully achieve. Instead of focusing on our own personal growth and individual journey, we chase after external validation, hoping to meet these unreachable standards. Ironically, while social media was designed to connect us, it often leaves us feeling more disconnected from both ourselves and others. In seeking to escape this trap of comparison, it is essential to recognize that self-worth cannot be found in the superficial validations of others. True self-acceptance requires an understanding that no one’s life is perfect, no matter how flawless it may appear. Everyone faces challenges, insecurities, and moments of self-doubt. By focusing inward and embracing our imperfections as part of the human experience, we can begin to disengage from the unhealthy comparisons that social media encourages. This journey towards self-acceptance involves accepting that we, like everyone else, are works in progress, and that true fulfillment comes not from external validation but from within. What philosophical theme is discussed in the passage in relation to social media? a. The importance of external validation b. Appearance versus reality c. The inevitability of despair d. The connection between success and happiness Correct Correct Option : B Justification : The passage highlights the philosophical theme of “appearance versus reality,” noting that the polished images and moments we see online are not the full truth but merely appearances. The reality of human life is far more complex than what is shown on social media. Hence, option B is correct. Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : The passage highlights the philosophical theme of “appearance versus reality,” noting that the polished images and moments we see online are not the full truth but merely appearances. The reality of human life is far more complex than what is shown on social media. Hence, option B is correct.

#### 26. Question

In the age of social media and hyperconnectivity, we are constantly exposed to the lives of others—often, not their authentic lives, but their most polished, curated versions. Every scroll through a feed reveals carefully selected moments of happiness, success, beauty, and achievement. These are the “highlight reels” of people’s lives, where imperfections are hidden and only the best moments are broadcast. The effect of this endless comparison can be psychologically damaging, leading many to question their own self-worth and feel increasingly insecure about their lives.

The issue arises when we start measuring our own insecurities, failures, and mundane realities against these highlight reels. While we are acutely aware of our own struggles—our fears, doubts, and mistakes—we are only shown the successes and triumphs of others. This creates a distorted perception of reality, where it feels like everyone else is thriving while we are falling behind. The more we compare, the more isolated and inadequate we feel, even though the reality is that everyone experiences insecurity and hardship, just not in ways that are always visible.

Philosophically, this dilemma touches on the concept of appearance versus reality—a theme that has been explored by thinkers for centuries. In this case, the polished lives we see online are mere appearances, not the full truth. The human condition is one of complexity; joy and suffering, success and failure, coexist in every life. Yet, the digital world fosters a superficial understanding of each other’s existence, reducing the full range of human experience into bite-sized, aesthetically pleasing snapshots. This has profound implications for our sense of self. By constantly comparing our raw, unfiltered lives with the idealized versions of others’ lives, we fail to appreciate the richness of our own existence.

The philosopher Søren Kierkegaard once wrote about the concept of “despair” stemming from the disjunction between who we are and who we feel we ought to be. In many ways, social media amplifies this sense of despair. It enforces societal expectations of success, happiness, and perfection, which most of us can never fully achieve. Instead of focusing on our own personal growth and individual journey, we chase after external validation, hoping to meet these unreachable standards. Ironically, while social media was designed to connect us, it often leaves us feeling more disconnected from both ourselves and others.

In seeking to escape this trap of comparison, it is essential to recognize that self-worth cannot be found in the superficial validations of others. True self-acceptance requires an understanding that no one’s life is perfect, no matter how flawless it may appear. Everyone faces challenges, insecurities, and moments of self-doubt. By focusing inward and embracing our imperfections as part of the human experience, we can begin to disengage from the unhealthy comparisons that social media encourages. This journey towards self-acceptance involves accepting that we, like everyone else, are works in progress, and that true fulfillment comes not from external validation but from within.

What philosophical theme is discussed in the passage in relation to social media?

• a. The importance of external validation

• b. Appearance versus reality

• c. The inevitability of despair

• d. The connection between success and happiness

Correct Option : B

Justification :

The passage highlights the philosophical theme of “appearance versus reality,” noting that the polished images and moments we see online are not the full truth but merely appearances. The reality of human life is far more complex than what is shown on social media. Hence, option B is correct.

Correct Option : B

Justification :

The passage highlights the philosophical theme of “appearance versus reality,” noting that the polished images and moments we see online are not the full truth but merely appearances. The reality of human life is far more complex than what is shown on social media. Hence, option B is correct.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Sonam leaves Chennai at 4 pm by a train and reaches Hyderabad at 10 pm. Pavan leaves Hyderabad at 6 pm by a train and reaches Chennai at 11 pm on the same day. What is the time when they crossed each other? a. 7:49 pm b. 7:20 pm c. 6:50 pm d. 8:20 pm Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Let distance between Chennai and Hyderabad be A km. Time taken by Sonam to reach Hyderabad = 10 – 4 = 6 hours Time taken by Pavan to reach Chennai = 11 – 6 = 5 hours Speed of train which leaves Chennai = A/6 km/hr And Speed of train which leaves Hyderabad = A/5 km/hr Relative speed = A/6 + A/5 = 11A/30 km/hr Distance covered by train which leaves Chennai in 2 hours = 2 × A/6 = A/3 km Distance left to be covered = A – A/3 = 2A/3 km Time taken by both the trains to cross each other = Distance left to be covered/ Relative speed = (2A/3)/(11A/30) = 20/11 hours = 1 hour 49 minutes Required time = 6 pm + 1 hour 49 minutes = 7: 49 pm Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Let distance between Chennai and Hyderabad be A km. Time taken by Sonam to reach Hyderabad = 10 – 4 = 6 hours Time taken by Pavan to reach Chennai = 11 – 6 = 5 hours Speed of train which leaves Chennai = A/6 km/hr And Speed of train which leaves Hyderabad = A/5 km/hr Relative speed = A/6 + A/5 = 11A/30 km/hr Distance covered by train which leaves Chennai in 2 hours = 2 × A/6 = A/3 km Distance left to be covered = A – A/3 = 2A/3 km Time taken by both the trains to cross each other = Distance left to be covered/ Relative speed = (2A/3)/(11A/30) = 20/11 hours = 1 hour 49 minutes Required time = 6 pm + 1 hour 49 minutes = 7: 49 pm Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

#### 27. Question

Sonam leaves Chennai at 4 pm by a train and reaches Hyderabad at 10 pm. Pavan leaves Hyderabad at 6 pm by a train and reaches Chennai at 11 pm on the same day. What is the time when they crossed each other?

• a. 7:49 pm

• b. 7:20 pm

• c. 6:50 pm

• d. 8:20 pm

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Let distance between Chennai and Hyderabad be A km.

Time taken by Sonam to reach Hyderabad = 10 – 4 = 6 hours

Time taken by Pavan to reach Chennai = 11 – 6 = 5 hours

Speed of train which leaves Chennai = A/6 km/hr

And Speed of train which leaves Hyderabad = A/5 km/hr

Relative speed = A/6 + A/5 = 11A/30 km/hr

Distance covered by train which leaves Chennai in 2 hours = 2 × A/6 = A/3 km

Distance left to be covered = A – A/3 = 2A/3 km

Time taken by both the trains to cross each other = Distance left to be covered/ Relative speed =

(2A/3)/(11A/30) = 20/11 hours = 1 hour 49 minutes

Required time = 6 pm + 1 hour 49 minutes = 7: 49 pm

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Let distance between Chennai and Hyderabad be A km.

Time taken by Sonam to reach Hyderabad = 10 – 4 = 6 hours

Time taken by Pavan to reach Chennai = 11 – 6 = 5 hours

Speed of train which leaves Chennai = A/6 km/hr

And Speed of train which leaves Hyderabad = A/5 km/hr

Relative speed = A/6 + A/5 = 11A/30 km/hr

Distance covered by train which leaves Chennai in 2 hours = 2 × A/6 = A/3 km

Distance left to be covered = A – A/3 = 2A/3 km

Time taken by both the trains to cross each other = Distance left to be covered/ Relative speed =

(2A/3)/(11A/30) = 20/11 hours = 1 hour 49 minutes

Required time = 6 pm + 1 hour 49 minutes = 7: 49 pm

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Speed of boat is 12 km/hr. Speed of the stream is 25% less than speed of boat. Then find time taken by boat to go 80km downstream? a. 2.5 b. 4.80 c. 3.80 d. 4.5 Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Speed of boat is 12km/hr Speed of stream is=1275/100=9km/hr Time taken to go 80km=80/21=3.80 hr Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Speed of boat is 12km/hr Speed of stream is=1275/100=9km/hr Time taken to go 80km=80/21=3.80 hr

#### 28. Question

Speed of boat is 12 km/hr. Speed of the stream is 25% less than speed of boat. Then find time taken by boat to go 80km downstream?

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Speed of boat is 12km/hr

Speed of stream is=12*75/100=9km/hr

Time taken to go 80km=80/21=3.80 hr

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Speed of boat is 12km/hr

Speed of stream is=12*75/100=9km/hr

Time taken to go 80km=80/21=3.80 hr

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Akash, Bharath and Chandran are working on a project. Bharath and Chandran together are twice efficient as Akash working alone. Akash and Chandran together are 4 times efficient as Bharath working alone. In how many days Chandran can complete the project alone if Bharath completes it in 21 days? a. 40 b. 49 c. 63 d. 28 Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Efficiency of Akash = A Efficiency of Bharath = B Efficiency of Chandran = C Given, B + C = 2A … (1) A + C = 4B … (2) Solving (1) & (2), by eliminating A 3C = 7B Thus, B : C = 3 : 7 B/C = 3/7 = 21/x , x = 49 Hence, option (b) is the right answer. Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Efficiency of Akash = A Efficiency of Bharath = B Efficiency of Chandran = C Given, B + C = 2A … (1) A + C = 4B … (2) Solving (1) & (2), by eliminating A 3C = 7B Thus, B : C = 3 : 7 B/C = 3/7 = 21/x , x = 49 Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

#### 29. Question

Akash, Bharath and Chandran are working on a project. Bharath and Chandran together are twice efficient as Akash working alone. Akash and Chandran together are 4 times efficient as Bharath working alone. In how many days Chandran can complete the project alone if Bharath completes it in 21 days?

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Efficiency of Akash = A

Efficiency of Bharath = B

Efficiency of Chandran = C

B + C = 2A … (1)

A + C = 4B … (2)

Solving (1) & (2), by eliminating A

Thus, B : C = 3 : 7

B/C = 3/7 = 21/x , x = 49 Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Efficiency of Akash = A

Efficiency of Bharath = B

Efficiency of Chandran = C

B + C = 2A … (1)

A + C = 4B … (2)

Solving (1) & (2), by eliminating A

Thus, B : C = 3 : 7

B/C = 3/7 = 21/x , x = 49 Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points 9 boys and 12 girls perform a task in 15 days. The same task is performed by 39 boys and 72 girls in 3 days. Then what will be the time taken by 20 boys and 5 girls in performing the same task? a. 12 days b. 8 days c. 9 days d. 10 days Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and 1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day). Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І (9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work) 39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ (39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work). Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get, x = 1/225. Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield y = 1/450. So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work = 20/225 + 5/450 = 1/10. Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day. So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day, i.e. 10 days. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and 1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day). Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І (9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work) 39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ (39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work). Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get, x = 1/225. Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield y = 1/450. So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work = 20/225 + 5/450 = 1/10. Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day. So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day, i.e. 10 days.

#### 30. Question

9 boys and 12 girls perform a task in 15 days. The same task is performed by 39 boys and 72 girls in 3 days. Then what will be the time taken by 20 boys and 5 girls in performing the same task?

• a. 12 days

• d. 10 days

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and

1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day).

Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І

(9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work)

39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ

(39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work).

Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get,

x = 1/225.

Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield

y = 1/450.

So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work

= 20/225 + 5/450

Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day.

So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day, i.e. 10 days.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and

1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day).

Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І

(9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work)

39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ

(39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work).

Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get,

x = 1/225.

Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield

y = 1/450.

So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work

= 20/225 + 5/450

Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day.

So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day, i.e. 10 days.

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Articles in our archive published before our editorial team was expanded. Legacy content is periodically reviewed and updated by our current editors.

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