DAY – 7 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GEOGRAPHY, Subject-wise Test 6, Textbook-wise Test 6 and June & July 2023 CA ( Revision )

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) and Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITS), consider the following statements: InvITs are a hybrid between debt and equity as they have stable cash flows and offer the scope of change in unit price. Unike InvITs, REITs are required to have 80 percent of their underlying assets as income-generating. InvITs can be traded publicly or can be privately listed whereas REITs must be traded only publicly. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: InvITs are a hybrid between debt and equity; they have stable and predictable cash flows like debt and they offer the scope of change in unit price which is a feature like equity. REITs (Real estate Investment trust) can be called as a sister instrument of InvIT. Both are quite similar in principle, though REITs work on commercial real estate properties such as offices, malls, industrial parks, warehouses, hospitality, and healthcare centres. Statement 2 is not correct: Like InvITs, REITs are also required that 80 percent of underlying assets are income generating and have relatively stable cash flows. Statement 3 is correct: InvITs can be traded publicly or can be privately listed whereas REITs must be traded publicly. Under SEBI regulations InvITs are required to compulsorily distribute 90% of the income they earn every year to their unit holders. InvITs globally tend to own many types of assets — warehouses, oil pipelines, power plants and roads. But in India, the listed InvITs mainly own toll roads or power transmission lines. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Financial instruments and investment Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: InvITs are a hybrid between debt and equity; they have stable and predictable cash flows like debt and they offer the scope of change in unit price which is a feature like equity. REITs (Real estate Investment trust) can be called as a sister instrument of InvIT. Both are quite similar in principle, though REITs work on commercial real estate properties such as offices, malls, industrial parks, warehouses, hospitality, and healthcare centres. Statement 2 is not correct: Like InvITs, REITs are also required that 80 percent of underlying assets are income generating and have relatively stable cash flows. Statement 3 is correct: InvITs can be traded publicly or can be privately listed whereas REITs must be traded publicly. Under SEBI regulations InvITs are required to compulsorily distribute 90% of the income they earn every year to their unit holders. InvITs globally tend to own many types of assets — warehouses, oil pipelines, power plants and roads. But in India, the listed InvITs mainly own toll roads or power transmission lines. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Financial instruments and investment Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) and Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITS), consider the following statements:

• InvITs are a hybrid between debt and equity as they have stable cash flows and offer the scope of change in unit price.

• Unike InvITs, REITs are required to have 80 percent of their underlying assets as income-generating.

• InvITs can be traded publicly or can be privately listed whereas REITs must be traded only publicly.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: InvITs are a hybrid between debt and equity; they have stable and predictable cash flows like debt and they offer the scope of change in unit price which is a feature like equity.

REITs (Real estate Investment trust) can be called as a sister instrument of InvIT. Both are quite similar in principle, though REITs work on commercial real estate properties such as offices, malls, industrial parks, warehouses, hospitality, and healthcare centres.

Statement 2 is not correct: Like InvITs, REITs are also required that 80 percent of underlying assets are income generating and have relatively stable cash flows.

Statement 3 is correct: InvITs can be traded publicly or can be privately listed whereas REITs must be traded publicly.

Under SEBI regulations InvITs are required to compulsorily distribute 90% of the income they earn every year to their unit holders.

InvITs globally tend to own many types of assets — warehouses, oil pipelines, power plants and roads. But in India, the listed InvITs mainly own toll roads or power transmission lines.

Trend: Financial instruments and investment

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is not correct: Like InvITs, REITs are also required that 80 percent of underlying assets are income generating and have relatively stable cash flows.

Statement 3 is correct: InvITs can be traded publicly or can be privately listed whereas REITs must be traded publicly.

Under SEBI regulations InvITs are required to compulsorily distribute 90% of the income they earn every year to their unit holders.

InvITs globally tend to own many types of assets — warehouses, oil pipelines, power plants and roads. But in India, the listed InvITs mainly own toll roads or power transmission lines.

Trend: Financial instruments and investment

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Open Market Sale Scheme: It aims to provide food grains at reduced prices to curb inflation. States can only procure food grains through participating in e-auction. The prices under the scheme are determined by Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) refers to offering of food grains (wheat & rice) in the open market at prices through e-auction in order to control the price in the market by providing food grains at reduced prices with the aim to curb inflation. Statement 2 is not correct: States are also allowed to procure food grains through the OMSS without participating in the auctions, for their needs beyond what they get from the central pool to distribute to NFSA beneficiaries. Statement 3 is not correct: Under the Open Market Sale Scheme, the Food Cooperation of India sells surplus food grains from the central pool especially wheat and rice in the open market to traders, bulk consumers, retail chains and so on at pre-determined prices. The Corporation does this through e-auctions where open market bidders can buy specified quantities at the prices set at the start of a cycle and revised routinely. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1954128#:~:text=Open%20Market%20Sale%20Scheme%20 Source: Indian Economy Trend: MSP,PDS and Buffer stock norms Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) refers to offering of food grains (wheat & rice) in the open market at prices through e-auction in order to control the price in the market by providing food grains at reduced prices with the aim to curb inflation. Statement 2 is not correct: States are also allowed to procure food grains through the OMSS without participating in the auctions, for their needs beyond what they get from the central pool to distribute to NFSA beneficiaries. Statement 3 is not correct:* Under the Open Market Sale Scheme, the Food Cooperation of India sells surplus food grains from the central pool especially wheat and rice in the open market to traders, bulk consumers, retail chains and so on at pre-determined prices. The Corporation does this through e-auctions where open market bidders can buy specified quantities at the prices set at the start of a cycle and revised routinely. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1954128#:~:text=Open%20Market%20Sale%20Scheme%20 Source: Indian Economy Trend: MSP,PDS and Buffer stock norms Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Open Market Sale Scheme:

• It aims to provide food grains at reduced prices to curb inflation.

• States can only procure food grains through participating in e-auction.

• The prices under the scheme are determined by Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) refers to offering of food grains (wheat & rice) in the open market at prices through e-auction in order to control the price in the market by providing food grains at reduced prices with the aim to curb inflation.

Statement 2 is not correct: States are also allowed to procure food grains through the OMSS without participating in the auctions, for their needs beyond what they get from the central pool to distribute to NFSA beneficiaries.

Statement 3 is not correct: Under the Open Market Sale Scheme, the Food Cooperation of India sells surplus food grains from the central pool especially wheat and rice in the open market to traders, bulk consumers, retail chains and so on at pre-determined prices.

The Corporation does this through e-auctions where open market bidders can buy specified quantities at the prices set at the start of a cycle and revised routinely.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1954128#:~:text=Open%20Market%20Sale%20Scheme%20

Trend: MSP,PDS and Buffer stock norms

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Corporation does this through e-auctions where open market bidders can buy specified quantities at the prices set at the start of a cycle and revised routinely.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1954128#:~:text=Open%20Market%20Sale%20Scheme%20

Trend: MSP,PDS and Buffer stock norms

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Indian skimmer, consider the following statements: It is found in the coastal estuaries of eastern India only. It emits a nasal kap or kip notes particularly during flight. It breeds on large exposed sand-bars and islands. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Indian skimmer is found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India. It occurs primarily on larger, sandy, lowland rivers, around lakes and adjacent marshes and, in the non-breeding season, in estuaries and coasts. In flight, it has a white trailing-edge to wing and a short forked tail with blackish central feathers. Non breeders are duller and have browner upper parts. Statement 2 is correct: It feeds on surface-dwelling fish, crustaceans and insect larvae. It emits a nasal kap or kip notes, particularly in flight and when disturbed. Juveniles have a dusky orange bill with a blackish tip, paler brownish-grey crown and nape with dark mottling and paler, more brownish-grey mantle and whitish to pale buff fringing scapulars and wing coverts. Statement 3 is correct: It breeds colonially on large, exposed sand-bars and islands. Colonies of mating pairs can be observed nesting on sandy islands or open sand banks, often accompanied by other birds like Terns during the breeding season, between February and May. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Species and their habitat (similar to Great Indian Bustard Question of UPSC Prelims 2020) Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Indian skimmer is found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India. It occurs primarily on larger, sandy, lowland rivers, around lakes and adjacent marshes and, in the non-breeding season, in estuaries and coasts. In flight, it has a white trailing-edge to wing and a short forked tail with blackish central feathers. Non breeders are duller and have browner upper parts. Statement 2 is correct: It feeds on surface-dwelling fish, crustaceans and insect larvae. It emits a nasal kap or kip notes, particularly in flight and when disturbed. Juveniles have a dusky orange bill with a blackish tip, paler brownish-grey crown and nape with dark mottling and paler, more brownish-grey mantle and whitish to pale buff fringing scapulars and wing coverts. Statement 3 is correct: It breeds colonially on large, exposed sand-bars and islands. Colonies of mating pairs can be observed nesting on sandy islands or open sand banks, often accompanied by other birds like Terns during the breeding season, between February and May. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Species and their habitat (similar to Great Indian Bustard Question of UPSC Prelims 2020) Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Indian skimmer, consider the following statements:

• It is found in the coastal estuaries of eastern India only.

• It emits a nasal kap or kip notes particularly during flight.

• It breeds on large exposed sand-bars and islands.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Indian skimmer is found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India. It occurs primarily on larger, sandy, lowland rivers, around lakes and adjacent marshes and, in the non-breeding season, in estuaries and coasts.

In flight, it has a white trailing-edge to wing and a short forked tail with blackish central feathers. Non breeders are duller and have browner upper parts.

Statement 2 is correct: It feeds on surface-dwelling fish, crustaceans and insect larvae. It emits a nasal kap or kip notes, particularly in flight and when disturbed.

Juveniles have a dusky orange bill with a blackish tip, paler brownish-grey crown and nape with dark mottling and paler, more brownish-grey mantle and whitish to pale buff fringing scapulars and wing coverts.

Statement 3 is correct: It breeds colonially on large, exposed sand-bars and islands. Colonies of mating pairs can be observed nesting on sandy islands or open sand banks, often accompanied by other birds like Terns during the breeding season, between February and May.

Trend: Species and their habitat (similar to Great Indian Bustard Question of UPSC Prelims 2020)

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

In flight, it has a white trailing-edge to wing and a short forked tail with blackish central feathers. Non breeders are duller and have browner upper parts.

Statement 2 is correct: It feeds on surface-dwelling fish, crustaceans and insect larvae. It emits a nasal kap or kip notes, particularly in flight and when disturbed.

Trend: Species and their habitat (similar to Great Indian Bustard Question of UPSC Prelims 2020)

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which one of the following Initiatives in India aims to make India a Global Hub for production and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives? (a) The UDAY Scheme (b) The Saubhagya Yojana (c) The Fame India Scheme (d) The SIGHT Programme Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Union Cabinet has recently approved National Green Hydrogen Mission. The initial outlay for the Mission, includes an outlay for the SIGHT programme. The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. Under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), two distinct financial incentive mechanisms – targeting domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and production of Green Hydrogen – will be provided under the Mission. The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways. Regions capable of supporting large scale production and/or utilization of Hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Initiatives/schemes for Energy transition/renewable energy Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Union Cabinet has recently approved National Green Hydrogen Mission. The initial outlay for the Mission, includes an outlay for the SIGHT programme. The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. Under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), two distinct financial incentive mechanisms – targeting domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and production of Green Hydrogen – will be provided under the Mission. The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways. Regions capable of supporting large scale production and/or utilization of Hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Initiatives/schemes for Energy transition/renewable energy Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 4. Question

Which one of the following Initiatives in India aims to make India a Global Hub for production and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives?

• (a) The UDAY Scheme

• (b) The Saubhagya Yojana

• (c) The Fame India Scheme

• (d) The SIGHT Programme

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The Union Cabinet has recently approved National Green Hydrogen Mission. The initial outlay for the Mission, includes an outlay for the SIGHT programme.

• The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen.

• Under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), two distinct financial incentive mechanisms – targeting domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and production of Green Hydrogen – will be provided under the Mission.

• The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways.

• Regions capable of supporting large scale production and/or utilization of Hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs.

Trend: Initiatives/schemes for Energy transition/renewable energy

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The Union Cabinet has recently approved National Green Hydrogen Mission. The initial outlay for the Mission, includes an outlay for the SIGHT programme.

• The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen.

• The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways.

• Regions capable of supporting large scale production and/or utilization of Hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs.

Trend: Initiatives/schemes for Energy transition/renewable energy

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The PM-PRANAM Scheme- It aims to reduce the use of chemical fertilizers and promote usage of alternate nutrients for agriculture management. It will be financed by the “savings of existing fertiliser subsidy” under the Department of fertilisers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: In order to reduce the use of chemical fertilisers by incentivising states, the Union government plans to introduce a new scheme – PM PRANAM, which stands for PM Promotion of Alternate Nutrients for Agriculture Management Yojana. The proposed scheme intends to reduce the subsidy burden on chemical fertilisers, which is expected to increase to Rs 2.25 lakh crore in 2022-2023, which is 39% higher than the previous year’s figure of Rs 1.62 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme will not have a separate budget and will be financed by the “savings of existing fertiliser subsidy” under schemes run by the Department of fertilisers. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Patterns of fertilizer consumption and alternatives for sustainable agriculture Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: In order to reduce the use of chemical fertilisers by incentivising states, the Union government plans to introduce a new scheme – PM PRANAM, which stands for PM Promotion of Alternate Nutrients for Agriculture Management Yojana. The proposed scheme intends to reduce the subsidy burden on chemical fertilisers, which is expected to increase to Rs 2.25 lakh crore in 2022-2023, which is 39% higher than the previous year’s figure of Rs 1.62 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme will not have a separate budget and will be financed by the “savings of existing fertiliser subsidy” under schemes run by the Department of fertilisers. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Patterns of fertilizer consumption and alternatives for sustainable agriculture Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

The PM-PRANAM Scheme-

• It aims to reduce the use of chemical fertilizers and promote usage of alternate nutrients for agriculture management.

• It will be financed by the “savings of existing fertiliser subsidy” under the Department of fertilisers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In order to reduce the use of chemical fertilisers by incentivising states, the Union government plans to introduce a new scheme – PM PRANAM, which stands for PM Promotion of Alternate Nutrients for Agriculture Management Yojana.

The proposed scheme intends to reduce the subsidy burden on chemical fertilisers, which is expected to increase to Rs 2.25 lakh crore in 2022-2023, which is 39% higher than the previous year’s figure of Rs 1.62 lakh crore.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme will not have a separate budget and will be financed by the “savings of existing fertiliser subsidy” under schemes run by the Department of fertilisers.

Trend: Patterns of fertilizer consumption and alternatives for sustainable agriculture

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme will not have a separate budget and will be financed by the “savings of existing fertiliser subsidy” under schemes run by the Department of fertilisers.

Trend: Patterns of fertilizer consumption and alternatives for sustainable agriculture

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Earth’s albedo: Statement-I: Snow and ice have a higher albedo than forested areas. Statement-II: Urban areas have a higher albedo than oceans. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. (b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. (c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect. d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. Justification: Snow and ice reflect a larger proportion of sunlight, hence they have a higher albedo. Urban areas, in contrast, typically have a lower albedo than oceans because they absorb more sunlight due to the materials used in urban construction such as asphalt. Source: Geography Trend: Basic Concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. Justification: Snow and ice reflect a larger proportion of sunlight, hence they have a higher albedo. Urban areas, in contrast, typically have a lower albedo than oceans because they absorb more sunlight due to the materials used in urban construction such as asphalt. Source: Geography Trend: Basic Concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Earth’s albedo:

Statement-I: Snow and ice have a higher albedo than forested areas. Statement-II: Urban areas have a higher albedo than oceans.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

• (b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

• d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: B

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Justification:

Snow and ice reflect a larger proportion of sunlight, hence they have a higher albedo.

Urban areas, in contrast, typically have a lower albedo than oceans because they absorb more sunlight due to the materials used in urban construction such as asphalt.

Trend: Basic Concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Justification:

Snow and ice reflect a larger proportion of sunlight, hence they have a higher albedo.

Urban areas, in contrast, typically have a lower albedo than oceans because they absorb more sunlight due to the materials used in urban construction such as asphalt.

Trend: Basic Concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Earth’s atmosphere: The stratosphere is where most of the Earth’s weather condition occur. The ozone layer within the stratosphere absorbs and scatters ultraviolet solar radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Justification: The Earth’s weather primarily occurs in the troposphere, not the stratosphere. The stratosphere is the second major layer of Earth’s atmosphere, just above the troposphere, and it is where the ozone layer is located, which absorbs a significant amount of ultraviolet radiation. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Earth’s Atmosphere Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Justification: The Earth’s weather primarily occurs in the troposphere, not the stratosphere. The stratosphere is the second major layer of Earth’s atmosphere, just above the troposphere, and it is where the ozone layer is located, which absorbs a significant amount of ultraviolet radiation. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on Earth’s Atmosphere Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the Earth’s atmosphere:

• The stratosphere is where most of the Earth’s weather condition occur.

• The ozone layer within the stratosphere absorbs and scatters ultraviolet solar radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Justification: The Earth’s weather primarily occurs in the troposphere, not the stratosphere.

The stratosphere is the second major layer of Earth’s atmosphere, just above the troposphere, and it is where the ozone layer is located, which absorbs a significant amount of ultraviolet radiation.

Trend: Basic concepts on Earth’s Atmosphere

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Justification: The Earth’s weather primarily occurs in the troposphere, not the stratosphere.

Trend: Basic concepts on Earth’s Atmosphere

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) phenomenon: El Niño events are characterized by the cooling of ocean surface waters in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. La Niña events typically result in above-average precipitation in the south-eastern United States and drier conditions in the western Pacific. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B El Nino events are characterized not by the cooling, but by the warming of ocean surface waters in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. During an El Niño, the trade winds weaken, which allows the warmer waters that are normally found in the western Pacific to spread eastwards towards the central and eastern Pacific. This warming of the ocean surface can lead to a major shift in weather patterns across the Pacific and around the globe. Typical effects include increased rainfall across the southern tier of the US and in Peru, which can lead to floods, and drought in the western Pacific, affecting countries such as Australia and Indonesia. La Niña events, on the other hand, are associated with the cooling of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean waters. This cooling is part of a larger pattern that generally causes the opposite effects of El Niño. It often results in above-average precipitation in the southeastern United States due to the changes in atmospheric circulation patterns. Simultaneously, it brings drier conditions to the western Pacific. La Niña influences the Atlantic hurricane season as well, typically allowing more hurricanes to form. Source: Geography Trend: Climatic events Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: B El Nino events are characterized not by the cooling, but by the warming of ocean surface waters in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. During an El Niño, the trade winds weaken, which allows the warmer waters that are normally found in the western Pacific to spread eastwards towards the central and eastern Pacific. This warming of the ocean surface can lead to a major shift in weather patterns across the Pacific and around the globe. Typical effects include increased rainfall across the southern tier of the US and in Peru, which can lead to floods, and drought in the western Pacific, affecting countries such as Australia and Indonesia. La Niña events, on the other hand, are associated with the cooling of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean waters. This cooling is part of a larger pattern that generally causes the opposite effects of El Niño. It often results in above-average precipitation in the southeastern United States due to the changes in atmospheric circulation patterns. Simultaneously, it brings drier conditions to the western Pacific. La Niña influences the Atlantic hurricane season as well, typically allowing more hurricanes to form. Source: Geography Trend: Climatic events Approach: applied knowledge

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) phenomenon:

• El Niño events are characterized by the cooling of ocean surface waters in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.

• La Niña events typically result in above-average precipitation in the south-eastern United States and drier conditions in the western Pacific.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

El Nino events are characterized not by the cooling, but by the warming of ocean surface waters in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. During an El Niño, the trade winds weaken, which allows the warmer waters that are normally found in the western Pacific to spread eastwards towards the central and eastern Pacific. This warming of the ocean surface can lead to a major shift in weather patterns across the Pacific and around the globe. Typical effects include increased rainfall across the southern tier of the US and in Peru, which can lead to floods, and drought in the western Pacific, affecting countries such as Australia and Indonesia.

La Niña events, on the other hand, are associated with the cooling of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean waters. This cooling is part of a larger pattern that generally causes the opposite effects of El Niño. It often results in above-average precipitation in the southeastern United States due to the changes in atmospheric circulation patterns. Simultaneously, it brings drier conditions to the western Pacific. La Niña influences the Atlantic hurricane season as well, typically allowing more hurricanes to form.

Trend: Climatic events

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: B

Trend: Climatic events

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding desert ecosystems: Statement-I: The soils in desert regions are typically low in organic matter. Statement-II: The low precipitation and high evaporation rates in deserts reduce the rate of organic matter decomposition. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Justification: Deserts typically have soils with low organic content due to sparse vegetation. The low rate of decomposition is also correct due to the dry conditions, but it’s not an explanation for the low organic content. Instead, the low organic content is mainly due to the lack of vegetation and not the decomposition rate. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Justification: Deserts typically have soils with low organic content due to sparse vegetation. The low rate of decomposition is also correct due to the dry conditions, but it’s not an explanation for the low organic content. Instead, the low organic content is mainly due to the lack of vegetation and not the decomposition rate. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: applied knowledge

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding desert ecosystems:

Statement-I: The soils in desert regions are typically low in organic matter. Statement-II: The low precipitation and high evaporation rates in deserts reduce the rate of organic matter decomposition.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: B

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Justification:

Deserts typically have soils with low organic content due to sparse vegetation.

The low rate of decomposition is also correct due to the dry conditions, but it’s not an explanation for the low organic content. Instead, the low organic content is mainly due to the lack of vegetation and not the decomposition rate.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: B

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Justification:

Deserts typically have soils with low organic content due to sparse vegetation.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the greenhouse effect: The greenhouse effect is primarily caused by gases such as carbon dioxide and methane trapping heat in the Earth’s atmosphere. Without the greenhouse effect, the Earth’s average temperature would be significantly colder than it is now, potentially making the planet uninhabitable for many current life forms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements given above are correct. The greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and fluorinated gases, absorb infrared radiation and re-emit it in all directions, which warms the Earth’s lower atmosphere and surface. The natural greenhouse effect raises the Earth’s surface temperature to an average of about 15°C , which is hospitable for life. Without this effect, the average surface temperature would be about -18°C , which is below the freezing point of water, making life as we know it difficult to sustain. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on warming of Earth’s atmosphere Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements given above are correct. The greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and fluorinated gases, absorb infrared radiation and re-emit it in all directions, which warms the Earth’s lower atmosphere and surface. The natural greenhouse effect raises the Earth’s surface temperature to an average of about 15°C , which is hospitable for life. Without this effect, the average surface temperature would be about -18°C , which is below the freezing point of water, making life as we know it difficult to sustain. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts on warming of Earth’s atmosphere Approach: applied knowledge

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the greenhouse effect:

• The greenhouse effect is primarily caused by gases such as carbon dioxide and methane trapping heat in the Earth’s atmosphere.

• Without the greenhouse effect, the Earth’s average temperature would be significantly colder than it is now, potentially making the planet uninhabitable for many current life forms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both the statements given above are correct.

The greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and fluorinated gases, absorb infrared radiation and re-emit it in all directions, which warms the Earth’s lower atmosphere and surface.

The natural greenhouse effect raises the Earth’s surface temperature to an average of about 15°C , which is hospitable for life. Without this effect, the average surface temperature would be about -18°C , which is below the freezing point of water, making life as we know it difficult to sustain.

Trend: Basic concepts on warming of Earth’s atmosphere

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: C

Both the statements given above are correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on warming of Earth’s atmosphere

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points In which layer of the atmosphere do most meteors burn up upon entry due to friction with the air? (a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Mesosphere (d) Thermosphere Correct Solution: C The mesosphere is the layer of the atmosphere where most meteorites burn up upon entry. This is due to the presence of relatively denser layers of gas in this region compared to higher levels, which results in friction and the subsequent burning of the meteors. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C The mesosphere is the layer of the atmosphere where most meteorites burn up upon entry. This is due to the presence of relatively denser layers of gas in this region compared to higher levels, which results in friction and the subsequent burning of the meteors. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 11. Question

In which layer of the atmosphere do most meteors burn up upon entry due to friction with the air?

• (a) Troposphere

• (b) Stratosphere

• (c) Mesosphere

• (d) Thermosphere

Solution: C

The mesosphere is the layer of the atmosphere where most meteorites burn up upon entry. This is due to the presence of relatively denser layers of gas in this region compared to higher levels, which results in friction and the subsequent burning of the meteors.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Coastal regions tend to have milder climates than inland areas at similar latitudes. Reason (R): The specific heat of water is high, which allows the oceans to absorb more heat in the summer and release it during winter. Select the correct answer from the codes given below. (a) (A) is true but (R) is false. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is false but (R) is true. (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Correct Solution: B Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Justification: Coastal climates are indeed milder than those of inland areas because large bodies of water like oceans have a moderating influence on temperature, due to water’s high specific heat. This means water heats up and cools down more slowly than land, leading to milder temperatures in adjacent coastal areas. Source: Geography Trend: heating of land and water Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: B Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Justification: Coastal climates are indeed milder than those of inland areas because large bodies of water like oceans have a moderating influence on temperature, due to water’s high specific heat. This means water heats up and cools down more slowly than land, leading to milder temperatures in adjacent coastal areas. Source: Geography Trend: heating of land and water Approach: applied knowledge

#### 12. Question

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Coastal regions tend to have milder climates than inland areas at similar latitudes.

Reason (R): The specific heat of water is high, which allows the oceans to absorb more heat in the summer and release it during winter.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

• (a) (A) is true but (R) is false.

• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

• (c) (A) is false but (R) is true.

• (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Solution: B

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Justification:

Coastal climates are indeed milder than those of inland areas because large bodies of water like oceans have a moderating influence on temperature, due to water’s high specific heat. This means water heats up and cools down more slowly than land, leading to milder temperatures in adjacent coastal areas.

Trend: heating of land and water

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: B

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Justification:

Trend: heating of land and water

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following characteristics of a cloud type: These clouds are thin and wispy, located at high altitudes. They are composed of ice crystals and often indicate that a change in the weather is coming. They have a fibrous appearance and can create a halo effect around the sun or moon. Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics. (a) Stratus (b) Cumulus (c) Cirrus (d) Altostratus Correct Solution: C Justification: Cirrus clouds are a type of cloud characterized by thin, wispy strands, often white in appearance. They are typically found at high altitudes, at levels above 20,000 feet (6,000 meters). Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals instead of water droplets. Their thin and wispy appearance is due to the fact that these ice crystals are spread out by high-altitude winds. This texture is distinct from the more cotton-like appearance of cumulus clouds or the uniform layering of stratus clouds Cirrus clouds form at high altitudes in the troposphere. At these elevations, temperatures are low enough for water vapor to sublimate directly into ice crystals, which is why Cirrus clouds are composed of ice rather than liquid water. The ice crystals in Cirrus clouds refract and scatter the sunlight, often creating optical phenomena such as halos around the sun or moon. This happens when light passes through the hexagonal ice crystals, bending in a way similar to a prism Cirrus clouds are often one of the first signs of an approaching frontal system or upper-air disturbance, which can indicate that weather conditions may change. Their presence suggests that the atmosphere is moistening and weather dynamics are beginning to shift, potentially leading to precipitation or storms as the system develops Source: Geography Trend: Type of clouds and their features Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C Justification: Cirrus clouds are a type of cloud characterized by thin, wispy strands, often white in appearance. They are typically found at high altitudes, at levels above 20,000 feet (6,000 meters). Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals instead of water droplets. Their thin and wispy appearance is due to the fact that these ice crystals are spread out by high-altitude winds. This texture is distinct from the more cotton-like appearance of cumulus clouds or the uniform layering of stratus clouds Cirrus clouds form at high altitudes in the troposphere. At these elevations, temperatures are low enough for water vapor to sublimate directly into ice crystals, which is why Cirrus clouds are composed of ice rather than liquid water. The ice crystals in Cirrus clouds refract and scatter the sunlight, often creating optical phenomena such as halos around the sun or moon. This happens when light passes through the hexagonal ice crystals, bending in a way similar to a prism Cirrus clouds are often one of the first signs of an approaching frontal system or upper-air disturbance, which can indicate that weather conditions may change. Their presence suggests that the atmosphere is moistening and weather dynamics are beginning to shift, potentially leading to precipitation or storms as the system develops Source: Geography Trend: Type of clouds and their features Approach: applied knowledge

#### 13. Question

Consider the following characteristics of a cloud type:

• These clouds are thin and wispy, located at high altitudes.

• They are composed of ice crystals and often indicate that a change in the weather is coming.

• They have a fibrous appearance and can create a halo effect around the sun or moon.

Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics.

• (a) Stratus

• (b) Cumulus

• (c) Cirrus

• (d) Altostratus

Solution: C

Justification:

Cirrus clouds are a type of cloud characterized by thin, wispy strands, often white in appearance. They are typically found at high altitudes, at levels above 20,000 feet (6,000 meters).

Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals instead of water droplets. Their thin and wispy appearance is due to the fact that these ice crystals are spread out by high-altitude winds. This texture is distinct from the more cotton-like appearance of cumulus clouds or the uniform layering of stratus clouds

Cirrus clouds form at high altitudes in the troposphere. At these elevations, temperatures are low enough for water vapor to sublimate directly into ice crystals, which is why Cirrus clouds are composed of ice rather than liquid water.

The ice crystals in Cirrus clouds refract and scatter the sunlight, often creating optical phenomena such as halos around the sun or moon. This happens when light passes through the hexagonal ice crystals, bending in a way similar to a prism

Cirrus clouds are often one of the first signs of an approaching frontal system or upper-air disturbance, which can indicate that weather conditions may change. Their presence suggests that the atmosphere is moistening and weather dynamics are beginning to shift, potentially leading to precipitation or storms as the system develops

Trend: Type of clouds and their features

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: C

Justification:

Cirrus clouds are a type of cloud characterized by thin, wispy strands, often white in appearance. They are typically found at high altitudes, at levels above 20,000 feet (6,000 meters).

Trend: Type of clouds and their features

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about heatwaves: A heatwave is a period of excessively hot weather, which may be accompanied by high humidity. Urban areas can experience significantly higher temperatures than surrounding rural areas due to the heat island effect. Heatwaves are associated with high-pressure systems where air descends and warms up by compression. Heatwaves are less impactful in areas with high baseline temperatures, such as deserts. How many of the above statements concerning heatwaves are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Justification: The heatwaves are characterized by periods of unusually hot weather that may be accompanied by high humidity, especially in climates not typically subjected to high temperatures. Hence, statement 1 is correct The urban heat island effect causes urban regions to become warmer than their rural surroundings due to human activities. Hence, statement 2 is also correct. The heatwaves often occur under high-pressure systems, which cause air to descend and warm. Hence, statement 3 is correct The heatwaves can have severe impacts even in hot climates due to the relative increase in temperatures above the norm for that region, leading to stress on both the environment and human health. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts – weather and climatic conditions Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C Justification: The heatwaves are characterized by periods of unusually hot weather that may be accompanied by high humidity, especially in climates not typically subjected to high temperatures. Hence, statement 1 is correct The urban heat island effect causes urban regions to become warmer than their rural surroundings due to human activities. Hence, statement 2 is also correct. The heatwaves often occur under high-pressure systems, which cause air to descend and warm. Hence, statement 3 is correct The heatwaves can have severe impacts even in hot climates due to the relative increase in temperatures above the norm for that region, leading to stress on both the environment and human health. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts – weather and climatic conditions Approach: applied knowledge

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements about heatwaves:

• A heatwave is a period of excessively hot weather, which may be accompanied by high humidity.

• Urban areas can experience significantly higher temperatures than surrounding rural areas due to the heat island effect.

• Heatwaves are associated with high-pressure systems where air descends and warms up by compression.

• Heatwaves are less impactful in areas with high baseline temperatures, such as deserts.

How many of the above statements concerning heatwaves are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Justification:

The heatwaves are characterized by periods of unusually hot weather that may be accompanied by high humidity, especially in climates not typically subjected to high temperatures.

Hence, statement 1 is correct

The urban heat island effect causes urban regions to become warmer than their rural surroundings due to human activities.

Hence, statement 2 is also correct.

The heatwaves often occur under high-pressure systems, which cause air to descend and warm.

Hence, statement 3 is correct

The heatwaves can have severe impacts even in hot climates due to the relative increase in temperatures above the norm for that region, leading to stress on both the environment and human health.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect

Trend: Basic concepts – weather and climatic conditions

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: C

Justification:

The heatwaves are characterized by periods of unusually hot weather that may be accompanied by high humidity, especially in climates not typically subjected to high temperatures.

Hence, statement 1 is correct

The urban heat island effect causes urban regions to become warmer than their rural surroundings due to human activities.

Hence, statement 2 is also correct.

The heatwaves often occur under high-pressure systems, which cause air to descend and warm.

Hence, statement 3 is correct

The heatwaves can have severe impacts even in hot climates due to the relative increase in temperatures above the norm for that region, leading to stress on both the environment and human health.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect

Trend: Basic concepts – weather and climatic conditions

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points What causes ocean currents to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere? (a) Difference in the salinity of ocean water (b) Gravitational pull of the Moon (c) Rotation of the Earth (d) Inclined axis of the Earth Correct Solution: C Justification: The deflection of ocean currents is due to the Coriolis effect, which is caused by the rotation of the Earth. In the Northern Hemisphere, this effect causes moving objects, including ocean currents, to be deflected to the right of their direction of motion. It’s not the salinity or the Moon’s gravitational pull that causes this deflection, nor is it directly due to the Earth’s axial tilt. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C Justification: The deflection of ocean currents is due to the Coriolis effect, which is caused by the rotation of the Earth. In the Northern Hemisphere, this effect causes moving objects, including ocean currents, to be deflected to the right of their direction of motion. It’s not the salinity or the Moon’s gravitational pull that causes this deflection, nor is it directly due to the Earth’s axial tilt. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: applied knowledge

#### 15. Question

What causes ocean currents to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere?

• (a) Difference in the salinity of ocean water

• (b) Gravitational pull of the Moon

• (c) Rotation of the Earth

• (d) Inclined axis of the Earth

Solution: C

Justification:

The deflection of ocean currents is due to the Coriolis effect, which is caused by the rotation of the Earth. In the Northern Hemisphere, this effect causes moving objects, including ocean currents, to be deflected to the right of their direction of motion. It’s not the salinity or the Moon’s gravitational pull that causes this deflection, nor is it directly due to the Earth’s axial tilt.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: C

Justification:

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points The Bergeron process of precipitation is most effective in which type of clouds? (a) Clouds which are mostly composed of water droplets. (b) Clouds at altitudes where temperatures are above freezing. (c) Clouds that are composed primarily of ice crystals and supercooled water droplets. (d) Low-level clouds that do not extend into the colder upper atmosphere. Correct Solution: C Justification: The Bergeron process is the primary mechanism for precipitation formation in mid- to high-level clouds and relies on the presence of both ice crystals and supercooled water droplets. In an environment where the cloud contains both ice crystals and supercooled water droplets, the water vapor will preferentially deposit onto ice crystals, causing them to grow at the expense of the water droplets due to differences in vapor pressure. The Bergeron process can be summarized as such: The air reaches saturation and some of the resulting droplets will come in contact with freezing nuclei (assuming they have reached the activation temperature). We will now have a combination of ice crystals and supercooled water droplets. Source: https://weather.cod.edu/sirvatka/bergeron.html#. Trend: Types of clouds and their properties Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C Justification: The Bergeron process is the primary mechanism for precipitation formation in mid- to high-level clouds and relies on the presence of both ice crystals and supercooled water droplets. In an environment where the cloud contains both ice crystals and supercooled water droplets, the water vapor will preferentially deposit onto ice crystals, causing them to grow at the expense of the water droplets due to differences in vapor pressure. The Bergeron process can be summarized as such: The air reaches saturation and some of the resulting droplets will come in contact with freezing nuclei (assuming they have reached the activation temperature). We will now have a combination of ice crystals and supercooled water droplets. Source: https://weather.cod.edu/sirvatka/bergeron.html#. Trend: Types of clouds and their properties Approach: applied knowledge

#### 16. Question

The Bergeron process of precipitation is most effective in which type of clouds?

• (a) Clouds which are mostly composed of water droplets.

• (b) Clouds at altitudes where temperatures are above freezing.

• (c) Clouds that are composed primarily of ice crystals and supercooled water droplets.

• (d) Low-level clouds that do not extend into the colder upper atmosphere.

Solution: C

Justification:

The Bergeron process is the primary mechanism for precipitation formation in mid- to high-level clouds and relies on the presence of both ice crystals and supercooled water droplets. In an environment where the cloud contains both ice crystals and supercooled water droplets, the water vapor will preferentially deposit onto ice crystals, causing them to grow at the expense of the water droplets due to differences in vapor pressure.

The Bergeron process can be summarized as such: The air reaches saturation and some of the resulting droplets will come in contact with freezing nuclei (assuming they have reached the activation temperature). We will now have a combination of ice crystals and supercooled water droplets.

Trend: Types of clouds and their properties

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: C

Justification:

Trend: Types of clouds and their properties

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Which one of the following is responsible for the formation of sea breezes during the daytime? (a) Differential heating of land and sea. (b) Gravitational pull of the moon. (c) Magnetic field variations. (d) Ocean currents and tides. Correct Solution: A Sea breezes are caused by the differential heating of land and sea. During the day, land surfaces heat up more quickly than the adjacent water bodies. As a result, air above the land becomes warmer and rises, creating an area of lower pressure. Cooler, higher-pressure air from over the water moves in to replace the rising warm air, creating a breeze from the sea towards the land. Source: Geography Trend: Heating of land and water Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: A Sea breezes are caused by the differential heating of land and sea. During the day, land surfaces heat up more quickly than the adjacent water bodies. As a result, air above the land becomes warmer and rises, creating an area of lower pressure. Cooler, higher-pressure air from over the water moves in to replace the rising warm air, creating a breeze from the sea towards the land. Source: Geography Trend: Heating of land and water Approach: applied knowledge

#### 17. Question

Which one of the following is responsible for the formation of sea breezes during the daytime?

• (a) Differential heating of land and sea.

• (b) Gravitational pull of the moon.

• (c) Magnetic field variations.

• (d) Ocean currents and tides.

Solution: A

Sea breezes are caused by the differential heating of land and sea. During the day, land surfaces heat up more quickly than the adjacent water bodies. As a result, air above the land becomes warmer and rises, creating an area of lower pressure. Cooler, higher-pressure air from over the water moves in to replace the rising warm air, creating a breeze from the sea towards the land.

Trend: Heating of land and water

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: A

Trend: Heating of land and water

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Tropical cyclones do not form along the equator. Reason (R): The Coriolis effect is too weak at the equator to initiate the cyclonic rotation necessary for tropical cyclones to develop. Select the correct answer from the codes given below. (a) (A) is true but (R) is false. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is false but (R) is true. (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Correct Solution: B Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Justification: Tropical cyclones do not form at the equator. The reason is attributed to the lack of the Coriolis effect near the equator, which is needed to provide the spin for the cyclones. The Coriolis effect results from the Earth’s rotation and is necessary for the development of the cyclonic rotation in storms. Since it is negligible at the equator, tropical cyclones typically form at least a few degrees away from the equator where this effect is stronger Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts on Cyclones Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: B Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Justification: Tropical cyclones do not form at the equator. The reason is attributed to the lack of the Coriolis effect near the equator, which is needed to provide the spin for the cyclones. The Coriolis effect results from the Earth’s rotation and is necessary for the development of the cyclonic rotation in storms. Since it is negligible at the equator, tropical cyclones typically form at least a few degrees away from the equator where this effect is stronger Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts on Cyclones Approach: applied knowledge

#### 18. Question

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Tropical cyclones do not form along the equator.

Reason (R): The Coriolis effect is too weak at the equator to initiate the cyclonic rotation necessary for tropical cyclones to develop.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

• (a) (A) is true but (R) is false.

• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

• (c) (A) is false but (R) is true.

• (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Solution: B

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Justification:

Tropical cyclones do not form at the equator. The reason is attributed to the lack of the Coriolis effect near the equator, which is needed to provide the spin for the cyclones.

The Coriolis effect results from the Earth’s rotation and is necessary for the development of the cyclonic rotation in storms. Since it is negligible at the equator, tropical cyclones typically form at least a few degrees away from the equator where this effect is stronger

Trend: basic concepts on Cyclones

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: B

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Justification:

Tropical cyclones do not form at the equator. The reason is attributed to the lack of the Coriolis effect near the equator, which is needed to provide the spin for the cyclones.

Trend: basic concepts on Cyclones

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The Ecomark Scheme, recently in news is administered by the (a) Central Pollution Control Board (b) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (c) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (d) Directorate of Textiles Correct Solution: A Ecomark Scheme provides acquisition and labelling for household and consumer products meeting the specific fundamental criteria while maintaining quality standards. It aims to raise consumer awareness of environmental issues, encourage eco-conscious choices and motivate manufacturers to transition to eco friendly production This green initiative has been introduced under the LiFE ( Lifestyle for Environment Movement) by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change It is administered by the Central Pollution Control Board in partnership with the Bureau of Indian Standards. Hence option A is correct Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: A Ecomark Scheme provides acquisition and labelling for household and consumer products meeting the specific fundamental criteria while maintaining quality standards. It aims to raise consumer awareness of environmental issues, encourage eco-conscious choices and motivate manufacturers to transition to eco friendly production This green initiative has been introduced under the LiFE ( Lifestyle for Environment Movement) by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change It is administered by the Central Pollution Control Board in partnership with the Bureau of Indian Standards. Hence option A is correct Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

The Ecomark Scheme, recently in news is administered by the

• (a) Central Pollution Control Board

• (b) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection

• (c) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India

• (d) Directorate of Textiles

Solution: A

• Ecomark Scheme provides acquisition and labelling for household and consumer products meeting the specific fundamental criteria while maintaining quality standards.

• It aims to raise consumer awareness of environmental issues, encourage eco-conscious choices and motivate manufacturers to transition to eco friendly production

• This green initiative has been introduced under the LiFE ( Lifestyle for Environment Movement) by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

• It is administered by the Central Pollution Control Board in partnership with the Bureau of Indian Standards.

Hence option A is correct

Trend: Schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: A

• Ecomark Scheme provides acquisition and labelling for household and consumer products meeting the specific fundamental criteria while maintaining quality standards.

• It aims to raise consumer awareness of environmental issues, encourage eco-conscious choices and motivate manufacturers to transition to eco friendly production

• This green initiative has been introduced under the LiFE ( Lifestyle for Environment Movement) by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

• It is administered by the Central Pollution Control Board in partnership with the Bureau of Indian Standards.

Hence option A is correct

Trend: Schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Thallium is a Rare Earth Mineral usually found in volcanic deposits on the Earth’s crust. Thallium is used in Thermometers. Along with Prussian Blue, Thallium is used to disinfect potable water. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Thallium is a colourless, tasteless and odourless silvery white metal. It is found in trace amount in the Earth’s crust; it is one of the least abundant elements in The crust. It is found in several ores including pyrites which is used to produce sulphuric acid Thallium is sometimes obtained from pyrites but it is mainly obtained as a by-product of copper, zinc and lead refining. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Thallium is primarily utilised in the electronic industry in manufacturing of photoelectric cells It is also used in making optical lenses, thermometers and low temperature switches, green fireworks, imitation jewelleries and closures. Hence statement 2 is correct Thallium is a highly poisonous element ; it is globally known as the poisoner’s poison it can damage the nervous System causing headache, weakness, irritability Repeated exposures can cause hallucinations, coma and even death. Prussian Blue is used as an antidote in cases of non radioactive Thallium poisoning Hence statement 3 is incorrect . Source: Geography Trend: Important Minerals and their properties Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: A Thallium is a colourless, tasteless and odourless silvery white metal. It is found in trace amount in the Earth’s crust; it is one of the least abundant elements in The crust. It is found in several ores including pyrites which is used to produce sulphuric acid Thallium is sometimes obtained from pyrites but it is mainly obtained as a by-product of copper, zinc and lead refining. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Thallium is primarily utilised in the electronic industry in manufacturing of photoelectric cells It is also used in making optical lenses, thermometers and low temperature switches, green fireworks, imitation jewelleries and closures. Hence statement 2 is correct Thallium is a highly poisonous element ; it is globally known as the poisoner’s poison it can damage the nervous System causing headache, weakness, irritability Repeated exposures can cause hallucinations, coma and even death. Prussian Blue is used as an antidote in cases of non radioactive Thallium poisoning Hence statement 3 is incorrect . Source: Geography Trend: Important Minerals and their properties Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements

• Thallium is a Rare Earth Mineral usually found in volcanic deposits on the Earth’s crust.

• Thallium is used in Thermometers.

• Along with Prussian Blue, Thallium is used to disinfect potable water.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Thallium is a colourless, tasteless and odourless silvery white metal.

• It is found in trace amount in the Earth’s crust; it is one of the least abundant elements in The crust.

• It is found in several ores including pyrites which is used to produce sulphuric acid

• Thallium is sometimes obtained from pyrites but it is mainly obtained as a by-product of copper, zinc and lead refining.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Thallium is primarily utilised in the electronic industry in manufacturing of photoelectric cells

• It is also used in making optical lenses, thermometers and low temperature switches, green fireworks, imitation jewelleries and closures.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Thallium is a highly poisonous element ; it is globally known as the poisoner’s poison

• it can damage the nervous System causing headache, weakness, irritability

• Repeated exposures can cause hallucinations, coma and even death.

• Prussian Blue is used as an antidote in cases of non radioactive Thallium poisoning

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Trend: Important Minerals and their properties

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: A

• Thallium is a colourless, tasteless and odourless silvery white metal.

• It is found in trace amount in the Earth’s crust; it is one of the least abundant elements in The crust.

• It is found in several ores including pyrites which is used to produce sulphuric acid

• Thallium is sometimes obtained from pyrites but it is mainly obtained as a by-product of copper, zinc and lead refining.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Thallium is primarily utilised in the electronic industry in manufacturing of photoelectric cells

• It is also used in making optical lenses, thermometers and low temperature switches, green fireworks, imitation jewelleries and closures.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Thallium is a highly poisonous element ; it is globally known as the poisoner’s poison

• it can damage the nervous System causing headache, weakness, irritability

• Repeated exposures can cause hallucinations, coma and even death.

• Prussian Blue is used as an antidote in cases of non radioactive Thallium poisoning

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Trend: Important Minerals and their properties

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the mutual commitment of the members of Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development? Commitment to democracy Commitment to market economy Commitment to the development of emerging economies How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: OECD is an intergovernmental organisation with 38 Member countries, founded in 1961 (under the Rome Treaties of 1957) to stimulate economic progress and world trade. It is a forum whose member countries describe themselves as committed to democracy and the market economy. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: International Bodies Approach: OECD is primarily concerned with shaping policies to ensure economic growth worldwide. Hence, statement 3 can be eliminated. Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: OECD is an intergovernmental organisation with 38 Member countries, founded in 1961 (under the Rome Treaties of 1957) to stimulate economic progress and world trade. It is a forum whose member countries describe themselves as committed to democracy and the market economy. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: International Bodies Approach: OECD is primarily concerned with shaping policies to ensure economic growth worldwide. Hence, statement 3 can be eliminated.

#### 21. Question

Which of the following best describes the mutual commitment of the members of Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development?

• Commitment to democracy

• Commitment to market economy

• Commitment to the development of emerging economies

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: OECD is an intergovernmental organisation with 38 Member countries, founded in 1961 (under the Rome Treaties of 1957) to stimulate economic progress and world trade.

It is a forum whose member countries describe themselves as committed to democracy and the market economy.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: OECD is primarily concerned with shaping policies to ensure economic growth worldwide. Hence, statement 3 can be eliminated.

Solution: b)

Justification: OECD is an intergovernmental organisation with 38 Member countries, founded in 1961 (under the Rome Treaties of 1957) to stimulate economic progress and world trade.

It is a forum whose member countries describe themselves as committed to democracy and the market economy.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: OECD is primarily concerned with shaping policies to ensure economic growth worldwide. Hence, statement 3 can be eliminated.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following about Nuclear Small Modular Reactors (SMRs): SMRs can be factory-made and transported to a site for installation. Unlike traditional reactors that require refuelling every few years, SMRs do not require refuelling and can instead be sustained based on fresh supply of neutrinos. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: They are advanced nuclear reactors with a capacity of up to 300 MW per unit, offering advantages such as simplicity, safety, and cost-effectiveness. SMRs can be factory-made and transported to a site for installation. SMRs are economical and time-efficient, and unlike traditional reactors that require refuelling every 1-2 years, SMRs only need refuelling every 3-7 years. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Nuclear Technology Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: They are advanced nuclear reactors with a capacity of up to 300 MW per unit, offering advantages such as simplicity, safety, and cost-effectiveness. SMRs can be factory-made and transported to a site for installation. SMRs are economical and time-efficient, and unlike traditional reactors that require refuelling every 1-2 years, SMRs only need refuelling every 3-7 years. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Nuclear Technology Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 22. Question

Consider the following about Nuclear Small Modular Reactors (SMRs):

• SMRs can be factory-made and transported to a site for installation.

• Unlike traditional reactors that require refuelling every few years, SMRs do not require refuelling and can instead be sustained based on fresh supply of neutrinos.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: They are advanced nuclear reactors with a capacity of up to 300 MW per unit, offering advantages such as simplicity, safety, and cost-effectiveness.

• SMRs can be factory-made and transported to a site for installation.

• SMRs are economical and time-efficient, and unlike traditional reactors that require refuelling every 1-2 years, SMRs only need refuelling every 3-7 years.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Nuclear Technology

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Justification: They are advanced nuclear reactors with a capacity of up to 300 MW per unit, offering advantages such as simplicity, safety, and cost-effectiveness.

• SMRs can be factory-made and transported to a site for installation.

• SMRs are economical and time-efficient, and unlike traditional reactors that require refuelling every 1-2 years, SMRs only need refuelling every 3-7 years.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Nuclear Technology

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following regarding sand and dust storms in arid and semi-arid regions: Reduces crop yield by burying seedlings Causes loss of plant tissue Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c Justification: According to the UN, sand, and dust storms (SDS) have increased dramatically in frequency and severity in recent years. They are common meteorological hazards in arid and semi-arid regions, usually caused by thunder- storms/ strong pressure gradients associated with cyclones, which increase wind speed over a wide area. They have many negative impacts on agriculture/food security, including Reducing crop yields by burying seedlings, Causing loss of plant tissue, Reducing photosynthetic activity and Increasing soil erosion. Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Climatic hazards and their impact on Agriculture Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: c Justification: According to the UN, sand, and dust storms (SDS) have increased dramatically in frequency and severity in recent years. They are common meteorological hazards in arid and semi-arid regions, usually caused by thunder- storms/ strong pressure gradients associated with cyclones, which increase wind speed over a wide area. They have many negative impacts on agriculture/food security, including Reducing crop yields by burying seedlings, Causing loss of plant tissue, Reducing photosynthetic activity and Increasing soil erosion. Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Climatic hazards and their impact on Agriculture Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 23. Question

Consider the following regarding sand and dust storms in arid and semi-arid regions:

• Reduces crop yield by burying seedlings

• Causes loss of plant tissue

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Justification: According to the UN, sand, and dust storms (SDS) have increased dramatically in frequency and severity in recent years.

• They are common meteorological hazards in arid and semi-arid regions, usually caused by thunder- storms/ strong pressure gradients associated with cyclones, which increase wind speed over a wide area.

• They have many negative impacts on agriculture/food security, including

• Reducing crop yields by burying seedlings,

• Causing loss of plant tissue,

• Reducing photosynthetic activity and

• Increasing soil erosion.

Trend: Climatic hazards and their impact on Agriculture

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: c

Justification: According to the UN, sand, and dust storms (SDS) have increased dramatically in frequency and severity in recent years.

• They have many negative impacts on agriculture/food security, including

• Reducing crop yields by burying seedlings,

• Causing loss of plant tissue,

• Reducing photosynthetic activity and

• Increasing soil erosion.

Trend: Climatic hazards and their impact on Agriculture

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Extended Producers’ Responsibility (EPR) is an environmental protection strategy that makes the manufacturer of the product responsible for the entire life cycle of the product. Currently, EPR is only enforced under the E-Waste (Management) Rules 2016 and therefore does not apply to most kinds of waste generated in India. Which of the statements above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: EPR is an environmental protection strategy that makes the manufacturer of the product responsible for the entire life cycle of the product. The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2022 also establishes Extended Producers’ Responsibility (EPR) guidelines (in addition to its provision in the E-waste rules). Under this, 2.6 million tonnes worth of EPR certificates had been generated by plastic waste processors and around 1.51 million tonnes of those certificates had been purchased by PIBOs (Producers, Importers and Brand owners) Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Question on E-waste management rules, 2011 has been asked in UPSC Prelims 2019. Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: EPR is an environmental protection strategy that makes the manufacturer of the product responsible for the entire life cycle of the product. The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2022 also establishes Extended Producers’ Responsibility (EPR) guidelines (in addition to its provision in the E-waste rules). Under this, 2.6 million tonnes worth of EPR certificates had been generated by plastic waste processors and around 1.51 million tonnes of those certificates had been purchased by PIBOs (Producers, Importers and Brand owners) Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Question on E-waste management rules, 2011 has been asked in UPSC Prelims 2019. Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Extended Producers’ Responsibility (EPR) is an environmental protection strategy that makes the manufacturer of the product responsible for the entire life cycle of the product.

• Currently, EPR is only enforced under the E-Waste (Management) Rules 2016 and therefore does not apply to most kinds of waste generated in India.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: EPR is an environmental protection strategy that makes the manufacturer of the product responsible for the entire life cycle of the product.

The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2022 also establishes Extended Producers’ Responsibility (EPR) guidelines (in addition to its provision in the E-waste rules).

Under this, 2.6 million tonnes worth of EPR certificates had been generated by plastic waste processors and around 1.51 million tonnes of those certificates had been purchased by PIBOs (Producers, Importers and Brand owners)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Question on E-waste management rules, 2011 has been asked in UPSC Prelims 2019.

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Justification: EPR is an environmental protection strategy that makes the manufacturer of the product responsible for the entire life cycle of the product.

The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2022 also establishes Extended Producers’ Responsibility (EPR) guidelines (in addition to its provision in the E-waste rules).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Question on E-waste management rules, 2011 has been asked in UPSC Prelims 2019.

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points The Code On Social Security, 2020, proposes to provide which of the following benefits to informal freelance workers? Life and disability cover Old age protection Health and maternity benefits How many of the above form the correct answer? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Labour falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution. Therefore, both Parliament and state legislatures can make laws regulating labour. The central government has stated that there are over 100 state and 40 central laws regulating various aspects of labour such as resolution of industrial disputes, working conditions, social security and wages. The Second National Commission on Labour (2002) found existing legislation to be complex, with archaic provisions and inconsistent definitions.[2] To improve ease of compliance and ensure uniformity in labour laws, it recommended the consolidation of central labour laws into broader groups such as: (i) industrial relations, (ii) wages, (iii) social security, (iv) safety, and (v) welfare and working conditions. To reform the archaic labour and employment law legislations pertaining to social security, the Central Government has enacted the Code on Social Security, 2020 (“Code”) with an aim to extend the social security benefits to maximum workforce working in either the organized or the unorganized sectors. The Code has repealed the following 9 (nine) major labour law legislations: (i) The Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923; (ii) The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948; (iii) The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952; (iv) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959; (v) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961; (vi) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972; (vii) The Cine-Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981; (viii) The Building and Other Construction Workers’ Welfare Cess Act, 1996; and (ix) The Unorganized Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008. The Code on Social Security 2020, which has proposed social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to – ○ life and disability cover, ○ accident insurance, ○ health and maternity benefits, ○ old age protection, etc. The code has not come into force yet. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important legislations in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Labour falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution. Therefore, both Parliament and state legislatures can make laws regulating labour. The central government has stated that there are over 100 state and 40 central laws regulating various aspects of labour such as resolution of industrial disputes, working conditions, social security and wages. The Second National Commission on Labour (2002) found existing legislation to be complex, with archaic provisions and inconsistent definitions.[2] To improve ease of compliance and ensure uniformity in labour laws, it recommended the consolidation of central labour laws into broader groups such as: (i) industrial relations, (ii) wages, (iii) social security, (iv) safety, and (v) welfare and working conditions. To reform the archaic labour and employment law legislations pertaining to social security, the Central Government has enacted the Code on Social Security, 2020 (“Code”) with an aim to extend the social security benefits to maximum workforce working in either the organized or the unorganized sectors. The Code has repealed the following 9 (nine) major labour law legislations: (i) The Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923; (ii) The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948; (iii) The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952; (iv) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959; (v) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961; (vi) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972; (vii) The Cine-Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981; (viii) The Building and Other Construction Workers’ Welfare Cess Act, 1996; and (ix) The Unorganized Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008. The Code on Social Security 2020, which has proposed social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to – ○ life and disability cover, ○ accident insurance, ○ health and maternity benefits, ○ old age protection, etc. The code has not come into force yet. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important legislations in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 25. Question

The Code On Social Security, 2020, proposes to provide which of the following benefits to informal freelance workers?

• Life and disability cover

• Old age protection

• Health and maternity benefits

How many of the above form the correct answer?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Labour falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution. Therefore, both Parliament and state legislatures can make laws regulating labour. The central government has stated that there are over 100 state and 40 central laws regulating various aspects of labour such as resolution of industrial disputes, working conditions, social security and wages.

The Second National Commission on Labour (2002) found existing legislation to be complex, with archaic provisions and inconsistent definitions.[2] To improve ease of compliance and ensure uniformity in labour laws, it recommended the consolidation of central labour laws into broader groups such as: (i) industrial relations, (ii) wages, (iii) social security, (iv) safety, and (v) welfare and working conditions.

To reform the archaic labour and employment law legislations pertaining to social security, the Central Government has enacted the Code on Social Security, 2020 (“Code”) with an aim to extend the social security benefits to maximum workforce working in either the organized or the unorganized sectors.

The Code has repealed the following 9 (nine) major labour law legislations: (i) The Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923; (ii) The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948; (iii) The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952; (iv) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959; (v) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961; (vi) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972; (vii) The Cine-Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981; (viii) The Building and Other Construction Workers’ Welfare Cess Act, 1996; and (ix) The Unorganized Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008.

The Code on Social Security 2020, which has proposed social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to –

○ life and disability cover,

○ accident insurance,

○ health and maternity benefits,

○ old age protection, etc.

The code has not come into force yet.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important legislations in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: c)

The Code on Social Security 2020, which has proposed social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to –

○ life and disability cover,

○ accident insurance,

○ health and maternity benefits,

○ old age protection, etc.

The code has not come into force yet.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/CA-30-JULY-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important legislations in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Worldwide obesity has more than doubled since 1980. Researchers have attributed rising obesity rates to factors related to globalization processes, which are believed to contribute to obesity by flooding low-income country markets with inexpensive but obesogenic foods and diffusing Western-style fast food outlets. However, more convincing alternative explanations include domestic factors such as increases in unhealthy food consumption in response to rising income and higher women’s labor force participation as countries develop economically. Statistically, the linear relationship with obesity is more clear for domestic social changes than forces of globalization. Which of the following is the most scientific and logical inference that can be made from the above passage? A. We are seeing woods for the trees in debating obesity B. Statistical tools should be wisely chosen to analyze obesity C. Gender equality is the a primary cause behind obesity pandemic D. Globalization has negligible role in rising cases of obesity Correct Answer: A There is no argument that the problem is with statistical tools. So B is wrong. Gender is shown as passing reference but that cannot be the most important argument. Globalization is not the main cause but there is no clue to conclude that it’s role is NEGLIGIBLE. So D is also wrong and A is the answer, we should focus on domestic factors not forces of globalization primarily. Incorrect Answer: A There is no argument that the problem is with statistical tools. So B is wrong. Gender is shown as passing reference but that cannot be the most important argument. Globalization is not the main cause but there is no clue to conclude that it’s role is NEGLIGIBLE. So D is also wrong and A is the answer, we should focus on domestic factors not forces of globalization primarily. Explanation: Man’s/Boat’s Speed = X Stream/Current/River Speed = Y ∴ Downstream speed = X + Y Upstream speed = X – Y ∴ X+Y = (X+6) km/hr and X-Y = (X-6) km/hr Distance is same ∴ D=D ∴ (X+6) x 12 = (X-6) x 18 ∴ X=30 km/hr = Speed of Shashank

#### 26. Question

Worldwide obesity has more than doubled since 1980. Researchers have attributed rising obesity rates to factors related to globalization processes, which are believed to contribute to obesity by flooding low-income country markets with inexpensive but obesogenic foods and diffusing Western-style fast food outlets. However, more convincing alternative explanations include domestic factors such as increases in unhealthy food consumption in response to rising income and higher women’s labor force participation as countries develop economically. Statistically, the linear relationship with obesity is more clear for domestic social changes than forces of globalization.

Which of the following is the most scientific and logical inference that can be made from the above passage?

• A. We are seeing woods for the trees in debating obesity

• B. Statistical tools should be wisely chosen to analyze obesity

• C. Gender equality is the a primary cause behind obesity pandemic

• D. Globalization has negligible role in rising cases of obesity

There is no argument that the problem is with statistical tools. So B is wrong. Gender is shown as passing reference but that cannot be the most important argument. Globalization is not the main cause but there is no clue to conclude that it’s role is NEGLIGIBLE. So D is also wrong and A is the answer, we should focus on domestic factors not forces of globalization primarily.

Explanation:

Man’s/Boat’s Speed = X

Stream/Current/River Speed = Y

∴ Downstream speed = X + Y

Upstream speed = X – Y

∴ X+Y = (X+6) km/hr and X-Y = (X-6) km/hr

Distance is same

∴ (X+6) x 12 = (X-6) x 18

∴ X=30 km/hr = Speed of Shashank

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Worldwide obesity has more than doubled since 1980. Researchers have attributed rising obesity rates to factors related to globalization processes, which are believed to contribute to obesity by flooding low-income country markets with inexpensive but obesogenic foods and diffusing Western-style fast food outlets. However, more convincing alternative explanations include domestic factors such as increases in unhealthy food consumption in response to rising income and higher women’s labor force participation as countries develop economically. Statistically, the linear relationship with obesity is more clear for domestic social changes than forces of globalization. On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made: The role of globalization in causing obesity is overstated More freedom for women can cause obesity Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C The passage clearly tells, it is not right to consider globalization alone as cause of obesity, so it is being overstated. So 1 is correct. The passage shows rising labour force participation of women is a cause, logically it means women get more money and spend on food, causing more consumption and so obesity, so 2 is also correct. Incorrect Answer: C The passage clearly tells, it is not right to consider globalization alone as cause of obesity, so it is being overstated. So 1 is correct. The passage shows rising labour force participation of women is a cause, logically it means women get more money and spend on food, causing more consumption and so obesity, so 2 is also correct.

#### 27. Question

On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made:

• The role of globalization in causing obesity is overstated

• More freedom for women can cause obesity

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 and 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

The passage clearly tells, it is not right to consider globalization alone as cause of obesity, so it is being overstated. So 1 is correct. The passage shows rising labour force participation of women is a cause, logically it means women get more money and spend on food, causing more consumption and so obesity, so 2 is also correct.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points A student goes to school at the rate of 2 (½)km/hr and reaches 6 minutes late. If he travels at the speed of 3 km/hr he is 10 minutes early. What is the distance to the school? A) 1 km B) 4 km C) 3(¼) km D) 3(1/2) km Correct Answer: B) 4km To solve this question we can apply a short trick approach Reqd. distance = [Product of both speeds/ Difference of speeds] × (a + b) Where, ‘a’ is the extra of time taken by first speed = 6 mins ‘b’ is the less of time taken by second speed = 10 mins a + b = 10 + 6 = 16 mins = 4/15 hour By the short trick approach, we get Reqd. distance = [(5/2) × 3]/ [3 – (5/2)] × 4/15 = (15/2)/( ½) × 4/15 = 4km Hence, option B is correct. Incorrect Answer: B) 4km To solve this question we can apply a short trick approach Reqd. distance = [Product of both speeds/ Difference of speeds] × (a + b) Where, ‘a’ is the extra of time taken by first speed = 6 mins ‘b’ is the less of time taken by second speed = 10 mins a + b = 10 + 6 = 16 mins = 4/15 hour By the short trick approach, we get Reqd. distance = [(5/2) × 3]/ [3 – (5/2)] × 4/15 = (15/2)/( ½) × 4/15 = 4km Hence, option B is correct.

#### 28. Question

A student goes to school at the rate of 2 (½)km/hr and reaches 6 minutes late. If he travels at the speed of 3 km/hr he is 10 minutes early. What is the distance to the school?

• C) 3(¼) km

• D) 3(1/2) km

Answer: B) 4km

To solve this question we can apply a short trick approach

Reqd. distance = [Product of both speeds/ Difference of speeds] × (a + b)

‘a’ is the extra of time taken by first speed = 6 mins

‘b’ is the less of time taken by second speed = 10 mins

a + b = 10 + 6 = 16 mins = 4/15 hour

By the short trick approach, we get

Reqd. distance = [(5/2) × 3]/ [3 – (5/2)] × 4/15

= (15/2)/( ½) × 4/15 = 4km

Hence, option B is correct.

Answer: B) 4km

To solve this question we can apply a short trick approach

Reqd. distance = [Product of both speeds/ Difference of speeds] × (a + b)

‘a’ is the extra of time taken by first speed = 6 mins

‘b’ is the less of time taken by second speed = 10 mins

a + b = 10 + 6 = 16 mins = 4/15 hour

By the short trick approach, we get

Reqd. distance = [(5/2) × 3]/ [3 – (5/2)] × 4/15

= (15/2)/( ½) × 4/15 = 4km

Hence, option B is correct.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A man has to go from a port to an island and return. He can row a boat with a speed of 7 km/hr in still water. The speed of the stream is 2 km/hr. If he takes 56 minutes to complete the round trip, find the distance between the port and the island. a) 3km b) 5km c) 7km d) 9km Correct Answer : A) 3km Speed upstream = 7 – 2 = 5 km / hr Speed downstream = 7 + 2 = 9 km / hr Let the distance between the port and the island be D km. Also, we know that Time = Distance / Speed => (D/5) + (D/9) = 56/60 => (14 D) / 45 = 56 / 60 => D = 3 km Therefore, the distance between the port and the island = 3 km Incorrect Answer : A) 3km Speed upstream = 7 – 2 = 5 km / hr Speed downstream = 7 + 2 = 9 km / hr Let the distance between the port and the island be D km. Also, we know that Time = Distance / Speed => (D/5) + (D/9) = 56/60 => (14 D) / 45 = 56 / 60 => D = 3 km Therefore, the distance between the port and the island = 3 km

#### 29. Question

A man has to go from a port to an island and return. He can row a boat with a speed of 7 km/hr in still water. The speed of the stream is 2 km/hr. If he takes 56 minutes to complete the round trip, find the distance between the port and the island.

Answer : A) 3km

Speed upstream = 7 – 2 = 5 km / hr

Speed downstream = 7 + 2 = 9 km / hr

Let the distance between the port and the island be D km. Also, we know that Time = Distance / Speed

=> (D/5) + (D/9) = 56/60

=> (14 D) / 45 = 56 / 60

=> D = 3 km

Therefore, the distance between the port and the island = 3 km

Answer : A) 3km

Speed upstream = 7 – 2 = 5 km / hr

Speed downstream = 7 + 2 = 9 km / hr

Let the distance between the port and the island be D km. Also, we know that Time = Distance / Speed

=> (D/5) + (D/9) = 56/60

=> (14 D) / 45 = 56 / 60

=> D = 3 km

Therefore, the distance between the port and the island = 3 km

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points A racer can row a boat 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. Also, he can row 40 km upstream and 55 km downstream in 13 hours. Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the stream. a) 8kmph and 5kmph b) 8kmph and 3kmph c) 10kmph and 3kmph d) 10kmph and 5kmph Correct Answer: B) 8kmph and 3kmph Let the speed upstream be U km/hr and the speed downstream be D km/hr. We know that Distance / Speed = Time => (30 / U) + (44 / D) = 10 and (40 / U) + (55 / D) = 13 Solving the above pair of linear equations, we get D = 11 km/hr U = 5 km/hr Therefore, Speed of boat in still water = 0.5 x (D + U) km / hr = 0.5 x (11 + 5) = 8 km / hr Also, speed of the stream = 0.5 x (D – U) km / hr = 0.5 x (11 – 5) = 3 km / hr Incorrect Answer: B) 8kmph and 3kmph Let the speed upstream be U km/hr and the speed downstream be D km/hr. We know that Distance / Speed = Time => (30 / U) + (44 / D) = 10 and (40 / U) + (55 / D) = 13 Solving the above pair of linear equations, we get D = 11 km/hr U = 5 km/hr Therefore, Speed of boat in still water = 0.5 x (D + U) km / hr = 0.5 x (11 + 5) = 8 km / hr Also, speed of the stream = 0.5 x (D – U) km / hr = 0.5 x (11 – 5) = 3 km / hr

#### 30. Question

A racer can row a boat 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. Also, he can row 40 km upstream and 55 km downstream in 13 hours. Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the stream.

• a) 8kmph and 5kmph

• b) 8kmph and 3kmph

• c) 10kmph and 3kmph

• d) 10kmph and 5kmph

Answer: B) 8kmph and 3kmph

Let the speed upstream be U km/hr and the speed downstream be D km/hr.

We know that Distance / Speed = Time

=> (30 / U) + (44 / D) = 10 and (40 / U) + (55 / D) = 13

Solving the above pair of linear equations, we get

D = 11 km/hr

U = 5 km/hr

Therefore, Speed of boat in still water = 0.5 x (D + U) km / hr = 0.5 x (11 + 5) = 8 km / hr

Also, speed of the stream = 0.5 x (D – U) km / hr = 0.5 x (11 – 5) = 3 km / hr

Answer: B) 8kmph and 3kmph

Let the speed upstream be U km/hr and the speed downstream be D km/hr.

We know that Distance / Speed = Time

=> (30 / U) + (44 / D) = 10 and (40 / U) + (55 / D) = 13

Solving the above pair of linear equations, we get

D = 11 km/hr

U = 5 km/hr

Therefore, Speed of boat in still water = 0.5 x (D + U) km / hr = 0.5 x (11 + 5) = 8 km / hr

Also, speed of the stream = 0.5 x (D – U) km / hr = 0.5 x (11 – 5) = 3 km / hr

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE

Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE

Follow our Twitter Account HERE

Follow our Instagram ID HERE