DAY – 69 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : Science & Technology Full Syllabus

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2025 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points The term ‘BLockchain Enabled Remote Voting Machine’ was in news recently. Which of the following statements about it is/are correct? It allows eligible voters to cast votes electronically from remote locations. It has been developed by the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL). It uses blockchain technology to maintain a tamper-proof record of votes. It has been implemented in the 2024 General Elections in some constituencies. Select the correct Solution using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Blockchain Enabled Remote Voting Machine (RVM) is designed to allow eligible domestic migrant voters to cast their votes electronically from remote locations, rather than having to travel to their home constituencies. It has been developed by the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL) under the guidance of the Election Commission of India. The system uses blockchain technology to maintain a tamper-proof, immutable record of all votes cast, ensuring transparency and security in the voting process. Statement 4 is incorrect. The RVM was not implemented in the 2024 General Elections. It remains in the developmental and testing phase, with ongoing consultations with political parties and other stakeholders regarding its security, reliability, and potential implementation. The Election Commission has emphasized that extensive testing, mock polls, and stakeholder consensus would be required before any actual deployment in elections. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Blockchain Enabled Remote Voting Machine (RVM) is designed to allow eligible domestic migrant voters to cast their votes electronically from remote locations, rather than having to travel to their home constituencies. It has been developed by the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL) under the guidance of the Election Commission of India. The system uses blockchain technology to maintain a tamper-proof, immutable record of all votes cast, ensuring transparency and security in the voting process. Statement 4 is incorrect. The RVM was not implemented in the 2024 General Elections. It remains in the developmental and testing phase, with ongoing consultations with political parties and other stakeholders regarding its security, reliability, and potential implementation. The Election Commission has emphasized that extensive testing, mock polls, and stakeholder consensus would be required before any actual deployment in elections.

#### 1. Question

The term ‘BLockchain Enabled Remote Voting Machine’ was in news recently. Which of the following statements about it is/are correct?

• It allows eligible voters to cast votes electronically from remote locations.

• It has been developed by the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL).

• It uses blockchain technology to maintain a tamper-proof record of votes.

• It has been implemented in the 2024 General Elections in some constituencies.

Select the correct Solution using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Blockchain Enabled Remote Voting Machine (RVM) is designed to allow eligible domestic migrant voters to cast their votes electronically from remote locations, rather than having to travel to their home constituencies. It has been developed by the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL) under the guidance of the Election Commission of India. The system uses blockchain technology to maintain a tamper-proof, immutable record of all votes cast, ensuring transparency and security in the voting process.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The RVM was not implemented in the 2024 General Elections. It remains in the developmental and testing phase, with ongoing consultations with political parties and other stakeholders regarding its security, reliability, and potential implementation. The Election Commission has emphasized that extensive testing, mock polls, and stakeholder consensus would be required before any actual deployment in elections.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to Pumped Storage Projects (PSPs) in India, consider the following statements: They store electrical energy in the form of gravitational potential energy of water. India currently has less than 5 GW of installed PSP capacity. They can respond to grid demand changes within seconds. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All statements are correct. Pumped Storage Projects (PSPs) do store electrical energy in the form of gravitational potential energy of water by pumping it from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir during periods of excess electricity, and then releasing it to generate electricity when demand is high. India currently has less than 5 GW of installed PSP capacity, with about 4.7 GW operational out of the approximately 96 GW potential identified across the country. PSPs can indeed respond to grid demand changes within seconds, making them valuable for grid stability, frequency regulation, and managing the variability of renewable energy sources. Incorrect Solution: C All statements are correct. Pumped Storage Projects (PSPs) do store electrical energy in the form of gravitational potential energy of water by pumping it from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir during periods of excess electricity, and then releasing it to generate electricity when demand is high. India currently has less than 5 GW of installed PSP capacity, with about 4.7 GW operational out of the approximately 96 GW potential identified across the country. PSPs can indeed respond to grid demand changes within seconds, making them valuable for grid stability, frequency regulation, and managing the variability of renewable energy sources.

#### 2. Question

With reference to Pumped Storage Projects (PSPs) in India, consider the following statements:

• They store electrical energy in the form of gravitational potential energy of water.

• India currently has less than 5 GW of installed PSP capacity.

• They can respond to grid demand changes within seconds.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

Pumped Storage Projects (PSPs) do store electrical energy in the form of gravitational potential energy of water by pumping it from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir during periods of excess electricity, and then releasing it to generate electricity when demand is high. India currently has less than 5 GW of installed PSP capacity, with about 4.7 GW operational out of the approximately 96 GW potential identified across the country. PSPs can indeed respond to grid demand changes within seconds, making them valuable for grid stability, frequency regulation, and managing the variability of renewable energy sources.

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points In the context of Quantum technologies, the term ‘quantum supremacy’ refers to: (a) The point at which quantum computers can solve problems that classical computers cannot solve in a reasonable time (b) The ability of quantum particles to exist in multiple states simultaneously (c) The process of transferring quantum information between distant locations using entangled particles (d) The theoretical limit of qubits that can be practically implemented in a quantum processor Correct Solution: A Option (a) is correct. Quantum supremacy refers to the point at which a quantum computer can solve a problem that would be practically impossible for the most powerful classical computers to solve in a reasonable amount of time. This milestone represents the demonstration of quantum computing’s advantage over classical computing for specific problems. In 2019, Google claimed to have achieved quantum supremacy with its 53-qubit Sycamore processor, solving a specific sampling problem in 200 seconds that would reportedly take the world’s most powerful supercomputer thousands of years. However, this claim has been contested, with IBM suggesting that an optimized classical algorithm could potentially solve the same problem much faster. Option (b) describes quantum superposition, option (c) describes quantum teleportation, and option (d) does not correspond to any specific quantum computing concept. Incorrect Solution: A Option (a) is correct. Quantum supremacy refers to the point at which a quantum computer can solve a problem that would be practically impossible for the most powerful classical computers to solve in a reasonable amount of time. This milestone represents the demonstration of quantum computing’s advantage over classical computing for specific problems. In 2019, Google claimed to have achieved quantum supremacy with its 53-qubit Sycamore processor, solving a specific sampling problem in 200 seconds that would reportedly take the world’s most powerful supercomputer thousands of years. However, this claim has been contested, with IBM suggesting that an optimized classical algorithm could potentially solve the same problem much faster. Option (b) describes quantum superposition, option (c) describes quantum teleportation, and option (d) does not correspond to any specific quantum computing concept.

#### 3. Question

In the context of Quantum technologies, the term ‘quantum supremacy’ refers to:

• (a) The point at which quantum computers can solve problems that classical computers cannot solve in a reasonable time

• (b) The ability of quantum particles to exist in multiple states simultaneously

• (c) The process of transferring quantum information between distant locations using entangled particles

• (d) The theoretical limit of qubits that can be practically implemented in a quantum processor

Solution: A

Option (a) is correct. Quantum supremacy refers to the point at which a quantum computer can solve a problem that would be practically impossible for the most powerful classical computers to solve in a reasonable amount of time. This milestone represents the demonstration of quantum computing’s advantage over classical computing for specific problems. In 2019, Google claimed to have achieved quantum supremacy with its 53-qubit Sycamore processor, solving a specific sampling problem in 200 seconds that would reportedly take the world’s most powerful supercomputer thousands of years. However, this claim has been contested, with IBM suggesting that an optimized classical algorithm could potentially solve the same problem much faster.

Option (b) describes quantum superposition,

option (c) describes quantum teleportation, and

option (d) does not correspond to any specific quantum computing concept.

Solution: A

Option (b) describes quantum superposition,

option (c) describes quantum teleportation, and

option (d) does not correspond to any specific quantum computing concept.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about National Geospatial Mission launched in Budget 2025-26: It has an outlay of Rs 100 crore for 2025-26. It aims to develop foundational geospatial infrastructure and data. It will be funded under Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti. It includes GIS-based mapping of heat pockets in cities for climate action. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D All statements are correct. The National Geospatial Mission, launched in the Budget 2025-26 presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, has an outlay of Rs 100 crore for the fiscal year 2025-26. The mission aims to develop foundational geospatial infrastructure and data to modernize land records, enhance urban planning, and improve the design of infrastructure projects across the country. As mentioned in the Finance Minister’s budget speech, the National Geospatial Mission will be funded under the Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti, which is the National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity. The mission does include GIS-based mapping of heat pockets in cities for climate action, as noted by experts quoted in Down To Earth who emphasized that “GIS-based mapping should focus on mapping the heat pockets in cities and later ensure certain funding mechanisms so that cooling action in cities could be furthered.” This aligns with the mission’s goal of using geographical information systems for better climate-appropriate planning and design. Incorrect Solution: D All statements are correct. The National Geospatial Mission, launched in the Budget 2025-26 presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, has an outlay of Rs 100 crore for the fiscal year 2025-26. The mission aims to develop foundational geospatial infrastructure and data to modernize land records, enhance urban planning, and improve the design of infrastructure projects across the country. As mentioned in the Finance Minister’s budget speech, the National Geospatial Mission will be funded under the Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti, which is the National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity. The mission does include GIS-based mapping of heat pockets in cities for climate action, as noted by experts quoted in Down To Earth who emphasized that “GIS-based mapping should focus on mapping the heat pockets in cities and later ensure certain funding mechanisms so that cooling action in cities could be furthered.” This aligns with the mission’s goal of using geographical information systems for better climate-appropriate planning and design.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about National Geospatial Mission launched in Budget 2025-26:

• It has an outlay of Rs 100 crore for 2025-26.

• It aims to develop foundational geospatial infrastructure and data.

• It will be funded under Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti.

• It includes GIS-based mapping of heat pockets in cities for climate action.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

All statements are correct.

The National Geospatial Mission, launched in the Budget 2025-26 presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, has an outlay of Rs 100 crore for the fiscal year 2025-26. The mission aims to develop foundational geospatial infrastructure and data to modernize land records, enhance urban planning, and improve the design of infrastructure projects across the country. As mentioned in the Finance Minister’s budget speech, the National Geospatial Mission will be funded under the Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti, which is the National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity. The mission does include GIS-based mapping of heat pockets in cities for climate action, as noted by experts quoted in Down To Earth who emphasized that “GIS-based mapping should focus on mapping the heat pockets in cities and later ensure certain funding mechanisms so that cooling action in cities could be furthered.” This aligns with the mission’s goal of using geographical information systems for better climate-appropriate planning and design.

Solution: D

All statements are correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points The ‘Einstein Cross’ recently observed by astronomers refers to: (a) A rare stellar formation where four stars are arranged in a cross pattern (b) A gravitational lensing effect where a single quasar appears as four images (c) The intersection point of two neutron star collision jets (d) A unique X-shaped radio galaxy formed by the merger of two galaxies Correct Solution: B Option (b) is correct. The Einstein Cross refers to a gravitational lensing effect where a single quasar (an extremely bright galactic nucleus powered by a supermassive black hole) appears as four distinct images arranged in a cross-like pattern around a foreground galaxy. This phenomenon occurs because the massive foreground galaxy bends light from the more distant quasar, creating multiple images of the same object. The name honors Albert Einstein, whose General Theory of Relativity predicted that massive objects would bend light paths. The most famous example is QSO 2237+0305, discovered in 1985, though several other Einstein Crosses have been observed since. These observations provide valuable data for calculating the Hubble constant and studying dark matter distribution. Recent observations with advanced telescopes have revealed new details about these systems, including time delays between the different images. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is correct. The Einstein Cross refers to a gravitational lensing effect where a single quasar (an extremely bright galactic nucleus powered by a supermassive black hole) appears as four distinct images arranged in a cross-like pattern around a foreground galaxy. This phenomenon occurs because the massive foreground galaxy bends light from the more distant quasar, creating multiple images of the same object. The name honors Albert Einstein, whose General Theory of Relativity predicted that massive objects would bend light paths. The most famous example is QSO 2237+0305, discovered in 1985, though several other Einstein Crosses have been observed since. These observations provide valuable data for calculating the Hubble constant and studying dark matter distribution. Recent observations with advanced telescopes have revealed new details about these systems, including time delays between the different images.

#### 5. Question

The ‘Einstein Cross’ recently observed by astronomers refers to:

• (a) A rare stellar formation where four stars are arranged in a cross pattern

• (b) A gravitational lensing effect where a single quasar appears as four images

• (c) The intersection point of two neutron star collision jets

• (d) A unique X-shaped radio galaxy formed by the merger of two galaxies

Solution: B

Option (b) is correct. The Einstein Cross refers to a gravitational lensing effect where a single quasar (an extremely bright galactic nucleus powered by a supermassive black hole) appears as four distinct images arranged in a cross-like pattern around a foreground galaxy. This phenomenon occurs because the massive foreground galaxy bends light from the more distant quasar, creating multiple images of the same object. The name honors Albert Einstein, whose General Theory of Relativity predicted that massive objects would bend light paths. The most famous example is QSO 2237+0305, discovered in 1985, though several other Einstein Crosses have been observed since. These observations provide valuable data for calculating the Hubble constant and studying dark matter distribution. Recent observations with advanced telescopes have revealed new details about these systems, including time delays between the different images.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Advanced Material Primary Application 1. Metal-Organic Frameworks (MOFs) Carbon capture and gas storage 2. Magnetorheological Fluids Shock absorbers in vehicle suspensions 3. Perovskite Solar cells and LEDs 4. Hydrogel Smart contact lenses How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D All pairs are correctly matched. Metal-Organic Frameworks (MOFs) are porous crystalline materials with extremely high surface areas, making them ideal for carbon capture and gas storage. Their tunable pore sizes allow selective adsorption of specific gases. Magnetorheological fluids change their viscosity in response to magnetic fields, making them perfect for vehicle shock absorbers that can adjust stiffness based on road conditions. Perovskite materials have emerged as promising alternatives to silicon in solar cells due to their excellent light absorption and charge transport properties, and are also used in LED technology. Hydrogels are water-containing polymer networks used in smart contact lenses that can monitor health parameters like glucose levels or deliver medications while maintaining comfort and oxygen permeability to the eye. Each of these advanced materials represents significant technological innovations in their respective fields. Incorrect Solution: D All pairs are correctly matched. Metal-Organic Frameworks (MOFs) are porous crystalline materials with extremely high surface areas, making them ideal for carbon capture and gas storage. Their tunable pore sizes allow selective adsorption of specific gases. Magnetorheological fluids change their viscosity in response to magnetic fields, making them perfect for vehicle shock absorbers that can adjust stiffness based on road conditions. Perovskite materials have emerged as promising alternatives to silicon in solar cells due to their excellent light absorption and charge transport properties, and are also used in LED technology. Hydrogels are water-containing polymer networks used in smart contact lenses that can monitor health parameters like glucose levels or deliver medications while maintaining comfort and oxygen permeability to the eye. Each of these advanced materials represents significant technological innovations in their respective fields.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Advanced Material | Primary Application

1.Metal-Organic Frameworks (MOFs) | Carbon capture and gas storage
2.Magnetorheological Fluids | Shock absorbers in vehicle suspensions
3.Perovskite | Solar cells and LEDs
4.Hydrogel | Smart contact lenses

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

All pairs are correctly matched.

Metal-Organic Frameworks (MOFs) are porous crystalline materials with extremely high surface areas, making them ideal for carbon capture and gas storage. Their tunable pore sizes allow selective adsorption of specific gases.

Magnetorheological fluids change their viscosity in response to magnetic fields, making them perfect for vehicle shock absorbers that can adjust stiffness based on road conditions.

Perovskite materials have emerged as promising alternatives to silicon in solar cells due to their excellent light absorption and charge transport properties, and are also used in LED technology.

Hydrogels are water-containing polymer networks used in smart contact lenses that can monitor health parameters like glucose levels or deliver medications while maintaining comfort and oxygen permeability to the eye. Each of these advanced materials represents significant technological innovations in their respective fields.

Solution: D

All pairs are correctly matched.

Magnetorheological fluids change their viscosity in response to magnetic fields, making them perfect for vehicle shock absorbers that can adjust stiffness based on road conditions.

Perovskite materials have emerged as promising alternatives to silicon in solar cells due to their excellent light absorption and charge transport properties, and are also used in LED technology.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points In the context of neuromorphic computing, consider the following statements: It aims to mimic the architecture and functioning of the human brain using electronic circuits. It consumes significantly more power than conventional computing for the same tasks. It uses artificial synapses and neurons to process information. Intel’s Loihi chip is an example of a commercial neuromorphic processor. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Neuromorphic computing aims to mimic the architecture and functioning of the human brain using electronic circuits, creating systems that process information in ways similar to biological neural networks. It uses artificial synapses and neurons as the fundamental processing units, often implemented as specialized hardware that simulates neural connections. Intel’s Loihi chip is indeed a commercial example of a neuromorphic processor, featuring over 130,000 artificial neurons and 130 million synapses. Statement 2 is incorrect. Rather than consuming more power, neuromorphic computing actually offers significant energy efficiency advantages over conventional computing for certain tasks, particularly pattern recognition and sensory processing. This efficiency comes from the event-driven, parallel nature of neuromorphic systems that only activate when information needs to be processed, similar to how the brain conserves energy. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Neuromorphic computing aims to mimic the architecture and functioning of the human brain using electronic circuits, creating systems that process information in ways similar to biological neural networks. It uses artificial synapses and neurons as the fundamental processing units, often implemented as specialized hardware that simulates neural connections. Intel’s Loihi chip is indeed a commercial example of a neuromorphic processor, featuring over 130,000 artificial neurons and 130 million synapses. Statement 2 is incorrect. Rather than consuming more power, neuromorphic computing actually offers significant energy efficiency advantages over conventional computing for certain tasks, particularly pattern recognition and sensory processing. This efficiency comes from the event-driven, parallel nature of neuromorphic systems that only activate when information needs to be processed, similar to how the brain conserves energy.

#### 7. Question

In the context of neuromorphic computing, consider the following statements:

• It aims to mimic the architecture and functioning of the human brain using electronic circuits.

• It consumes significantly more power than conventional computing for the same tasks.

• It uses artificial synapses and neurons to process information.

• Intel’s Loihi chip is an example of a commercial neuromorphic processor.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Neuromorphic computing aims to mimic the architecture and functioning of the human brain using electronic circuits, creating systems that process information in ways similar to biological neural networks. It uses artificial synapses and neurons as the fundamental processing units, often implemented as specialized hardware that simulates neural connections. Intel’s Loihi chip is indeed a commercial example of a neuromorphic processor, featuring over 130,000 artificial neurons and 130 million synapses.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Rather than consuming more power, neuromorphic computing actually offers significant energy efficiency advantages over conventional computing for certain tasks, particularly pattern recognition and sensory processing. This efficiency comes from the event-driven, parallel nature of neuromorphic systems that only activate when information needs to be processed, similar to how the brain conserves energy.

Solution: C

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The concept of ‘Continuous Liquid Interface Production’ (CLIP) is associated with: (a) A novel technique in 3D printing that is 25-100 times faster than conventional methods (b) A process to produce pharmaceutical drugs in continuous batches rather than discrete steps (c) A method to manufacture semiconductor chips using liquid precursors (d) An oil extraction technique that minimizes environmental damage Correct Solution: A Option (a) is correct. Continuous Liquid Interface Production (CLIP) is indeed a novel technique in 3D printing that is significantly faster (25-100 times) than conventional methods. Developed by Carbon, Inc., CLIP works by projecting ultraviolet light through an oxygen-permeable window into a reservoir of UV-curable resin. The light causes the resin to solidify, while a continuous flow of oxygen creates a “dead zone” (a thin uncured layer) between the window and the curing part. This allows the object to be pulled continuously from the resin rather than layer-by-layer, dramatically increasing speed while maintaining or improving resolution. The technology has revolutionized additive manufacturing for industries that require rapid prototyping or customized production, including automotive parts, medical devices, and consumer products. Incorrect Solution: A Option (a) is correct. Continuous Liquid Interface Production (CLIP) is indeed a novel technique in 3D printing that is significantly faster (25-100 times) than conventional methods. Developed by Carbon, Inc., CLIP works by projecting ultraviolet light through an oxygen-permeable window into a reservoir of UV-curable resin. The light causes the resin to solidify, while a continuous flow of oxygen creates a “dead zone” (a thin uncured layer) between the window and the curing part. This allows the object to be pulled continuously from the resin rather than layer-by-layer, dramatically increasing speed while maintaining or improving resolution. The technology has revolutionized additive manufacturing for industries that require rapid prototyping or customized production, including automotive parts, medical devices, and consumer products.

#### 8. Question

The concept of ‘Continuous Liquid Interface Production’ (CLIP) is associated with:

• (a) A novel technique in 3D printing that is 25-100 times faster than conventional methods

• (b) A process to produce pharmaceutical drugs in continuous batches rather than discrete steps

• (c) A method to manufacture semiconductor chips using liquid precursors

• (d) An oil extraction technique that minimizes environmental damage

Solution: A

Option (a) is correct.

Continuous Liquid Interface Production (CLIP) is indeed a novel technique in 3D printing that is significantly faster (25-100 times) than conventional methods. Developed by Carbon, Inc., CLIP works by projecting ultraviolet light through an oxygen-permeable window into a reservoir of UV-curable resin. The light causes the resin to solidify, while a continuous flow of oxygen creates a “dead zone” (a thin uncured layer) between the window and the curing part. This allows the object to be pulled continuously from the resin rather than layer-by-layer, dramatically increasing speed while maintaining or improving resolution. The technology has revolutionized additive manufacturing for industries that require rapid prototyping or customized production, including automotive parts, medical devices, and consumer products.

Solution: A

Option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Deep Space Optical Communications (DSOC) system, consider the following statements: It uses radio waves for data transmission from deep space missions. It achieved first light with NASA’s Psyche mission in 2023. It can transmit data at rates 10-100 times faster than current radio frequency systems. It requires precise pointing due to the narrow beam width of the signal. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. The Deep Space Optical Communications (DSOC) system did achieve “first light” with NASA’s Psyche mission in late 2023, marking the first demonstration of optical communications from beyond lunar orbit. DSOC can indeed transmit data at rates 10-100 times faster than current radio frequency systems, which is one of its primary advantages for future deep space missions. The system does require extremely precise pointing due to the narrow beam width of laser signals – even tiny deviations can cause signal loss over vast distances. Statement 1 is incorrect. DSOC uses laser light, not radio waves, for data transmission. This shift from radio frequency to optical wavelengths is the fundamental innovation of DSOC, allowing for higher data rates with lower power requirements and smaller hardware. Incorrect Solution: B Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. The Deep Space Optical Communications (DSOC) system did achieve “first light” with NASA’s Psyche mission in late 2023, marking the first demonstration of optical communications from beyond lunar orbit. DSOC can indeed transmit data at rates 10-100 times faster than current radio frequency systems, which is one of its primary advantages for future deep space missions. The system does require extremely precise pointing due to the narrow beam width of laser signals – even tiny deviations can cause signal loss over vast distances. Statement 1 is incorrect. DSOC uses laser light, not radio waves, for data transmission. This shift from radio frequency to optical wavelengths is the fundamental innovation of DSOC, allowing for higher data rates with lower power requirements and smaller hardware.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Deep Space Optical Communications (DSOC) system, consider the following statements:

• It uses radio waves for data transmission from deep space missions.

• It achieved first light with NASA’s Psyche mission in 2023.

• It can transmit data at rates 10-100 times faster than current radio frequency systems.

• It requires precise pointing due to the narrow beam width of the signal.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

The Deep Space Optical Communications (DSOC) system did achieve “first light” with NASA’s Psyche mission in late 2023, marking the first demonstration of optical communications from beyond lunar orbit. DSOC can indeed transmit data at rates 10-100 times faster than current radio frequency systems, which is one of its primary advantages for future deep space missions. The system does require extremely precise pointing due to the narrow beam width of laser signals – even tiny deviations can cause signal loss over vast distances.

Statement 1 is incorrect. DSOC uses laser light, not radio waves, for data transmission. This shift from radio frequency to optical wavelengths is the fundamental innovation of DSOC, allowing for higher data rates with lower power requirements and smaller hardware.

Solution: B

Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Recently in news, which of the following best describes the ‘Mosaic Principle’ in genetic engineering? (a) Creating organisms with genetic material from multiple species to improve crop yields (b) Using viral vectors to deliver therapeutic genes to treat genetic disorders (c) Engineering bacteria to produce complex pharmaceutical compounds through multiple pathways (d) Combining genomes from different species to create synthetic organisms for environmental remediation Correct Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The Mosaic Principle in genetic engineering, which has been in news recently, refers to engineering bacteria with combinations of metabolic pathways from various organisms to produce complex pharmaceutical compounds. This approach has gained attention as researchers have successfully engineered microorganisms to produce medications and biochemicals that were previously difficult or expensive to synthesize. Unlike traditional genetic engineering that might transfer single genes, the Mosaic Principle involves integrating multiple biochemical pathways from diverse sources, creating a “mosaic” of genetic material that enables microorganisms to perform complex biosynthesis. Recent breakthroughs using this approach have led to more efficient production of antimalarial drugs, antibiotics, and other high-value pharmaceuticals. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The Mosaic Principle in genetic engineering, which has been in news recently, refers to engineering bacteria with combinations of metabolic pathways from various organisms to produce complex pharmaceutical compounds. This approach has gained attention as researchers have successfully engineered microorganisms to produce medications and biochemicals that were previously difficult or expensive to synthesize. Unlike traditional genetic engineering that might transfer single genes, the Mosaic Principle involves integrating multiple biochemical pathways from diverse sources, creating a “mosaic” of genetic material that enables microorganisms to perform complex biosynthesis. Recent breakthroughs using this approach have led to more efficient production of antimalarial drugs, antibiotics, and other high-value pharmaceuticals.

#### 10. Question

Recently in news, which of the following best describes the ‘Mosaic Principle’ in genetic engineering?

• (a) Creating organisms with genetic material from multiple species to improve crop yields

• (b) Using viral vectors to deliver therapeutic genes to treat genetic disorders

• (c) Engineering bacteria to produce complex pharmaceutical compounds through multiple pathways

• (d) Combining genomes from different species to create synthetic organisms for environmental remediation

Solution: C

Option (c) is correct.

The Mosaic Principle in genetic engineering, which has been in news recently, refers to engineering bacteria with combinations of metabolic pathways from various organisms to produce complex pharmaceutical compounds. This approach has gained attention as researchers have successfully engineered microorganisms to produce medications and biochemicals that were previously difficult or expensive to synthesize. Unlike traditional genetic engineering that might transfer single genes, the Mosaic Principle involves integrating multiple biochemical pathways from diverse sources, creating a “mosaic” of genetic material that enables microorganisms to perform complex biosynthesis. Recent breakthroughs using this approach have led to more efficient production of antimalarial drugs, antibiotics, and other high-value pharmaceuticals.

Solution: C

Option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Retina, embedded with photoreceptors in the form of rod and cone cells, is responsible for converting light into neutral signals. Although RNA- based Therapies provide permanent cure to genetic mutations of retinal diseases, it involves several long term side effects. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The retina is responsible for converting light into neutral signals which are then sent to the brain via the optic nerve it contains specialized cells called photoreceptors (rods and cones), that detect light and colour enabling us to see A damage to the retina disrupt this process, leading to Vision impairment or blindness. Hence statement 1 is correct RNA based Therapies involve RNA to correct genetic defects or modulate gene expression. RNA based Therapies are used for treating several retinal diseases; small RNA molecules that bind to specific RNA sequences to correct genetic errors ; also, often RNA editing technique correct specific mutations at RNA level without altering the DNA. Unlike DNA based therapy, RNA therapies are temporary and do not alter the patient’s genome, reducing the risk of long term side effects. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The retina is responsible for converting light into neutral signals which are then sent to the brain via the optic nerve it contains specialized cells called photoreceptors (rods and cones), that detect light and colour enabling us to see A damage to the retina disrupt this process, leading to Vision impairment or blindness. Hence statement 1 is correct RNA based Therapies involve RNA to correct genetic defects or modulate gene expression. RNA based Therapies are used for treating several retinal diseases; small RNA molecules that bind to specific RNA sequences to correct genetic errors ; also, often RNA editing technique correct specific mutations at RNA level without altering the DNA. Unlike DNA based therapy, RNA therapies are temporary and do not alter the patient’s genome, reducing the risk of long term side effects. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Retina, embedded with photoreceptors in the form of rod and cone cells, is responsible for converting light into neutral signals.

• Although RNA- based Therapies provide permanent cure to genetic mutations of retinal diseases, it involves several long term side effects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The retina is responsible for converting light into neutral signals which are then sent to the brain via the optic nerve

• it contains specialized cells called photoreceptors (rods and cones), that detect light and colour enabling us to see

• A damage to the retina disrupt this process, leading to Vision impairment or blindness.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• RNA based Therapies involve RNA to correct genetic defects or modulate gene expression.

• RNA based Therapies are used for treating several retinal diseases; small RNA molecules that bind to specific RNA sequences to correct genetic errors ; also, often RNA editing technique correct specific mutations at RNA level without altering the DNA.

• Unlike DNA based therapy, RNA therapies are temporary and do not alter the patient’s genome, reducing the risk of long term side effects.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The retina is responsible for converting light into neutral signals which are then sent to the brain via the optic nerve

• it contains specialized cells called photoreceptors (rods and cones), that detect light and colour enabling us to see

• A damage to the retina disrupt this process, leading to Vision impairment or blindness.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• RNA based Therapies involve RNA to correct genetic defects or modulate gene expression.

• Unlike DNA based therapy, RNA therapies are temporary and do not alter the patient’s genome, reducing the risk of long term side effects.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding working of Zero Bacteria Technology : It uses silver nanoparticles to damage bacterial cell membranes It uses ultraviolet light to prevent bacterial replication It uses bacteriophage filters to disrupt bacterial toxins How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The zero bacteria Technology has been developed by the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru. It is a water purification technology that eliminates bacterial contamination from water sources; it works using the following methods: Nano particle coating : silver nanoparticles desert bacteria cell membrane causing cell death UV light Irradiation : destroys bacterial DNA preventing replication Electrostatic filtration : High voltage filters attract and trap bacteria Specialised filtration systems remove bacteria using fine pore filters, sometimes infused with anti microbial agents Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Bacteriophage are viruses that infects and replicates within bacteria The Zero bacteria Technology do not employ bacteriophage filters for destruction of bacteria. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The zero bacteria Technology has been developed by the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru. It is a water purification technology that eliminates bacterial contamination from water sources; it works using the following methods: Nano particle coating : silver nanoparticles desert bacteria cell membrane causing cell death UV light Irradiation : destroys bacterial DNA preventing replication Electrostatic filtration : High voltage filters attract and trap bacteria Specialised filtration systems remove bacteria using fine pore filters, sometimes infused with anti microbial agents Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Bacteriophage are viruses that infects and replicates within bacteria The Zero bacteria Technology do not employ bacteriophage filters for destruction of bacteria. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding working of Zero Bacteria Technology :

• It uses silver nanoparticles to damage bacterial cell membranes

• It uses ultraviolet light to prevent bacterial replication

• It uses bacteriophage filters to disrupt bacterial toxins

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The zero bacteria Technology has been developed by the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru. It is a water purification technology that eliminates bacterial contamination from water sources; it works using the following methods:

• Nano particle coating : silver nanoparticles desert bacteria cell membrane causing cell death

• UV light Irradiation : destroys bacterial DNA preventing replication

• Electrostatic filtration : High voltage filters attract and trap bacteria

• Specialised filtration systems remove bacteria using fine pore filters, sometimes infused with anti microbial agents

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Bacteriophage are viruses that infects and replicates within bacteria

• The Zero bacteria Technology do not employ bacteriophage filters for destruction of bacteria.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Nano particle coating : silver nanoparticles desert bacteria cell membrane causing cell death

• UV light Irradiation : destroys bacterial DNA preventing replication

• Electrostatic filtration : High voltage filters attract and trap bacteria

• Specialised filtration systems remove bacteria using fine pore filters, sometimes infused with anti microbial agents

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Bacteriophage are viruses that infects and replicates within bacteria

• The Zero bacteria Technology do not employ bacteriophage filters for destruction of bacteria.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Lower sodium salt substitutes decrease the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Statement – II : Sodium encourages fluid retainment in the body that increases fluid volume of the blood resulting in raised blood pressure. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : A Sodium, the main ingredient of the common salt, encourages human body to retain fluid, which can increase the fluid volume of the blood and raise the blood pressure. Increased blood pressure is a major reason for cardiovascular diseases. Lower sodium salt substitutes help in combating hypertension, cardiovascular disease and stroke caused by excessive salt intake; these substitutes contain potassium chloride, magnesium sulphate, calcium chloride, which help lower sodium in the body without compromising taste; this in the long term, help in maintaining a stable blood pressure level and mitigating the risk of cardiovascular diseases. WHO recommend less than 5 gram of salt (2 gram) sodium per day for adults. Hence statements 1 and 2 is correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution : A Sodium, the main ingredient of the common salt, encourages human body to retain fluid, which can increase the fluid volume of the blood and raise the blood pressure. Increased blood pressure is a major reason for cardiovascular diseases. Lower sodium salt substitutes help in combating hypertension, cardiovascular disease and stroke caused by excessive salt intake; these substitutes contain potassium chloride, magnesium sulphate, calcium chloride, which help lower sodium in the body without compromising taste; this in the long term, help in maintaining a stable blood pressure level and mitigating the risk of cardiovascular diseases. WHO recommend less than 5 gram of salt (2 gram) sodium per day for adults. Hence statements 1 and 2 is correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Lower sodium salt substitutes decrease the risk of cardiovascular diseases.

Statement – II :

Sodium encourages fluid retainment in the body that increases fluid volume of the blood resulting in raised blood pressure.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : A

• Sodium, the main ingredient of the common salt, encourages human body to retain fluid, which can increase the fluid volume of the blood and raise the blood pressure.

• Increased blood pressure is a major reason for cardiovascular diseases.

• Lower sodium salt substitutes help in combating hypertension, cardiovascular disease and stroke caused by excessive salt intake; these substitutes contain potassium chloride, magnesium sulphate, calcium chloride, which help lower sodium in the body without compromising taste; this in the long term, help in maintaining a stable blood pressure level and mitigating the risk of cardiovascular diseases.

• WHO recommend less than 5 gram of salt (2 gram) sodium per day for adults.

Hence statements 1 and 2 is correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution : A

• Sodium, the main ingredient of the common salt, encourages human body to retain fluid, which can increase the fluid volume of the blood and raise the blood pressure.

• Increased blood pressure is a major reason for cardiovascular diseases.

• WHO recommend less than 5 gram of salt (2 gram) sodium per day for adults.

Hence statements 1 and 2 is correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Mission 300, recently in news, is related to: (a) Wind power generation in the North polar region (b) Promotion of electric vehicles in rural areas of Northeast India by 2030 (c) Development of supercomputers by Microsoft by 2030 (d) Electrification initiative in the Sub Saharan Africa Correct Solution : D Mission 300 is a large scale electrification initiative aimed at providing electricity to 300 million people in the sub Saharan Africa by 2030 through grid expansion, mini grids and off grid solar solutions It has been launched in 2025 by World Bank, African Development Bank in collaboration with Rockefeller Foundation, Global Energy Alliance for People and Planet, Sustainable Energy for all and Energy Sector Management Assistance program Under it government, private investor and multilateral banks will drive large scale electrification, expand National grid, while deploying mini grids and off grid solar for rural and remote areas. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution : D Mission 300 is a large scale electrification initiative aimed at providing electricity to 300 million people in the sub Saharan Africa by 2030 through grid expansion, mini grids and off grid solar solutions It has been launched in 2025 by World Bank, African Development Bank in collaboration with Rockefeller Foundation, Global Energy Alliance for People and Planet, Sustainable Energy for all and Energy Sector Management Assistance program Under it government, private investor and multilateral banks will drive large scale electrification, expand National grid, while deploying mini grids and off grid solar for rural and remote areas. Hence option D is correct

#### 14. Question

Mission 300, recently in news, is related to:

• (a) Wind power generation in the North polar region

• (b) Promotion of electric vehicles in rural areas of Northeast India by 2030

• (c) Development of supercomputers by Microsoft by 2030

• (d) Electrification initiative in the Sub Saharan Africa

Solution : D

• Mission 300 is a large scale electrification initiative aimed at providing electricity to 300 million people in the sub Saharan Africa by 2030 through grid expansion, mini grids and off grid solar solutions

• It has been launched in 2025 by World Bank, African Development Bank in collaboration with Rockefeller Foundation, Global Energy Alliance for People and Planet, Sustainable Energy for all and Energy Sector Management Assistance program

• Under it government, private investor and multilateral banks will drive large scale electrification, expand National grid, while deploying mini grids and off grid solar for rural and remote areas.

Hence option D is correct

Solution : D

Hence option D is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Regarding ShakthiSAT , which of the following is *correct*? (a) First ever satellite whose design and development will be done only by college students from rural areas (b) A satellite dedicated to analysing development of cyclones in the Indian Ocean region for better forecasting (c) It is an all girls lunar mission involving participation from several countries (d) A satellite dedicated to provide seamless communication systems in rural and remote regions Correct Solution : C ShakthiSAT has been conceptualised by ISRO to be launched in September 2026 on board Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle. It is all girls lunar mission involving the design, build and launch of a satellite to the lunar Orbit showcasing Global talent in space exploration It includes participation of 12000 girls from 108 countries, aged 14 to 18 years from African countries and 14 to 16 years from other regions The girls will be trained in Chennai to build pay load for the satellite Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution : C ShakthiSAT has been conceptualised by ISRO to be launched in September 2026 on board Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle. It is all girls lunar mission involving the design, build and launch of a satellite to the lunar Orbit showcasing Global talent in space exploration It includes participation of 12000 girls from 108 countries, aged 14 to 18 years from African countries and 14 to 16 years from other regions The girls will be trained in Chennai to build pay load for the satellite Hence option C is correct

#### 15. Question

Regarding ShakthiSAT , which of the following is *correct*?

• (a) First ever satellite whose design and development will be done only by college students from rural areas

• (b) A satellite dedicated to analysing development of cyclones in the Indian Ocean region for better forecasting

• (c) It is an all girls lunar mission involving participation from several countries

• (d) A satellite dedicated to provide seamless communication systems in rural and remote regions

Solution : C

• ShakthiSAT has been conceptualised by ISRO to be launched in September 2026 on board Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.

• It is all girls lunar mission involving the design, build and launch of a satellite to the lunar Orbit showcasing Global talent in space exploration

• It includes participation of 12000 girls from 108 countries, aged 14 to 18 years from African countries and 14 to 16 years from other regions

• The girls will be trained in Chennai to build pay load for the satellite

Hence option C is correct

Solution : C

• ShakthiSAT has been conceptualised by ISRO to be launched in September 2026 on board Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.

• It is all girls lunar mission involving the design, build and launch of a satellite to the lunar Orbit showcasing Global talent in space exploration

• It includes participation of 12000 girls from 108 countries, aged 14 to 18 years from African countries and 14 to 16 years from other regions

• The girls will be trained in Chennai to build pay load for the satellite

Hence option C is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points With reference to CHAPEA Project, recently in news, which of the following is *correct*? (a) Development of manures with artificially cultured nitrifying bacteria (b) A project to study challenges of Mars missions by involving volunteers living in simulated Mars habitat (c) An initiative to slow down bioaccumulation of nanoplastics in end consumers. (d) A project to study the long term effects of habitation on the lunar surface Correct Solution : B CHAPEA Project has been launched by NASA as part of the Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analogue. It involves four volunteers living in a simulated Mars habitat for a year to study the challenges of long duration mission to the Mars. The habitat called Mars Dune Alpha was a 1700 square feet 3D printed structure at the Johnson Space Centre in Texas designed to replicate Martian conditions including a backdrop of red, rocky cliffs and simulated Martian soil. The crew experienced conditions similar to those on the Red planet including spacewalk in Marswalk suits, growing vegetables and dealing with communication delays, limited resources and prolonged isolation. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B CHAPEA Project has been launched by NASA as part of the Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analogue. It involves four volunteers living in a simulated Mars habitat for a year to study the challenges of long duration mission to the Mars. The habitat called Mars Dune Alpha was a 1700 square feet 3D printed structure at the Johnson Space Centre in Texas designed to replicate Martian conditions including a backdrop of red, rocky cliffs and simulated Martian soil. The crew experienced conditions similar to those on the Red planet including spacewalk in Marswalk suits, growing vegetables and dealing with communication delays, limited resources and prolonged isolation. Hence option B is correct

#### 16. Question

With reference to CHAPEA Project, recently in news, which of the following is *correct*?

• (a) Development of manures with artificially cultured nitrifying bacteria

• (b) A project to study challenges of Mars missions by involving volunteers living in simulated Mars habitat

• (c) An initiative to slow down bioaccumulation of nanoplastics in end consumers.

• (d) A project to study the long term effects of habitation on the lunar surface

Solution : B

• CHAPEA Project has been launched by NASA as part of the Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analogue.

• It involves four volunteers living in a simulated Mars habitat for a year to study the challenges of long duration mission to the Mars.

• The habitat called Mars Dune Alpha was a 1700 square feet 3D printed structure at the Johnson Space Centre in Texas designed to replicate Martian conditions including a backdrop of red, rocky cliffs and simulated Martian soil.

• The crew experienced conditions similar to those on the Red planet including spacewalk in Marswalk suits, growing vegetables and dealing with communication delays, limited resources and prolonged isolation.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• CHAPEA Project has been launched by NASA as part of the Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analogue.

• It involves four volunteers living in a simulated Mars habitat for a year to study the challenges of long duration mission to the Mars.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points The MeDevIS Platform, sometimes seen in news, has been launched by : (a) World Health Organisation (b) United Nations Development Programme (c) World Bank (d) NASA Correct Solution : A MeDevIS or Medical Devices Information System is an online platform designed by the World Health Organisation. It is the first Global open access to information on medical devices it is designed to support government regulators and users in their decision making on selection, procurement and use of medical devices for diagnostics, testing and treatment of diseases and health conditions. It includes 2301 types of medical devices used for a broad ranging health issues including reproductive, maternal, newborn and Child Health, non communicable diseases including cancer, cardiovascular diseases, diabetes as well as infectious diseases such as covid-19. It replaces paper based literature search across multiple publications with non standard device names which can add to the complexity Along with providing a single platform, it also aims to help make the naming of medical devices more simple. The platform references two International naming systems- the European Medical Device nomenclature and the Global Medical Device nomenclature which assist in regulatory approval procurement and inventory management Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution : A MeDevIS or Medical Devices Information System is an online platform designed by the World Health Organisation. It is the first Global open access to information on medical devices it is designed to support government regulators and users in their decision making on selection, procurement and use of medical devices for diagnostics, testing and treatment of diseases and health conditions. It includes 2301 types of medical devices used for a broad ranging health issues including reproductive, maternal, newborn and Child Health, non communicable diseases including cancer, cardiovascular diseases, diabetes as well as infectious diseases such as covid-19. It replaces paper based literature search across multiple publications with non standard device names which can add to the complexity Along with providing a single platform, it also aims to help make the naming of medical devices more simple. The platform references two International naming systems- the European Medical Device nomenclature and the Global Medical Device nomenclature which assist in regulatory approval procurement and inventory management Hence option A is correct

#### 17. Question

The MeDevIS Platform, sometimes seen in news, has been launched by :

• (a) World Health Organisation

• (b) United Nations Development Programme

• (c) World Bank

Solution : A

• MeDevIS or Medical Devices Information System is an online platform designed by the World Health Organisation.

• It is the first Global open access to information on medical devices

• it is designed to support government regulators and users in their decision making on selection, procurement and use of medical devices for diagnostics, testing and treatment of diseases and health conditions.

• It includes 2301 types of medical devices used for a broad ranging health issues including reproductive, maternal, newborn and Child Health, non communicable diseases including cancer, cardiovascular diseases, diabetes as well as infectious diseases such as covid-19.

• It replaces paper based literature search across multiple publications with non standard device names which can add to the complexity

• Along with providing a single platform, it also aims to help make the naming of medical devices more simple.

• The platform references two International naming systems- the European Medical Device nomenclature and the Global Medical Device nomenclature which assist in regulatory approval procurement and inventory management

Hence option A is correct

Solution : A

• MeDevIS or Medical Devices Information System is an online platform designed by the World Health Organisation.

• It is the first Global open access to information on medical devices

• It replaces paper based literature search across multiple publications with non standard device names which can add to the complexity

• Along with providing a single platform, it also aims to help make the naming of medical devices more simple.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Ultra processed foods (UPF) are responsible for increasing insulin resistance in human body. Statement – II : UPFs lack Advanced Glycation End products, which are responsible for breaking down blood sugar. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : C Ultra processed foods include the common fast foods including breakfast cereals, fried foods, burgers and bakery and confectionery items, etc. UPFs cause rapid blood sugar rise and insulin resistance over time; (with insulin resistance, the cells don’t react and don’t open up, resulting in excessive sugar in the blood) These are low in fibre and high in calories, contributing to weight gain and obesity which are major risk factors for diabetes in individuals. Hence statement 1 is correct UPFs are rich in advanced glycation end products (AGE); these are harmful compounds formed through glycation – a process where sugars react with proteins or fats during high temperature cooking like frying or roasting These compounds contribute to oxidative stress which is an imbalance between free radicals and antioxidants leading to inflammation and cell damage. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C Ultra processed foods include the common fast foods including breakfast cereals, fried foods, burgers and bakery and confectionery items, etc. UPFs cause rapid blood sugar rise and insulin resistance over time; (with insulin resistance, the cells don’t react and don’t open up, resulting in excessive sugar in the blood) These are low in fibre and high in calories, contributing to weight gain and obesity which are major risk factors for diabetes in individuals. Hence statement 1 is correct UPFs are rich in advanced glycation end products (AGE); these are harmful compounds formed through glycation – a process where sugars react with proteins or fats during high temperature cooking like frying or roasting These compounds contribute to oxidative stress which is an imbalance between free radicals and antioxidants leading to inflammation and cell damage. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Ultra processed foods (UPF) are responsible for increasing insulin resistance in human body.

Statement – II :

UPFs lack Advanced Glycation End products, which are responsible for breaking down blood sugar.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : C

• Ultra processed foods include the common fast foods including breakfast cereals, fried foods, burgers and bakery and confectionery items, etc.

• UPFs cause rapid blood sugar rise and insulin resistance over time; (with insulin resistance, the cells don’t react and don’t open up, resulting in excessive sugar in the blood)

• These are low in fibre and high in calories, contributing to weight gain and obesity which are major risk factors for diabetes in individuals.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• UPFs are rich in advanced glycation end products (AGE); these are harmful compounds formed through glycation – a process where sugars react with proteins or fats during high temperature cooking like frying or roasting

• These compounds contribute to oxidative stress which is an imbalance between free radicals and antioxidants leading to inflammation and cell damage.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution : C

• Ultra processed foods include the common fast foods including breakfast cereals, fried foods, burgers and bakery and confectionery items, etc.

• UPFs cause rapid blood sugar rise and insulin resistance over time; (with insulin resistance, the cells don’t react and don’t open up, resulting in excessive sugar in the blood)

• These are low in fibre and high in calories, contributing to weight gain and obesity which are major risk factors for diabetes in individuals.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• These compounds contribute to oxidative stress which is an imbalance between free radicals and antioxidants leading to inflammation and cell damage.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points BioSaarthi Initiative, recently in news, is related to : (a) Cultivation of organic fruits and assistance for their export (b) Global mentorship program to nurture biotech startups of India (c) Pilot project for administering Pneumonia vaccine among olders above 65 years (d) Preparation of biocovers for landfill areas Correct Solution : B BioSaarthi is a structured Global mentorship program aimed at nurturing India’s emerging Biotech startup through expert guidance and capacity building It will be implemented by Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council under the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India It intends to foster India’s biotechnology ecosystem by supporting startups, foster Innovation and promoting Global competitiveness through mentorship It includes structured sessions for selected startups, with dedicated Mentor- mentee engagement; involvement of overseas experts specially from Indian diaspora to support innovation ecosystem and promote collaboration between industry, academia and government institutions. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution : B BioSaarthi is a structured Global mentorship program aimed at nurturing India’s emerging Biotech startup through expert guidance and capacity building It will be implemented by Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council under the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India It intends to foster India’s biotechnology ecosystem by supporting startups, foster Innovation and promoting Global competitiveness through mentorship It includes structured sessions for selected startups, with dedicated Mentor- mentee engagement; involvement of overseas experts specially from Indian diaspora to support innovation ecosystem and promote collaboration between industry, academia and government institutions. Hence option B is correct

#### 19. Question

BioSaarthi Initiative, recently in news, is related to :

• (a) Cultivation of organic fruits and assistance for their export

• (b) Global mentorship program to nurture biotech startups of India

• (c) Pilot project for administering Pneumonia vaccine among olders above 65 years

• (d) Preparation of biocovers for landfill areas

Solution : B

• BioSaarthi is a structured Global mentorship program aimed at nurturing India’s emerging Biotech startup through expert guidance and capacity building

• It will be implemented by Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council under the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India

• It intends to foster India’s biotechnology ecosystem by supporting startups, foster Innovation and promoting Global competitiveness through mentorship

• It includes structured sessions for selected startups, with dedicated Mentor- mentee engagement; involvement of overseas experts specially from Indian diaspora to support innovation ecosystem and promote collaboration between industry, academia and government institutions.

Hence option B is correct

Solution : B

• BioSaarthi is a structured Global mentorship program aimed at nurturing India’s emerging Biotech startup through expert guidance and capacity building

• It will be implemented by Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council under the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India

• It intends to foster India’s biotechnology ecosystem by supporting startups, foster Innovation and promoting Global competitiveness through mentorship

Hence option B is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs : Objects in space : Description Seyfert galaxy : Extremely slow moving comets Pulsar : Luminous active Galactic nuclei with extremely powerful magnetic field Blazar : Sources of high energy Gamma ray photons How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution : B Seyfert galaxies are one of the two largest groups of active galaxies, along with Quasar host galaxies they have quadar like nuclei with very high surface brightness whose spectra reveal strong high ionization emission lines. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Pulsars are highly magnetized rotating neutron stars that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation out of its magnetic poles this radiation is observed only when a beam of emission is pointing towards the earth Neutron stars are very dense and have short, regular rotational periods, which produces a very precise interval between pulses that ranges from milliseconds to seconds for an individual Pulsar. These one of the source of ultra high energy cosmic rays. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Blazars are active Galactic nuclei with a relativistic jet directed very nearly towards an observer These are powerful sources of emissions across the electromagnetic spectrum and are observed to be sources of high energy Gamma ray photons Hence pair 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : B Seyfert galaxies are one of the two largest groups of active galaxies, along with Quasar host galaxies they have quadar like nuclei with very high surface brightness whose spectra reveal strong high ionization emission lines. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Pulsars are highly magnetized rotating neutron stars that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation out of its magnetic poles this radiation is observed only when a beam of emission is pointing towards the earth Neutron stars are very dense and have short, regular rotational periods, which produces a very precise interval between pulses that ranges from milliseconds to seconds for an individual Pulsar. These one of the source of ultra high energy cosmic rays. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Blazars are active Galactic nuclei with a relativistic jet directed very nearly towards an observer These are powerful sources of emissions across the electromagnetic spectrum and are observed to be sources of high energy Gamma ray photons Hence pair 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following pairs :

Objects in space : Description

• Seyfert galaxy : Extremely slow moving comets

• Pulsar : Luminous active Galactic nuclei with extremely powerful magnetic field

• Blazar : Sources of high energy Gamma ray photons

How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution : B

• Seyfert galaxies are one of the two largest groups of active galaxies, along with Quasar host galaxies

• they have quadar like nuclei with very high surface brightness whose spectra reveal strong high ionization emission lines.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Pulsars are highly magnetized rotating neutron stars that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation out of its magnetic poles

• this radiation is observed only when a beam of emission is pointing towards the earth

• Neutron stars are very dense and have short, regular rotational periods, which produces a very precise interval between pulses that ranges from milliseconds to seconds for an individual Pulsar.

• These one of the source of ultra high energy cosmic rays.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Blazars are active Galactic nuclei with a relativistic jet directed very nearly towards an observer

• These are powerful sources of emissions across the electromagnetic spectrum and are observed to be sources of high energy Gamma ray photons

Hence pair 3 is correct

Solution : B

• Seyfert galaxies are one of the two largest groups of active galaxies, along with Quasar host galaxies

• they have quadar like nuclei with very high surface brightness whose spectra reveal strong high ionization emission lines.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Pulsars are highly magnetized rotating neutron stars that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation out of its magnetic poles

• this radiation is observed only when a beam of emission is pointing towards the earth

• Neutron stars are very dense and have short, regular rotational periods, which produces a very precise interval between pulses that ranges from milliseconds to seconds for an individual Pulsar.

• These one of the source of ultra high energy cosmic rays.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Blazars are active Galactic nuclei with a relativistic jet directed very nearly towards an observer

• These are powerful sources of emissions across the electromagnetic spectrum and are observed to be sources of high energy Gamma ray photons

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC) is responsible for hosting genomic data sequenced under the Genome India Project. The Framework for Exchange of Data (FeED) Protocols was launched under the guidelines of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) for uniform hospital-based genome data sharing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC), located in Faridabad, is India’s first national life sciences data repository, and it is supported by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). It serves as the host platform for storing genomic data sequenced under the Genome India Project (GIP). In May 2025, the IBDC archived whole genome sequencing data for 10,000 individuals, making it publicly accessible as part of the initiative to map India’s genetic diversity. Statement 2 is incorrect. The FeED Protocols were launched under the Biotech-PRIDE guidelines, not ICMR, and are designed for secure and fair genomic data sharing at the national level. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC), located in Faridabad, is India’s first national life sciences data repository, and it is supported by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). It serves as the host platform for storing genomic data sequenced under the Genome India Project (GIP). In May 2025, the IBDC archived whole genome sequencing data for 10,000 individuals, making it publicly accessible as part of the initiative to map India’s genetic diversity. Statement 2 is incorrect. The FeED Protocols were launched under the Biotech-PRIDE guidelines, not ICMR, and are designed for secure and fair genomic data sharing at the national level.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC) is responsible for hosting genomic data sequenced under the Genome India Project.

• The Framework for Exchange of Data (FeED) Protocols was launched under the guidelines of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) for uniform hospital-based genome data sharing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A Statement 1 is correct.

The Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC), located in Faridabad, is India’s first national life sciences data repository, and it is supported by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).

• It serves as the host platform for storing genomic data sequenced under the Genome India Project (GIP). In May 2025, the IBDC archived whole genome sequencing data for 10,000 individuals, making it publicly accessible as part of the initiative to map India’s genetic diversity.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The FeED Protocols were launched under the Biotech-PRIDE guidelines, not ICMR, and are designed for secure and fair genomic data sharing at the national level.

Solution: A Statement 1 is correct.

The Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC), located in Faridabad, is India’s first national life sciences data repository, and it is supported by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).

Statement 2 is incorrect. The FeED Protocols were launched under the Biotech-PRIDE guidelines, not ICMR, and are designed for secure and fair genomic data sharing at the national level.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Next Generation Sequencing (NGS): Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) can identify antimicrobial resistance and track disease outbreaks. NGS plays no role in conservation biology as it cannot sequence DNA from non-human species. NGS is widely used in sequencing genomes for crop improvement and developing drought-resistant varieties. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statements 1 is correct. Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) is a powerful genomic tool that can identify antimicrobial resistance (AMR) by detecting genetic mutations responsible for drug resistance. It is also widely used in pathogen surveillance and outbreak tracking, including in the study of viral and bacterial transmission dynamics (e.g., COVID-19, tuberculosis). This real-time genomic surveillance aids public health interventions. Statement 2 is incorrect. NGS does play a role in conservation biology, especially in sequencing DNA from non-human species, including endangered animals and wild plant varieties. It enables population genomics, genetic diversity assessments, and monitoring of ecosystem health, which are crucial for wildlife conservation and biodiversity studies. Statement 3 is correct. NGS is extensively used in agricultural biotechnology. It helps sequence crop genomes, identify favourable traits, and develop varieties resistant to drought, pests, and diseases. For example, drought-resistant rice or disease-resistant maize lines have been developed through genome mapping and marker-assisted selection made possible by NGS. Incorrect Solution: B Statements 1 is correct. Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) is a powerful genomic tool that can identify antimicrobial resistance (AMR) by detecting genetic mutations responsible for drug resistance. It is also widely used in pathogen surveillance and outbreak tracking, including in the study of viral and bacterial transmission dynamics (e.g., COVID-19, tuberculosis). This real-time genomic surveillance aids public health interventions. Statement 2 is incorrect. NGS does play a role in conservation biology, especially in sequencing DNA from non-human species, including endangered animals and wild plant varieties. It enables population genomics, genetic diversity assessments, and monitoring of ecosystem health, which are crucial for wildlife conservation and biodiversity studies. Statement 3 is correct. NGS is extensively used in agricultural biotechnology. It helps sequence crop genomes, identify favourable traits, and develop varieties resistant to drought, pests, and diseases. For example, drought-resistant rice or disease-resistant maize lines have been developed through genome mapping and marker-assisted selection made possible by NGS.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Next Generation Sequencing (NGS):

• Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) can identify antimicrobial resistance and track disease outbreaks.

• NGS plays no role in conservation biology as it cannot sequence DNA from non-human species.

• NGS is widely used in sequencing genomes for crop improvement and developing drought-resistant varieties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statements 1 is correct.

Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) is a powerful genomic tool that can identify antimicrobial resistance (AMR) by detecting genetic mutations responsible for drug resistance.

• It is also widely used in pathogen surveillance and outbreak tracking, including in the study of viral and bacterial transmission dynamics (e.g., COVID-19, tuberculosis). This real-time genomic surveillance aids public health interventions.

Statement 2 is incorrect. NGS does play a role in conservation biology, especially in sequencing DNA from non-human species, including endangered animals and wild plant varieties.

• It enables population genomics, genetic diversity assessments, and monitoring of ecosystem health, which are crucial for wildlife conservation and biodiversity studies.

Statement 3 is correct. NGS is extensively used in agricultural biotechnology. It helps sequence crop genomes, identify favourable traits, and develop varieties resistant to drought, pests, and diseases.

• For example, drought-resistant rice or disease-resistant maize lines have been developed through genome mapping and marker-assisted selection made possible by NGS.

Solution: B

Statements 1 is correct.

Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) is a powerful genomic tool that can identify antimicrobial resistance (AMR) by detecting genetic mutations responsible for drug resistance.

Statement 2 is incorrect. NGS does play a role in conservation biology, especially in sequencing DNA from non-human species, including endangered animals and wild plant varieties.

• It enables population genomics, genetic diversity assessments, and monitoring of ecosystem health, which are crucial for wildlife conservation and biodiversity studies.

• For example, drought-resistant rice or disease-resistant maize lines have been developed through genome mapping and marker-assisted selection made possible by NGS.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Third Launch Pad at Sriharikota is designed to accommodate both LVM3 and scaled-up versions of Next Generation Launch Vehicles (NGLVs). Statement II: All three stages of the Next Generation Launch Vehicles use cryogenic fuel to improve payload efficiency. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct as per official documentation: the Third Launch Pad (TLP) is configured to support LVM3 and scaled-up configurations of NGLVs using semi-cryogenic stages. Statement II is incorrect because only the booster stage of NGLVs uses semi-cryogenic propulsion, not all three stages. Cryogenic stages are generally used in the upper stage, while the lower stages may vary depending on the vehicle design. Hence, the assertion that all three stages are cryogenic is factually inaccurate. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct as per official documentation: the Third Launch Pad (TLP) is configured to support LVM3 and scaled-up configurations of NGLVs using semi-cryogenic stages. Statement II is incorrect because only the booster stage of NGLVs uses semi-cryogenic propulsion, not all three stages. Cryogenic stages are generally used in the upper stage, while the lower stages may vary depending on the vehicle design. Hence, the assertion that all three stages are cryogenic is factually inaccurate.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Third Launch Pad at Sriharikota is designed to accommodate both LVM3 and scaled-up versions of Next Generation Launch Vehicles (NGLVs).

Statement II: All three stages of the Next Generation Launch Vehicles use cryogenic fuel to improve payload efficiency.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Solution: C

Statement I is correct as per official documentation: the Third Launch Pad (TLP) is configured to support LVM3 and scaled-up configurations of NGLVs using semi-cryogenic stages.

Statement II is incorrect because only the booster stage of NGLVs uses semi-cryogenic propulsion, not all three stages. Cryogenic stages are generally used in the upper stage, while the lower stages may vary depending on the vehicle design.

Hence, the assertion that all three stages are cryogenic is factually inaccurate.

Solution: C

Statement I is correct as per official documentation: the Third Launch Pad (TLP) is configured to support LVM3 and scaled-up configurations of NGLVs using semi-cryogenic stages.

Hence, the assertion that all three stages are cryogenic is factually inaccurate.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding stem cells: Embryonic stem cells are totipotent, capable of developing into a complete organism including extra-embryonic tissues. Adult stem cells found in tissues like bone marrow are typically multipotent, limited to differentiating into cell types of their tissue of origin. Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPSCs) are derived by reprogramming specialized adult cells back into an embryonic-like pluripotent state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Stem cell potency refers to a cell’s ability to differentiate into other cell types. This capability exists along a continuum, from cells that can form an entire organism to those limited to becoming only specific cell types: Totipotent Cells: Can develop into a complete organism, including embryonic and extra-embryonic tissues like the placenta. Pluripotent Cells: Can form all three germ layers (endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm) but not extra-embryonic tissues Multipotent Cells: Can differentiate into multiple, but limited, cell types, usually within a specific tissue or organ Oligopotent/Unipotent Cells: Can form only a few or one specific cell type Embryonic stem cells of the inner cell mass are pluripotent, meaning they are able to differentiate to generate primitive ectoderm, which ultimately differentiates during gastrulation into all derivatives of the three primary germ layers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect, while statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Stem cell potency refers to a cell’s ability to differentiate into other cell types. This capability exists along a continuum, from cells that can form an entire organism to those limited to becoming only specific cell types: Totipotent Cells: Can develop into a complete organism, including embryonic and extra-embryonic tissues like the placenta. Pluripotent Cells: Can form all three germ layers (endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm) but not extra-embryonic tissues Multipotent Cells: Can differentiate into multiple, but limited, cell types, usually within a specific tissue or organ Oligopotent/Unipotent Cells: Can form only a few or one specific cell type Embryonic stem cells of the inner cell mass are pluripotent, meaning they are able to differentiate to generate primitive ectoderm, which ultimately differentiates during gastrulation into all derivatives of the three primary germ layers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect, while statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding stem cells:

• Embryonic stem cells are totipotent, capable of developing into a complete organism including extra-embryonic tissues.

• Adult stem cells found in tissues like bone marrow are typically multipotent, limited to differentiating into cell types of their tissue of origin.

• Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPSCs) are derived by reprogramming specialized adult cells back into an embryonic-like pluripotent state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Stem cell potency refers to a cell’s ability to differentiate into other cell types. This capability exists along a continuum, from cells that can form an entire organism to those limited to becoming only specific cell types:

• Totipotent Cells: Can develop into a complete organism, including embryonic and extra-embryonic tissues like the placenta. Pluripotent Cells: Can form all three germ layers (endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm) but not extra-embryonic tissues

• Multipotent Cells: Can differentiate into multiple, but limited, cell types, usually within a specific tissue or organ

• Oligopotent/Unipotent Cells: Can form only a few or one specific cell type

Embryonic stem cells of the inner cell mass are pluripotent, meaning they are able to differentiate to generate primitive ectoderm, which ultimately differentiates during gastrulation into all derivatives of the three primary germ layers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect, while statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct.

Solution: B

• Multipotent Cells: Can differentiate into multiple, but limited, cell types, usually within a specific tissue or organ

• Oligopotent/Unipotent Cells: Can form only a few or one specific cell type

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s Analog Space Mission: It was conducted jointly by ISRO’s Human Spaceflight Centre and international partners like ESA and UAE. Ladakh was chosen due to similarities with the lunar and Martian geomorphology and radiation levels. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s Analog Space Mission was developed by ISRO’s Human Spaceflight Centre in collaboration with domestic partners, not with international space agencies like ESA (European Space Agency) or UAE’s Mohammed bin Rashid Space Centre. The mission was aimed at simulating space-like conditions to train astronauts and test mission protocols for future lunar expeditions. While other countries have their own analog missions (e.g., NASA’s NEEMO, UAE’s SIRIUS), the Indian mission is independently developed and implemented. Statement 2 is correct. Ladakh offers geomorphological, geochemical, and exobiological similarities with Mars and the Moon. The region has: Dry, rocky terrain, resembling lunar and Martian surfaces Permafrost and hot springs, indicating past or subsurface water High ultraviolet (UV) and cosmic radiation exposure due to high altitude and thin atmosphere Low vegetation and minimal human interference, offering ideal isolation for analog experiments These conditions make Ladakh a natural test bed for simulating space exploration scenarios. Analog missions involve both hardware testing and human simulation, often assessing psychological, physiological, and behavioural responses of astronauts in simulated environments. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s Analog Space Mission was developed by ISRO’s Human Spaceflight Centre in collaboration with domestic partners, not with international space agencies like ESA (European Space Agency) or UAE’s Mohammed bin Rashid Space Centre. The mission was aimed at simulating space-like conditions to train astronauts and test mission protocols for future lunar expeditions. While other countries have their own analog missions (e.g., NASA’s NEEMO, UAE’s SIRIUS), the Indian mission is independently developed and implemented. Statement 2 is correct. Ladakh offers geomorphological, geochemical, and exobiological similarities with Mars and the Moon. The region has: Dry, rocky terrain, resembling lunar and Martian surfaces Permafrost and hot springs, indicating past or subsurface water High ultraviolet (UV) and cosmic radiation exposure due to high altitude and thin atmosphere Low vegetation and minimal human interference, offering ideal isolation for analog experiments These conditions make Ladakh a natural test bed for simulating space exploration scenarios. Analog missions involve both hardware testing and human simulation, often assessing psychological, physiological, and behavioural responses of astronauts in simulated environments.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s Analog Space Mission:

• It was conducted jointly by ISRO’s Human Spaceflight Centre and international partners like ESA and UAE.

• Ladakh was chosen due to similarities with the lunar and Martian geomorphology and radiation levels.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

India’s Analog Space Mission was developed by ISRO’s Human Spaceflight Centre in collaboration with domestic partners, not with international space agencies like ESA (European Space Agency) or UAE’s Mohammed bin Rashid Space Centre.

• The mission was aimed at simulating space-like conditions to train astronauts and test mission protocols for future lunar expeditions. While other countries have their own analog missions (e.g., NASA’s NEEMO, UAE’s SIRIUS), the Indian mission is independently developed and implemented.

Statement 2 is correct.

Ladakh offers geomorphological, geochemical, and exobiological similarities with Mars and the Moon.

The region has:

• Dry, rocky terrain, resembling lunar and Martian surfaces

• Permafrost and hot springs, indicating past or subsurface water

• High ultraviolet (UV) and cosmic radiation exposure due to high altitude and thin atmosphere

• Low vegetation and minimal human interference, offering ideal isolation for analog experiments

These conditions make Ladakh a natural test bed for simulating space exploration scenarios.

Analog missions involve both hardware testing and human simulation, often assessing psychological, physiological, and behavioural responses of astronauts in simulated environments.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct.

Ladakh offers geomorphological, geochemical, and exobiological similarities with Mars and the Moon.

The region has:

• Dry, rocky terrain, resembling lunar and Martian surfaces

• Permafrost and hot springs, indicating past or subsurface water

• High ultraviolet (UV) and cosmic radiation exposure due to high altitude and thin atmosphere

• Low vegetation and minimal human interference, offering ideal isolation for analog experiments

These conditions make Ladakh a natural test bed for simulating space exploration scenarios.

Analog missions involve both hardware testing and human simulation, often assessing psychological, physiological, and behavioural responses of astronauts in simulated environments.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Man, in his quest to master the earth, has forgotten that mastery without reverence leads not to dominion but to decay. The cities he has raised shine bright by night, but their rivers run black by day. Air that once carried the scent of harvest now bears the burden of smoke and acid. In our pride, we speak of “development,” but too often it is development that devours the very foundations of life. Pollution is not merely a by-product of industry; it is the price we pay for progress without foresight. The ancients, who lived in closer communion with the seasons, feared the wrath of nature. Modern man, with his steel and silicon, has cast aside that fear—and with it, his wisdom. No legislation can succeed where conscience has failed. The health of the planet will not be saved by machines alone, but by a rebirth of humility. Until we understand that clean rivers and blue skies are not luxuries, but legacies—we shall continue to poison our inheritance. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Environmental degradation is mainly a technological problem that can be solved by advanced innovations. A fundamental change in human values is essential for addressing the issue of pollution. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Correct Solution : B Justification : Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage clearly downplays technology as the sole solution, saying “pollution is not merely a by-product of industry” and “no legislation can succeed where conscience has failed.” Statement 2 is correct: The emphasis on “rebirth of humility” and “fundamental change in human values” suggests the author sees moral transformation as essential. Incorrect Correct Solution : B Justification : Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage clearly downplays technology as the sole solution, saying “pollution is not merely a by-product of industry” and “no legislation can succeed where conscience has failed.” Statement 2 is correct: The emphasis on “rebirth of humility” and “fundamental change in human values” suggests the author sees moral transformation as essential.

#### 26. Question

Man, in his quest to master the earth, has forgotten that mastery without reverence leads not to dominion but to decay. The cities he has raised shine bright by night, but their rivers run black by day. Air that once carried the scent of harvest now bears the burden of smoke and acid. In our pride, we speak of “development,” but too often it is development that devours the very foundations of life.

Pollution is not merely a by-product of industry; it is the price we pay for progress without foresight. The ancients, who lived in closer communion with the seasons, feared the wrath of nature. Modern man, with his steel and silicon, has cast aside that fear—and with it, his wisdom.

No legislation can succeed where conscience has failed. The health of the planet will not be saved by machines alone, but by a rebirth of humility. Until we understand that clean rivers and blue skies are not luxuries, but legacies—we shall continue to poison our inheritance.

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

• Environmental degradation is mainly a technological problem that can be solved by advanced innovations.

• A fundamental change in human values is essential for addressing the issue of pollution.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 and 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Solution : B

Justification :

Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage clearly downplays technology as the sole solution, saying “pollution is not merely a by-product of industry” and “no legislation can succeed where conscience has failed.”

Statement 2 is correct: The emphasis on “rebirth of humility” and “fundamental change in human values” suggests the author sees moral transformation as essential.

Correct Solution : B

Justification :

Statement 2 is correct: The emphasis on “rebirth of humility” and “fundamental change in human values” suggests the author sees moral transformation as essential.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Freedom of expression is essential to a democratic society, but it is not merely a matter of legal entitlement. It is equally a matter of ethical responsibility and civic maturity. The true strength of a society lies not only in allowing individuals to speak freely but in cultivating the wisdom to use that speech constructively. While laws may guard against censorship, it is cultural restraint and moral discernment that prevent expression from turning into provocation, insult, or incitement. A society that prizes both liberty and harmony must develop habits of listening, self-regulation, and empathy—without which freedom becomes noise, not dialogue. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the passage? A. Freedom of expression must be regulated by the state to avoid social disharmony. B. The effectiveness of free speech depends more on individual responsibility than on legal protections. C. Free speech should be limited to constructive topics that promote social unity. D. Without censorship, freedom of expression inevitably leads to conflict and disorder. Correct Correct Solution : B Justification : Option (a) is incorrect: The passage emphasizes ethical and cultural restraint, not state regulation, as the key to managing free speech. Option (b) is correct: The central idea is that freedom of expression requires maturity, wisdom, and responsibility from individuals—not just legal safeguards. Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not suggest limiting speech only to constructive topics; it talks about discernment, not prescription. Option (d) is incorrect: This is a fatalistic and extreme view. The passage argues for a balance through civic norms, not inevitable conflict. Incorrect Correct Solution : B Justification : Option (a) is incorrect: The passage emphasizes ethical and cultural restraint, not state regulation, as the key to managing free speech. Option (b) is correct: The central idea is that freedom of expression requires maturity, wisdom, and responsibility from individuals—not just legal safeguards. Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not suggest limiting speech only to constructive topics; it talks about discernment, not prescription. Option (d) is incorrect: This is a fatalistic and extreme view. The passage argues for a balance through civic norms, not inevitable conflict.

#### 27. Question

Freedom of expression is essential to a democratic society, but it is not merely a matter of legal entitlement. It is equally a matter of ethical responsibility and civic maturity. The true strength of a society lies not only in allowing individuals to speak freely but in cultivating the wisdom to use that speech constructively. While laws may guard against censorship, it is cultural restraint and moral discernment that prevent expression from turning into provocation, insult, or incitement. A society that prizes both liberty and harmony must develop habits of listening, self-regulation, and empathy—without which freedom becomes noise, not dialogue.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the passage?

• A. Freedom of expression must be regulated by the state to avoid social disharmony.

• B. The effectiveness of free speech depends more on individual responsibility than on legal protections.

• C. Free speech should be limited to constructive topics that promote social unity.

• D. Without censorship, freedom of expression inevitably leads to conflict and disorder.

Correct Solution : B

Justification :

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage emphasizes ethical and cultural restraint, not state regulation, as the key to managing free speech.

Option (b) is correct: The central idea is that freedom of expression requires maturity, wisdom, and responsibility from individuals—not just legal safeguards. Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not suggest limiting speech only to constructive topics; it talks about discernment, not prescription.

Option (d) is incorrect: This is a fatalistic and extreme view. The passage argues for a balance through civic norms, not inevitable conflict.

Correct Solution : B

Justification :

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage emphasizes ethical and cultural restraint, not state regulation, as the key to managing free speech.

Option (d) is incorrect: This is a fatalistic and extreme view. The passage argues for a balance through civic norms, not inevitable conflict.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points The following sequence is generated by dividing 55 by natural numbers: 0, 1, 1, 3, 0, X, 6, 7, …… What is X? A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 0 Correct Correct solution : C Answer Justification : Here, on dividing 55 by natural numbers (starting from 1), the sequence of remainders will be: 55 ÷ 1 = Remainder 0 55 ÷ 2 = Remainder 1 55 ÷ 3 = Remainder 1 55 ÷ 4 = Remainder 3 55 ÷ 5 = Remainder 0 55 ÷ 6 = Remainder 1 55 ÷ 7 = Remainder 6 55 ÷ 8 = Remainder 7 Hence, X = 1. Incorrect Correct solution : C Answer Justification : Here, on dividing 55 by natural numbers (starting from 1), the sequence of remainders will be: 55 ÷ 1 = Remainder 0 55 ÷ 2 = Remainder 1 55 ÷ 3 = Remainder 1 55 ÷ 4 = Remainder 3 55 ÷ 5 = Remainder 0 55 ÷ 6 = Remainder 1 55 ÷ 7 = Remainder 6 55 ÷ 8 = Remainder 7 Hence, X = 1.

#### 28. Question

The following sequence is generated by dividing 55 by natural numbers:

0, 1, 1, 3, 0, X, 6, 7, …… What is X?

Correct solution : C

Answer Justification :

Here, on dividing 55 by natural numbers (starting from 1), the sequence of remainders will be:

55 ÷ 1 = Remainder 0

55 ÷ 2 = Remainder 1

55 ÷ 3 = Remainder 1

55 ÷ 4 = Remainder 3

55 ÷ 5 = Remainder 0

55 ÷ 6 = Remainder 1

55 ÷ 7 = Remainder 6

55 ÷ 8 = Remainder 7

Hence, X = 1.

Correct solution : C

Answer Justification :

Here, on dividing 55 by natural numbers (starting from 1), the sequence of remainders will be:

55 ÷ 1 = Remainder 0

55 ÷ 2 = Remainder 1

55 ÷ 3 = Remainder 1

55 ÷ 4 = Remainder 3

55 ÷ 5 = Remainder 0

55 ÷ 6 = Remainder 1

55 ÷ 7 = Remainder 6

55 ÷ 8 = Remainder 7

Hence, X = 1.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points In how many ways can the letters of the word SCHOOL be arranged such that the 2 O’s never come together? A. 240 B. 360 C. 420 D. 600 Correct Correct Answer : A Answer Justification : Word = SCHOOL Letters = S, C, H, O, O, L (6 letters with 2 O’s) Total permutations without any restriction = 6! / 2! = 720 / 2 = 360 Now calculate the number of arrangements where O’s are together: Treat both O’s as a block ⇒ (OO), so 5 items now: S, C, H, L, (OO) Arrangements = 5! = 120 Required (O’s not together) = 360 – 120 = 240 Hence, Correct answer is (a) 240. Incorrect Correct Answer : A Answer Justification : Word = SCHOOL Letters = S, C, H, O, O, L (6 letters with 2 O’s) Total permutations without any restriction = 6! / 2! = 720 / 2 = 360 Now calculate the number of arrangements where O’s are together: Treat both O’s as a block ⇒ (OO), so 5 items now: S, C, H, L, (OO) Arrangements = 5! = 120 Required (O’s not together) = 360 – 120 = 240 Hence, Correct answer is (a) 240.

#### 29. Question

In how many ways can the letters of the word SCHOOL be arranged such that the 2 O’s never come together?

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Word = SCHOOL

Letters = S, C, H, O, O, L (6 letters with 2 O’s)

Total permutations without any restriction = 6! / 2! = 720 / 2 = 360

Now calculate the number of arrangements where O’s are together:

Treat both O’s as a block ⇒ (OO), so 5 items now: S, C, H, L, (OO)

Arrangements = 5! = 120

Required (O’s not together) = 360 – 120 = 240

Hence, Correct answer is (a) 240.

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Word = SCHOOL

Letters = S, C, H, O, O, L (6 letters with 2 O’s)

Total permutations without any restriction = 6! / 2! = 720 / 2 = 360

Now calculate the number of arrangements where O’s are together:

Treat both O’s as a block ⇒ (OO), so 5 items now: S, C, H, L, (OO)

Arrangements = 5! = 120

Required (O’s not together) = 360 – 120 = 240

Hence, Correct answer is (a) 240.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points X and Y are natural numbers other than 1, and Y is greater than X. Which of the following represents the largest number? (a) XY (b) X/Y (c) Y/X (d) (X + Y)/XY Correct Correct solution: A Justification Given X,Y>1 and Y>X : (a) XY: Large product. (b) X/Y : Less than 1. (c) Y/X : Greater than 1, less than Y. (d) (X+Y)/XY=1/X+1/Y : Less than 2. Clearly, XY is the largest. Answer: (a) XY. Incorrect Correct solution: A Justification Given X,Y>1 and Y>X : (a) XY: Large product. (b) X/Y : Less than 1. (c) Y/X : Greater than 1, less than Y. (d) (X+Y)/XY=1/X+1/Y : Less than 2. Clearly, XY is the largest. Answer: (a) XY.

#### 30. Question

X and Y are natural numbers other than 1, and Y is greater than X. Which of the following represents the largest number?

• (d) (X + Y)/XY

Correct solution: A

Justification

Given X,Y>1 and Y>X :

• (a) XY: Large product.

• (b) X/Y : Less than 1.

• (c) Y/X : Greater than 1, less than Y.

• (d) (X+Y)/XY=1/X+1/Y : Less than 2.

Clearly, XY is the largest.

Answer: (a) XY.

Correct solution: A

Justification

Given X,Y>1 and Y>X :

• (a) XY: Large product.

• (b) X/Y : Less than 1.

• (c) Y/X : Greater than 1, less than Y.

• (d) (X+Y)/XY=1/X+1/Y : Less than 2.

Clearly, XY is the largest.

Answer: (a) XY.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE

Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE

Follow our Twitter Account HERE

Follow our Instagram ID HERE