DAY – 69 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – Science & Technology , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2018 and Mar 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following applications of biotechnology and their benefits: 1. Genetically modified crops Enhanced nutritional value, such as golden rice enriched with Vitamin A. 2. Bt toxin gene in crops Provides resistance to insects without the need for chemical insecticides. 3. Somatic hybridization Direct fusion of plant protoplasts to create a new hybrid plant with desired traits. How many of the above pair/s is/are NOT correctly matched? a) Only one pair b) Only two pairs c) All three pairs d) None of the pairs Correct Answer: d Explanation: Genetically modified crops like golden rice can indeed enhance nutritional value, specifically by being enriched with Vitamin A. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. The Bt toxin gene, derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis, is inserted into crops to make them resistant to certain insects, thereby reducing the need for chemical insecticides. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Somatic hybridization involves the direct fusion of plant protoplasts from different species or varieties to create new hybrid plants that possess the desired traits from both parent plants. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Genetically modified crops like golden rice can indeed enhance nutritional value, specifically by being enriched with Vitamin A. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. The Bt toxin gene, derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis, is inserted into crops to make them resistant to certain insects, thereby reducing the need for chemical insecticides. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Somatic hybridization involves the direct fusion of plant protoplasts from different species or varieties to create new hybrid plants that possess the desired traits from both parent plants. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following applications of biotechnology and their benefits:

1.Genetically modified crops | Enhanced nutritional value, such as golden rice enriched with Vitamin A.
2.Bt toxin gene in crops | Provides resistance to insects without the need for chemical insecticides.
3.Somatic hybridization | Direct fusion of plant protoplasts to create a new hybrid plant with desired traits.

How many of the above pair/s is/are NOT correctly matched?

• a) Only one pair

• b) Only two pairs

• c) All three pairs

• d) None of the pairs

Explanation:

• Genetically modified crops like golden rice can indeed enhance nutritional value, specifically by being enriched with Vitamin A. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

• The Bt toxin gene, derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis, is inserted into crops to make them resistant to certain insects, thereby reducing the need for chemical insecticides. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

• Somatic hybridization involves the direct fusion of plant protoplasts from different species or varieties to create new hybrid plants that possess the desired traits from both parent plants. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Genetically modified crops like golden rice can indeed enhance nutritional value, specifically by being enriched with Vitamin A. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) has application in which of the following fields? Sales and marketing OTTs Face Recognition Weather Prediction Select the correct answer using the code give below: a) 2 and 3 only b) 1,2 and 3 only c) 1,3 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: d Explanation: Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) are computational models inspired by the biological neural networks in the human brain. They are a subset of machine learning algorithms that aim to mimic the way the brain processes information. ANNs consist of interconnected nodes, or neurons, organized in layers. Each neuron receives input signals, processes them using an activation function, and produces an output signal that is passed to other neurons. One of the key features of ANNs is their ability to learn from data. Through a process called training, ANNs adjust the strengths of the connections between neurons to optimize their performance on a specific task. This learning process allows ANNs to recognize patterns, make predictions, classify data, and perform other complex tasks. Sales and marketing: Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) are extensively used in sales and marketing for tasks such as customer behavior analysis, sales forecasting, market segmentation, personalized recommendations, and pricing optimization. OTTs (Over-the-top services): ANNs find applications in OTT platforms for content recommendation, user behavior analysis, personalized content delivery, and improving the overall user experience. Face Recognition: ANNs are widely applied in face recognition systems for tasks like facial detection, verification, and identification. They are used in security systems, surveillance, biometric authentication, and various other applications. Weather Prediction: ANNs are utilized in weather prediction to analyze vast amounts of historical weather data, identify patterns, and forecast future weather conditions accurately. They consider parameters like temperature, humidity, pressure, and wind speed to make predictions. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) are computational models inspired by the biological neural networks in the human brain. They are a subset of machine learning algorithms that aim to mimic the way the brain processes information. ANNs consist of interconnected nodes, or neurons, organized in layers. Each neuron receives input signals, processes them using an activation function, and produces an output signal that is passed to other neurons. One of the key features of ANNs is their ability to learn from data. Through a process called training, ANNs adjust the strengths of the connections between neurons to optimize their performance on a specific task. This learning process allows ANNs to recognize patterns, make predictions, classify data, and perform other complex tasks. Sales and marketing: Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) are extensively used in sales and marketing for tasks such as customer behavior analysis, sales forecasting, market segmentation, personalized recommendations, and pricing optimization. OTTs (Over-the-top services): ANNs find applications in OTT platforms for content recommendation, user behavior analysis, personalized content delivery, and improving the overall user experience. Face Recognition: ANNs are widely applied in face recognition systems for tasks like facial detection, verification, and identification. They are used in security systems, surveillance, biometric authentication, and various other applications. Weather Prediction: ANNs are utilized in weather prediction to analyze vast amounts of historical weather data, identify patterns, and forecast future weather conditions accurately. They consider parameters like temperature, humidity, pressure, and wind speed to make predictions. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) has application in which of the following fields?

• Sales and marketing

• Face Recognition

• Weather Prediction

Select the correct answer using the code give below:

• a) 2 and 3 only

• b) 1,2 and 3 only

• c) 1,3 and 4 only

• d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

• Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) are computational models inspired by the biological neural networks in the human brain. They are a subset of machine learning algorithms that aim to mimic the way the brain processes information. ANNs consist of interconnected nodes, or neurons, organized in layers. Each neuron receives input signals, processes them using an activation function, and produces an output signal that is passed to other neurons.

• One of the key features of ANNs is their ability to learn from data. Through a process called training, ANNs adjust the strengths of the connections between neurons to optimize their performance on a specific task. This learning process allows ANNs to recognize patterns, make predictions, classify data, and perform other complex tasks.

• Sales and marketing: Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) are extensively used in sales and marketing for tasks such as customer behavior analysis, sales forecasting, market segmentation, personalized recommendations, and pricing optimization.

• OTTs (Over-the-top services): ANNs find applications in OTT platforms for content recommendation, user behavior analysis, personalized content delivery, and improving the overall user experience.

• Face Recognition: ANNs are widely applied in face recognition systems for tasks like facial detection, verification, and identification. They are used in security systems, surveillance, biometric authentication, and various other applications.

• Weather Prediction: ANNs are utilized in weather prediction to analyze vast amounts of historical weather data, identify patterns, and forecast future weather conditions accurately. They consider parameters like temperature, humidity, pressure, and wind speed to make predictions.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about transgenic animals: Transgenic animals can be used to study the function of specific genes and their impact on development. The majority of transgenic animals used for research are rabbits. Transgenic animals have been developed to produce human proteins for therapeutic use. Testing vaccine safety using transgenic mice can reduce the need for animal testing in humans. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Transgenic animals are organisms that have had foreign DNA deliberately inserted into their genomes. This genetic modification is done to study gene functions, model human diseases, produce pharmaceutical proteins, and improve agricultural traits. Transgenic animals are commonly used in research to understand gene functions, regulatory mechanisms, and their effects on development and disease processes. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The majority of transgenic animals used for research are mice, not rabbits. Mice are preferred because of their genetic similarity to humans, short reproductive cycles, and the extensive availability of genetic tools for manipulating their genomes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Transgenic animals have been engineered to produce human proteins. For example, transgenic goats have been created to produce antithrombin, a protein used to prevent blood clots, in their milk. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Transgenic mice can be used to evaluate the safety and efficacy of vaccines, potentially reducing the reliance on human subjects for early-stage testing and providing valuable preclinical data. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Transgenic animals are organisms that have had foreign DNA deliberately inserted into their genomes. This genetic modification is done to study gene functions, model human diseases, produce pharmaceutical proteins, and improve agricultural traits. Transgenic animals are commonly used in research to understand gene functions, regulatory mechanisms, and their effects on development and disease processes. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The majority of transgenic animals used for research are mice, not rabbits. Mice are preferred because of their genetic similarity to humans, short reproductive cycles, and the extensive availability of genetic tools for manipulating their genomes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Transgenic animals have been engineered to produce human proteins. For example, transgenic goats have been created to produce antithrombin, a protein used to prevent blood clots, in their milk. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Transgenic mice can be used to evaluate the safety and efficacy of vaccines, potentially reducing the reliance on human subjects for early-stage testing and providing valuable preclinical data. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about transgenic animals:

• Transgenic animals can be used to study the function of specific genes and their impact on development.

• The majority of transgenic animals used for research are rabbits.

• Transgenic animals have been developed to produce human proteins for therapeutic use.

• Testing vaccine safety using transgenic mice can reduce the need for animal testing in humans.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Transgenic animals are organisms that have had foreign DNA deliberately inserted into their genomes. This genetic modification is done to study gene functions, model human diseases, produce pharmaceutical proteins, and improve agricultural traits.

• Transgenic animals are commonly used in research to understand gene functions, regulatory mechanisms, and their effects on development and disease processes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The majority of transgenic animals used for research are mice, not rabbits. Mice are preferred because of their genetic similarity to humans, short reproductive cycles, and the extensive availability of genetic tools for manipulating their genomes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Transgenic animals have been engineered to produce human proteins. For example, transgenic goats have been created to produce antithrombin, a protein used to prevent blood clots, in their milk. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Transgenic mice can be used to evaluate the safety and efficacy of vaccines, potentially reducing the reliance on human subjects for early-stage testing and providing valuable preclinical data. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Transgenic animals are commonly used in research to understand gene functions, regulatory mechanisms, and their effects on development and disease processes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements are true about immunity? Innate immunity are present from birth. Acquired immunity has a memory component. T-lymphocytes produce antibodies. Antibodies are part of the humoral immune response. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1,2 and 4 only c) 2, 3, and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Innate immunity refers to the body’s nonspecific defense mechanisms that are present from birth. These defenses provide immediate protection against a wide range of pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Unlike acquired immunity, which targets specific pathogens, innate immunity does not rely on prior exposure to the pathogen. Instead, it includes physical barriers (such as the skin and mucous membranes), chemical barriers (such as stomach acid and enzymes), cellular barriers (such as phagocytes), and inflammatory responses. These components work together to detect and destroy pathogens indiscriminately. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Acquired immunity, also known as adaptive immunity, is characterized by its specificity and memory. This type of immunity develops in response to exposure to specific pathogens or antigens. One of the key features of acquired immunity is its ability to “remember” past encounters with pathogens, allowing for a quicker and more robust response upon subsequent exposure. Memory cells, including memory B-lymphocytes and memory T-lymphocytes, are formed during the initial immune response and can persist in the body for long period. Hence, statement 2 is correct. T-lymphocytes, or T cells, are a type of white blood cell that plays a central role in cell-mediated immunity. Unlike B-lymphocytes, which are responsible for antibody production, T-lymphocytes do not directly produce antibodies. Instead, they recognize specific antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and coordinate immune responses. There are several types of T-lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and regulatory T cells, each with specialized functions in the immune system. Helper T cells, for example, help activate B-lymphocytes to produce antibodies, while cytotoxic T cells directly attack infected or abnormal cells. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are produced by B-lymphocytes and are a key component of the humoral immune response, which involves the production of antibodies to neutralize pathogens and toxins. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Innate immunity refers to the body’s nonspecific defense mechanisms that are present from birth. These defenses provide immediate protection against a wide range of pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Unlike acquired immunity, which targets specific pathogens, innate immunity does not rely on prior exposure to the pathogen. Instead, it includes physical barriers (such as the skin and mucous membranes), chemical barriers (such as stomach acid and enzymes), cellular barriers (such as phagocytes), and inflammatory responses. These components work together to detect and destroy pathogens indiscriminately. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Acquired immunity, also known as adaptive immunity, is characterized by its specificity and memory. This type of immunity develops in response to exposure to specific pathogens or antigens. One of the key features of acquired immunity is its ability to “remember” past encounters with pathogens, allowing for a quicker and more robust response upon subsequent exposure. Memory cells, including memory B-lymphocytes and memory T-lymphocytes, are formed during the initial immune response and can persist in the body for long period. Hence, statement 2 is correct. T-lymphocytes, or T cells, are a type of white blood cell that plays a central role in cell-mediated immunity. Unlike B-lymphocytes, which are responsible for antibody production, T-lymphocytes do not directly produce antibodies. Instead, they recognize specific antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and coordinate immune responses. There are several types of T-lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and regulatory T cells, each with specialized functions in the immune system. Helper T cells, for example, help activate B-lymphocytes to produce antibodies, while cytotoxic T cells directly attack infected or abnormal cells. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are produced by B-lymphocytes and are a key component of the humoral immune response, which involves the production of antibodies to neutralize pathogens and toxins. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements are true about immunity?

• Innate immunity are present from birth.

• Acquired immunity has a memory component.

• T-lymphocytes produce antibodies.

• Antibodies are part of the humoral immune response.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1,2 and 4 only

• c) 2, 3, and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

• Innate immunity refers to the body’s nonspecific defense mechanisms that are present from birth. These defenses provide immediate protection against a wide range of pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Unlike acquired immunity, which targets specific pathogens, innate immunity does not rely on prior exposure to the pathogen. Instead, it includes physical barriers (such as the skin and mucous membranes), chemical barriers (such as stomach acid and enzymes), cellular barriers (such as phagocytes), and inflammatory responses. These components work together to detect and destroy pathogens indiscriminately. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Acquired immunity, also known as adaptive immunity, is characterized by its specificity and memory. This type of immunity develops in response to exposure to specific pathogens or antigens. One of the key features of acquired immunity is its ability to “remember” past encounters with pathogens, allowing for a quicker and more robust response upon subsequent exposure. Memory cells, including memory B-lymphocytes and memory T-lymphocytes, are formed during the initial immune response and can persist in the body for long period. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• T-lymphocytes, or T cells, are a type of white blood cell that plays a central role in cell-mediated immunity. Unlike B-lymphocytes, which are responsible for antibody production, T-lymphocytes do not directly produce antibodies. Instead, they recognize specific antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and coordinate immune responses. There are several types of T-lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and regulatory T cells, each with specialized functions in the immune system. Helper T cells, for example, help activate B-lymphocytes to produce antibodies, while cytotoxic T cells directly attack infected or abnormal cells. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are produced by B-lymphocytes and are a key component of the humoral immune response, which involves the production of antibodies to neutralize pathogens and toxins. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which condition is caused by the excessive accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain? a) Osteoporosis b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Gout d) Multiple sclerosis Correct Answer: c Explanation: Gout is a form of inflammatory arthritis characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, tendons, and surrounding tissues. When there is an excessive accumulation of uric acid in the blood, it can lead to the formation of sharp, needle-like crystals in the joints, particularly in the big toe, ankle, knee, elbow, wrist, or finger joints. These crystals trigger inflammation, causing intense pain, swelling, redness, and warmth in the affected joint, a condition known as a gout flare or gouty arthritis. Over time, recurrent gout attacks can cause joint damage and deformity if left untreated. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Gout is a form of inflammatory arthritis characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, tendons, and surrounding tissues. When there is an excessive accumulation of uric acid in the blood, it can lead to the formation of sharp, needle-like crystals in the joints, particularly in the big toe, ankle, knee, elbow, wrist, or finger joints. These crystals trigger inflammation, causing intense pain, swelling, redness, and warmth in the affected joint, a condition known as a gout flare or gouty arthritis. Over time, recurrent gout attacks can cause joint damage and deformity if left untreated. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Which condition is caused by the excessive accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain?

• a) Osteoporosis

• b) Rheumatoid arthritis

• d) Multiple sclerosis

Explanation:

• Gout is a form of inflammatory arthritis characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, tendons, and surrounding tissues. When there is an excessive accumulation of uric acid in the blood, it can lead to the formation of sharp, needle-like crystals in the joints, particularly in the big toe, ankle, knee, elbow, wrist, or finger joints. These crystals trigger inflammation, causing intense pain, swelling, redness, and warmth in the affected joint, a condition known as a gout flare or gouty arthritis. Over time, recurrent gout attacks can cause joint damage and deformity if left untreated.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes ‘Biologics’? a) They are a diverse group of medicines derived from human blood and plasma. b) They are a type of biological weapons of mass destruction which uses undetectable and highly infectious microorganisms. c) They are a diverse group of medicines applied to body surfaces such as the skin or mucous membranes to treat ailments. d) A branch of biology that deals with bio-logistics. Correct Answer: a Explanation: A biologic drug (biologics) is a product that is produced from living organisms or contain components of living organisms. Biologic drugs include a wide variety of products derived from human, animal, or microorganisms by using biotechnology. Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: A biologic drug (biologics) is a product that is produced from living organisms or contain components of living organisms. Biologic drugs include a wide variety of products derived from human, animal, or microorganisms by using biotechnology. Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best describes ‘Biologics’?

• a) They are a diverse group of medicines derived from human blood and plasma.

• b) They are a type of biological weapons of mass destruction which uses undetectable and highly infectious microorganisms.

• c) They are a diverse group of medicines applied to body surfaces such as the skin or mucous membranes to treat ailments.

• d) A branch of biology that deals with bio-logistics.

Explanation:

• A biologic drug (biologics) is a product that is produced from living organisms or contain components of living organisms. Biologic drugs include a wide variety of products derived from human, animal, or microorganisms by using biotechnology.

• Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to a Foucault pendulum, consider the following statements: It always seems to swing in the same direction. The rate of its rotation depends on the latitude. At the Equator, a Foucault pendulum does not rotate. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: c Explanation: A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata. Invented by French physicist Léon Foucault in the mid-19th Century, the pendulum provided the first laboratory demonstration in history to show that the Earth spins on its axis. The pendulum in the new Parliament is meant to symbolise the ‘integration of the idea of India with that of the universe’. It helped us understand that the Earth is rotating or spinning. As it swings back and forth, it seems to change its direction over time. This happens because while the pendulum swings, the Earth is spinning beneath making it look like the pendulum is changing its direction. This effect is called the Coriolis Effect. Depending on where you are on Earth, the pendulum will appear to rotate in different ways. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The rate of rotation depends on the latitude. For example, if you’re in the Northern Hemisphere (like in Europe or North America), the pendulum will rotate clockwise. But if you’re in the Southern Hemisphere (like in Australia or South America), it will rotate counter clockwise. By observing this rotation, scientists like Foucault were able to prove that the Earth is spinning on its axis. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The rate becomes slower as the pendulum’s location approaches the Equator. At the Equator, 0° latitude, a Foucault pendulum does not rotate. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata. Invented by French physicist Léon Foucault in the mid-19th Century, the pendulum provided the first laboratory demonstration in history to show that the Earth spins on its axis. The pendulum in the new Parliament is meant to symbolise the ‘integration of the idea of India with that of the universe’. It helped us understand that the Earth is rotating or spinning. As it swings back and forth, it seems to change its direction over time. This happens because while the pendulum swings, the Earth is spinning beneath making it look like the pendulum is changing its direction. This effect is called the Coriolis Effect. Depending on where you are on Earth, the pendulum will appear to rotate in different ways. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The rate of rotation depends on the latitude. For example, if you’re in the Northern Hemisphere (like in Europe or North America), the pendulum will rotate clockwise. But if you’re in the Southern Hemisphere (like in Australia or South America), it will rotate counter clockwise. By observing this rotation, scientists like Foucault were able to prove that the Earth is spinning on its axis. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The rate becomes slower as the pendulum’s location approaches the Equator. At the Equator, 0° latitude, a Foucault pendulum does not rotate. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option(c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

With reference to a Foucault pendulum, consider the following statements:

• It always seems to swing in the same direction.

• The rate of its rotation depends on the latitude.

• At the Equator, a Foucault pendulum does not rotate.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata.

• Invented by French physicist Léon Foucault in the mid-19th Century, the pendulum provided the first laboratory demonstration in history to show that the Earth spins on its axis. The pendulum in the new Parliament is meant to symbolise the ‘integration of the idea of India with that of the universe’.

• It helped us understand that the Earth is rotating or spinning. As it swings back and forth, it seems to change its direction over time. This happens because while the pendulum swings, the Earth is spinning beneath making it look like the pendulum is changing its direction. This effect is called the Coriolis Effect. Depending on where you are on Earth, the pendulum will appear to rotate in different ways. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The rate of rotation depends on the latitude. For example, if you’re in the Northern Hemisphere (like in Europe or North America), the pendulum will rotate clockwise. But if you’re in the Southern Hemisphere (like in Australia or South America), it will rotate counter clockwise. By observing this rotation, scientists like Foucault were able to prove that the Earth is spinning on its axis. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The rate becomes slower as the pendulum’s location approaches the Equator. At the Equator, 0° latitude, a Foucault pendulum does not rotate. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

Explanation:

• A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata.

• The rate becomes slower as the pendulum’s location approaches the Equator. At the Equator, 0° latitude, a Foucault pendulum does not rotate. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Narrow AI refers to AI systems are excellent at their assigned tasks but lack general intelligence. General AI, refers to AI systems that have human-level intelligence. Voice assistants like Siri and Alexa, are examples of General AI. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Based on its ability to mimic human intelligence, artificial intelligence can be divided into three categories. They can be divided into three categories: weak, strong, and super. Weak AI (Narrow AI): It refers to AI systems that are designed to perform specific tasks and are only capable of performing those tasks. These AI systems are excellent at their assigned tasks but lack general intelligence. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Strong AI (General AI): Strong AI, also known as general AI, refers to AI systems that have human-level intelligence or even outperform humans in a variety of tasks. Strong AI would be capable of comprehending, reasoning, learning, and applying knowledge to solve complex problems in the same way that humans do. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Super AI (Artificial Super Intelligence): ASI, or artificial super intelligence, is a hypothetical AI. It is also known as super AI, and we can only think of ASI after we have achieved AGI. Narrow AI works within predefined boundaries and is unable to generalize beyond its specialized domain. Voice assistants like Siri or Alexa, recommendation algorithms, and image recognition systems are all examples of Narrow AI. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Based on its ability to mimic human intelligence, artificial intelligence can be divided into three categories. They can be divided into three categories: weak, strong, and super. Weak AI (Narrow AI): It refers to AI systems that are designed to perform specific tasks and are only capable of performing those tasks. These AI systems are excellent at their assigned tasks but lack general intelligence. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Strong AI (General AI): Strong AI, also known as general AI, refers to AI systems that have human-level intelligence or even outperform humans in a variety of tasks. Strong AI would be capable of comprehending, reasoning, learning, and applying knowledge to solve complex problems in the same way that humans do. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Super AI (Artificial Super Intelligence): ASI, or artificial super intelligence, is a hypothetical AI. It is also known as super AI, and we can only think of ASI after we have achieved AGI. Narrow AI works within predefined boundaries and is unable to generalize beyond its specialized domain. Voice assistants like Siri or Alexa, recommendation algorithms, and image recognition systems are all examples of Narrow AI. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Narrow AI refers to AI systems are excellent at their assigned tasks but lack general intelligence.

• General AI, refers to AI systems that have human-level intelligence.

• Voice assistants like Siri and Alexa, are examples of General AI.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Based on its ability to mimic human intelligence, artificial intelligence can be divided into three categories. They can be divided into three categories: weak, strong, and super.

• Weak AI (Narrow AI): It refers to AI systems that are designed to perform specific tasks and are only capable of performing those tasks. These AI systems are excellent at their assigned tasks but lack general intelligence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Strong AI (General AI): Strong AI, also known as general AI, refers to AI systems that have human-level intelligence or even outperform humans in a variety of tasks. Strong AI would be capable of comprehending, reasoning, learning, and applying knowledge to solve complex problems in the same way that humans do. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Super AI (Artificial Super Intelligence): ASI, or artificial super intelligence, is a hypothetical AI. It is also known as super AI, and we can only think of ASI after we have achieved AGI.

• Narrow AI works within predefined boundaries and is unable to generalize beyond its specialized domain. Voice assistants like Siri or Alexa, recommendation algorithms, and image recognition systems are all examples of Narrow AI. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Based on its ability to mimic human intelligence, artificial intelligence can be divided into three categories. They can be divided into three categories: weak, strong, and super.

• Super AI (Artificial Super Intelligence): ASI, or artificial super intelligence, is a hypothetical AI. It is also known as super AI, and we can only think of ASI after we have achieved AGI.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points How does 6G technology aim to improve network performance? a) By reducing the number of antennas used b) Through the use of unsecured communication channels c) By employing network slicing for prioritizing traffic d) By increasing latency in congested networks Correct Answer: c Explanation: 6G technology aims to improve network performance through various means, and one of the key strategies is employing network slicing for prioritizing traffic. Network slicing allows the division of wider networks into smaller, dedicated networks, enabling different types of traffic to be prioritized and managed separately. This ensures efficient allocation of resources and optimized performance, especially in scenarios with diverse communication requirements. Therefore, by utilizing network slicing, 6G technology enhances network performance by offering tailored services and efficient traffic management, rather than increasing latency or reducing the number of antennas. Additionally, the use of unsecured communication channels would compromise network security rather than improving performance. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: 6G technology aims to improve network performance through various means, and one of the key strategies is employing network slicing for prioritizing traffic. Network slicing allows the division of wider networks into smaller, dedicated networks, enabling different types of traffic to be prioritized and managed separately. This ensures efficient allocation of resources and optimized performance, especially in scenarios with diverse communication requirements. Therefore, by utilizing network slicing, 6G technology enhances network performance by offering tailored services and efficient traffic management, rather than increasing latency or reducing the number of antennas. Additionally, the use of unsecured communication channels would compromise network security rather than improving performance. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 9. Question

How does 6G technology aim to improve network performance?

• a) By reducing the number of antennas used

• b) Through the use of unsecured communication channels

• c) By employing network slicing for prioritizing traffic

• d) By increasing latency in congested networks

Explanation:

• 6G technology aims to improve network performance through various means, and one of the key strategies is employing network slicing for prioritizing traffic. Network slicing allows the division of wider networks into smaller, dedicated networks, enabling different types of traffic to be prioritized and managed separately. This ensures efficient allocation of resources and optimized performance, especially in scenarios with diverse communication requirements.

• Therefore, by utilizing network slicing, 6G technology enhances network performance by offering tailored services and efficient traffic management, rather than increasing latency or reducing the number of antennas. Additionally, the use of unsecured communication channels would compromise network security rather than improving performance.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which feature of Web 5.0 distinguishes it from its predecessors regarding user interaction? a) Real-time data analytics b) Emotional intelligence c) Blockchain encryption d) Social media integration Correct Answer: b Explanation: Emotional intelligence represents a significant advancement in user interaction compared to previous web iterations. Unlike Web 1.0, 2.0, 3.0, and 4.0, which primarily focus on technical functionalities and user input/output, Web 5.0 incorporates emotional intelligence through the use of technologies like blockchain, artificial intelligence, and deep learning. This enables the web platform to understand and respond to users’ emotions, preferences, and needs more effectively, leading to more personalized and human-like interactions. Emotional intelligence enhances user engagement, satisfaction, and overall user experience in the digital realm, setting Web 5.0 apart from its predecessors. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Emotional intelligence represents a significant advancement in user interaction compared to previous web iterations. Unlike Web 1.0, 2.0, 3.0, and 4.0, which primarily focus on technical functionalities and user input/output, Web 5.0 incorporates emotional intelligence through the use of technologies like blockchain, artificial intelligence, and deep learning. This enables the web platform to understand and respond to users’ emotions, preferences, and needs more effectively, leading to more personalized and human-like interactions. Emotional intelligence enhances user engagement, satisfaction, and overall user experience in the digital realm, setting Web 5.0 apart from its predecessors. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Which feature of Web 5.0 distinguishes it from its predecessors regarding user interaction?

• a) Real-time data analytics

• b) Emotional intelligence

• c) Blockchain encryption

• d) Social media integration

Explanation:

• Emotional intelligence represents a significant advancement in user interaction compared to previous web iterations. Unlike Web 1.0, 2.0, 3.0, and 4.0, which primarily focus on technical functionalities and user input/output, Web 5.0 incorporates emotional intelligence through the use of technologies like blockchain, artificial intelligence, and deep learning. This enables the web platform to understand and respond to users’ emotions, preferences, and needs more effectively, leading to more personalized and human-like interactions. Emotional intelligence enhances user engagement, satisfaction, and overall user experience in the digital realm, setting Web 5.0 apart from its predecessors.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle, often seen in news, is a fundamental concept in which of the following theories? (a) Evolution of life on the planet (b) Biotechnology (c) Quantum Mechanics (d) Internet of things (IoT) Correct Solution: C Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics introduced by Werner Heisenberg in 1927. This principle addresses the limits of precision with which certain pairs of physical properties, like position and momentum, can be simultaneously known. The principle asserts that the more precisely the position (x) of a particle is known, the less precisely its momentum (p) can be known, and vice versa. This is not due to technical limitations in measurement but is a fundamental property of quantum systems. https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/fractal-dimensions-quantum-physics-explained/article67535596.ece Incorrect Solution: C Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics introduced by Werner Heisenberg in 1927. This principle addresses the limits of precision with which certain pairs of physical properties, like position and momentum, can be simultaneously known. The principle asserts that the more precisely the position (x) of a particle is known, the less precisely its momentum (p) can be known, and vice versa. This is not due to technical limitations in measurement but is a fundamental property of quantum systems. https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/fractal-dimensions-quantum-physics-explained/article67535596.ece

#### 11. Question

Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle, often seen in news, is a fundamental concept in which of the following theories?

• (a) Evolution of life on the planet

• (b) Biotechnology

• (c) Quantum Mechanics

• (d) Internet of things (IoT)

Solution: C

Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics introduced by Werner Heisenberg in 1927. This principle addresses the limits of precision with which certain pairs of physical properties, like position and momentum, can be simultaneously known.

The principle asserts that the more precisely the position (x) of a particle is known, the less precisely its momentum (p) can be known, and vice versa. This is not due to technical limitations in measurement but is a fundamental property of quantum systems.

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/fractal-dimensions-quantum-physics-explained/article67535596.ece

Solution: C

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/fractal-dimensions-quantum-physics-explained/article67535596.ece

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points What is the primary technology behind the creation of deep fakes? (a) Cryptography (b) Augmented Reality (AR) (c) Generative Adversarial Network (GAN) (d ) Blockchain Correct Solution: C Deep fakes are a synthetic media created by machine-learning algorithms named for the deep-learning methods used in the creation process and the fake events they depict. By using neural networks, Generative Adversarial Network (GAN) can make a significant impact on any industry dealing with data and images. This technology showed that there is a possibility to generate realistic fake photos or replace people’s faces with other ones. This phenomenon was later dubbed deep fake (deep learning + fake). https://www.business-standard.com/elections/lok-sabha-election/google-partners-with-news-publishers-to-curb-deepfakes-ahead-of-elections-124030100801_1.html Incorrect Solution: C Deep fakes are a synthetic media created by machine-learning algorithms named for the deep-learning methods used in the creation process and the fake events they depict. By using neural networks, Generative Adversarial Network (GAN) can make a significant impact on any industry dealing with data and images. This technology showed that there is a possibility to generate realistic fake photos or replace people’s faces with other ones. This phenomenon was later dubbed deep fake (deep learning + fake). https://www.business-standard.com/elections/lok-sabha-election/google-partners-with-news-publishers-to-curb-deepfakes-ahead-of-elections-124030100801_1.html

#### 12. Question

What is the primary technology behind the creation of deep fakes?

• (a) Cryptography

• (b) Augmented Reality (AR)

• (c) Generative Adversarial Network (GAN)

• (d ) Blockchain

Solution: C

Deep fakes are a synthetic media created by machine-learning algorithms named for the deep-learning methods used in the creation process and the fake events they depict.

By using neural networks, Generative Adversarial Network (GAN) can make a significant impact on any industry dealing with data and images. This technology showed that there is a possibility to generate realistic fake photos or replace people’s faces with other ones. This phenomenon was later dubbed deep fake (deep learning + fake).

https://www.business-standard.com/elections/lok-sabha-election/google-partners-with-news-publishers-to-curb-deepfakes-ahead-of-elections-124030100801_1.html

Solution: C

Deep fakes are a synthetic media created by machine-learning algorithms named for the deep-learning methods used in the creation process and the fake events they depict.

https://www.business-standard.com/elections/lok-sabha-election/google-partners-with-news-publishers-to-curb-deepfakes-ahead-of-elections-124030100801_1.html

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Which of the following species uses the “train-rattling” method to attract female counterpart for mating? (a) Lion (b) Peacock (c) Eagle (d) Horse Correct Solution: B Peacocks are known for their elaborate courtship displays, where the male (peacock) fans out its impressive tail feathers (train) and shakes them, creating a rustling or rattling sound to attract female peahens. This combination of visual and auditory signals is a distinctive mating behaviour of peacocks. Incorrect Solution: B Peacocks are known for their elaborate courtship displays, where the male (peacock) fans out its impressive tail feathers (train) and shakes them, creating a rustling or rattling sound to attract female peahens. This combination of visual and auditory signals is a distinctive mating behaviour of peacocks.

#### 13. Question

Which of the following species uses the “train-rattling” method to attract female counterpart for mating?

• (b) Peacock

Solution: B

Peacocks are known for their elaborate courtship displays, where the male (peacock) fans out its impressive tail feathers (train) and shakes them, creating a rustling or rattling sound to attract female peahens. This combination of visual and auditory signals is a distinctive mating behaviour of peacocks.

Solution: B

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “critical and strategic minerals” in India: They are included in the Part A of Schedule II of Mines and Minerals Development and Regulation Act, 1957 (MMDR Act, 1957) It can be auctioned by either central government or state government depending upon whether it is a major or mineral Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D None of the statements given above are correct. The Ministry of Mines had constituted a Committee on 01.11.2022 to identify the critical and strategic minerals. The Committee had, inter-alia, recommended to establish a National Institute or “Centre of Excellence on Critical Minerals” (CECM). The Central Government has further amended the Mines and Minerals Development and Regulation Act, 1957 (MMDR Act, 1957) through the MMDR Amendment Act, 2023, whereby 24 critical and strategic minerals have been inserted in part D to the Schedule-I of the MMDR Act, 1957 which have been identified as critical and strategic minerals for the country. Further, the amended Act has also empowered Central Government to auction critical and strategic minerals blocks. Government of India has launched first tranche of auction of these minerals on 29th November, 2023 for 20 blocks. In addition, the Ministry of Mines under its ‘Science and Technology Programme’ provides grants for Promotion of Research and Innovation in Start-ups and MSMEs in Mining, Mineral Processing, Metallurgy and Recycling Sector (S&T-PRISM). One of the thrust areas under S&T-PRISM includes focus on extraction of strategic and critical minerals at elemental level. The Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) aims to accelerate the development of diverse and sustainable critical energy minerals supply chains through working with host governments and industry to facilitate targeted financial and diplomatic support for strategic projects along the value chain. MSP partners include Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, Norway, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union (represented by the European Commission). Incorrect Solution: D None of the statements given above are correct. The Ministry of Mines had constituted a Committee on 01.11.2022 to identify the critical and strategic minerals. The Committee had, inter-alia, recommended to establish a National Institute or “Centre of Excellence on Critical Minerals” (CECM). The Central Government has further amended the Mines and Minerals Development and Regulation Act, 1957 (MMDR Act, 1957) through the MMDR Amendment Act, 2023, whereby 24 critical and strategic minerals have been inserted in part D to the Schedule-I of the MMDR Act, 1957 which have been identified as critical and strategic minerals for the country. Further, the amended Act has also empowered Central Government to auction critical and strategic minerals blocks. Government of India has launched first tranche of auction of these minerals on 29th November, 2023 for 20 blocks. In addition, the Ministry of Mines under its ‘Science and Technology Programme’ provides grants for Promotion of Research and Innovation in Start-ups and MSMEs in Mining, Mineral Processing, Metallurgy and Recycling Sector (S&T-PRISM). One of the thrust areas under S&T-PRISM includes focus on extraction of strategic and critical minerals at elemental level. The Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) aims to accelerate the development of diverse and sustainable critical energy minerals supply chains through working with host governments and industry to facilitate targeted financial and diplomatic support for strategic projects along the value chain. MSP partners include Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, Norway, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union (represented by the European Commission).

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “critical and strategic minerals” in India:

• They are included in the Part A of Schedule II of Mines and Minerals Development and Regulation Act, 1957 (MMDR Act, 1957)

• It can be auctioned by either central government or state government depending upon whether it is a major or mineral

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

None of the statements given above are correct.

The Ministry of Mines had constituted a Committee on 01.11.2022 to identify the critical and strategic minerals. The Committee had, inter-alia, recommended to establish a National Institute or “Centre of Excellence on Critical Minerals” (CECM).

The Central Government has further amended the Mines and Minerals Development and Regulation Act, 1957 (MMDR Act, 1957) through the MMDR Amendment Act, 2023, whereby 24 critical and strategic minerals have been inserted in part D to the Schedule-I of the MMDR Act, 1957 which have been identified as critical and strategic minerals for the country. Further, the amended Act has also empowered Central Government to auction critical and strategic minerals blocks. Government of India has launched first tranche of auction of these minerals on 29th November, 2023 for 20 blocks.

In addition, the Ministry of Mines under its ‘Science and Technology Programme’ provides grants for Promotion of Research and Innovation in Start-ups and MSMEs in Mining, Mineral Processing, Metallurgy and Recycling Sector (S&T-PRISM). One of the thrust areas under S&T-PRISM includes focus on extraction of strategic and critical minerals at elemental level.

The Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) aims to accelerate the development of diverse and sustainable critical energy minerals supply chains through working with host governments and industry to facilitate targeted financial and diplomatic support for strategic projects along the value chain. MSP partners include Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, Norway, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union (represented by the European Commission).

Solution: D

None of the statements given above are correct.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Aspartame: It is several times sweeter than sugar. When ingested, it is broken down into amino acids for use in protein synthesis and metabolism, Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both of the statements given above are correct. Aspartame is a low-calorie sweetener that has been used for decades as a way to lower one’s intake of added sugars while still providing satisfaction from enjoying something sweet. Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than sugar, and as such only a small amount of the sweetener is needed to match the sweetness provided by sugar. In table top packets and prepared foods and beverages, aspartame is often blended with other sweeteners or food components to minimize bitter flavors and enhance overall taste. Aspartame consists of two amino acids—aspartic acid and phenylalanine. When ingested, aspartame is broken down into these amino acids for use in protein synthesis and metabolism. In addition to aspartic acid and phenylalanine, aspartame digestion also yields a small amount of methanol, a compound that is naturally found in foods like fruits and vegetables and their juices. The amount of methanol resulting from consuming an aspartame-sweetened beverage is about five to six times less than that resulting from the same volume of tomato juice. Aspartame is an artificial (chemical) sweetener widely used in various food and beverage products since the 1980s, including diet drinks, chewing gum, gelatin, ice cream, dairy products such as yogurt, breakfast cereal, toothpaste and medications such as cough drops and chewable vitamins. https://www.who.int/news/item/14-07-2023-aspartame-hazard-and-risk-assessment-results-released Incorrect Solution: C Both of the statements given above are correct. Aspartame is a low-calorie sweetener that has been used for decades as a way to lower one’s intake of added sugars while still providing satisfaction from enjoying something sweet. Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than sugar, and as such only a small amount of the sweetener is needed to match the sweetness provided by sugar. In table top packets and prepared foods and beverages, aspartame is often blended with other sweeteners or food components to minimize bitter flavors and enhance overall taste. Aspartame consists of two amino acids—aspartic acid and phenylalanine. When ingested, aspartame is broken down into these amino acids for use in protein synthesis and metabolism. In addition to aspartic acid and phenylalanine, aspartame digestion also yields a small amount of methanol, a compound that is naturally found in foods like fruits and vegetables and their juices. The amount of methanol resulting from consuming an aspartame-sweetened beverage is about five to six times less than that resulting from the same volume of tomato juice. Aspartame is an artificial (chemical) sweetener widely used in various food and beverage products since the 1980s, including diet drinks, chewing gum, gelatin, ice cream, dairy products such as yogurt, breakfast cereal, toothpaste and medications such as cough drops and chewable vitamins. https://www.who.int/news/item/14-07-2023-aspartame-hazard-and-risk-assessment-results-released

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Aspartame:

• It is several times sweeter than sugar.

• When ingested, it is broken down into amino acids for use in protein synthesis and metabolism,

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both of the statements given above are correct.

Aspartame is a low-calorie sweetener that has been used for decades as a way to lower one’s intake of added sugars while still providing satisfaction from enjoying something sweet. Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than sugar, and as such only a small amount of the sweetener is needed to match the sweetness provided by sugar. In table top packets and prepared foods and beverages, aspartame is often blended with other sweeteners or food components to minimize bitter flavors and enhance overall taste.

Aspartame consists of two amino acids—aspartic acid and phenylalanine. When ingested, aspartame is broken down into these amino acids for use in protein synthesis and metabolism. In addition to aspartic acid and phenylalanine, aspartame digestion also yields a small amount of methanol, a compound that is naturally found in foods like fruits and vegetables and their juices. The amount of methanol resulting from consuming an aspartame-sweetened beverage is about five to six times less than that resulting from the same volume of tomato juice.

Aspartame is an artificial (chemical) sweetener widely used in various food and beverage products since the 1980s, including diet drinks, chewing gum, gelatin, ice cream, dairy products such as yogurt, breakfast cereal, toothpaste and medications such as cough drops and chewable vitamins.

https://www.who.int/news/item/14-07-2023-aspartame-hazard-and-risk-assessment-results-released

Solution: C

Both of the statements given above are correct.

https://www.who.int/news/item/14-07-2023-aspartame-hazard-and-risk-assessment-results-released

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Family Courts Act, 1984- Provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the High Courts in consultation with the Supreme Court for speedy settlement of disputes relating to family affairs. Makes it mandatory for the State Government to set up a Family Court for every area in the State comprising a city whose population exceeds one million. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs and family affairs and for matters connected therewith. Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 3 (1)(a) of the Family Courts Act, it is mandatory for the State Government to set up a Family Court for every area in the State comprising a city or a town whose population exceeds one million. In other areas of the States, the Family Courts may be set up if the State Governments deems it necessary. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs and family affairs and for matters connected therewith. Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 3 (1)(a) of the Family Courts Act, it is mandatory for the State Government to set up a Family Court for every area in the State comprising a city or a town whose population exceeds one million. In other areas of the States, the Family Courts may be set up if the State Governments deems it necessary.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

The Family Courts Act, 1984-

• Provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the High Courts in consultation with the Supreme Court for speedy settlement of disputes relating to family affairs.

• Makes it mandatory for the State Government to set up a Family Court for every area in the State comprising a city whose population exceeds one million.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs and family affairs and for matters connected therewith.

Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 3 (1)(a) of the Family Courts Act, it is mandatory for the State Government to set up a Family Court for every area in the State comprising a city or a town whose population exceeds one million.

In other areas of the States, the Family Courts may be set up if the State Governments deems it necessary.

Answer: B

Explanation:

In other areas of the States, the Family Courts may be set up if the State Governments deems it necessary.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Asiatic Black Bear: It is an ecological indicator and carnivore found in the Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary. It plays a vital role as a primary seed disperser for the stability of the ecosystem. It is listed as a vulnerable species under the IUCN Red List of animals. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus) is one of the largest carnivores of Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS). The Asiatic black bear, also called the Himalayan black bear, Tibetan black bear, or moon bear, is considered an ecological indicator and keystone species of the environment. Statement 2 is correct: The species plays a vital role as a primary seed disperser in maintaining the stability of the ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct: Under the IUCN Red List of animals, the Asiatic black bear is a vulnerable species, however, its status varies across the countries of the Hindukush Himalayas. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus) is one of the largest carnivores of Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS). The Asiatic black bear, also called the Himalayan black bear, Tibetan black bear, or moon bear, is considered an ecological indicator and keystone species of the environment. Statement 2 is correct: The species plays a vital role as a primary seed disperser in maintaining the stability of the ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct: Under the IUCN Red List of animals, the Asiatic black bear is a vulnerable species, however, its status varies across the countries of the Hindukush Himalayas.

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Asiatic Black Bear:

• It is an ecological indicator and carnivore found in the Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary.

• It plays a vital role as a primary seed disperser for the stability of the ecosystem.

• It is listed as a vulnerable species under the IUCN Red List of animals.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus) is one of the largest carnivores of Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS).

The Asiatic black bear, also called the Himalayan black bear, Tibetan black bear, or moon bear, is considered an ecological indicator and keystone species of the environment.

Statement 2 is correct: The species plays a vital role as a primary seed disperser in maintaining the stability of the ecosystem.

Statement 3 is correct: Under the IUCN Red List of animals, the Asiatic black bear is a vulnerable species, however, its status varies across the countries of the Hindukush Himalayas.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus) is one of the largest carnivores of Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS).

The Asiatic black bear, also called the Himalayan black bear, Tibetan black bear, or moon bear, is considered an ecological indicator and keystone species of the environment.

Statement 2 is correct: The species plays a vital role as a primary seed disperser in maintaining the stability of the ecosystem.

Statement 3 is correct: Under the IUCN Red List of animals, the Asiatic black bear is a vulnerable species, however, its status varies across the countries of the Hindukush Himalayas.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Red Sanders: It is an endemic tree species with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India. It is a slow-growing tree species that attains maturity in natural forests after 25-40 years. The import and export of this species is prohibited under the foreign trade policy of India. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (b) Only two (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders Pterocarpus santalinus, or red sandalwood, is an endemic tree species with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India. The species found in Andhra Pradesh and growing up to a height of 10 to 15 metres, is reported to be one of India’s most exploited tree species, and is under severe pressure from illegal logging and harvesting. Statement 2 is correct: Listed under Schedule IV of The Wildlife Protection Act and Endangered as per IUCN Red List, Red Sanders is a very slow-growing tree species that attains maturity in natural forests after 25-40 years. Statement 3 is not correct: Under the foreign trade policy of India, the import of Red Sanders is prohibited, while export is restricted. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders Pterocarpus santalinus, or red sandalwood, is an endemic tree species with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India. The species found in Andhra Pradesh and growing up to a height of 10 to 15 metres, is reported to be one of India’s most exploited tree species, and is under severe pressure from illegal logging and harvesting. Statement 2 is correct: Listed under Schedule IV of The Wildlife Protection Act and Endangered as per IUCN Red List, Red Sanders is a very slow-growing tree species that attains maturity in natural forests after 25-40 years. Statement 3 is not correct:* Under the foreign trade policy of India, the import of Red Sanders is prohibited, while export is restricted.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Red Sanders:

• It is an endemic tree species with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India.

• It is a slow-growing tree species that attains maturity in natural forests after 25-40 years.

• The import and export of this species is prohibited under the foreign trade policy of India.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders Pterocarpus santalinus, or red sandalwood, is an endemic tree species with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India.

The species found in Andhra Pradesh and growing up to a height of 10 to 15 metres, is reported to be one of India’s most exploited tree species, and is under severe pressure from illegal logging and harvesting.

Statement 2 is correct: Listed under Schedule IV of The Wildlife Protection Act and Endangered as per IUCN Red List, Red Sanders is a very slow-growing tree species that attains maturity in natural forests after 25-40 years.

Statement 3 is not correct: Under the foreign trade policy of India, the import of Red Sanders is prohibited, while export is restricted.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders Pterocarpus santalinus, or red sandalwood, is an endemic tree species with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India.

Statement 3 is not correct: Under the foreign trade policy of India, the import of Red Sanders is prohibited, while export is restricted.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Which of the following environmental agencies is *not involved in the “SECURE Himalayas” Project? (a) The United Nations Environment Programme (b) The Global Environment Facility (c) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (c) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The SECURE Himalaya project is a part of “Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development” (Global Wildlife Program) funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF). The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India along with UNDP/ the United Nations Development Programme is implementing SECURE Himalaya, a GEF-funded project in the Union Territory Administration of Ladakh and states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: *The SECURE Himalaya project is a part of “Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development” (Global Wildlife Program) funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF). The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India along with UNDP/ the United Nations Development Programme is implementing SECURE Himalaya, a GEF-funded project in the Union Territory Administration of Ladakh and states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim.

#### 19. Question

Which of the following environmental agencies is *not* involved in the “SECURE Himalayas” Project?

• (a) The United Nations Environment Programme

• (b) The Global Environment Facility

• (c) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The SECURE Himalaya project is a part of “Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development” (Global Wildlife Program) funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF).

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India along with UNDP/ the United Nations Development Programme is implementing SECURE Himalaya, a GEF-funded project in the Union Territory Administration of Ladakh and states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim.

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which one of the following countries does *not border Myanmar? (a) China (b) Thailand (c) Indonesia (d) Bangladesh Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Myanmar (formerly Burma) occupies an area of 676,578 sq. km in the northwesternmost part of mainland Southeast Asia. One of the largest nations in this region, Myanmar borders the five other nations of India, Bangladesh, China, Thailand, and Laos. Myanmar’s geography is mostly made up of thick tropical rainforests, tall mountains, and surging river valleys. The Irrawaddy River system dominates the country. Myanmar is the 10th largest country in the Asian continent and the largest country in Southeast Asia. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct:* Myanmar (formerly Burma) occupies an area of 676,578 sq. km in the northwesternmost part of mainland Southeast Asia. One of the largest nations in this region, Myanmar borders the five other nations of India, Bangladesh, China, Thailand, and Laos. Myanmar’s geography is mostly made up of thick tropical rainforests, tall mountains, and surging river valleys. The Irrawaddy River system dominates the country. Myanmar is the 10th largest country in the Asian continent and the largest country in Southeast Asia.

#### 20. Question

Which one of the following countries does *not* border Myanmar?

• (b) Thailand

• (c) Indonesia

• (d) Bangladesh

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Myanmar (formerly Burma) occupies an area of 676,578 sq. km in the northwesternmost part of mainland Southeast Asia.

One of the largest nations in this region, Myanmar borders the five other nations of India, Bangladesh, China, Thailand, and Laos.

Myanmar’s geography is mostly made up of thick tropical rainforests, tall mountains, and surging river valleys.

The Irrawaddy River system dominates the country. Myanmar is the 10th largest country in the Asian continent and the largest country in Southeast Asia.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Myanmar (formerly Burma) occupies an area of 676,578 sq. km in the northwesternmost part of mainland Southeast Asia.

One of the largest nations in this region, Myanmar borders the five other nations of India, Bangladesh, China, Thailand, and Laos.

Myanmar’s geography is mostly made up of thick tropical rainforests, tall mountains, and surging river valleys.

The Irrawaddy River system dominates the country. Myanmar is the 10th largest country in the Asian continent and the largest country in Southeast Asia.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ initiative will help farmers via offering improved post-harvest storage opportunities so as to prevent distress sales by farmers providing free access to internet kiosks for accessing information related to soil health, weather forecast and financial services in and around the farms Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: Union Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution launched the ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ initiative, aiming to ease warehousing logistics for farmers and ensure fair prices for their produce. The initiative will reduce security deposit charges at WDRA-registered warehouses from 3% to 1%, encouraging small farmers to utilize them. The platform can prevent distress sales by farmers, offering improved post-harvest storage opportunities. The initiative facilitates simplified digital processes for farmers to store produce at WDRA warehouses for six months at 7% interest per annum. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Union Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution launched the ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ initiative, aiming to ease warehousing logistics for farmers and ensure fair prices for their produce. The initiative will reduce security deposit charges at WDRA-registered warehouses from 3% to 1%, encouraging small farmers to utilize them. The platform can prevent distress sales by farmers, offering improved post-harvest storage opportunities. The initiative facilitates simplified digital processes for farmers to store produce at WDRA warehouses for six months at 7% interest per annum. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

#### 21. Question

‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ initiative will help farmers via

• offering improved post-harvest storage opportunities so as to prevent distress sales by farmers

• providing free access to internet kiosks for accessing information related to soil health, weather forecast and financial services in and around the farms

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: a)

Justification: Union Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution launched the ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ initiative, aiming to ease warehousing logistics for farmers and ensure fair prices for their produce.

The initiative will reduce security deposit charges at WDRA-registered warehouses from 3% to 1%, encouraging small farmers to utilize them.

The platform can prevent distress sales by farmers, offering improved post-harvest storage opportunities.

The initiative facilitates simplified digital processes for farmers to store produce at WDRA warehouses for six months at 7% interest per annum.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

Solution: a)

The initiative will reduce security deposit charges at WDRA-registered warehouses from 3% to 1%, encouraging small farmers to utilize them.

The platform can prevent distress sales by farmers, offering improved post-harvest storage opportunities.

The initiative facilitates simplified digital processes for farmers to store produce at WDRA warehouses for six months at 7% interest per annum.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Cavum clouds form due to aeroplanes flying through banks of altocumulus clouds supercooled water droplets to freeze into ice crystals due to adiabatic expansion. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: NASA’s Terra satellite recently captured a cluster of cavum clouds over the Gulf of Mexico off Florida’s west coast. Cavum clouds (also known as hole-punch clouds or fallstreak holes): They are formations in the atmosphere that appear as if a large circle or ellipse has been neatly cut from the clouds, leaving feathery wisps in the middle of the hole. They are a result of aeroplanes flying through banks of altocumulus clouds, causing supercooled water droplets to freeze into ice crystals due to adiabatic expansion. The falling ice crystals leave a hole in the cloud layer, with wispy trails of precipitation visible in the centre known as virga. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: NASA’s Terra satellite recently captured a cluster of cavum clouds over the Gulf of Mexico off Florida’s west coast. Cavum clouds (also known as hole-punch clouds or fallstreak holes): They are formations in the atmosphere that appear as if a large circle or ellipse has been neatly cut from the clouds, leaving feathery wisps in the middle of the hole. They are a result of aeroplanes flying through banks of altocumulus clouds, causing supercooled water droplets to freeze into ice crystals due to adiabatic expansion. The falling ice crystals leave a hole in the cloud layer, with wispy trails of precipitation visible in the centre known as virga. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

#### 22. Question

Cavum clouds form due to

• aeroplanes flying through banks of altocumulus clouds

• supercooled water droplets to freeze into ice crystals due to adiabatic expansion.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: c)

Justification: NASA’s Terra satellite recently captured a cluster of cavum clouds over the Gulf of Mexico off Florida’s west coast.

Cavum clouds (also known as hole-punch clouds or fallstreak holes):

They are formations in the atmosphere that appear as if a large circle or ellipse has been neatly cut from the clouds, leaving feathery wisps in the middle of the hole. They are a result of aeroplanes flying through banks of altocumulus clouds, causing supercooled water droplets to freeze into ice crystals due to adiabatic expansion. The falling ice crystals leave a hole in the cloud layer, with wispy trails of precipitation visible in the centre known as virga.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification: NASA’s Terra satellite recently captured a cluster of cavum clouds over the Gulf of Mexico off Florida’s west coast.

Cavum clouds (also known as hole-punch clouds or fallstreak holes):

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Unlike regular ice, which undergoes melting, dry ice directly undergoes sublimation without going through the melting phase. Sublimation process of dry ice releases CO2 gas, which makes it ideal for cooling and preservation. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide (CO2) formed by compressing and cooling carbon dioxide gas. Unlike regular ice, which melts into liquid water, dry ice undergoes sublimation, transitioning directly from a solid to a gas without passing through a liquid phase. This sublimation process releases large volumes of CO2 gas, making dry ice useful for applications such as cooling, preservation, and creating special effects like fog or smoke. However, dry ice can be hazardous if mishandled or ingested. When in contact with moisture in the mouth or digestive tract, dry ice sublimates rapidly, releasing CO2 gas and potentially causing serious internal injuries, such as burns, bloating, vomiting, and even life-threatening complications like stomach or intestinal perforation. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide (CO2) formed by compressing and cooling carbon dioxide gas. Unlike regular ice, which melts into liquid water, dry ice undergoes sublimation, transitioning directly from a solid to a gas without passing through a liquid phase. This sublimation process releases large volumes of CO2 gas, making dry ice useful for applications such as cooling, preservation, and creating special effects like fog or smoke. However, dry ice can be hazardous if mishandled or ingested. When in contact with moisture in the mouth or digestive tract, dry ice sublimates rapidly, releasing CO2 gas and potentially causing serious internal injuries, such as burns, bloating, vomiting, and even life-threatening complications like stomach or intestinal perforation. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Unlike regular ice, which undergoes melting, dry ice directly undergoes sublimation without going through the melting phase.

• Sublimation process of dry ice releases CO2 gas, which makes it ideal for cooling and preservation.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide (CO2) formed by compressing and cooling carbon dioxide gas. Unlike regular ice, which melts into liquid water, dry ice undergoes sublimation, transitioning directly from a solid to a gas without passing through a liquid phase.

This sublimation process releases large volumes of CO2 gas, making dry ice useful for applications such as cooling, preservation, and creating special effects like fog or smoke.

However, dry ice can be hazardous if mishandled or ingested. When in contact with moisture in the mouth or digestive tract, dry ice sublimates rapidly, releasing CO2 gas and potentially causing serious internal injuries, such as burns, bloating, vomiting, and even life-threatening complications like stomach or intestinal perforation.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

Solution: c)

This sublimation process releases large volumes of CO2 gas, making dry ice useful for applications such as cooling, preservation, and creating special effects like fog or smoke.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Which among the following wetlands is the southernmost of them all? a) Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve b) Longwood Shola Reserve Forest c) Aghanashini Estuary d) Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary Correct Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/02/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-2-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/02/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-2-february-2024/

#### 24. Question

Which among the following wetlands is the southernmost of them all?

• a) Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve

• b) Longwood Shola Reserve Forest

• c) Aghanashini Estuary

• d) Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/02/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-2-february-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/02/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-2-february-2024/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are government schemes to harness solar energy? PM-KUSUM Surya Mitra Skill Development Programme Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana Which of the above is/are correct? A. 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: d) Justification: Government Initiatives to Harness Solar Energy include theNational Solar Mission; Solar Park Scheme; Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM); Surya Mitra Skill Development Programme; International Solar Alliance; and Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Government Initiatives to Harness Solar Energy include theNational Solar Mission; Solar Park Scheme; Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM); Surya Mitra Skill Development Programme; International Solar Alliance; and Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

#### 25. Question

Which of the following is/are government schemes to harness solar energy?

• Surya Mitra Skill Development Programme

• Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana

Which of the above is/are correct?

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

Justification: Government Initiatives to Harness Solar Energy include theNational Solar Mission; Solar Park Scheme; Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM); Surya Mitra Skill Development Programme; International Solar Alliance; and Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

Solution: d)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/06/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-6-march-2024/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The international community needs to step up efforts to tackle hunger and starvation. According to the “Global Report on Food Crises 2019,” which was brought out jointly by the United Nations’ Food and Agriculture Organisation, the World Food Programme and the European Union, 113 million people experienced acute and chronic hunger last year. Those suffering from such hunger were in around 53 countries, most of which are in Africa. Indeed, two-thirds of the world’s acutely hungry come from eight countries: Afghanistan, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Ethiopia, Nigeria, South Sudan, Sudan, Syria and Yemen. Thus, the world’s hunger crisis is a phenomenon largely limited to geographies experiencing war or civil conflict. In 2017, the world had 124 acutely hungry people. While the number of people falling in the acutely hungry category is not a small number. Worryingly, the number of such people has remained over 100 million for three years in a row. It is tragic that despite the benefits of biotechnology and advancement in farming methods, we are unable to free human society from hunger. The report identifies war and climate disasters as major drivers of the global hunger crisis. The eight countries that are bearing the brunt of acute hunger are all strife-torn countries. They are mainly agrarian societies. Civil wars prevent people from cultivation of land. It disrupts production and distribution of food. With militias commandeering the little food available, civilians end up chronically hungry. Climate change and extreme weather events are also taking a heavy toll. Afghanistan, for instance, has suffered drought for several decades now and this has contributed to hunger and starvation in a big way. Which of the following is/are valid conclusion(s) based on a reading of the passage? Technology has not progressed sufficiently to address the causes of hunger Hunger is a problem limited to a few underdeveloped countries War and climate change has contributed to hunger and starvation in a big way (a) 1 and 3 only. (b) 2 and 3 only. (c) 1, 2 and 3. (d) 3 only. Correct Answer. A. 1 is correct as the passage states that It is tragic that despite the benefits of biotechnology and advancement in farming methods, we are unable to free human society from hunger. 2 is incorrect as the passage states that these countries are not necessarily underdeveloped but suffer from civil strife and climate change. Moreover, the majority of the problem is concentrated in countries mentioned in the passage, however, the problem is prevalent in other countries too. 3 is a valid conclusion that can be made from the passage. Hence A is correct. Incorrect Answer. A. 1 is correct as the passage states that It is tragic that despite the benefits of biotechnology and advancement in farming methods, we are unable to free human society from hunger. 2 is incorrect as the passage states that these countries are not necessarily underdeveloped but suffer from civil strife and climate change. Moreover, the majority of the problem is concentrated in countries mentioned in the passage, however, the problem is prevalent in other countries too. 3 is a valid conclusion that can be made from the passage. Hence A is correct.

#### 26. Question

The international community needs to step up efforts to tackle hunger and starvation. According to the “Global Report on Food Crises 2019,” which was brought out jointly by the United Nations’ Food and Agriculture Organisation, the World Food Programme and the European Union, 113 million people experienced acute and chronic hunger last year. Those suffering from such hunger were in around 53 countries, most of which are in Africa. Indeed, two-thirds of the world’s acutely hungry come from eight countries: Afghanistan, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Ethiopia, Nigeria, South Sudan, Sudan, Syria and Yemen. Thus, the world’s hunger crisis is a phenomenon largely limited to geographies experiencing war or civil conflict. In 2017, the world had 124 acutely hungry people. While the number of people falling in the acutely hungry category is not a small number. Worryingly, the number of such people has remained over 100 million for three years in a row. It is tragic that despite the benefits of biotechnology and advancement in farming methods, we are unable to free human society from hunger. The report identifies war and climate disasters as major drivers of the global hunger crisis. The eight countries that are bearing the brunt of acute hunger are all strife-torn countries. They are mainly agrarian societies. Civil wars prevent people from cultivation of land. It disrupts production and distribution of food. With militias commandeering the little food available, civilians end up chronically hungry. Climate change and extreme weather events are also taking a heavy toll. Afghanistan, for instance, has suffered drought for several decades now and this has contributed to hunger and starvation in a big way.

Which of the following is/are valid conclusion(s) based on a reading of the passage?

• Technology has not progressed sufficiently to address the causes of hunger Hunger is a problem limited to a few underdeveloped countries War and climate change has contributed to hunger and starvation in a big way

• Technology has not progressed sufficiently to address the causes of hunger

• Hunger is a problem limited to a few underdeveloped countries

• War and climate change has contributed to hunger and starvation in a big way

• (a) 1 and 3 only.

• (b) 2 and 3 only.

• (c) 1, 2 and 3.

• (d) 3 only.

Answer. A. 1 is correct as the passage states that It is tragic that despite the benefits of biotechnology and advancement in farming methods, we are unable to free human society from hunger. 2 is incorrect as the passage states that these countries are not necessarily underdeveloped but suffer from civil strife and climate change. Moreover, the majority of the problem is concentrated in countries mentioned in the passage, however, the problem is prevalent in other countries too. 3 is a valid conclusion that can be made from the passage. Hence A is correct.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are valid assumption(s) that can be made from the passage? Our efforts at adapting to climate change has yielded little result Agrarian societies are more prone to inequality (a) 1 only. (b) 2 only. (c) Both 1 and 2. (d) Neither 1 nor 2. Correct Answer. D. 1 is not an assumption that has been made in the passage but is a corollary of the passage. 2 is incorrect entirely. Hence D. Incorrect Answer. D. 1 is not an assumption that has been made in the passage but is a corollary of the passage. 2 is incorrect entirely. Hence D.

#### 27. Question

Which of the following is/are valid assumption(s) that can be made from the passage?

• Our efforts at adapting to climate change has yielded little result

• Agrarian societies are more prone to inequality

• (a) 1 only.

• (b) 2 only.

• (c) Both 1 and 2.

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer. D. 1 is not an assumption that has been made in the passage but is a corollary of the passage. 2 is incorrect entirely. Hence D.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Statements: All tablas are sitars. All sitars are harmoniums. All harmoniums are violins. Conclusions: I. Some violins are tablas. Some violins are sitars. III. Some harmoniums are sitars. (a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) I and II follow (d) All follow Correct SOLUTION: (d) HENCE, ALL FOLLOW. Incorrect SOLUTION: (d) HENCE, ALL FOLLOW.

#### 28. Question

Statements: All tablas are sitars.

All sitars are harmoniums.

All harmoniums are violins.

Conclusions: I. Some violins are tablas.

• Some violins are sitars.

III. Some harmoniums are sitars.

• (a) Only I follows

• (b) Only II follows

• (c) I and II follow

• (d) All follow

SOLUTION: (d)

HENCE, ALL FOLLOW.

SOLUTION: (d)

HENCE, ALL FOLLOW.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points STATEMENT: The civic authority has advised the residents in the area to use mosquito repellents or sleep inside nets as large number of people are suffering from malaria. Assumption: I. Local residents have enough money to arrange for the repellents or nets. People may ignore and continue to get mosquito bites as they have other pressing needs. (a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit. (c) If neither I nor II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit. Correct SOLUTION: (a) The civic authority has advised residents to keep away from mosquitoes to avert the risk of malaria. Such an advice would surely be adhered to by the people. So, II is not implicit. Besides, it has been advised to use mosquito repellents or nets. This means that people can afford to buy the same. So, I is implicit. Incorrect SOLUTION: (a) The civic authority has advised residents to keep away from mosquitoes to avert the risk of malaria. Such an advice would surely be adhered to by the people. So, II is not implicit. Besides, it has been advised to use mosquito repellents or nets. This means that people can afford to buy the same. So, I is implicit.

#### 29. Question

STATEMENT: The civic authority has advised the residents in the area to use mosquito repellents or sleep inside nets as large number of people are suffering from malaria.

Assumption: I. Local residents have enough money to arrange for the repellents or nets.

People may ignore and continue to get mosquito bites as they have other pressing needs.

• (a) If only assumption I is implicit.

• (b) If only assumption II is implicit.

• (c) If neither I nor II is implicit.

• (d) If both I and II are implicit.

SOLUTION: (a)

The civic authority has advised residents to keep away from mosquitoes to avert the risk of malaria. Such an advice would surely be adhered to by the people. So, II is not implicit. Besides, it has been advised to use mosquito repellents or nets. This means that people can afford to buy the same. So, I is implicit.

SOLUTION: (a)

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Statement : Some serious blunders were detected in the Accounts Section of a factory. Courses of Action : I An efficient team of auditors should be appointed to check accounts. II) A show-cause notice should be issued to all the employees involved in the irregularity (a) if only I follows (b) if only II follows (c) if either I or II follows (d) if both I and II follow Correct Answer (d) First of all, if some blunders have been found, they should be rectified and rechecked . Hence, I follows. Further it should also be known if the blunders were errors or deliberate manipulations. Hence II should also follow. Incorrect Answer (d) First of all, if some blunders have been found, they should be rectified and rechecked . Hence, I follows. Further it should also be known if the blunders were errors or deliberate manipulations. Hence II should also follow.

#### 30. Question

Statement : Some serious blunders were detected in the Accounts Section of a factory.

Courses of Action :

I An efficient team of auditors should be appointed to check accounts.

II) A show-cause notice should be issued to all the employees involved in the irregularity

• (a) if only I follows

• (b) if only II follows

• (c) if either I or II follows

• (d) if both I and II follow

Answer (d)

First of all, if some blunders have been found, they should be rectified and rechecked . Hence, I follows. Further it should also be known if the blunders were errors or deliberate manipulations. Hence II should also follow.