DAY – 68 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : Environment & Agriculture Full Syllabus

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to Membrane Bioreactors, consider the following statements: They combine biological treatment with membrane filtration for wastewater treatment. They require less space than conventional activated sludge systems for the same treatment capacity. They are ineffective at removing pharmaceutical contaminants from wastewater. Their energy consumption is lower than traditional wastewater treatment methods. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine biological treatment processes (similar to activated sludge) with membrane filtration (microfiltration or ultrafiltration) to treat wastewater. This integration allows simultaneous biological degradation and physical separation of contaminants. Statement 2 is correct. MBRs require significantly less space (approximately 30-50% less) than conventional activated sludge systems for the same treatment capacity. This compact footprint makes them particularly valuable for urban areas with space constraints or for facility upgrades. Statement 3 is incorrect. MBRs are actually more effective than conventional systems at removing pharmaceutical contaminants, microplastics, and other emerging pollutants from wastewater due to their finer filtration capabilities and enhanced biological treatment. Statement 4 is incorrect. MBRs typically consume more energy than traditional wastewater treatment methods due to the energy required for membrane aeration, scouring, and maintaining transmembrane pressure. This higher energy requirement is a significant disadvantage and operating cost consideration for MBR systems. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine biological treatment processes (similar to activated sludge) with membrane filtration (microfiltration or ultrafiltration) to treat wastewater. This integration allows simultaneous biological degradation and physical separation of contaminants. Statement 2 is correct. MBRs require significantly less space (approximately 30-50% less) than conventional activated sludge systems for the same treatment capacity. This compact footprint makes them particularly valuable for urban areas with space constraints or for facility upgrades. Statement 3 is incorrect. MBRs are actually more effective than conventional systems at removing pharmaceutical contaminants, microplastics, and other emerging pollutants from wastewater due to their finer filtration capabilities and enhanced biological treatment. Statement 4 is incorrect. MBRs typically consume more energy than traditional wastewater treatment methods due to the energy required for membrane aeration, scouring, and maintaining transmembrane pressure. This higher energy requirement is a significant disadvantage and operating cost consideration for MBR systems.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Membrane Bioreactors, consider the following statements:

• They combine biological treatment with membrane filtration for wastewater treatment.

• They require less space than conventional activated sludge systems for the same treatment capacity.

• They are ineffective at removing pharmaceutical contaminants from wastewater.

• Their energy consumption is lower than traditional wastewater treatment methods.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct. Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine biological treatment processes (similar to activated sludge) with membrane filtration (microfiltration or ultrafiltration) to treat wastewater. This integration allows simultaneous biological degradation and physical separation of contaminants.

Statement 2 is correct. MBRs require significantly less space (approximately 30-50% less) than conventional activated sludge systems for the same treatment capacity. This compact footprint makes them particularly valuable for urban areas with space constraints or for facility upgrades.

Statement 3 is incorrect. MBRs are actually more effective than conventional systems at removing pharmaceutical contaminants, microplastics, and other emerging pollutants from wastewater due to their finer filtration capabilities and enhanced biological treatment.

Statement 4 is incorrect. MBRs typically consume more energy than traditional wastewater treatment methods due to the energy required for membrane aeration, scouring, and maintaining transmembrane pressure. This higher energy requirement is a significant disadvantage and operating cost consideration for MBR systems.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following invasive alien species in India: Water hyacinth – Native to Amazon Basin Lantana camara – Native to Central and South America Parthenium hysterophorus – Native to Mediterranean region Mimosa pudica – Native to tropical America How many of the species given above are correctly matched with their native regions? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) is native to the Amazon Basin in South America. It was introduced to India as an ornamental plant in the late 19th century and has since become one of the most problematic invasive species in Indian freshwater ecosystems. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Lantana camara is native to Central and South America. It was introduced to India in 1809 as an ornamental plant in Calcutta Botanical Garden and has subsequently spread throughout the country, affecting forest regeneration and wildlife habitat. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Parthenium hysterophorus (Congress grass) is native to tropical America (specifically the Gulf of Mexico and Central America), not the Mediterranean region. It was accidentally introduced to India with imported wheat in the 1950s and is now a serious agricultural and environmental weed. Pair 4 is correctly matched. Mimosa pudica (touch-me-not or sensitive plant) is indeed native to tropical America. Although widely naturalized in India and often not recognized as an alien species, it originated in the tropical Americas and was introduced to India, likely during colonial times. Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) is native to the Amazon Basin in South America. It was introduced to India as an ornamental plant in the late 19th century and has since become one of the most problematic invasive species in Indian freshwater ecosystems. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Lantana camara is native to Central and South America. It was introduced to India in 1809 as an ornamental plant in Calcutta Botanical Garden and has subsequently spread throughout the country, affecting forest regeneration and wildlife habitat. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Parthenium hysterophorus (Congress grass) is native to tropical America (specifically the Gulf of Mexico and Central America), not the Mediterranean region. It was accidentally introduced to India with imported wheat in the 1950s and is now a serious agricultural and environmental weed. Pair 4 is correctly matched. Mimosa pudica (touch-me-not or sensitive plant) is indeed native to tropical America. Although widely naturalized in India and often not recognized as an alien species, it originated in the tropical Americas and was introduced to India, likely during colonial times.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following invasive alien species in India:

• Water hyacinth – Native to Amazon Basin

• Lantana camara – Native to Central and South America

• Parthenium hysterophorus – Native to Mediterranean region

• Mimosa pudica – Native to tropical America

How many of the species given above are correctly matched with their native regions?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) is native to the Amazon Basin in South America. It was introduced to India as an ornamental plant in the late 19th century and has since become one of the most problematic invasive species in Indian freshwater ecosystems.

Pair 2 is correctly matched. Lantana camara is native to Central and South America. It was introduced to India in 1809 as an ornamental plant in Calcutta Botanical Garden and has subsequently spread throughout the country, affecting forest regeneration and wildlife habitat.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Parthenium hysterophorus (Congress grass) is native to tropical America (specifically the Gulf of Mexico and Central America), not the Mediterranean region. It was accidentally introduced to India with imported wheat in the 1950s and is now a serious agricultural and environmental weed.

Pair 4 is correctly matched. Mimosa pudica (touch-me-not or sensitive plant) is indeed native to tropical America. Although widely naturalized in India and often not recognized as an alien species, it originated in the tropical Americas and was introduced to India, likely during colonial times.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ecology of the Congo Basin: It contains the world’s largest tropical peatland, storing approximately three years’ worth of global carbon emissions. It has higher tree diversity but lower mammal diversity than the Amazon rainforest. The Congo River has the highest discharge rate of any river system globally. The Basin functions as a carbon sink, absorbing about 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide annually. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Congo Basin contains the world’s largest tropical peatland, storing approximately 29 billion tons of carbon, equivalent to about three years’ worth of global fossil fuel emissions. This massive carbon store was only fully mapped and quantified in 2017. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Congo Basin actually has lower tree diversity than the Amazon rainforest. While it hosts approximately 10,000 plant species (of which about 3,000 are endemic), the Amazon contains an estimated 16,000-25,000 plant species. However, the Congo Basin has comparable or higher mammal diversity, being home to iconic species like gorillas, chimpanzees, and forest elephants. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Congo River has the second-highest discharge rate globally (approximately 41,000 cubic meters per second), not the highest. The Amazon River has the highest discharge rate at approximately 209,000 cubic meters per second-more than five times greater than the Congo. Statement 4 is correct. The Congo Basin functions as a significant carbon sink, absorbing approximately 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide annually through photosynthesis and biomass accumulation. This represents about 4% of global carbon dioxide emissions. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Congo Basin contains the world’s largest tropical peatland, storing approximately 29 billion tons of carbon, equivalent to about three years’ worth of global fossil fuel emissions. This massive carbon store was only fully mapped and quantified in 2017. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Congo Basin actually has lower tree diversity than the Amazon rainforest. While it hosts approximately 10,000 plant species (of which about 3,000 are endemic), the Amazon contains an estimated 16,000-25,000 plant species. However, the Congo Basin has comparable or higher mammal diversity, being home to iconic species like gorillas, chimpanzees, and forest elephants. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Congo River has the second-highest discharge rate globally (approximately 41,000 cubic meters per second), not the highest. The Amazon River has the highest discharge rate at approximately 209,000 cubic meters per second-more than five times greater than the Congo. Statement 4 is correct. The Congo Basin functions as a significant carbon sink, absorbing approximately 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide annually through photosynthesis and biomass accumulation. This represents about 4% of global carbon dioxide emissions.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ecology of the Congo Basin:

• It contains the world’s largest tropical peatland, storing approximately three years’ worth of global carbon emissions.

• It has higher tree diversity but lower mammal diversity than the Amazon rainforest.

• The Congo River has the highest discharge rate of any river system globally.

• The Basin functions as a carbon sink, absorbing about 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide annually.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct. The Congo Basin contains the world’s largest tropical peatland, storing approximately 29 billion tons of carbon, equivalent to about three years’ worth of global fossil fuel emissions. This massive carbon store was only fully mapped and quantified in 2017.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Congo Basin actually has lower tree diversity than the Amazon rainforest. While it hosts approximately 10,000 plant species (of which about 3,000 are endemic), the Amazon contains an estimated 16,000-25,000 plant species. However, the Congo Basin has comparable or higher mammal diversity, being home to iconic species like gorillas, chimpanzees, and forest elephants.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Congo River has the second-highest discharge rate globally (approximately 41,000 cubic meters per second), not the highest. The Amazon River has the highest discharge rate at approximately 209,000 cubic meters per second-more than five times greater than the Congo.

Statement 4 is correct. The Congo Basin functions as a significant carbon sink, absorbing approximately 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide annually through photosynthesis and biomass accumulation. This represents about 4% of global carbon dioxide emissions.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points In the context of the “ecological trap” concept, which of the following examples is/are correctly identified? Artificial light attracts sea turtle hatchlings away from the ocean Wetland birds nesting in agricultural fields with high predation rates Pollinator insects preferring invasive plants that produce less nectar Migratory birds selecting territories based on early spring cues that become mismatched with resource availability Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D All statements correctly identify ecological traps. An ecological trap occurs when environmental cues lead animals to select habitats or engage in behaviors that reduce their fitness. Statement 1 describes a classic ecological trap where artificial lighting near beaches disorients sea turtle hatchlings, attracting them inland rather than toward the naturally brighter horizon over the ocean. This increases mortality and reduces reproductive success. Statement 2 accurately identifies how some wetland birds mistake agricultural fields for natural wetlands due to similar visual cues, but experience higher nest predation and reduced breeding success in these human-modified landscapes. Statement 3 correctly describes the preference some pollinators show for invasive plants with showy flowers but lower nectar rewards, reducing their energy intake and potentially affecting population dynamics. Statement 4 accurately depicts how climate change creates phenological mismatches, where migratory birds select territories based on historically reliable environmental cues that no longer correspond with peak food availability, reducing reproductive success. Incorrect Solution: D All statements correctly identify ecological traps. An ecological trap occurs when environmental cues lead animals to select habitats or engage in behaviors that reduce their fitness. Statement 1 describes a classic ecological trap where artificial lighting near beaches disorients sea turtle hatchlings, attracting them inland rather than toward the naturally brighter horizon over the ocean. This increases mortality and reduces reproductive success. Statement 2 accurately identifies how some wetland birds mistake agricultural fields for natural wetlands due to similar visual cues, but experience higher nest predation and reduced breeding success in these human-modified landscapes. Statement 3 correctly describes the preference some pollinators show for invasive plants with showy flowers but lower nectar rewards, reducing their energy intake and potentially affecting population dynamics. Statement 4 accurately depicts how climate change creates phenological mismatches, where migratory birds select territories based on historically reliable environmental cues that no longer correspond with peak food availability, reducing reproductive success.

#### 4. Question

In the context of the “ecological trap” concept, which of the following examples is/are correctly identified?

• Artificial light attracts sea turtle hatchlings away from the ocean

• Wetland birds nesting in agricultural fields with high predation rates

• Pollinator insects preferring invasive plants that produce less nectar

• Migratory birds selecting territories based on early spring cues that become mismatched with resource availability

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

All statements correctly identify ecological traps. An ecological trap occurs when environmental cues lead animals to select habitats or engage in behaviors that reduce their fitness.

Statement 1 describes a classic ecological trap where artificial lighting near beaches disorients sea turtle hatchlings, attracting them inland rather than toward the naturally brighter horizon over the ocean. This increases mortality and reduces reproductive success.

Statement 2 accurately identifies how some wetland birds mistake agricultural fields for natural wetlands due to similar visual cues, but experience higher nest predation and reduced breeding success in these human-modified landscapes.

Statement 3 correctly describes the preference some pollinators show for invasive plants with showy flowers but lower nectar rewards, reducing their energy intake and potentially affecting population dynamics.

Statement 4 accurately depicts how climate change creates phenological mismatches, where migratory birds select territories based on historically reliable environmental cues that no longer correspond with peak food availability, reducing reproductive success.

Solution: D

All statements correctly identify ecological traps. An ecological trap occurs when environmental cues lead animals to select habitats or engage in behaviors that reduce their fitness.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points In the context of urban ecology, which of the following phenomena are correctly explained? Urban heat island effect results primarily from reduced evapotranspiration and increased heat absorption. Urban biodiversity exhibits higher species richness but lower functional diversity compared to natural areas. Ecological succession in urban areas follows the same pattern as in natural environments. Fragmentation in urban ecosystems increases edge habitat and favors generalist species. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The urban heat island effect results primarily from reduced evapotranspiration (due to less vegetation), increased heat absorption (by dark surfaces like asphalt and concrete), and heat-generating activities (transportation, industry, and buildings). These factors combine to make urban areas 1-7°C warmer than surrounding rural areas. Statement 2 is incorrect. Urban biodiversity typically exhibits lower species richness compared to natural areas. While some adaptable species thrive, the overall diversity decreases. Additionally, functional diversity is often altered rather than universally reduced, with some functional groups (like decomposers) potentially increasing due to human activities. Statement 3 is incorrect. Ecological succession in urban areas differs significantly from natural patterns. Urban succession is heavily influenced by human interventions, exotic species introduction, altered soil conditions, and fragmented habitats. The traditional primary and secondary succession models require modification in urban contexts. Statement 4 is correct. Fragmentation in urban ecosystems does increase edge habitat and favour generalist species over specialists. Species that can adapt to disturbed conditions and utilize multiple resource types (like raccoons, crows, and pigeons) tend to dominate, while habitat specialists decline. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The urban heat island effect results primarily from reduced evapotranspiration (due to less vegetation), increased heat absorption (by dark surfaces like asphalt and concrete), and heat-generating activities (transportation, industry, and buildings). These factors combine to make urban areas 1-7°C warmer than surrounding rural areas. Statement 2 is incorrect. Urban biodiversity typically exhibits lower species richness compared to natural areas. While some adaptable species thrive, the overall diversity decreases. Additionally, functional diversity is often altered rather than universally reduced, with some functional groups (like decomposers) potentially increasing due to human activities. Statement 3 is incorrect. Ecological succession in urban areas differs significantly from natural patterns. Urban succession is heavily influenced by human interventions, exotic species introduction, altered soil conditions, and fragmented habitats. The traditional primary and secondary succession models require modification in urban contexts. Statement 4 is correct. Fragmentation in urban ecosystems does increase edge habitat and favour generalist species over specialists. Species that can adapt to disturbed conditions and utilize multiple resource types (like raccoons, crows, and pigeons) tend to dominate, while habitat specialists decline.

#### 5. Question

In the context of urban ecology, which of the following phenomena are correctly explained?

• Urban heat island effect results primarily from reduced evapotranspiration and increased heat absorption.

• Urban biodiversity exhibits higher species richness but lower functional diversity compared to natural areas.

• Ecological succession in urban areas follows the same pattern as in natural environments.

• Fragmentation in urban ecosystems increases edge habitat and favors generalist species.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 4 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct. The urban heat island effect results primarily from reduced evapotranspiration (due to less vegetation), increased heat absorption (by dark surfaces like asphalt and concrete), and heat-generating activities (transportation, industry, and buildings). These factors combine to make urban areas 1-7°C warmer than surrounding rural areas.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Urban biodiversity typically exhibits lower species richness compared to natural areas. While some adaptable species thrive, the overall diversity decreases. Additionally, functional diversity is often altered rather than universally reduced, with some functional groups (like decomposers) potentially increasing due to human activities.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Ecological succession in urban areas differs significantly from natural patterns. Urban succession is heavily influenced by human interventions, exotic species introduction, altered soil conditions, and fragmented habitats. The traditional primary and secondary succession models require modification in urban contexts.

Statement 4 is correct. Fragmentation in urban ecosystems does increase edge habitat and favour generalist species over specialists. Species that can adapt to disturbed conditions and utilize multiple resource types (like raccoons, crows, and pigeons) tend to dominate, while habitat specialists decline.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points In the context of biodiversity hotspots, consider the following statements: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must have lost at least 70% of its original habitat. The Western Ghats-Sri Lanka hotspot has the highest human population density among all global biodiversity hotspots. India contains parts of three biodiversity hotspots as recognized by Conservation International. The Himalayan biodiversity hotspot has the highest percentage of endemic mammalian species among Indian hotspots. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot as defined by Conservation International, a region must have lost at least 70% (not 75%) of its original native vegetation. This criterion is intended to identify regions under significant threat. Statement 2 is correct. The Western Ghats-Sri Lanka hotspot indeed has the highest human population density among all 36 global biodiversity hotspots, with over 300 people per square kilometer. This creates intense pressure on the remaining habitats. Statement 3 is correct. India contains parts of three biodiversity hotspots: the Himalayas (North and Northeast India), Western Ghats-Sri Lanka (Western and Southwestern India), and Indo-Burma (parts of Northeast India). Some sources now recognize a fourth hotspot, the Sundaland, as extending to the Nicobar Islands, but the three mentioned are the widely accepted ones. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Western Ghats has a higher percentage of endemic mammalian species (approximately 12-13%) compared to the Himalayan hotspot (approximately 10%). The Western Ghats’ isolation has contributed to higher endemism despite its smaller area. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot as defined by Conservation International, a region must have lost at least 70% (not 75%) of its original native vegetation. This criterion is intended to identify regions under significant threat. Statement 2 is correct. The Western Ghats-Sri Lanka hotspot indeed has the highest human population density among all 36 global biodiversity hotspots, with over 300 people per square kilometer. This creates intense pressure on the remaining habitats. Statement 3 is correct. India contains parts of three biodiversity hotspots: the Himalayas (North and Northeast India), Western Ghats-Sri Lanka (Western and Southwestern India), and Indo-Burma (parts of Northeast India). Some sources now recognize a fourth hotspot, the Sundaland, as extending to the Nicobar Islands, but the three mentioned are the widely accepted ones. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Western Ghats has a higher percentage of endemic mammalian species (approximately 12-13%) compared to the Himalayan hotspot (approximately 10%). The Western Ghats’ isolation has contributed to higher endemism despite its smaller area.

#### 6. Question

In the context of biodiversity hotspots, consider the following statements:

• To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must have lost at least 70% of its original habitat.

• The Western Ghats-Sri Lanka hotspot has the highest human population density among all global biodiversity hotspots.

• India contains parts of three biodiversity hotspots as recognized by Conservation International.

• The Himalayan biodiversity hotspot has the highest percentage of endemic mammalian species among Indian hotspots.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot as defined by Conservation International, a region must have lost at least 70% (not 75%) of its original native vegetation. This criterion is intended to identify regions under significant threat.

Statement 2 is correct. The Western Ghats-Sri Lanka hotspot indeed has the highest human population density among all 36 global biodiversity hotspots, with over 300 people per square kilometer. This creates intense pressure on the remaining habitats.

Statement 3 is correct. India contains parts of three biodiversity hotspots: the Himalayas (North and Northeast India), Western Ghats-Sri Lanka (Western and Southwestern India), and Indo-Burma (parts of Northeast India). Some sources now recognize a fourth hotspot, the Sundaland, as extending to the Nicobar Islands, but the three mentioned are the widely accepted ones.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The Western Ghats has a higher percentage of endemic mammalian species (approximately 12-13%) compared to the Himalayan hotspot (approximately 10%). The Western Ghats’ isolation has contributed to higher endemism despite its smaller area.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to wetlands in India, consider the following statements: Under the Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory for India to conserve all wetlands in its territory. Montreux Record lists Ramsar sites where ecological character has changed due to human interference. Loktak Lake is the only floating lake in the world included in the Ramsar sites list. Keoladeo National Park was the first Ramsar site designated in India. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ramsar Convention does not mandate the conservation of all wetlands within a country’s territory. It only obligates signatories to conserve and promote wise use of wetlands designated as Ramsar sites. Conservation of other wetlands is governed by domestic legislation like the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 in India. Statement 2 is correct. The Montreux Record is a register maintained by the Ramsar Convention Secretariat that lists Ramsar sites where ecological character has changed, is changing, or likely to change due to technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. It’s used as a tool to highlight sites needing priority conservation attention. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Loktak Lake features unique floating biomass formations called ‘phumdis,’ it is not the only floating lake on the Ramsar list. Other floating wetlands like the Pantanal (Brazil/Bolivia/Paraguay) are also Ramsar sites. Statement 4 is correct. Keoladeo National Park (formerly Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary) in Rajasthan was designated as India’s first Ramsar site in 1981. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Rajasthan has the largest reserves of lead-zinc (e.g., Zawar mines), gypsum, and rock phosphate in India. It is also a significant producer of copper (e.g., Khetri mines) and was historically a major producer of mica (though Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand are also key mica areas). Statement 2 is correct. Odisha is indeed India’s largest producer of bauxite (the ore for aluminum) and chromite. The state also has very large reserves and is a major producer of manganese ore and iron ore, making it extremely rich in metallic minerals. Statement 3 is incorrect. Kerala’s coastal sands (particularly Chavara and Manavalakurichi which extends into Tamil Nadu) are rich in monazite (source of thorium and REEs). However, these beach sands are also very rich in ilmenite (titanium ore) and rutile (another titanium mineral), as well as zircon. So, the claim that it “lacks significant deposits of ilmenite and rutile” is false.

#### 7. Question

With reference to wetlands in India, consider the following statements:

• Under the Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory for India to conserve all wetlands in its territory.

• Montreux Record lists Ramsar sites where ecological character has changed due to human interference.

• Loktak Lake is the only floating lake in the world included in the Ramsar sites list.

• Keoladeo National Park was the first Ramsar site designated in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ramsar Convention does not mandate the conservation of all wetlands within a country’s territory. It only obligates signatories to conserve and promote wise use of wetlands designated as Ramsar sites. Conservation of other wetlands is governed by domestic legislation like the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 in India.

Statement 2 is correct. The Montreux Record is a register maintained by the Ramsar Convention Secretariat that lists Ramsar sites where ecological character has changed, is changing, or likely to change due to technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. It’s used as a tool to highlight sites needing priority conservation attention.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While Loktak Lake features unique floating biomass formations called ‘phumdis,’ it is not the only floating lake on the Ramsar list. Other floating wetlands like the Pantanal (Brazil/Bolivia/Paraguay) are also Ramsar sites.

Statement 4 is correct. Keoladeo National Park (formerly Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary) in Rajasthan was designated as India’s first Ramsar site in 1981.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Rajasthan has the largest reserves of lead-zinc (e.g., Zawar mines), gypsum, and rock phosphate in India. It is also a significant producer of copper (e.g., Khetri mines) and was historically a major producer of mica (though Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand are also key mica areas).

• Statement 2 is correct. Odisha is indeed India’s largest producer of bauxite (the ore for aluminum) and chromite. The state also has very large reserves and is a major producer of manganese ore and iron ore, making it extremely rich in metallic minerals.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Kerala’s coastal sands (particularly Chavara and Manavalakurichi which extends into Tamil Nadu) are rich in monazite (source of thorium and REEs). However, these beach sands are also very rich in ilmenite (titanium ore) and rutile (another titanium mineral), as well as zircon. So, the claim that it “lacks significant deposits of ilmenite and rutile” is false.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points With reference to the Ganges River Dolphin, consider the following statements: It has been declared the National Aquatic Animal of India. Unlike marine dolphins, it cannot see but navigates using echolocation. It prefers deep waters of the middle Ganges and Brahmaputra river systems. The latest survey indicates a population exceeding 4,000 in Indian rivers. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, recognizing its ecological importance and endangered status. Statement 2 is correct. Unlike marine dolphins, the Ganges River Dolphin is functionally blind. It has evolved without a crystalline eye lens and uses echolocation to navigate muddy river waters and locate prey. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ganges River Dolphin prefers shallow waters with eddy countercurrents, typically found at river confluences and immediately downstream of meanders and mid-channel islands. It avoids deep waters of the middle river systems. Statement 4 is incorrect. According to recent surveys, including the one conducted by WWF-India and its partners, the population of Ganges River Dolphins in Indian rivers is estimated to be fewer than 2,000 individuals, not exceeding 4,000. The population continues to decline due to water pollution, barrages that fragment populations, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, recognizing its ecological importance and endangered status. Statement 2 is correct. Unlike marine dolphins, the Ganges River Dolphin is functionally blind. It has evolved without a crystalline eye lens and uses echolocation to navigate muddy river waters and locate prey. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ganges River Dolphin prefers shallow waters with eddy countercurrents, typically found at river confluences and immediately downstream of meanders and mid-channel islands. It avoids deep waters of the middle river systems. Statement 4 is incorrect. According to recent surveys, including the one conducted by WWF-India and its partners, the population of Ganges River Dolphins in Indian rivers is estimated to be fewer than 2,000 individuals, not exceeding 4,000. The population continues to decline due to water pollution, barrages that fragment populations, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the Ganges River Dolphin, consider the following statements:

• It has been declared the National Aquatic Animal of India.

• Unlike marine dolphins, it cannot see but navigates using echolocation.

• It prefers deep waters of the middle Ganges and Brahmaputra river systems.

• The latest survey indicates a population exceeding 4,000 in Indian rivers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct. The Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, recognizing its ecological importance and endangered status.

Statement 2 is correct. Unlike marine dolphins, the Ganges River Dolphin is functionally blind. It has evolved without a crystalline eye lens and uses echolocation to navigate muddy river waters and locate prey.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ganges River Dolphin prefers shallow waters with eddy countercurrents, typically found at river confluences and immediately downstream of meanders and mid-channel islands. It avoids deep waters of the middle river systems.

Statement 4 is incorrect. According to recent surveys, including the one conducted by WWF-India and its partners, the population of Ganges River Dolphins in Indian rivers is estimated to be fewer than 2,000 individuals, not exceeding 4,000. The population continues to decline due to water pollution, barrages that fragment populations, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct. The Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was declared the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009, recognizing its ecological importance and endangered status.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Hoolock Gibbons, recently in the news for conservation efforts, are distinguished by which of the following characteristics? They are the only ape species found in India Both eastern and western species are classified as endangered They form lifelong monogamous pairs They are capable of brachiation through canopies Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Hoolock Gibbons are the only apes found in India. While other primates like macaques and langurs are found in India, they belong to the monkey family, not apes. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is classified as Endangered, the Eastern Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock leuconedys) is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. The population of Western Hoolock Gibbons has declined by more than 50% in the past 40 years. Statement 3 is correct. Hoolock Gibbons form strong lifelong monogamous pairs, which is relatively rare among primates. They maintain family units consisting of a mated pair and their offspring. Statement 4 is correct. Like other gibbons, Hoolock Gibbons are exceptionally adapted for brachiation (arm-swinging locomotion), with elongated arms allowing them to move rapidly through forest canopies at speeds up to 56 km/h. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Hoolock Gibbons are the only apes found in India. While other primates like macaques and langurs are found in India, they belong to the monkey family, not apes. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is classified as Endangered, the Eastern Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock leuconedys) is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. The population of Western Hoolock Gibbons has declined by more than 50% in the past 40 years. Statement 3 is correct. Hoolock Gibbons form strong lifelong monogamous pairs, which is relatively rare among primates. They maintain family units consisting of a mated pair and their offspring. Statement 4 is correct. Like other gibbons, Hoolock Gibbons are exceptionally adapted for brachiation (arm-swinging locomotion), with elongated arms allowing them to move rapidly through forest canopies at speeds up to 56 km/h.

#### 9. Question

Hoolock Gibbons, recently in the news for conservation efforts, are distinguished by which of the following characteristics?

• They are the only ape species found in India

• Both eastern and western species are classified as endangered

• They form lifelong monogamous pairs

• They are capable of brachiation through canopies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct. Hoolock Gibbons are the only apes found in India. While other primates like macaques and langurs are found in India, they belong to the monkey family, not apes.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is classified as Endangered, the Eastern Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock leuconedys) is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. The population of Western Hoolock Gibbons has declined by more than 50% in the past 40 years.

Statement 3 is correct. Hoolock Gibbons form strong lifelong monogamous pairs, which is relatively rare among primates. They maintain family units consisting of a mated pair and their offspring.

Statement 4 is correct. Like other gibbons, Hoolock Gibbons are exceptionally adapted for brachiation (arm-swinging locomotion), with elongated arms allowing them to move rapidly through forest canopies at speeds up to 56 km/h.

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct. Hoolock Gibbons are the only apes found in India. While other primates like macaques and langurs are found in India, they belong to the monkey family, not apes.

Statement 3 is correct. Hoolock Gibbons form strong lifelong monogamous pairs, which is relatively rare among primates. They maintain family units consisting of a mated pair and their offspring.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points *Nature 2030* Initiative, recently in news, has been launched by : (a) International Union for Conservation of Nature (b) Rainforest Alliance (c) Conservation International (d) Wildlife Conservation Society Correct Solution : A The Nature 2030 Programme has been launched by the International Union for Conservation of Nature. It is IUCN’s plan for work towards a vision of a just world that values and conserves nature. The five priorities that shape the program are People , land, water, ocean and climate. The program defines broad areas of work and sets Aspirational Targets as well as indicators to measure success ; it will help IUCN deliver for people, land, water, oceans and climate through the five pathways to transform change, recognise, retain, restore, resource and connect. Nature’s contributions to people should be equitably shared and all of humanity should be enable to take informed, just and sustainable decisions. It marks the culmination of many years of deliberation across the Union and was adopted by democratic vote at the IUCN World Conservation Congress in Marseille It sets it ambition for over ten years and aligns with the United Nations 2030 Agenda for sustainable development and the post 2020 Global biodiversity framework. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution : A The Nature 2030 Programme has been launched by the International Union for Conservation of Nature. It is IUCN’s plan for work towards a vision of a just world that values and conserves nature. The five priorities that shape the program are People , land, water, ocean and climate. The program defines broad areas of work and sets Aspirational Targets as well as indicators to measure success ; it will help IUCN deliver for people, land, water, oceans and climate through the five pathways to transform change, recognise, retain, restore, resource and connect. Nature’s contributions to people should be equitably shared and all of humanity should be enable to take informed, just and sustainable decisions. It marks the culmination of many years of deliberation across the Union and was adopted by democratic vote at the IUCN World Conservation Congress in Marseille It sets it ambition for over ten years and aligns with the United Nations 2030 Agenda for sustainable development and the post 2020 Global biodiversity framework. Hence option A is correct

#### 10. Question

*Nature 2030* Initiative, recently in news, has been launched by :

• (a) International Union for Conservation of Nature

• (b) Rainforest Alliance

• (c) Conservation International

• (d) Wildlife Conservation Society

Solution : A

• The Nature 2030 Programme has been launched by the International Union for Conservation of Nature.

• It is IUCN’s plan for work towards a vision of a just world that values and conserves nature.

• The five priorities that shape the program are People , land, water, ocean and climate.

• The program defines broad areas of work and sets Aspirational Targets as well as indicators to measure success ; it will help IUCN deliver for people, land, water, oceans and climate through the five pathways to transform change, recognise, retain, restore, resource and connect.

• Nature’s contributions to people should be equitably shared and all of humanity should be enable to take informed, just and sustainable decisions.

• It marks the culmination of many years of deliberation across the Union and was adopted by democratic vote at the IUCN World Conservation Congress in Marseille

• It sets it ambition for over ten years and aligns with the United Nations 2030 Agenda for sustainable development and the post 2020 Global biodiversity framework.

Hence option A is correct

Solution : A

• The Nature 2030 Programme has been launched by the International Union for Conservation of Nature.

• It is IUCN’s plan for work towards a vision of a just world that values and conserves nature.

• The five priorities that shape the program are People , land, water, ocean and climate.

• Nature’s contributions to people should be equitably shared and all of humanity should be enable to take informed, just and sustainable decisions.

• It marks the culmination of many years of deliberation across the Union and was adopted by democratic vote at the IUCN World Conservation Congress in Marseille

• It sets it ambition for over ten years and aligns with the United Nations 2030 Agenda for sustainable development and the post 2020 Global biodiversity framework.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiri Tahr: It is found only in the Western Ghats of India. It is the state animal of Kerala. Eravikulam National Park has the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr. It prefers montane rainforests for its habitat rather than grasslands. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius) is endemic to the Western Ghats in India and found nowhere else in the world. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Nilgiri Tahr is a significant species in Kerala, it is Tamil Nadu’s state animal, not Kerala’s. Kerala’s state animal is the Indian elephant. Statement 3 is correct. Eravikulam National Park in Kerala’s Idukki district harbors the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr, housing approximately 700-800 individuals. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Nilgiri Tahr primarily inhabits open montane grasslands (shola-grassland ecosystem) rather than dense rainforests. It prefers the grassy slopes at elevations between 1,200 and 2,600 meters. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius) is endemic to the Western Ghats in India and found nowhere else in the world. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Nilgiri Tahr is a significant species in Kerala, it is Tamil Nadu’s state animal, not Kerala’s. Kerala’s state animal is the Indian elephant. Statement 3 is correct. Eravikulam National Park in Kerala’s Idukki district harbors the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr, housing approximately 700-800 individuals. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Nilgiri Tahr primarily inhabits open montane grasslands (shola-grassland ecosystem) rather than dense rainforests. It prefers the grassy slopes at elevations between 1,200 and 2,600 meters.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiri Tahr:

• It is found only in the Western Ghats of India.

• It is the state animal of Kerala.

• Eravikulam National Park has the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr.

• It prefers montane rainforests for its habitat rather than grasslands.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius) is endemic to the Western Ghats in India and found nowhere else in the world.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Nilgiri Tahr is a significant species in Kerala, it is Tamil Nadu’s state animal, not Kerala’s. Kerala’s state animal is the Indian elephant.

Statement 3 is correct. Eravikulam National Park in Kerala’s Idukki district harbors the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr, housing approximately 700-800 individuals.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The Nilgiri Tahr primarily inhabits open montane grasslands (shola-grassland ecosystem) rather than dense rainforests. It prefers the grassy slopes at elevations between 1,200 and 2,600 meters.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius) is endemic to the Western Ghats in India and found nowhere else in the world.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Nilgiri Tahr is a significant species in Kerala, it is Tamil Nadu’s state animal, not Kerala’s. Kerala’s state animal is the Indian elephant.

Statement 3 is correct. Eravikulam National Park in Kerala’s Idukki district harbors the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr, housing approximately 700-800 individuals.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Acidic Ocean waters harbour harmful algal blooms. Statement – II : Diatoms require carbon dioxide for survival. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : A Cyanobacteria or blue green algae are the most common cause of harmful algal bloom in freshwater such as lakes or rivers. Dinoflagellates or Diatoms (these are Algal species) are the most common cause of harmful algal bloom in saltwater such as ocean or Bay. Algae need carbon dioxide to survive; higher levels of carbon dioxide in the air and water can lead to rapid growth of algae specially cyano- harmful algal blooms that can float to the surface of the water and use the increased carbon dioxide Increased levels of carbon dioxide also increase the acidity of water which affects the organisms that grains on algae these effects combine to increase competitive advantage of harmful algal bloom species. The tiny diatoms in the oceans are also masters at capturing carbon dioxide from the environment and can fix up to 20% of the carbon dioxide in the oceans according to a recent study. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution : A Cyanobacteria or blue green algae are the most common cause of harmful algal bloom in freshwater such as lakes or rivers. Dinoflagellates or Diatoms (these are Algal species) are the most common cause of harmful algal bloom in saltwater such as ocean or Bay. Algae need carbon dioxide to survive; higher levels of carbon dioxide in the air and water can lead to rapid growth of algae specially cyano- harmful algal blooms that can float to the surface of the water and use the increased carbon dioxide Increased levels of carbon dioxide also increase the acidity of water which affects the organisms that grains on algae these effects combine to increase competitive advantage of harmful algal bloom species. The tiny diatoms in the oceans are also masters at capturing carbon dioxide from the environment and can fix up to 20% of the carbon dioxide in the oceans according to a recent study. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Acidic Ocean waters harbour harmful algal blooms.

Statement – II :

Diatoms require carbon dioxide for survival.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : A

• Cyanobacteria or blue green algae are the most common cause of harmful algal bloom in freshwater such as lakes or rivers.

• Dinoflagellates or Diatoms (these are Algal species) are the most common cause of harmful algal bloom in saltwater such as ocean or Bay.

• Algae need carbon dioxide to survive; higher levels of carbon dioxide in the air and water can lead to rapid growth of algae specially cyano- harmful algal blooms that can float to the surface of the water and use the increased carbon dioxide

• Increased levels of carbon dioxide also increase the acidity of water which affects the organisms that grains on algae these effects combine to increase competitive advantage of harmful algal bloom species.

The tiny diatoms in the oceans are also masters at capturing carbon dioxide from the environment and can fix up to 20% of the carbon dioxide in the oceans according to a recent study.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution : A

• Cyanobacteria or blue green algae are the most common cause of harmful algal bloom in freshwater such as lakes or rivers.

• Dinoflagellates or Diatoms (these are Algal species) are the most common cause of harmful algal bloom in saltwater such as ocean or Bay.

The tiny diatoms in the oceans are also masters at capturing carbon dioxide from the environment and can fix up to 20% of the carbon dioxide in the oceans according to a recent study.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : District-wise Soil fertility maps are created by Soil and Land Use Survey of India using Soil Health Card data. Soil Health Cards are generated under Soil Health and Fertility scheme. Soil Health and Fertility scheme provides assistance to States in promotion of Integrated Nutrient Management through proper use of chemical fertilizers in conjunction with biofertilizers. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Soil and Land Use Survey of India under the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare is generating district/village wise digital soil fertility maps through Geo spatial techniques using Soil health card data Soil health cards are generated under soil Health and Fertility scheme of the government The Soil Health and Fertility scheme assists states in promoting integrated nutrient management through judicious use of chemical fertilizers, including secondary and micro nutrients in conjunction with organic manure and biofertilizers for improving soil health and soil productivity. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Soil and Land Use Survey of India under the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare is generating district/village wise digital soil fertility maps through Geo spatial techniques using Soil health card data Soil health cards are generated under soil Health and Fertility scheme of the government The Soil Health and Fertility scheme assists states in promoting integrated nutrient management through judicious use of chemical fertilizers, including secondary and micro nutrients in conjunction with organic manure and biofertilizers for improving soil health and soil productivity. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements :

• District-wise Soil fertility maps are created by Soil and Land Use Survey of India using Soil Health Card data.

• Soil Health Cards are generated under Soil Health and Fertility scheme.

• Soil Health and Fertility scheme provides assistance to States in promotion of Integrated Nutrient Management through proper use of chemical fertilizers in conjunction with biofertilizers.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Soil and Land Use Survey of India under the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare is generating district/village wise digital soil fertility maps through Geo spatial techniques using Soil health card data

• Soil health cards are generated under soil Health and Fertility scheme of the government

• The Soil Health and Fertility scheme assists states in promoting integrated nutrient management through judicious use of chemical fertilizers, including secondary and micro nutrients in conjunction with organic manure and biofertilizers for improving soil health and soil productivity.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

• Soil health cards are generated under soil Health and Fertility scheme of the government

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Global Plastics Treaty : It has been adopted at the Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability organised by the United Nations Environment Programme. It proposed year wise targets to phase out single use plastic and restriction on hazardous chemicals by 2040. It will be financed by the Global Environment Facility. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution : C The Global Plastics Treaty is an international agreement being negotiated by 175 countries The process started in 2022 when a Resolution was adopted by the United Nations Environment Assembly to develop a legally binding instrument on plastic pollution including the Marine environment based on a comprehensive approach to address the full life cycle of plastics. The four day Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was organised at the Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, by India in 2024.. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The draft proposal included year wise targets to phase out single use plastic and restrict hazardous Chemicals like pthalate, benzyl butyl pthalate and other chemicals by 2040. Hence statement 2 is correct The proposed financing mechanism for the Treaty supports a fair Global transition by collecting a contribution from producers of primary plastic polymers and distributing this contribution to countries the rate of contribution being linked to the amount of primary plastic polymer produced by a company creating a level playing field. Countries differ on how to fund implementation of the measures to reduce plastic pollution, some are in favour of an independent dedicated financial mechanism for the Plastic Treaty while other suggest integrating it into existing frameworks like the Global Environment Facility. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C The Global Plastics Treaty is an international agreement being negotiated by 175 countries The process started in 2022 when a Resolution was adopted by the United Nations Environment Assembly to develop a legally binding instrument on plastic pollution including the Marine environment based on a comprehensive approach to address the full life cycle of plastics. The four day Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was organised at the Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, by India in 2024.. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The draft proposal included year wise targets to phase out single use plastic and restrict hazardous Chemicals like pthalate, benzyl butyl pthalate and other chemicals by 2040. Hence statement 2 is correct The proposed financing mechanism for the Treaty supports a fair Global transition by collecting a contribution from producers of primary plastic polymers and distributing this contribution to countries the rate of contribution being linked to the amount of primary plastic polymer produced by a company creating a level playing field. Countries differ on how to fund implementation of the measures to reduce plastic pollution, some are in favour of an independent dedicated financial mechanism for the Plastic Treaty while other suggest integrating it into existing frameworks like the Global Environment Facility. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Global Plastics Treaty :

• It has been adopted at the Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability organised by the United Nations Environment Programme.

• It proposed year wise targets to phase out single use plastic and restriction on hazardous chemicals by 2040.

• It will be financed by the Global Environment Facility.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution : C

• The Global Plastics Treaty is an international agreement being negotiated by 175 countries

• The process started in 2022 when a Resolution was adopted by the United Nations Environment Assembly to develop a legally binding instrument on plastic pollution including the Marine environment based on a comprehensive approach to address the full life cycle of plastics.

• The four day Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was organised at the Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, by India in 2024..

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The draft proposal included year wise targets to phase out single use plastic and restrict hazardous Chemicals like pthalate, benzyl butyl pthalate and other chemicals by 2040.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The proposed financing mechanism for the Treaty supports a fair Global transition by collecting a contribution from producers of primary plastic polymers and distributing this contribution to countries

• the rate of contribution being linked to the amount of primary plastic polymer produced by a company creating a level playing field.

• Countries differ on how to fund implementation of the measures to reduce plastic pollution, some are in favour of an independent dedicated financial mechanism for the Plastic Treaty while other suggest integrating it into existing frameworks like the Global Environment Facility.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : C

• The Global Plastics Treaty is an international agreement being negotiated by 175 countries

• The four day Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was organised at the Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, by India in 2024..

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The draft proposal included year wise targets to phase out single use plastic and restrict hazardous Chemicals like pthalate, benzyl butyl pthalate and other chemicals by 2040.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• the rate of contribution being linked to the amount of primary plastic polymer produced by a company creating a level playing field.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs : Environmental convention : Description Minamata Convention: Control of anthropogenic emission of Mercury Rotterdam Convention: Trade of Living modified organisms Stockholm Convention : Protection of human health from Forever chemicals Basel Convention: Conservation of wetlands particularly in developing countries How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : B Minamata Convention is a global Treaty to protect human health and the environment from adverse effects of Mercury. The convention draws attention to mercury which is broadly used in everyday objects and is released into the atmosphere, soil and water from several sources Controlling anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout its life cycle is a key factor is shaping the obligations under the convention. Hence pair 1 is correct The Rotterdam Convention is related to prior informed consent procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. It promotes shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm and to contribute to environmentally sustainable use of those hazardous chemicals by facilitating information exchange regarding their characteristics. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Recently, in 2025, International negotiations in Geneva have laid to a major breakthrough- the addition of forever chemical to the Stockholm Convention’s backlist ; the forever Chemicals or the Per and polyfluroalkyl substances (PFAS) are water resistant and have non stick properties which attributed to their Omnipresence in modern life. The Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants was adopted by the conference of parties in 2001 in Stockholm, Sweden and entered into force in 2004. Hence pair 3 is correct Basel Convention is related to the control of transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal. It aims to protect human health and the environment against adverse effects of hazardous waste and wastes that require special consideration. Hence pair 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B Minamata Convention is a global Treaty to protect human health and the environment from adverse effects of Mercury. The convention draws attention to mercury which is broadly used in everyday objects and is released into the atmosphere, soil and water from several sources Controlling anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout its life cycle is a key factor is shaping the obligations under the convention. Hence pair 1 is correct The Rotterdam Convention is related to prior informed consent procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. It promotes shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm and to contribute to environmentally sustainable use of those hazardous chemicals by facilitating information exchange regarding their characteristics. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Recently, in 2025, International negotiations in Geneva have laid to a major breakthrough- the addition of forever chemical to the Stockholm Convention’s backlist ; the forever Chemicals or the Per and polyfluroalkyl substances (PFAS) are water resistant and have non stick properties which attributed to their Omnipresence in modern life. The Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants was adopted by the conference of parties in 2001 in Stockholm, Sweden and entered into force in 2004. Hence pair 3 is correct Basel Convention is related to the control of transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal. It aims to protect human health and the environment against adverse effects of hazardous waste and wastes that require special consideration. Hence pair 4 is incorrect

#### 15. Question

Consider the following pairs :

Environmental convention : Description

• Minamata Convention: Control of anthropogenic emission of Mercury

• Rotterdam Convention: Trade of Living modified organisms

• Stockholm Convention : Protection of human health from Forever chemicals

• Basel Convention: Conservation of wetlands particularly in developing countries

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : B

• Minamata Convention is a global Treaty to protect human health and the environment from adverse effects of Mercury.

• The convention draws attention to mercury which is broadly used in everyday objects and is released into the atmosphere, soil and water from several sources

• Controlling anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout its life cycle is a key factor is shaping the obligations under the convention.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• The Rotterdam Convention is related to prior informed consent procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade.

• It promotes shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm and to contribute to environmentally sustainable use of those hazardous chemicals by facilitating information exchange regarding their characteristics.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Recently, in 2025, International negotiations in Geneva have laid to a major breakthrough- the addition of forever chemical to the Stockholm Convention’s backlist ; the forever Chemicals or the Per and polyfluroalkyl substances (PFAS) are water resistant and have non stick properties which attributed to their Omnipresence in modern life.

• The Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants was adopted by the conference of parties in 2001 in Stockholm, Sweden and entered into force in 2004.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Basel Convention is related to the control of transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal.

• It aims to protect human health and the environment against adverse effects of hazardous waste and wastes that require special consideration.

Hence pair 4 is incorrect

Solution : B

• Minamata Convention is a global Treaty to protect human health and the environment from adverse effects of Mercury.

• The convention draws attention to mercury which is broadly used in everyday objects and is released into the atmosphere, soil and water from several sources

• Controlling anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout its life cycle is a key factor is shaping the obligations under the convention.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• The Rotterdam Convention is related to prior informed consent procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants was adopted by the conference of parties in 2001 in Stockholm, Sweden and entered into force in 2004.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Basel Convention is related to the control of transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal.

• It aims to protect human health and the environment against adverse effects of hazardous waste and wastes that require special consideration.

Hence pair 4 is incorrect

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Kasturi Cotton Bharat programme is a collaboration between the Cotton Corporation of India and industry to enhance cotton traceability and certification by leveraging blockchain platform. The Cotton Corporation of India is a statutory Authority under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The Kasturi Cotton Bharat programme of the Ministry of Textiles is an effort in traceability, certification and branding of Indian cotton. It is a collaboration between the Government of India cotton Corporation of India trade bodies and industry to enhance the traceability and certification. A microsite with QR code verification and blockchain platform has being developed for end to end traceability and transaction certification. Hence statement 1 is correct The Cotton Corporation of India was established in 1970 under the administrative control of Ministry of Textiles, Government of India as a public sector undertaking under the Companies Act 1956. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The Kasturi Cotton Bharat programme of the Ministry of Textiles is an effort in traceability, certification and branding of Indian cotton. It is a collaboration between the Government of India cotton Corporation of India trade bodies and industry to enhance the traceability and certification. A microsite with QR code verification and blockchain platform has being developed for end to end traceability and transaction certification. Hence statement 1 is correct The Cotton Corporation of India was established in 1970 under the administrative control of Ministry of Textiles, Government of India as a public sector undertaking under the Companies Act 1956. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Kasturi Cotton Bharat programme is a collaboration between the Cotton Corporation of India and industry to enhance cotton traceability and certification by leveraging blockchain platform.

• The Cotton Corporation of India is a statutory Authority under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The Kasturi Cotton Bharat programme of the Ministry of Textiles is an effort in traceability, certification and branding of Indian cotton.

• It is a collaboration between the Government of India cotton Corporation of India trade bodies and industry to enhance the traceability and certification.

• A microsite with QR code verification and blockchain platform has being developed for end to end traceability and transaction certification.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Cotton Corporation of India was established in 1970 under the administrative control of Ministry of Textiles, Government of India as a public sector undertaking under the Companies Act 1956.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The Kasturi Cotton Bharat programme of the Ministry of Textiles is an effort in traceability, certification and branding of Indian cotton.

• It is a collaboration between the Government of India cotton Corporation of India trade bodies and industry to enhance the traceability and certification.

• A microsite with QR code verification and blockchain platform has being developed for end to end traceability and transaction certification.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Unified India Organic (UIO) logo aims to distinguish organic and non organic products, in compliance with National Standards for Organic Production. UIO replaces both the India Organic and Jaivik Bharat logos. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Recently FSSAI and APEDA have developed a new unified India logo to replace the existing India Organic and Jaivik Bharat logos. The India Organic logo is used on Organic products complying with the National Programme for Organic products under APEDA while the Jaivik Bharat logo is used for organic product certified by FSSAI. The move intends to bring uniformity in implementation of organic regulations by NPOP and FSSAI. The new logo is expected to come into force in the near future and the certification bodies will be given a three month transition period for its implementation It will distinguish Organic products from non organic products, thus adhering to the National standards for Organic production. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Recently FSSAI and APEDA have developed a new unified India logo to replace the existing India Organic and Jaivik Bharat logos. The India Organic logo is used on Organic products complying with the National Programme for Organic products under APEDA while the Jaivik Bharat logo is used for organic product certified by FSSAI. The move intends to bring uniformity in implementation of organic regulations by NPOP and FSSAI. The new logo is expected to come into force in the near future and the certification bodies will be given a three month transition period for its implementation It will distinguish Organic products from non organic products, thus adhering to the National standards for Organic production. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Unified India Organic (UIO) logo aims to distinguish organic and non organic products, in compliance with National Standards for Organic Production.

• UIO replaces both the India Organic and Jaivik Bharat logos.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Recently FSSAI and APEDA have developed a new unified India logo to replace the existing India Organic and Jaivik Bharat logos.

• The India Organic logo is used on Organic products complying with the National Programme for Organic products under APEDA while the Jaivik Bharat logo is used for organic product certified by FSSAI.

• The move intends to bring uniformity in implementation of organic regulations by NPOP and FSSAI.

• The new logo is expected to come into force in the near future and the certification bodies will be given a three month transition period for its implementation

• It will distinguish Organic products from non organic products, thus adhering to the National standards for Organic production.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• Recently FSSAI and APEDA have developed a new unified India logo to replace the existing India Organic and Jaivik Bharat logos.

• The move intends to bring uniformity in implementation of organic regulations by NPOP and FSSAI.

• The new logo is expected to come into force in the near future and the certification bodies will be given a three month transition period for its implementation

• It will distinguish Organic products from non organic products, thus adhering to the National standards for Organic production.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs : Biodiversity Heritage site : Location Gupteshwar Forest : Tripura Hogrekan : Andhra Pradesh Nallur Tamarind Grove : Karnataka Tonglu : Assam How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : A Gupteshwar forest is located in Odisha. It is situated in the southernmost region in the state and is a part of the Eastern Ghats This demarcated area comprises at least 608 faunal species and 615 floral species It is also bestowed with sub terrain vegetation with a rich diversity of threatened and medicinal plants like Indian snakeroot, garlic pear, kumbhi gum tree, etc. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Hogrekan is a biodiversity Heritage site located in Chikmagalur district in Karnataka. It has a unique Shola vegetation and grassland with several floral species that are unique and has medicinal value It is moderately wooded land and the vegetation is of dry deciduous type. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Nallur Tamarind Grove is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka. It is popularly believed to be a relic of the Chola dynasty It is spread over 54 acres comprising a population of nearly 300 trees. It is the first designated biodiversity Heritage site in the country. Hence pair 3 is correct Tonglu BHS is located in Darjeeling district of West Bengal. It is a conservation area for medicinal plants. Hence pair 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : A Gupteshwar forest is located in Odisha. It is situated in the southernmost region in the state and is a part of the Eastern Ghats This demarcated area comprises at least 608 faunal species and 615 floral species It is also bestowed with sub terrain vegetation with a rich diversity of threatened and medicinal plants like Indian snakeroot, garlic pear, kumbhi gum tree, etc. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Hogrekan is a biodiversity Heritage site located in Chikmagalur district in Karnataka. It has a unique Shola vegetation and grassland with several floral species that are unique and has medicinal value It is moderately wooded land and the vegetation is of dry deciduous type. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Nallur Tamarind Grove is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka. It is popularly believed to be a relic of the Chola dynasty It is spread over 54 acres comprising a population of nearly 300 trees. It is the first designated biodiversity Heritage site in the country. Hence pair 3 is correct Tonglu BHS is located in Darjeeling district of West Bengal. It is a conservation area for medicinal plants. Hence pair 4 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following pairs :

Biodiversity Heritage site : Location

• Gupteshwar Forest : Tripura

• Hogrekan : Andhra Pradesh

• Nallur Tamarind Grove : Karnataka

• Tonglu : Assam

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : A

• Gupteshwar forest is located in Odisha.

• It is situated in the southernmost region in the state and is a part of the Eastern Ghats

• This demarcated area comprises at least 608 faunal species and 615 floral species

• It is also bestowed with sub terrain vegetation with a rich diversity of threatened and medicinal plants like Indian snakeroot, garlic pear, kumbhi gum tree, etc.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Hogrekan is a biodiversity Heritage site located in Chikmagalur district in Karnataka.

• It has a unique Shola vegetation and grassland with several floral species that are unique and has medicinal value

• It is moderately wooded land and the vegetation is of dry deciduous type.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Nallur Tamarind Grove is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka.

• It is popularly believed to be a relic of the Chola dynasty

• It is spread over 54 acres comprising a population of nearly 300 trees.

• It is the first designated biodiversity Heritage site in the country.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Tonglu BHS is located in Darjeeling district of West Bengal.

• It is a conservation area for medicinal plants.

Hence pair 4 is incorrect

Solution : A

• Gupteshwar forest is located in Odisha.

• It is situated in the southernmost region in the state and is a part of the Eastern Ghats

• This demarcated area comprises at least 608 faunal species and 615 floral species

• It is also bestowed with sub terrain vegetation with a rich diversity of threatened and medicinal plants like Indian snakeroot, garlic pear, kumbhi gum tree, etc.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Hogrekan is a biodiversity Heritage site located in Chikmagalur district in Karnataka.

• It has a unique Shola vegetation and grassland with several floral species that are unique and has medicinal value

• It is moderately wooded land and the vegetation is of dry deciduous type.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Nallur Tamarind Grove is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka.

• It is popularly believed to be a relic of the Chola dynasty

• It is spread over 54 acres comprising a population of nearly 300 trees.

• It is the first designated biodiversity Heritage site in the country.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Tonglu BHS is located in Darjeeling district of West Bengal.

• It is a conservation area for medicinal plants.

Hence pair 4 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Biodecomposer solution helps in mitigation of air pollution. Statement – II : Biodecomposer solution is a mixture of beneficial microorganisms that breakdown organic matter. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : A Bio decomposer solution initiative was recently in news after it was developed by Indian Agriculture Research Institute to mitigate stubble burning problem of North India. The biodecomposer spray is a biological solution made of beneficial microbial cultures that decompose agricultural crop residues, particularly stubble; It works by breaking down stubble , allowing it to be absorbed into the soil and in this process also improves soil fertility and also mitigating the air pollution issue. The spray is intended to decompose paddy stubble, preventing the need for stubble burning which significantly contributes to air pollution; stubble burning contribute to annual rise in air pollution in Delhi and adjoining Indo-Gangetic plains, particularly during winter. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution : A Bio decomposer solution initiative was recently in news after it was developed by Indian Agriculture Research Institute to mitigate stubble burning problem of North India. The biodecomposer spray is a biological solution made of beneficial microbial cultures that decompose agricultural crop residues, particularly stubble; It works by breaking down stubble , allowing it to be absorbed into the soil and in this process also improves soil fertility and also mitigating the air pollution issue. The spray is intended to decompose paddy stubble, preventing the need for stubble burning which significantly contributes to air pollution; stubble burning contribute to annual rise in air pollution in Delhi and adjoining Indo-Gangetic plains, particularly during winter. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Biodecomposer solution helps in mitigation of air pollution.

Statement – II :

Biodecomposer solution is a mixture of beneficial microorganisms that breakdown organic matter.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : A

• Bio decomposer solution initiative was recently in news after it was developed by Indian Agriculture Research Institute to mitigate stubble burning problem of North India.

• The biodecomposer spray is a biological solution made of beneficial microbial cultures that decompose agricultural crop residues, particularly stubble;

• It works by breaking down stubble , allowing it to be absorbed into the soil and in this process also improves soil fertility and also mitigating the air pollution issue.

• The spray is intended to decompose paddy stubble, preventing the need for stubble burning which significantly contributes to air pollution; stubble burning contribute to annual rise in air pollution in Delhi and adjoining Indo-Gangetic plains, particularly during winter.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution : A

• Bio decomposer solution initiative was recently in news after it was developed by Indian Agriculture Research Institute to mitigate stubble burning problem of North India.

• The biodecomposer spray is a biological solution made of beneficial microbial cultures that decompose agricultural crop residues, particularly stubble;

• It works by breaking down stubble , allowing it to be absorbed into the soil and in this process also improves soil fertility and also mitigating the air pollution issue.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Global Partnership on Plastic Pollution and Marine Litter (GPML) was launched as a response to the Manila Declaration on Furthering the Implementation of the Global Programme of Action for the Protection of the Marine environment from Land-based Activities. It is a multistakeholder partnership that was launched at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20). The United Nations Environment Programme functions as Secretariat of it. It encourages ‘Closed loop’ systems and more circular production cycles to attain its objectives. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D The Global Partnership on Plastic Pollution and Marine Litter (GPML) was launched at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+ 20) in June 2012 in response to a request set out in the Manila Declaration on Furthering the Implementation of the Global Programme of Action for the Protection of the Marine environment from Land-based Activities. It is a multistakeholder partnership that brings together all actors working to prevent Marine Litter and plastic pollution. The partnership is led by a steering committee and the United Nations Environment Programme provides Secretariat Services. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct The specific objectives of the partnership include reducing leakage of plastic into the ocean through improved design, application of 3R principle (reduce reuse and recycle); encouraging ‘closed loop’ systems and more circular production cycle and maximization of resource efficiency and minimization of waste generation. Hence statement 4 is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Global Partnership on Plastic Pollution and Marine Litter (GPML) was launched at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+ 20) in June 2012 in response to a request set out in the Manila Declaration on Furthering the Implementation of the Global Programme of Action for the Protection of the Marine environment from Land-based Activities. It is a multistakeholder partnership that brings together all actors working to prevent Marine Litter and plastic pollution. The partnership is led by a steering committee and the United Nations Environment Programme provides Secretariat Services. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct The specific objectives of the partnership include reducing leakage of plastic into the ocean through improved design, application of 3R principle (reduce reuse and recycle); encouraging ‘closed loop’ systems and more circular production cycle and maximization of resource efficiency and minimization of waste generation. Hence statement 4 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Global Partnership on Plastic Pollution and Marine Litter (GPML) was launched as a response to the Manila Declaration on Furthering the Implementation of the Global Programme of Action for the Protection of the Marine environment from Land-based Activities.

• It is a multistakeholder partnership that was launched at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20).

• The United Nations Environment Programme functions as Secretariat of it.

• It encourages ‘Closed loop’ systems and more circular production cycles to attain its objectives.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• The Global Partnership on Plastic Pollution and Marine Litter (GPML) was launched at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+ 20) in June 2012 in response to a request set out in the Manila Declaration on Furthering the Implementation of the Global Programme of Action for the Protection of the Marine environment from Land-based Activities.

• It is a multistakeholder partnership that brings together all actors working to prevent Marine Litter and plastic pollution.

• The partnership is led by a steering committee and the United Nations Environment Programme provides Secretariat Services.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• The specific objectives of the partnership include reducing leakage of plastic into the ocean through improved design, application of 3R principle (reduce reuse and recycle); encouraging ‘closed loop’ systems and more circular production cycle and maximization of resource efficiency and minimization of waste generation.

Hence statement 4 is correct

Solution: D

• It is a multistakeholder partnership that brings together all actors working to prevent Marine Litter and plastic pollution.

• The partnership is led by a steering committee and the United Nations Environment Programme provides Secretariat Services.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Hence statement 4 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Saola: It is classified as endangered by the IUCN and is found in the deserts of western China. Genome sequencing of Saola populations revealed historic population fragmentation due to habitat and climate changes. Saola is taxonomically a bovine but resembles an antelope in morphology. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Saola is Critically Endangered and endemic to the Annamite Mountains on the Laos–Vietnam border, not deserts of western China. It is found in evergreen forests with high humidity and minimal dry seasons. Statement 2 is correct. Genome data from remains revealed a population split 5,000–20,000 years ago due to human and climatic factors. Statement 3 is correct. While taxonomically a bovine, Saola resembles an antelope in appearance, with straight horns and facial markings. Hence, only two statements are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Saola is Critically Endangered and endemic to the Annamite Mountains on the Laos–Vietnam border, not deserts of western China. It is found in evergreen forests with high humidity and minimal dry seasons. Statement 2 is correct. Genome data from remains revealed a population split 5,000–20,000 years ago due to human and climatic factors. Statement 3 is correct. While taxonomically a bovine, Saola resembles an antelope in appearance, with straight horns and facial markings. Hence, only two statements are correct.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Saola:

• It is classified as endangered by the IUCN and is found in the deserts of western China.

• Genome sequencing of Saola populations revealed historic population fragmentation due to habitat and climate changes.

• Saola is taxonomically a bovine but resembles an antelope in morphology.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Saola is Critically Endangered and endemic to the Annamite Mountains on the Laos–Vietnam border, not deserts of western China. It is found in evergreen forests with high humidity and minimal dry seasons.

Statement 2 is correct. Genome data from remains revealed a population split 5,000–20,000 years ago due to human and climatic factors.

Statement 3 is correct. While taxonomically a bovine, Saola resembles an antelope in appearance, with straight horns and facial markings. Hence, only two statements are correct.

Statement 2 is correct. Genome data from remains revealed a population split 5,000–20,000 years ago due to human and climatic factors.

Statement 3 is correct. While taxonomically a bovine, Saola resembles an antelope in appearance, with straight horns and facial markings. Hence, only two statements are correct.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Similipal Tiger Reserve: It is the first Indian reserve to employ the TrailGuard AI system to combat poaching. It hosts both tropical semi-evergreen forests and dry deciduous vegetation. It is notified under all three conservation categories: National Park, Biosphere Reserve, and Wildlife Sanctuary. The Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve includes parts of the Similipal Tiger Reserve. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D All four statements are correct. Similipal is indeed the first reserve where TrailGuard AI was implemented as an anti-poaching tool. It hosts a rich combination of semi-evergreen and deciduous forest types. The area is protected under National Park, Biosphere Reserve, and Wildlife Sanctuary categories. It is also part of the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve, making it one of the most ecologically and administratively complex conservation landscapes in India. Incorrect Solution: D All four statements are correct. Similipal is indeed the first reserve where TrailGuard AI was implemented as an anti-poaching tool. It hosts a rich combination of semi-evergreen and deciduous forest types. The area is protected under National Park, Biosphere Reserve, and Wildlife Sanctuary categories. It is also part of the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve, making it one of the most ecologically and administratively complex conservation landscapes in India.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements about Similipal Tiger Reserve:

• It is the first Indian reserve to employ the TrailGuard AI system to combat poaching.

• It hosts both tropical semi-evergreen forests and dry deciduous vegetation.

• It is notified under all three conservation categories: National Park, Biosphere Reserve, and Wildlife Sanctuary.

• The Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve includes parts of the Similipal Tiger Reserve.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

All four statements are correct.

Similipal is indeed the first reserve where TrailGuard AI was implemented as an anti-poaching tool. It hosts a rich combination of semi-evergreen and deciduous forest types. The area is protected under National Park, Biosphere Reserve, and Wildlife Sanctuary categories. It is also part of the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve, making it one of the most ecologically and administratively complex conservation landscapes in India.

Solution: D

All four statements are correct.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The IUCN Green Status of Species offers a new standard for assessing the extinction risk of species. Statement II: The Green Status framework is designed to evaluate species’ recovery potential and conservation impact. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect because the IUCN Green Status of Species does not assess extinction risk. That function is already performed by the IUCN Red List, which classifies species under categories such as Vulnerable, Endangered, or Critically Endangered based on extinction risk. Statement II is correct: The Green Status framework, introduced by IUCN, is a complementary tool to the Red List. It measures species recovery, evaluates the impact of conservation actions, and identifies what more is needed to improve recovery. It assesses whether a species is viable, present across its historical range, and performing its ecological function. Categories include “Largely Depleted,” “Moderately Depleted,” and “Fully Recovered,” among others. Thus, while both tools serve conservation, their core purposes differ — extinction risk (Red List) vs. recovery and conservation effectiveness (Green Status). Hence, only Statement II is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect because the IUCN Green Status of Species does not assess extinction risk. That function is already performed by the IUCN Red List, which classifies species under categories such as Vulnerable, Endangered, or Critically Endangered based on extinction risk. Statement II is correct: The Green Status framework, introduced by IUCN, is a complementary tool to the Red List. It measures species recovery, evaluates the impact of conservation actions, and identifies what more is needed to improve recovery. It assesses whether a species is viable, present across its historical range, and performing its ecological function. Categories include “Largely Depleted,” “Moderately Depleted,” and “Fully Recovered,” among others. Thus, while both tools serve conservation, their core purposes differ — extinction risk (Red List) vs. recovery and conservation effectiveness (Green Status). Hence, only Statement II is correct.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The IUCN Green Status of Species offers a new standard for assessing the extinction risk of species. Statement II: The Green Status framework is designed to evaluate species’ recovery potential and conservation impact.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

• (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

• (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Solution: D

Statement I is incorrect because the IUCN Green Status of Species does not assess extinction risk. That function is already performed by the IUCN Red List, which classifies species under categories such as Vulnerable, Endangered, or Critically Endangered based on extinction risk.

Statement II is correct: The Green Status framework, introduced by IUCN, is a complementary tool to the Red List. It measures species recovery, evaluates the impact of conservation actions, and identifies what more is needed to improve recovery. It assesses whether a species is viable, present across its historical range, and performing its ecological function. Categories include “Largely Depleted,” “Moderately Depleted,” and “Fully Recovered,” among others.

Thus, while both tools serve conservation, their core purposes differ — extinction risk (Red List) vs. recovery and conservation effectiveness (Green Status). Hence, only Statement II is correct.

Solution: D

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding the biofuels sector in India is/are correct? Ethanol 100 is used as an aviation fuel under the Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) category. The GOBAR-Dhan scheme promotes compressed biogas generation from cattle dung and food waste. The SATAT initiative incentivizes private entrepreneurs to establish CBG plants using biomass. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) None of the above Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Ethanol 100 is a high-purity ethanol fuel blend, but it is not categorized under Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). SAF includes biofuels derived from feedstocks like used cooking oil, municipal solid waste, or algae, and is specifically designed to be used in aircraft engines. Ethanol is not approved for aviation use in commercial jets due to its energy density and material compatibility issues. Statement 2 is correct: The GOBAR-Dhan (Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources) scheme promotes the management and reuse of cattle dung and organic waste by converting them into compressed biogas (CBG) and organic manure. This supports rural sanitation and the circular economy. Statement 3 is correct: Under the SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) initiative, the government encourages private sector participation to set up CBG plants, offering buy-back arrangements with Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs). Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Ethanol 100 is a high-purity ethanol fuel blend, but it is not categorized under Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). SAF includes biofuels derived from feedstocks like used cooking oil, municipal solid waste, or algae, and is specifically designed to be used in aircraft engines. Ethanol is not approved for aviation use in commercial jets due to its energy density and material compatibility issues. Statement 2 is correct: The GOBAR-Dhan (Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources) scheme promotes the management and reuse of cattle dung and organic waste by converting them into compressed biogas (CBG) and organic manure. This supports rural sanitation and the circular economy. Statement 3 is correct: Under the SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) initiative, the government encourages private sector participation to set up CBG plants, offering buy-back arrangements with Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs). Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

#### 24. Question

Which of the following statements regarding the biofuels sector in India is/are correct?

• Ethanol 100 is used as an aviation fuel under the Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) category.

• The GOBAR-Dhan scheme promotes compressed biogas generation from cattle dung and food waste.

• The SATAT initiative incentivizes private entrepreneurs to establish CBG plants using biomass.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) None of the above

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Ethanol 100 is a high-purity ethanol fuel blend, but it is not categorized under Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). SAF includes biofuels derived from feedstocks like used cooking oil, municipal solid waste, or algae, and is specifically designed to be used in aircraft engines. Ethanol is not approved for aviation use in commercial jets due to its energy density and material compatibility issues.

Statement 2 is correct: The GOBAR-Dhan (Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources) scheme promotes the management and reuse of cattle dung and organic waste by converting them into compressed biogas (CBG) and organic manure. This supports rural sanitation and the circular economy.

Statement 3 is correct: Under the SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) initiative, the government encourages private sector participation to set up CBG plants, offering buy-back arrangements with Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs).

Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Solution: B

Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains why Type 5 Diabetes poses a unique challenge in global health governance? (a) It primarily affects women with gestational diabetes during middle age (b) It is driven by autoimmune antibodies attacking insulin-producing cells (c) It is associated with chronic undernutrition in low-resource populations, often neglected in standard diabetes care models (d) It is a subtype of Type 2 diabetes with complications arising from overuse of insulin Correct Solution: C Type 5 Diabetes has been recognized as a distinct clinical and public health challenge because it is prevalent in populations facing chronic malnutrition, such as underweight adolescents in Asia and Africa. It represents a “poverty-linked” disease, often overlooked in global NCD management, which has typically focused on obesity-related Type 2 diabetes and autoimmune Type 1 diabetes. What makes Type 5 unique is that: It occurs in young, lean individuals, with no prior obesity or autoimmune trigger. It does not follow traditional treatment protocols, such as standard insulin therapy, which can lead to hypoglycemia. It requires nutritional rehabilitation, alongside customized pharmacological support. None of the other options capture this intersection of malnutrition and metabolic dysfunction. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Solution: C Type 5 Diabetes has been recognized as a distinct clinical and public health challenge because it is prevalent in populations facing chronic malnutrition, such as underweight adolescents in Asia and Africa. It represents a “poverty-linked” disease, often overlooked in global NCD management, which has typically focused on obesity-related Type 2 diabetes and autoimmune Type 1 diabetes. What makes Type 5 unique is that: It occurs in young, lean individuals, with no prior obesity or autoimmune trigger. It does not follow traditional treatment protocols, such as standard insulin therapy, which can lead to hypoglycemia. It requires nutritional rehabilitation, alongside customized pharmacological support. None of the other options capture this intersection of malnutrition and metabolic dysfunction. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 25. Question

Which of the following best explains why Type 5 Diabetes poses a unique challenge in global health governance?

• (a) It primarily affects women with gestational diabetes during middle age

• (b) It is driven by autoimmune antibodies attacking insulin-producing cells

• (c) It is associated with chronic undernutrition in low-resource populations, often neglected in standard diabetes care models

• (d) It is a subtype of Type 2 diabetes with complications arising from overuse of insulin

Solution: C Type 5 Diabetes has been recognized as a distinct clinical and public health challenge because it is prevalent in populations facing chronic malnutrition, such as underweight adolescents in Asia and Africa. It represents a “poverty-linked” disease, often overlooked in global NCD management, which has typically focused on obesity-related Type 2 diabetes and autoimmune Type 1 diabetes.

What makes Type 5 unique is that:

• It occurs in young, lean individuals, with no prior obesity or autoimmune trigger.

• It does not follow traditional treatment protocols, such as standard insulin therapy, which can lead to hypoglycemia.

• It requires nutritional rehabilitation, alongside customized pharmacological support.

None of the other options capture this intersection of malnutrition and metabolic dysfunction.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

What makes Type 5 unique is that:

• It occurs in young, lean individuals, with no prior obesity or autoimmune trigger.

• It does not follow traditional treatment protocols, such as standard insulin therapy, which can lead to hypoglycemia.

• It requires nutritional rehabilitation, alongside customized pharmacological support.

None of the other options capture this intersection of malnutrition and metabolic dysfunction.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Laughter, a universal language, comes in many forms, each with its own unique impact on our lives and relationships. From the hearty chuckle of a close friend to the infectious giggle of a child, laughter has the power to uplift spirits and strengthen bonds. A shared joke among colleagues fosters camaraderie in the workplace, while a playful teasing between siblings strengthens familial ties. Even in moments of adversity, a hearty laugh can provide solace and bring people together in solidarity. Whether it’s the joyous laughter of celebration or the comforting laughter of shared understanding, its resonance echoes throughout our lives, leaving lasting impressions on our hearts and minds. Q. Which one of the following statements *best reflects what is implied *by the passage? A. Laughter serves as a universal language, transcending cultural barriers and strengthening human connections. B. Different types of laughter evoke various emotions and contribute to the complexity of human interactions. C. The impact of laughter on relationships and emotional experiences is influenced by contextual factors and individual differences. D. Laughter, with its diverse manifestations, holds significance in shaping bonds. Correct Answer Justification : Laughter serves as a universal language, transcending cultural barriers and strengthening human connections. Option (b) is incorrect: While this option acknowledges the diversity of laughter and its contribution to human interactions, it does not fully capture the universal nature and unifying effect of laughter emphasized in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: This option highlights the influence of contextual factors and individual differences on the impact of laughter but does not fully encompass its universal and unifying aspect. Option (d) is incorrect: While this option acknowledges the diverse manifestations of laughter, it does not fully capture its role in strengthening human connections across cultures and contexts as implied in the passage. Incorrect Answer Justification : Laughter serves as a universal language, transcending cultural barriers and strengthening human connections. Option (b) is incorrect: While this option acknowledges the diversity of laughter and its contribution to human interactions, it does not fully capture the universal nature and unifying effect of laughter emphasized in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: This option highlights the influence of contextual factors and individual differences on the impact of laughter but does not fully encompass its universal and unifying aspect. Option (d) is incorrect: While this option acknowledges the diverse manifestations of laughter, it does not fully capture its role in strengthening human connections across cultures and contexts as implied in the passage.

#### 26. Question

Laughter, a universal language, comes in many forms, each with its own unique impact on our lives and relationships. From the hearty chuckle of a close friend to the infectious giggle of a child, laughter has the power to uplift spirits and strengthen bonds. A shared joke among colleagues fosters camaraderie in the workplace, while a playful teasing between siblings strengthens familial ties. Even in moments of adversity, a hearty laugh can provide solace and bring people together in solidarity. Whether it’s the joyous laughter of celebration or the comforting laughter of shared understanding, its resonance echoes throughout our lives, leaving lasting impressions on our hearts and minds.

Q. Which one of the following statements *best reflects what is implied *by the passage?

• A. Laughter serves as a universal language, transcending cultural barriers and strengthening human connections.

• B. Different types of laughter evoke various emotions and contribute to the complexity of human interactions.

• C. The impact of laughter on relationships and emotional experiences is influenced by contextual factors and individual differences.

• D. Laughter, with its diverse manifestations, holds significance in shaping bonds.

Answer Justification :

Laughter serves as a universal language, transcending cultural barriers and strengthening human connections.

Option (b) is incorrect: While this option acknowledges the diversity of laughter and its contribution to human interactions, it does not fully capture the universal nature and unifying effect of laughter emphasized in the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect: This option highlights the influence of contextual factors and individual differences on the impact of laughter but does not fully encompass its universal and unifying aspect.

Option (d) is incorrect: While this option acknowledges the diverse manifestations of laughter, it does not fully capture its role in strengthening human connections across cultures and contexts as implied in the passage.

Answer Justification :

Laughter serves as a universal language, transcending cultural barriers and strengthening human connections.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points China’s Chang’e 6 spacecraft has achieved a historic feat by successfully landing on the far side of the Moon, marking a significant milestone in lunar exploration. Launched from China’s Wenchang Spaceport in May 2024, the mission aims to collect precious rock and soil from the unexplored South Pole-Aitken Basin. This region could yield valuable insights into the Moon’s geological composition and origins. The landing was particularly challenging due to the lack of direct communication with spacecraft on the far side of the Moon, but China successfully navigated this obstacle using innovative technology. The spacecraft will spend up to three days gathering materials, including potentially ancient rocks from the lunar mantle, before returning to Earth with the samples. This achievement underscores China’s growing prowess in space exploration and its ambitious goals for lunar research and establishing a permanent human presence on the Moon. Which of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage? A. China's Chang'e 6 mission is primarily focused on establishing a permanent human presence on the Moon. B. The successful landing of China's Chang'e 6 spacecraft on the far side of the Moon represents a significant advancement in lunar exploration. C. China's Wenchang Spaceport is the only facility capable of launching spacecraft to the far side of the Moon. D. The lack of direct communication with spacecraft on the far side of the Moon poses insurmountable challenges for lunar missions. Correct Correct Answer : B Answer Justification : This choice reflects the main focus of the passage, emphasizing the historic feat achieved by China’s Chang’e 6 mission in successfully landing on the far side of the Moon. The passage highlights the mission’s significance in terms of lunar exploration and the collection of valuable materials from the unexplored South Pole-Aitken Basin. Incorrect Correct Answer : B Answer Justification : This choice reflects the main focus of the passage, emphasizing the historic feat achieved by China’s Chang’e 6 mission in successfully landing on the far side of the Moon. The passage highlights the mission’s significance in terms of lunar exploration and the collection of valuable materials from the unexplored South Pole-Aitken Basin.

#### 27. Question

China’s Chang’e 6 spacecraft has achieved a historic feat by successfully landing on the far side of the Moon, marking a significant milestone in lunar exploration. Launched from China’s Wenchang Spaceport in May 2024, the mission aims to collect precious rock and soil from the unexplored South Pole-Aitken Basin. This region could yield valuable insights into the Moon’s geological composition and origins. The landing was particularly challenging due to the lack of direct communication with spacecraft on the far side of the Moon, but China successfully navigated this obstacle using innovative technology. The spacecraft will spend up to three days gathering materials, including potentially ancient rocks from the lunar mantle, before returning to Earth with the samples. This achievement underscores China’s growing prowess in space exploration and its ambitious goals for lunar research and establishing a permanent human presence on the Moon.

Which of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?

• A. China's Chang'e 6 mission is primarily focused on establishing a permanent human presence on the Moon.

• B. The successful landing of China's Chang'e 6 spacecraft on the far side of the Moon represents a significant advancement in lunar exploration.

• C. China's Wenchang Spaceport is the only facility capable of launching spacecraft to the far side of the Moon.

• D. The lack of direct communication with spacecraft on the far side of the Moon poses insurmountable challenges for lunar missions.

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

This choice reflects the main focus of the passage, emphasizing the historic feat achieved by China’s Chang’e 6 mission in successfully landing on the far side of the Moon. The passage highlights the mission’s significance in terms of lunar exploration and the collection of valuable materials from the unexplored South Pole-Aitken Basin.

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points In the following questions, a question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Read both the statements and answer accordingly. What is the code of ‘book’ in a certain code language? ‘look into book’ is coded as ‘df ty bn’ and ‘the book is best’ is coded as ‘bn sc uj ik’ in that code. ‘she loved the book’ is coded as ‘hb sn ju lp’ and ‘book she has is good’ is coded as ‘sn km er tr ju’ in that code. A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. Correct Correct Answer : A Answer Justification : In statement I, ‘book’ is present in both codes and ‘bn’ also. So ‘book’ – ‘bn’ In statement II, ‘she’ and ‘book’ both are present in 2 codes given, so ‘book’ can be either ‘sn’ or ‘ju’. Incorrect Correct Answer : A Answer Justification : In statement I, ‘book’ is present in both codes and ‘bn’ also. So ‘book’ – ‘bn’ In statement II, ‘she’ and ‘book’ both are present in 2 codes given, so ‘book’ can be either ‘sn’ or ‘ju’.

#### 28. Question

In the following questions, a question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Read both the statements and answer accordingly.

What is the code of ‘book’ in a certain code language?

• ‘look into book’ is coded as ‘df ty bn’ and ‘the book is best’ is coded as ‘bn sc uj ik’ in that code.

• ‘she loved the book’ is coded as ‘hb sn ju lp’ and ‘book she has is good’ is coded as ‘sn km er tr ju’ in that code.

• A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

• B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

• C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

• D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

In statement I, ‘book’ is present in both codes and ‘bn’ also. So ‘book’ – ‘bn’

In statement II, ‘she’ and ‘book’ both are present in 2 codes given, so ‘book’ can be either ‘sn’ or ‘ju’.

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

In statement I, ‘book’ is present in both codes and ‘bn’ also. So ‘book’ – ‘bn’

In statement II, ‘she’ and ‘book’ both are present in 2 codes given, so ‘book’ can be either ‘sn’ or ‘ju’.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points How many distinct 6-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of 112244, such that odd digits occupy prime positions (2, 3, 5)? A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 18 Correct Correct Answer : D Answer Justification : Digits: 1,1,2,2,4,4 Odd digits: 1,1 Prime positions in 6-digit number = 2,3,5 → 3 positions available We must place two 1s into any 2 of these 3 prime positions. . The number of ways to choose 2 positions from 3 is 3C2 = 3! / (2! 1!) = 3. The number of ways to arrange the odd digits (1, 1) in the chosen positions is 2! / 2! = 1. We have 4 even digits (2, 2, 4, 4) and 4 remaining positions (1, 4, and the position that wasn’t used for an odd number). The number of ways to arrange these even digits is 4! / (2! 2!) = (4 3 2 1) / ((2 1) (2 1)) = 6. To find the total number of distinct 6-digit numbers, we multiply the number of ways to arrange the odd digits by the number of ways to arrange the even digits. Total arrangements = (Ways to choose positions for odd digits) (Ways to arrange odd digits) (Ways to arrange even digits) Total arrangements = 3 1 6 = 18 Incorrect Correct Answer : D Answer Justification : Digits: 1,1,2,2,4,4 Odd digits: 1,1 Prime positions in 6-digit number = 2,3,5 → 3 positions available We must place two 1s into any 2 of these 3 prime positions. . The number of ways to choose 2 positions from 3 is 3C2 = 3! / (2! 1!) = 3. The number of ways to arrange the odd digits (1, 1) in the chosen positions is 2! / 2! = 1. We have 4 even digits (2, 2, 4, 4) and 4 remaining positions (1, 4, and the position that wasn’t used for an odd number). The number of ways to arrange these even digits is 4! / (2! 2!) = (4 3 2 1) / ((2 1) (2 1)) = 6. To find the total number of distinct 6-digit numbers, we multiply the number of ways to arrange the odd digits by the number of ways to arrange the even digits. Total arrangements = (Ways to choose positions for odd digits) (Ways to arrange odd digits) (Ways to arrange even digits) Total arrangements = 3 1 6 = 18

#### 29. Question

How many distinct 6-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of 112244, such that odd digits occupy prime positions (2, 3, 5)?

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Digits: 1,1,2,2,4,4

Odd digits: 1,1 Prime positions in 6-digit number = 2,3,5 → 3 positions available We must place two 1s into any 2 of these 3 prime positions. .

The number of ways to choose 2 positions from 3 is 3C2 = 3! / (2! * 1!) = 3. The number of ways to arrange the odd digits (1, 1) in the chosen positions is 2! / 2! = 1.

We have 4 even digits (2, 2, 4, 4) and 4 remaining positions (1, 4, and the position that wasn’t used for an odd number).

The number of ways to arrange these even digits is 4! / (2! 2!) = (4 3 2 1) / ((2 1) (2 * 1)) = 6.

To find the total number of distinct 6-digit numbers, we multiply the number of ways to arrange the odd digits by the number of ways to arrange the even digits.

Total arrangements = (Ways to choose positions for odd digits) (Ways to arrange odd digits) (Ways to arrange even digits)

Total arrangements = 3 1 6 = 18

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Digits: 1,1,2,2,4,4

Odd digits: 1,1 Prime positions in 6-digit number = 2,3,5 → 3 positions available We must place two 1s into any 2 of these 3 prime positions. .

The number of ways to choose 2 positions from 3 is 3C2 = 3! / (2! * 1!) = 3. The number of ways to arrange the odd digits (1, 1) in the chosen positions is 2! / 2! = 1.

We have 4 even digits (2, 2, 4, 4) and 4 remaining positions (1, 4, and the position that wasn’t used for an odd number).

The number of ways to arrange these even digits is 4! / (2! 2!) = (4 3 2 1) / ((2 1) (2 * 1)) = 6.

To find the total number of distinct 6-digit numbers, we multiply the number of ways to arrange the odd digits by the number of ways to arrange the even digits.

Total arrangements = (Ways to choose positions for odd digits) (Ways to arrange odd digits) (Ways to arrange even digits)

Total arrangements = 3 1 6 = 18

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In the following question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statement is followed by two conclusions. Statement: P ≥ Q > R = S < T ≤ U Conclusions: P > S R < U Select the correct answer on the basis of the information given above. A. Only Conclusion I follows B. Only Conclusion II follows C. Both Conclusions I and II follow D. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows Correct Correct Answer : C Answer Justification : Conclusion I (P > S): We know P ≥ Q > R = S. Since Q > R and R = S, we can say Q > S. Also, P ≥ Q. Therefore, P > S is true. Conclusion II (R < U): We know R = S < T ≤ U. Since S < T and T ≤ U, we can say S < U. Since R = S, we can say R < U is true. So, Both Conclusions I and II follow Incorrect Correct Answer : C Answer Justification : Conclusion I (P > S): We know P ≥ Q > R = S. Since Q > R and R = S, we can say Q > S. Also, P ≥ Q. Therefore, P > S is true. Conclusion II (R < U): We know R = S < T ≤ U. Since S < T and T ≤ U, we can say S < U. Since R = S, we can say R < U is true. So, Both Conclusions I and II follow

#### 30. Question

In the following question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statement is followed by two conclusions.

Statement: P ≥ Q > R = S < T ≤ U

Conclusions:

Select the correct answer on the basis of the information given above.

• A. Only Conclusion I follows

• B. Only Conclusion II follows

• C. Both Conclusions I and II follow

• D. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Conclusion I (P > S):

We know P ≥ Q > R = S.

Since Q > R and R = S, we can say Q > S. Also, P ≥ Q. Therefore, P > S is true.

Conclusion II (R < U):

We know R = S < T ≤ U.

Since S < T and T ≤ U, we can say S < U. Since R = S, we can say R < U is true.

So, Both Conclusions I and II follow

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Conclusion I (P > S):

We know P ≥ Q > R = S.

Since Q > R and R = S, we can say Q > S. Also, P ≥ Q. Therefore, P > S is true.

Conclusion II (R < U):

We know R = S < T ≤ U.

Since S < T and T ≤ U, we can say S < U. Since R = S, we can say R < U is true.