DAY – 68 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – MODERN INDIA , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2017 and Mar 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 25 1. Question 1 points Consider the following interactions: Lice on a human A tiger hunting a deer Orchids growing on mango branches Barnacles on a whale How many of the above is/are example/s of a predatory interaction? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: Lice on a human – This is an example of parasitism, where the lice benefit at the expense of the human. This is not predation because predation involves one organism killing and consuming another. Here, the lice do not kill the human; they merely feed off of them, causing harm without causing immediate death. A tiger hunting a deer – This is a predatory interaction where the tiger benefits by obtaining food at the expense of the deer. Orchids growing on mango branches – This is an example of commensalism, where the orchids benefit by getting a place to grow while the mango tree is neither harmed nor benefited. Barnacles on a whale – This is another example of commensalism, where the barnacles benefit by getting a place to live while the whale is neither harmed nor benefited. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Lice on a human – This is an example of parasitism, where the lice benefit at the expense of the human. This is not predation because predation involves one organism killing and consuming another. Here, the lice do not kill the human; they merely feed off of them, causing harm without causing immediate death. A tiger hunting a deer – This is a predatory interaction where the tiger benefits by obtaining food at the expense of the deer. Orchids growing on mango branches – This is an example of commensalism, where the orchids benefit by getting a place to grow while the mango tree is neither harmed nor benefited. Barnacles on a whale – This is another example of commensalism, where the barnacles benefit by getting a place to live while the whale is neither harmed nor benefited. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following interactions:

• Lice on a human

• A tiger hunting a deer

• Orchids growing on mango branches

• Barnacles on a whale

How many of the above is/are example/s of a predatory interaction?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Lice on a human – This is an example of parasitism, where the lice benefit at the expense of the human. This is not predation because predation involves one organism killing and consuming another. Here, the lice do not kill the human; they merely feed off of them, causing harm without causing immediate death.

• A tiger hunting a deer – This is a predatory interaction where the tiger benefits by obtaining food at the expense of the deer.

• Orchids growing on mango branches – This is an example of commensalism, where the orchids benefit by getting a place to grow while the mango tree is neither harmed nor benefited.

• Barnacles on a whale – This is another example of commensalism, where the barnacles benefit by getting a place to live while the whale is neither harmed nor benefited.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• A tiger hunting a deer – This is a predatory interaction where the tiger benefits by obtaining food at the expense of the deer.

• Orchids growing on mango branches – This is an example of commensalism, where the orchids benefit by getting a place to grow while the mango tree is neither harmed nor benefited.

• Barnacles on a whale – This is another example of commensalism, where the barnacles benefit by getting a place to live while the whale is neither harmed nor benefited.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 25 2. Question 1 points Which of the following is the main difference between ectoparasites and endoparasites? a) Ectoparasites live inside the host's body, while endoparasites live on the surface of the host’s body. b) Ectoparasites cause more harm to the host than endoparasites. c) Ectoparasites live on the surface of the host's body, while endoparasites live inside the host's body. d) Ectoparasites are microscopic, while endoparasites are always visible to the naked eye. Correct Answer: c Explanation: Ectoparasites, such as lice, ticks, and fleas, are found on the surface of the host’s body. Endoparasites, such as tapeworms, roundworms, and protozoa, live inside the host’s body, inhabiting internal organs, tissues, or the bloodstream. Both ectoparasites and endoparasites can be either microscopic or macroscopic. For example, lice (an ectoparasite) are visible to the naked eye, while some ectoparasites like mites can be microscopic. Similarly, endoparasites like tapeworms can be large and visible, while others like certain protozoa are microscopic. The harm caused by parasites depends on various factors, including the species of the parasite, the host’s health, and the conditions of the infestation. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Ectoparasites, such as lice, ticks, and fleas, are found on the surface of the host’s body. Endoparasites, such as tapeworms, roundworms, and protozoa, live inside the host’s body, inhabiting internal organs, tissues, or the bloodstream. Both ectoparasites and endoparasites can be either microscopic or macroscopic. For example, lice (an ectoparasite) are visible to the naked eye, while some ectoparasites like mites can be microscopic. Similarly, endoparasites like tapeworms can be large and visible, while others like certain protozoa are microscopic. The harm caused by parasites depends on various factors, including the species of the parasite, the host’s health, and the conditions of the infestation. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following is the main difference between ectoparasites and endoparasites?

• a) Ectoparasites live inside the host's body, while endoparasites live on the surface of the host’s body.

• b) Ectoparasites cause more harm to the host than endoparasites.

• c) Ectoparasites live on the surface of the host's body, while endoparasites live inside the host's body.

• d) Ectoparasites are microscopic, while endoparasites are always visible to the naked eye.

Explanation:

• Ectoparasites, such as lice, ticks, and fleas, are found on the surface of the host’s body. Endoparasites, such as tapeworms, roundworms, and protozoa, live inside the host’s body, inhabiting internal organs, tissues, or the bloodstream.

• Both ectoparasites and endoparasites can be either microscopic or macroscopic. For example, lice (an ectoparasite) are visible to the naked eye, while some ectoparasites like mites can be microscopic. Similarly, endoparasites like tapeworms can be large and visible, while others like certain protozoa are microscopic.

• The harm caused by parasites depends on various factors, including the species of the parasite, the host’s health, and the conditions of the infestation.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The harm caused by parasites depends on various factors, including the species of the parasite, the host’s health, and the conditions of the infestation.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 3 of 25 3. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes a population in ecological studies? a) A group of individuals of the same species living in different geographical areas. b) A group of different species living together in a well-defined geographical area. c) A group of individuals of the same species living in a well-defined geographical area. d) A group of individuals resulting from both sexual and asexual reproduction irrespective of a geographical area. Correct Answer: c Explanation: In ecological studies, a population is defined as a group of individuals of the same species that live in a specific geographical area and share or compete for similar resources. The key aspects of this definition are: Same species: The individuals must be of the same species to form a population. This ensures they have similar ecological roles and interact in comparable ways within the ecosystem. Well-defined geographical area: The population must be confined to a specific area, which allows for the study of interactions within this defined space and the impact of the environment on the population. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: In ecological studies, a population is defined as a group of individuals of the same species that live in a specific geographical area and share or compete for similar resources. The key aspects of this definition are: Same species: The individuals must be of the same species to form a population. This ensures they have similar ecological roles and interact in comparable ways within the ecosystem. Well-defined geographical area: The population must be confined to a specific area, which allows for the study of interactions within this defined space and the impact of the environment on the population. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following best describes a population in ecological studies?

• a) A group of individuals of the same species living in different geographical areas.

• b) A group of different species living together in a well-defined geographical area.

• c) A group of individuals of the same species living in a well-defined geographical area.

• d) A group of individuals resulting from both sexual and asexual reproduction irrespective of a geographical area.

Explanation:

• In ecological studies, a population is defined as a group of individuals of the same species that live in a specific geographical area and share or compete for similar resources. The key aspects of this definition are:

• Same species: The individuals must be of the same species to form a population. This ensures they have similar ecological roles and interact in comparable ways within the ecosystem.

• Well-defined geographical area: The population must be confined to a specific area, which allows for the study of interactions within this defined space and the impact of the environment on the population.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Same species: The individuals must be of the same species to form a population. This ensures they have similar ecological roles and interact in comparable ways within the ecosystem.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 4 of 25 4. Question 1 points What does the term “Darwinian fitness” refer to in ecology? a) The physical health of an individual organism. b) The reproductive fitness of a population. c) The survival rate of the fittest individuals. d) The ability to produce large-sized offspring. Correct Answer: b Explanation: “Darwinian fitness” refers to the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment. This concept is central to the theory of natural selection, as proposed by Charles Darwin. In an ecological context, Darwinian fitness is often used to describe how well a population is adapted to its environment in terms of its reproductive success. Darwinian fitness specifically focuses on the reproductive success of individuals within a population. It measures how well they can pass on their genes to the next generation. Populations with high reproductive fitness are better able to maintain or increase their numbers over time. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: “Darwinian fitness” refers to the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment. This concept is central to the theory of natural selection, as proposed by Charles Darwin. In an ecological context, Darwinian fitness is often used to describe how well a population is adapted to its environment in terms of its reproductive success. Darwinian fitness specifically focuses on the reproductive success of individuals within a population. It measures how well they can pass on their genes to the next generation. Populations with high reproductive fitness are better able to maintain or increase their numbers over time. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

What does the term “Darwinian fitness” refer to in ecology?

• a) The physical health of an individual organism.

• b) The reproductive fitness of a population.

• c) The survival rate of the fittest individuals.

• d) The ability to produce large-sized offspring.

Explanation:

• “Darwinian fitness” refers to the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment. This concept is central to the theory of natural selection, as proposed by Charles Darwin. In an ecological context, Darwinian fitness is often used to describe how well a population is adapted to its environment in terms of its reproductive success.

• Darwinian fitness specifically focuses on the reproductive success of individuals within a population. It measures how well they can pass on their genes to the next generation. Populations with high reproductive fitness are better able to maintain or increase their numbers over time.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 5 of 25 5. Question 1 points With reference to Ecological Adaptations, consider the following statements: Animals like kangaroo rat and camel can meet their water and energy requirements through the oxidation of internal fat, which produces water as a byproduct. Aposematic coloration, where an organism displays bright colors as a warning signal, is an adaptation used by predators to intimidate potential prey. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Ecological adaptation refers to the evolutionary process through which organisms develop specialized traits and behaviors to survive and thrive in their specific habitats or environments. These adaptations can be morphological, physiological, or behavioral and are shaped by natural selection acting on heritable variations within a population. Animals like the kangaroo rat and camel have adapted to arid environments by relying on the oxidation of internal fat to meet their water and energy requirements. This process produces water as a byproduct, allowing them to survive in water-scarce habitats. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Aposematic coloration also called ‘The go away signal’ refers to bright colors displayed by organisms as a warning signal to potential predators, not as an adaptation used by predators to intimidate prey. Animals with aposematic colors are making an advertisement to predators. Their bright colors signal that they aren’t worth attacking. For example, they may have chemicals in their bodies that make them taste bad, or that could be fatally poisonous. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Ecological adaptation refers to the evolutionary process through which organisms develop specialized traits and behaviors to survive and thrive in their specific habitats or environments. These adaptations can be morphological, physiological, or behavioral and are shaped by natural selection acting on heritable variations within a population. Animals like the kangaroo rat and camel have adapted to arid environments by relying on the oxidation of internal fat to meet their water and energy requirements. This process produces water as a byproduct, allowing them to survive in water-scarce habitats. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Aposematic coloration also called ‘The go away signal’ refers to bright colors displayed by organisms as a warning signal to potential predators, not as an adaptation used by predators to intimidate prey. Animals with aposematic colors are making an advertisement to predators. Their bright colors signal that they aren’t worth attacking. For example, they may have chemicals in their bodies that make them taste bad, or that could be fatally poisonous. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 5. Question

With reference to Ecological Adaptations, consider the following statements:

• Animals like kangaroo rat and camel can meet their water and energy requirements through the oxidation of internal fat, which produces water as a byproduct.

• Aposematic coloration, where an organism displays bright colors as a warning signal, is an adaptation used by predators to intimidate potential prey.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Ecological adaptation refers to the evolutionary process through which organisms develop specialized traits and behaviors to survive and thrive in their specific habitats or environments.

• These adaptations can be morphological, physiological, or behavioral and are shaped by natural selection acting on heritable variations within a population.

• Animals like the kangaroo rat and camel have adapted to arid environments by relying on the oxidation of internal fat to meet their water and energy requirements. This process produces water as a byproduct, allowing them to survive in water-scarce habitats. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Aposematic coloration also called ‘The go away signal’ refers to bright colors displayed by organisms as a warning signal to potential predators, not as an adaptation used by predators to intimidate prey.

• Animals with aposematic colors are making an advertisement to predators. Their bright colors signal that they aren’t worth attacking. For example, they may have chemicals in their bodies that make them taste bad, or that could be fatally poisonous. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Ecological adaptation refers to the evolutionary process through which organisms develop specialized traits and behaviors to survive and thrive in their specific habitats or environments.

• These adaptations can be morphological, physiological, or behavioral and are shaped by natural selection acting on heritable variations within a population.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 6 of 25 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with regard to nutrient cycling in ecosystems: Nutrient cycling helps maintain soil fertility, supporting plant growth and productivity. It regulates the availability of nutrients, preventing nutrient imbalances that can harm ecosystem health. Nutrient cycling contributes to the regulation of atmospheric composition, particularly the balance of greenhouse gases. How many of the above is/are *incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: d Explanation: Nutrient cycling involves the movement and recycling of essential elements like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, and others within ecosystems. These nutrients are vital for plant growth and productivity. Through processes like decomposition of organic matter, nutrient uptake by plants, and nutrient release back into the soil, nutrient cycling helps replenish soil fertility. As a result, plants have access to the necessary nutrients they need to thrive, leading to improved growth and productivity in ecosystems. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Nutrient cycling plays a crucial role in regulating the availability of nutrients within ecosystems. By recycling nutrients through biogeochemical processes, nutrient cycling ensures a balance in nutrient concentrations, preventing excessive buildup or depletion of essential elements. This regulation helps maintain ecosystem health by avoiding nutrient imbalances that can lead to issues such as nutrient pollution, eutrophication, and loss of biodiversity. Therefore, nutrient cycling acts as a natural mechanism for sustaining the equilibrium of nutrient cycles within ecosystems. Hence, statement 2 is correct. While nutrient cycling primarily occurs within terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems, it indirectly influences the composition of Earth’s atmosphere. For example, the carbon cycle, a key component of nutrient cycling, involves the exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) between the atmosphere, plants, soil, and oceans. This carbon exchange helps regulate atmospheric CO2 levels, which is essential for maintaining the balance of greenhouse gases and influencing global climate patterns. Additionally, other nutrient cycles, such as the nitrogen cycle, also play roles in atmospheric processes like nitrogen fixation and denitrification, which can indirectly impact atmospheric composition. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Nutrient cycling involves the movement and recycling of essential elements like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, and others within ecosystems. These nutrients are vital for plant growth and productivity. Through processes like decomposition of organic matter, nutrient uptake by plants, and nutrient release back into the soil, nutrient cycling helps replenish soil fertility. As a result, plants have access to the necessary nutrients they need to thrive, leading to improved growth and productivity in ecosystems. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Nutrient cycling plays a crucial role in regulating the availability of nutrients within ecosystems. By recycling nutrients through biogeochemical processes, nutrient cycling ensures a balance in nutrient concentrations, preventing excessive buildup or depletion of essential elements. This regulation helps maintain ecosystem health by avoiding nutrient imbalances that can lead to issues such as nutrient pollution, eutrophication, and loss of biodiversity. Therefore, nutrient cycling acts as a natural mechanism for sustaining the equilibrium of nutrient cycles within ecosystems. Hence, statement 2 is correct. While nutrient cycling primarily occurs within terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems, it indirectly influences the composition of Earth’s atmosphere. For example, the carbon cycle, a key component of nutrient cycling, involves the exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) between the atmosphere, plants, soil, and oceans. This carbon exchange helps regulate atmospheric CO2 levels, which is essential for maintaining the balance of greenhouse gases and influencing global climate patterns. Additionally, other nutrient cycles, such as the nitrogen cycle, also play roles in atmospheric processes like nitrogen fixation and denitrification, which can indirectly impact atmospheric composition. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. *

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements with regard to nutrient cycling in ecosystems:

• Nutrient cycling helps maintain soil fertility, supporting plant growth and productivity.

• It regulates the availability of nutrients, preventing nutrient imbalances that can harm ecosystem health.

• Nutrient cycling contributes to the regulation of atmospheric composition, particularly the balance of greenhouse gases.

How many of the above is/are *incorrect*?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Nutrient cycling involves the movement and recycling of essential elements like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, and others within ecosystems. These nutrients are vital for plant growth and productivity. Through processes like decomposition of organic matter, nutrient uptake by plants, and nutrient release back into the soil, nutrient cycling helps replenish soil fertility. As a result, plants have access to the necessary nutrients they need to thrive, leading to improved growth and productivity in ecosystems. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Nutrient cycling plays a crucial role in regulating the availability of nutrients within ecosystems. By recycling nutrients through biogeochemical processes, nutrient cycling ensures a balance in nutrient concentrations, preventing excessive buildup or depletion of essential elements. This regulation helps maintain ecosystem health by avoiding nutrient imbalances that can lead to issues such as nutrient pollution, eutrophication, and loss of biodiversity. Therefore, nutrient cycling acts as a natural mechanism for sustaining the equilibrium of nutrient cycles within ecosystems. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• While nutrient cycling primarily occurs within terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems, it indirectly influences the composition of Earth’s atmosphere. For example, the carbon cycle, a key component of nutrient cycling, involves the exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) between the atmosphere, plants, soil, and oceans. This carbon exchange helps regulate atmospheric CO2 levels, which is essential for maintaining the balance of greenhouse gases and influencing global climate patterns. Additionally, other nutrient cycles, such as the nitrogen cycle, also play roles in atmospheric processes like nitrogen fixation and denitrification, which can indirectly impact atmospheric composition. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 7 of 25 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding latitudinal gradients in biodiversity: Species diversity increases as we move from the equator towards the poles. Tropics, within the latitudinal range of 23.5° N to 23.5° S, harbor more species than temperate or polar areas. Tropical environments are more seasonal and unpredictable compared to temperate ones. Speciation is generally a function of time, with tropical latitudes remaining relatively undisturbed for millions of years. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 2, and 4 only d) 2, 3, and 4 only Correct Answer: b Explanation: The species diversity actually decreases as we move from the equator towards the poles. The equator, particularly the tropical regions, hosts a higher number of species compared to temperate and Polar Regions. The diversity is highest at the equator and declines with increasing latitude. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The tropical regions, which fall within the latitudinal range of 23.5° North to 23.5° South, are known for their high species richness. The consistent climate and abundant resources in these regions support a wide variety of life forms. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Tropical environments are characterized by being less seasonal and more predictable than temperate regions. This stability and predictability in the climate allow species to specialize and adapt over long periods, promoting high biodiversity. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The idea that speciation is a function of time means that the longer a region remains undisturbed, the more opportunities there are for species to evolve and diversify. Tropical latitudes have experienced relatively stable climates for millions of years, which has allowed numerous species to evolve and diversify, contributing to the high levels of biodiversity found there. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The species diversity actually decreases as we move from the equator towards the poles. The equator, particularly the tropical regions, hosts a higher number of species compared to temperate and Polar Regions. The diversity is highest at the equator and declines with increasing latitude. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The tropical regions, which fall within the latitudinal range of 23.5° North to 23.5° South, are known for their high species richness. The consistent climate and abundant resources in these regions support a wide variety of life forms. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Tropical environments are characterized by being less seasonal and more predictable than temperate regions. This stability and predictability in the climate allow species to specialize and adapt over long periods, promoting high biodiversity. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The idea that speciation is a function of time means that the longer a region remains undisturbed, the more opportunities there are for species to evolve and diversify. Tropical latitudes have experienced relatively stable climates for millions of years, which has allowed numerous species to evolve and diversify, contributing to the high levels of biodiversity found there. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding latitudinal gradients in biodiversity:

• Species diversity increases as we move from the equator towards the poles.

• Tropics, within the latitudinal range of 23.5° N to 23.5° S, harbor more species than temperate or polar areas.

• Tropical environments are more seasonal and unpredictable compared to temperate ones.

• Speciation is generally a function of time, with tropical latitudes remaining relatively undisturbed for millions of years.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• a) 1 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 4 only

• c) 1, 2, and 4 only

• d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

• The species diversity actually decreases as we move from the equator towards the poles. The equator, particularly the tropical regions, hosts a higher number of species compared to temperate and Polar Regions. The diversity is highest at the equator and declines with increasing latitude. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The tropical regions, which fall within the latitudinal range of 23.5° North to 23.5° South, are known for their high species richness. The consistent climate and abundant resources in these regions support a wide variety of life forms. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Tropical environments are characterized by being less seasonal and more predictable than temperate regions. This stability and predictability in the climate allow species to specialize and adapt over long periods, promoting high biodiversity. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• The idea that speciation is a function of time means that the longer a region remains undisturbed, the more opportunities there are for species to evolve and diversify. Tropical latitudes have experienced relatively stable climates for millions of years, which has allowed numerous species to evolve and diversify, contributing to the high levels of biodiversity found there. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 25 8. Question 1 points With reference to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), consider the following statements: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was established by the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED). The framework sets no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries and contains no enforcement mechanisms. The Conference of Parties, known as COP, is the decision-making body responsible for monitoring and reviewing the implementation of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. The UNFCCC divides countries into three main groups according to differing commitments. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international environmental treaty produced at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), informally known as the Earth summit, held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Objective – to “stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.” The framework sets no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries and contains no enforcement mechanisms. In that sense, treaty is considered legally non-binding. Instead, the treaty provides for updates (called “protocols”) that would set mandatory emission limits. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Conference of Parties, known as COP, is the decision-making body responsible for monitoring and reviewing the implementation of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. It brings together the 197 nations and territories – called Parties – that have signed on to the Framework Convention. The COP has met annually since 1995. The 21st Session of the COP (COP21), held in Paris, France, in December 2015, was historic in its outcome – the first international climate agreement. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Convention divides countries into three main groups according to differing commitments: Annex I Parties include the industrialized countries that were members of the OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development) in 1992, plus countries with economies in transition (the EIT Parties), including the Russian Federation, the Baltic States, and several Central and Eastern European States. Annex II Parties consist of the OECD members of Annex I, but not the EIT Parties. They are required to provide financial resources to enable developing countries to undertake emissions reduction activities under the Convention and to help them adapt to adverse effects of climate change Non-Annex I Parties are mostly developing countries. Certain groups of developing countries are recognized by the Convention as being especially vulnerable to the adverse impacts of climate change, including countries with low-lying coastal areas and those prone to desertification and drought. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international environmental treaty produced at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), informally known as the Earth summit, held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Objective – to “stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.” The framework sets no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries and contains no enforcement mechanisms. In that sense, treaty is considered legally non-binding. Instead, the treaty provides for updates (called “protocols”) that would set mandatory emission limits. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Conference of Parties, known as COP, is the decision-making body responsible for monitoring and reviewing the implementation of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. It brings together the 197 nations and territories – called Parties – that have signed on to the Framework Convention. The COP has met annually since 1995. The 21st Session of the COP (COP21), held in Paris, France, in December 2015, was historic in its outcome – the first international climate agreement. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Convention divides countries into three main groups according to differing commitments: Annex I Parties include the industrialized countries that were members of the OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development) in 1992, plus countries with economies in transition (the EIT Parties), including the Russian Federation, the Baltic States, and several Central and Eastern European States. Annex II Parties consist of the OECD members of Annex I, but not the EIT Parties. They are required to provide financial resources to enable developing countries to undertake emissions reduction activities under the Convention and to help them adapt to adverse effects of climate change Non-Annex I Parties are mostly developing countries. Certain groups of developing countries are recognized by the Convention as being especially vulnerable to the adverse impacts of climate change, including countries with low-lying coastal areas and those prone to desertification and drought. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), consider the following statements:

• The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was established by the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED).

• The framework sets no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries and contains no enforcement mechanisms.

• The Conference of Parties, known as COP, is the decision-making body responsible for monitoring and reviewing the implementation of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

• The UNFCCC divides countries into three main groups according to differing commitments.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international environmental treaty produced at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), informally known as the Earth summit, held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Objective – to “stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.”

• The framework sets no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries and contains no enforcement mechanisms. In that sense, treaty is considered legally non-binding. Instead, the treaty provides for updates (called “protocols”) that would set mandatory emission limits. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Conference of Parties, known as COP, is the decision-making body responsible for monitoring and reviewing the implementation of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. It brings together the 197 nations and territories – called Parties – that have signed on to the Framework Convention. The COP has met annually since 1995. The 21st Session of the COP (COP21), held in Paris, France, in December 2015, was historic in its outcome – the first international climate agreement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The Convention divides countries into three main groups according to differing commitments:

• Annex I Parties include the industrialized countries that were members of the OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development) in 1992, plus countries with economies in transition (the EIT Parties), including the Russian Federation, the Baltic States, and several Central and Eastern European States.

• Annex II Parties consist of the OECD members of Annex I, but not the EIT Parties. They are required to provide financial resources to enable developing countries to undertake emissions reduction activities under the Convention and to help them adapt to adverse effects of climate change

• Non-Annex I Parties are mostly developing countries. Certain groups of developing countries are recognized by the Convention as being especially vulnerable to the adverse impacts of climate change, including countries with low-lying coastal areas and those prone to desertification and drought. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Objective – to “stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.”

• The Convention divides countries into three main groups according to differing commitments:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 9 of 25 9. Question 1 points What is the reason for bloom of phytoplankton growth in lakes during autumn and spring seasons? a) The moisture in atmosphere is most conducive for their growth. b) The lake water churns and redistributes water and oxygen. c) No vertical air currents flow in these seasons along the water that may disturb the planktons. d) It is a natural cycle of growth of phytoplankton and has nothing to do with seasons. Correct Answer: b Explanation: In summer and winter, water across layers of lake hardly mixes. So, either the upper layer or deep water is cold or warm. Hence, there is little churning of oxygen and nutrients. But, due to similar water temperatures at both surface and under water in autumn and spring, water tends to mix. Mixing of water brings nutrients where it’s most desirable for plankton growth. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: In summer and winter, water across layers of lake hardly mixes. So, either the upper layer or deep water is cold or warm. Hence, there is little churning of oxygen and nutrients. But, due to similar water temperatures at both surface and under water in autumn and spring, water tends to mix. Mixing of water brings nutrients where it’s most desirable for plankton growth. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

What is the reason for bloom of phytoplankton growth in lakes during autumn and spring seasons?

• a) The moisture in atmosphere is most conducive for their growth.

• b) The lake water churns and redistributes water and oxygen.

• c) No vertical air currents flow in these seasons along the water that may disturb the planktons.

• d) It is a natural cycle of growth of phytoplankton and has nothing to do with seasons.

Explanation:

• In summer and winter, water across layers of lake hardly mixes. So, either the upper layer or deep water is cold or warm. Hence, there is little churning of oxygen and nutrients. But, due to similar water temperatures at both surface and under water in autumn and spring, water tends to mix. Mixing of water brings nutrients where it’s most desirable for plankton growth.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 25 10. Question 1 points What is ‘snowflake coral’? a) It is a species of coral made of calcium carbonate skeleton and have a symbiotic relationship with plant b) It is an invasive species posing threat to the marine ecology of the south western region in India c) It is a coral species found only in the Great Barrier Reef Marine Park d) It is an only surviving coral species in the Arctic Ocean Correct Answer: b Explanation: Snowflake Coral’ is an invasive species documented of the west coast of Thiruvananthapuram and Kanyakumari. It is said to pose a serious threat to the marine ecology of the region. It is a serious threat as an invasive species because of its capacity to dominate space and crowd out other marine organisms. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Snowflake Coral’ is an invasive species documented of the west coast of Thiruvananthapuram and Kanyakumari. It is said to pose a serious threat to the marine ecology of the region. It is a serious threat as an invasive species because of its capacity to dominate space and crowd out other marine organisms. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

What is ‘snowflake coral’?

• a) It is a species of coral made of calcium carbonate skeleton and have a symbiotic relationship with plant

• b) It is an invasive species posing threat to the marine ecology of the south western region in India

• c) It is a coral species found only in the Great Barrier Reef Marine Park

• d) It is an only surviving coral species in the Arctic Ocean

Explanation:

• Snowflake Coral’ is an invasive species documented of the west coast of Thiruvananthapuram and Kanyakumari. It is said to pose a serious threat to the marine ecology of the region. It is a serious threat as an invasive species because of its capacity to dominate space and crowd out other marine organisms.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 25 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The provision for setting up an Inter-State Council is mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution. The first Inter-State Council was established on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission. The Council is a recommendatory in nature and the Prime Minister functions as its Chairman. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct: The provision for setting up an Inter-State Council is mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct: In pursuance of the recommendation made by the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations, the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990. The Inter-State Council (ISC) is a recommendatory body and has been assigned the duties of investigating and discussing such subjects, in which some or all of the states or the union territories and one or more of the states have a common interest, for better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject. Statement 3 is correct: It also deliberates upon such other matters of general interest to the states as may be referred by the Chairman to the Council. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Council. Chief Ministers of all the states and union territories having legislative assemblies; administrators of union territories not having legislative assemblies; and governors of states under President’s rule and six ministers of cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers, nominated by the Chairman of the Council, are members of the Council. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct: The provision for setting up an Inter-State Council is mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct: In pursuance of the recommendation made by the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations, the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990. The Inter-State Council (ISC) is a recommendatory body and has been assigned the duties of investigating and discussing such subjects, in which some or all of the states or the union territories and one or more of the states have a common interest, for better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject. Statement 3 is correct: It also deliberates upon such other matters of general interest to the states as may be referred by the Chairman to the Council. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Council. Chief Ministers of all the states and union territories having legislative assemblies; administrators of union territories not having legislative assemblies; and governors of states under President’s rule and six ministers of cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers, nominated by the Chairman of the Council, are members of the Council.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The provision for setting up an Inter-State Council is mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution.

• The first Inter-State Council was established on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission.

• The Council is a recommendatory in nature and the Prime Minister functions as its Chairman.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct: The provision for setting up an Inter-State Council is mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct: In pursuance of the recommendation made by the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations, the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990.

The Inter-State Council (ISC) is a recommendatory body and has been assigned the duties of investigating and discussing such subjects, in which some or all of the states or the union territories and one or more of the states have a common interest, for better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject.

Statement 3 is correct: It also deliberates upon such other matters of general interest to the states as may be referred by the Chairman to the Council. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Council.

Chief Ministers of all the states and union territories having legislative assemblies; administrators of union territories not having legislative assemblies; and governors of states under President’s rule and six ministers of cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers, nominated by the Chairman of the Council, are members of the Council.

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct: The provision for setting up an Inter-State Council is mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct: In pursuance of the recommendation made by the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations, the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990.

• Question 12 of 25 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Election Commission of India- Facilitates the coverage of the election process by the media. Decides the schedules for the general elections but not for the bye-elections. Launched India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Election Commission of India (ECI) was constituted in 1950. It is a permanent independent constitutional body vested with the powers and responsibility of superintendence, direction and control of the entire process of conduct of elections to Parliament and to legislatures of the states and the union territories and elections to the offices of President and Vice-President held under the Constitution. Statement 1 is correct: It facilitates the coverage of the election process by the media; carries out the voter education and awareness measures; organises the polling stations/booths where voting takes place; and oversees the counting of votes and the declaration of results. Statement 2 is not correct: The Election Commission decides the election schedules for conducting of elections—both general elections and bye-elections. Statement 3 is correct: Election Commission of India launched the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), an advanced resource centre of learning, research, training and extension for electoral democracy and election management. Incorrect Solution: B The Election Commission of India (ECI) was constituted in 1950. It is a permanent independent constitutional body vested with the powers and responsibility of superintendence, direction and control of the entire process of conduct of elections to Parliament and to legislatures of the states and the union territories and elections to the offices of President and Vice-President held under the Constitution. Statement 1 is correct: It facilitates the coverage of the election process by the media; carries out the voter education and awareness measures; organises the polling stations/booths where voting takes place; and oversees the counting of votes and the declaration of results. Statement 2 is not correct: The Election Commission decides the election schedules for conducting of elections—both general elections and bye-elections. Statement 3 is correct: Election Commission of India launched the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), an advanced resource centre of learning, research, training and extension for electoral democracy and election management.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

The Election Commission of India-

• Facilitates the coverage of the election process by the media.

• Decides the schedules for the general elections but not for the bye-elections.

• Launched India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Election Commission of India (ECI) was constituted in 1950. It is a permanent independent constitutional body vested with the powers and responsibility of superintendence, direction and control of the entire process of conduct of elections to Parliament and to legislatures of the states and the union territories and elections to the offices of President and Vice-President held under the Constitution.

Statement 1 is correct: It facilitates the coverage of the election process by the media; carries out the voter education and awareness measures; organises the polling stations/booths where voting takes place; and oversees the counting of votes and the declaration of results.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Election Commission decides the election schedules for conducting of elections—both general elections and bye-elections.

Statement 3 is correct: Election Commission of India launched the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), an advanced resource centre of learning, research, training and extension for electoral democracy and election management.

Solution: B

Statement 2 is not correct: The Election Commission decides the election schedules for conducting of elections—both general elections and bye-elections.

• Question 13 of 25 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: A district court in India is the principal court of civil jurisdiction and can try all offences including those punishable with death. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the incumbent Prime Minister. A judge of the Indian Supreme Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address in each House of Parliament. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A At the apex of the entire judicial system exists the Supreme Court of India with a High Court for each state or group of states and under the High Courts there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts. Different state laws provide for jurisdiction of these courts. The highest court in each district is that of District and Sessions Judge. Statement 1 is correct: This district court is the principal court of civil jurisdiction and can try all offences including those punishable with death. He is the highest judicial authority in a district. The Constitution seeks to ensure the independence of apex court Judges in various ways. Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state. The procedure for appointing the High Court judges is the same except that the recommendation for the appointment of judges in the High Court is initiated by the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. Statement 3 is correct: A judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address in each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting, and presented to the President in the same Session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Incorrect Solution: A At the apex of the entire judicial system exists the Supreme Court of India with a High Court for each state or group of states and under the High Courts there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts. Different state laws provide for jurisdiction of these courts. The highest court in each district is that of District and Sessions Judge. Statement 1 is correct: This district court is the principal court of civil jurisdiction and can try all offences including those punishable with death. He is the highest judicial authority in a district. The Constitution seeks to ensure the independence of apex court Judges in various ways. Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state. The procedure for appointing the High Court judges is the same except that the recommendation for the appointment of judges in the High Court is initiated by the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. Statement 3 is correct:* A judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address in each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting, and presented to the President in the same Session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

• A district court in India is the principal court of civil jurisdiction and can try all offences including those punishable with death.

• The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the incumbent Prime Minister.

• A judge of the Indian Supreme Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address in each House of Parliament.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

At the apex of the entire judicial system exists the Supreme Court of India with a High Court for each state or group of states and under the High Courts there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts.

Different state laws provide for jurisdiction of these courts. The highest court in each district is that of District and Sessions Judge.

Statement 1 is correct: This district court is the principal court of civil jurisdiction and can try all offences including those punishable with death. He is the highest judicial authority in a district.

The Constitution seeks to ensure the independence of apex court Judges in various ways.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state.

The procedure for appointing the High Court judges is the same except that the recommendation for the appointment of judges in the High Court is initiated by the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.

Statement 3 is correct: A judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address in each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting, and presented to the President in the same Session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Solution: A

At the apex of the entire judicial system exists the Supreme Court of India with a High Court for each state or group of states and under the High Courts there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts.

Different state laws provide for jurisdiction of these courts. The highest court in each district is that of District and Sessions Judge.

The Constitution seeks to ensure the independence of apex court Judges in various ways.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state.

• Question 14 of 25 14. Question 1 points Consider the following: India Bhutan Bangladesh China How many of the countries mentioned above is/are the member states of the South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC)? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Option (c) is correct: The South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was founded in 1985. It is a consensus-based regional organization consisting of eight Member States namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC was originally formed by seven Member States. Afghanistan joined the regional organization in 2007. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is correct: The South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was founded in 1985. It is a consensus-based regional organization consisting of eight Member States namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC was originally formed by seven Member States. Afghanistan joined the regional organization in 2007.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following:

• Bangladesh

How many of the countries mentioned above is/are the member states of the South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Option (c) is correct: The South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was founded in 1985.

It is a consensus-based regional organization consisting of eight Member States namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

SAARC was originally formed by seven Member States. Afghanistan joined the regional organization in 2007.

Solution: C

Option (c) is correct: The South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was founded in 1985.

It is a consensus-based regional organization consisting of eight Member States namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

SAARC was originally formed by seven Member States. Afghanistan joined the regional organization in 2007.

• Question 15 of 25 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: It provided a unique link between South and South-East Asia. It came into existence through the ‘Bangkok Declaration’. It was formed with four Member States including China and India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct about the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a group of seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal. Statement 1 is correct: It is a unique link between South and South-East Asia with five Members from South Asia (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal and Sri Lanka) and two from South-East Asia (Myanmar and Thailand). Statement 2 is correct: BIMSTEC region brings together 1.68 billion people – 21.7 per cent of world population and a combined GDP of around USD 3.5 trillion. The organisation came into existence in 1997 through the ‘Bangkok Declaration’. Statement 3 is not correct: It was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation). Following inclusion of Myanmar in December 1997, it was renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation). With entry of Nepal and Bhutan in 2004, the name of the grouping was changed to BIMSTEC. Incorrect Solution: B The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a group of seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal. Statement 1 is correct: It is a unique link between South and South-East Asia with five Members from South Asia (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal and Sri Lanka) and two from South-East Asia (Myanmar and Thailand). Statement 2 is correct: BIMSTEC region brings together 1.68 billion people – 21.7 per cent of world population and a combined GDP of around USD 3.5 trillion. The organisation came into existence in 1997 through the ‘Bangkok Declaration’. Statement 3 is not correct: It was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation). Following inclusion of Myanmar in December 1997, it was renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation). With entry of Nepal and Bhutan in 2004, the name of the grouping was changed to BIMSTEC.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

• It provided a unique link between South and South-East Asia.

• It came into existence through the ‘Bangkok Declaration’.

• It was formed with four Member States including China and India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct about the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a group of seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal.

Statement 1 is correct: It is a unique link between South and South-East Asia with five Members from South Asia (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal and Sri Lanka) and two from South-East Asia (Myanmar and Thailand).

Statement 2 is correct: BIMSTEC region brings together 1.68 billion people – 21.7 per cent of world population and a combined GDP of around USD 3.5 trillion. The organisation came into existence in 1997 through the ‘Bangkok Declaration’.

Statement 3 is not correct: It was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation).

Following inclusion of Myanmar in December 1997, it was renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation). With entry of Nepal and Bhutan in 2004, the name of the grouping was changed to BIMSTEC.

Solution: B

The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a group of seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal.

Statement 3 is not correct: It was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation).

• Question 16 of 25 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Government Securities: These are the instruments that governments use to borrow money. They carry the lowest risk of all investments. They are short-term debt instruments, unlike the treasury bills. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: G-secs, or government securities or government bonds, are instruments that governments use to borrow money. Governments routinely keep running into deficits — that is, they spend more than they earn via taxes. That is why they need to borrow from the people. Statement 2 is correct: For one, G-secs carry the lowest risk of all investments. After all, the chances of the government not paying back your money are almost zero. It is thus the safest investment one can make. Statement 3 is not correct: Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: G-secs, or government securities or government bonds, are instruments that governments use to borrow money. Governments routinely keep running into deficits — that is, they spend more than they earn via taxes. That is why they need to borrow from the people. Statement 2 is correct: For one, G-secs carry the lowest risk of all investments. After all, the chances of the government not paying back your money are almost zero. It is thus the safest investment one can make. Statement 3 is not correct: Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Government Securities:

• These are the instruments that governments use to borrow money.

• They carry the lowest risk of all investments.

• They are short-term debt instruments, unlike the treasury bills.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: G-secs, or government securities or government bonds, are instruments that governments use to borrow money. Governments routinely keep running into deficits — that is, they spend more than they earn via taxes. That is why they need to borrow from the people.

Statement 2 is correct: For one, G-secs carry the lowest risk of all investments. After all, the chances of the government not paying back your money are almost zero. It is thus the safest investment one can make.

Statement 3 is not correct: Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 17 of 25 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Di-ammonium Phosphate (DAP): It is the most commonly used fertilizer in India followed by urea. It stimulates root establishment without which plants cannot grow normally. It is applied immediately before, or at the time of sowing. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: DAP, or di-ammonium phosphate, is the second most commonly used fertiliser in India after urea. Statement 2 is correct: It is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root establishment and development — without which plants cannot grow to their normal size, or will take too long to mature. Statement 3 is correct: It is thus applied just before, or at the time of sowing. This tiny particle size makes Nano DAP more efficient than its conventional counterpart, enabling the fertiliser “to enter easily inside the seed surface or through stomata and other plant openings”. Better assimilation of the fertiliser inside the plant system in turn leads to “higher seed vigour, more chlorophyll, photosynthetic efficiency, better quality and increase in crop yields.” Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: DAP, or di-ammonium phosphate, is the second most commonly used fertiliser in India after urea. Statement 2 is correct: It is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root establishment and development — without which plants cannot grow to their normal size, or will take too long to mature. Statement 3 is correct: *It is thus applied just before, or at the time of sowing. This tiny particle size makes Nano DAP more efficient than its conventional counterpart, enabling the fertiliser “to enter easily inside the seed surface or through stomata and other plant openings”. Better assimilation of the fertiliser inside the plant system in turn leads to “higher seed vigour, more chlorophyll, photosynthetic efficiency, better quality and increase in crop yields.”

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Di-ammonium Phosphate (DAP):

• It is the most commonly used fertilizer in India followed by urea.

• It stimulates root establishment without which plants cannot grow normally.

• It is applied immediately before, or at the time of sowing.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: DAP, or di-ammonium phosphate, is the second most commonly used fertiliser in India after urea.

Statement 2 is correct: It is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root establishment and development — without which plants cannot grow to their normal size, or will take too long to mature.

Statement 3 is correct: It is thus applied just before, or at the time of sowing.

This tiny particle size makes Nano DAP more efficient than its conventional counterpart, enabling the fertiliser “to enter easily inside the seed surface or through stomata and other plant openings”.

Better assimilation of the fertiliser inside the plant system in turn leads to “higher seed vigour, more chlorophyll, photosynthetic efficiency, better quality and increase in crop yields.”

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: DAP, or di-ammonium phosphate, is the second most commonly used fertiliser in India after urea.

Statement 2 is correct: It is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root establishment and development — without which plants cannot grow to their normal size, or will take too long to mature.

Statement 3 is correct: It is thus applied just before, or at the time of sowing.

Better assimilation of the fertiliser inside the plant system in turn leads to “higher seed vigour, more chlorophyll, photosynthetic efficiency, better quality and increase in crop yields.”

• Question 18 of 25 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: India is the 2nd largest tea producer and largest black tea producer self-sufficient to meet the export obligations. India is the largest consumer of black tea and consumes around 18% of the total World tea consumption. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: India has taken several steps to boost the output, create a niche brand for Indian tea and to ensure the welfare of the families associated with the tea industry. Statement 1 is correct: India is the 2nd largest tea producer and largest black tea producer with production at around 1350 M. Kgs and self-sufficient to meet out the domestic requirements and export obligations. Statement 2 is correct: India is also the largest consumer of black tea and consumes around 18% of the total World tea consumption. Indian teas are exported to various destinations and is the 4th largest tea exporter besides catering to a large number of domestic consumers. The Indian tea Industry is employing 1.16 million workers directly and an equal number of people are associated with it indirectly. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: India has taken several steps to boost the output, create a niche brand for Indian tea and to ensure the welfare of the families associated with the tea industry. Statement 1 is correct: India is the 2nd largest tea producer and largest black tea producer with production at around 1350 M. Kgs and self-sufficient to meet out the domestic requirements and export obligations. Statement 2 is correct: India is also the largest consumer of black tea and consumes around 18% of the total World tea consumption. Indian teas are exported to various destinations and is the 4th largest tea exporter besides catering to a large number of domestic consumers. The Indian tea Industry is employing 1.16 million workers directly and an equal number of people are associated with it indirectly.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• India is the 2nd largest tea producer and largest black tea producer self-sufficient to meet the export obligations.

• India is the largest consumer of black tea and consumes around 18% of the total World tea consumption.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

India has taken several steps to boost the output, create a niche brand for Indian tea and to ensure the welfare of the families associated with the tea industry.

Statement 1 is correct: India is the 2nd largest tea producer and largest black tea producer with production at around 1350 M. Kgs and self-sufficient to meet out the domestic requirements and export obligations.

Statement 2 is correct: India is also the largest consumer of black tea and consumes around 18% of the total World tea consumption.

Indian teas are exported to various destinations and is the 4th largest tea exporter besides catering to a large number of domestic consumers.

The Indian tea Industry is employing 1.16 million workers directly and an equal number of people are associated with it indirectly.

Answer: C

Explanation:

India has taken several steps to boost the output, create a niche brand for Indian tea and to ensure the welfare of the families associated with the tea industry.

Statement 2 is correct: India is also the largest consumer of black tea and consumes around 18% of the total World tea consumption.

Indian teas are exported to various destinations and is the 4th largest tea exporter besides catering to a large number of domestic consumers.

The Indian tea Industry is employing 1.16 million workers directly and an equal number of people are associated with it indirectly.

• Question 19 of 25 19. Question 1 points The Nuokum Yullo, sometimes seen in the news is a Harvest festival celebrated by- (a) The Bhutia Community of Sikkim (b) The Rongmei Tribe of Manipur (c) The Chakma Tribe of Tripura (d) The Nyishi Tribe of Arunachal Pradesh Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Nyokum Yullo, the harvest festival of Arunachal Pradesh’s Nyishi tribe. The traditional festival of Arunachal Pradesh, Nyokum is mainly celebrated by the Nyishi tribe. The term ‘Nyokum’ is derived from two words – “Nyok” means “land or earth” and “Kum” means collectiveness or togetherness. That’s perhaps the why it is called that celebrating this festival is like inviting all the Gods and Goddesses of the Universe. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Nyokum Yullo, the harvest festival of Arunachal Pradesh’s Nyishi tribe. The traditional festival of Arunachal Pradesh, Nyokum is mainly celebrated by the Nyishi tribe. The term ‘Nyokum’ is derived from two words – “Nyok” means “land or earth” and “Kum” means collectiveness or togetherness. That’s perhaps the why it is called that celebrating this festival is like inviting all the Gods and Goddesses of the Universe.

#### 19. Question

The Nuokum Yullo, sometimes seen in the news is a Harvest festival celebrated by-

• (a) The Bhutia Community of Sikkim

• (b) The Rongmei Tribe of Manipur

• (c) The Chakma Tribe of Tripura

• (d) The Nyishi Tribe of Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: Nyokum Yullo, the harvest festival of Arunachal Pradesh’s Nyishi tribe.

The traditional festival of Arunachal Pradesh, Nyokum is mainly celebrated by the Nyishi tribe.

The term ‘Nyokum’ is derived from two words – “Nyok” means “land or earth” and “Kum” means collectiveness or togetherness.

That’s perhaps the why it is called that celebrating this festival is like inviting all the Gods and Goddesses of the Universe.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: Nyokum Yullo, the harvest festival of Arunachal Pradesh’s Nyishi tribe.

The traditional festival of Arunachal Pradesh, Nyokum is mainly celebrated by the Nyishi tribe.

The term ‘Nyokum’ is derived from two words – “Nyok” means “land or earth” and “Kum” means collectiveness or togetherness.

That’s perhaps the why it is called that celebrating this festival is like inviting all the Gods and Goddesses of the Universe.

• Question 20 of 25 20. Question 1 points The Rapa Nui National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage site located on the- (a) Easter Island (b) Kuril Islands (c) Solomon Island (d) Galapagos Island Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: A Polynesian volcanic island in the Pacific Ocean, at the southeasternmost point of the Polynesian triangle, Easter Island—known locally as Rapa Nui—is a special territory of Chile. It is most famous for the hundreds of extant large carved monolithic statues, known as moai, that were created to represent ancestors by the Rapa Nui people from approximately the ninth to the seventeenth centuries. Much of the island is protected within Rapa Nui National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage site that is managed by CONAF (Corporación Nacional Forestal de Chile), the organization responsible for the management, administration, and conservation of Chile’s national parks. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: A Polynesian volcanic island in the Pacific Ocean, at the southeasternmost point of the Polynesian triangle, Easter Island—known locally as Rapa Nui—is a special territory of Chile. It is most famous for the hundreds of extant large carved monolithic statues, known as moai, that were created to represent ancestors by the Rapa Nui people from approximately the ninth to the seventeenth centuries. Much of the island is protected within Rapa Nui National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage site that is managed by CONAF (Corporación Nacional Forestal de Chile), the organization responsible for the management, administration, and conservation of Chile’s national parks.

#### 20. Question

The Rapa Nui National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage site located on the-

• (a) Easter Island

• (b) Kuril Islands

• (c) Solomon Island

• (d) Galapagos Island

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: A Polynesian volcanic island in the Pacific Ocean, at the southeasternmost point of the Polynesian triangle, Easter Island—known locally as Rapa Nui—is a special territory of Chile.

It is most famous for the hundreds of extant large carved monolithic statues, known as moai, that were created to represent ancestors by the Rapa Nui people from approximately the ninth to the seventeenth centuries.

Much of the island is protected within Rapa Nui National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage site that is managed by CONAF (Corporación Nacional Forestal de Chile), the organization responsible for the management, administration, and conservation of Chile’s national parks.

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 21 of 25 21. Question 1 points Directions: Below question consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is ,’strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Statement: should the educated unemployed youth be paid “unemployment allowance” by the Government? Argument: I. Yes. It will provide them some monetary help to either seek employment or to kickstart some ‘self-employment’ venture. ii. No. It will dampen their urge to do something to earn their livelihood and thus promote idleness among the unemployed youth. Give answer (a) if only argument I is strong; (b) if only argument II is strong; (c) if neither I nor II is strong and (d) if both 1 and If are strong. Correct ANSWER D) Explanation: Young people, who do not get employment due to the large number of applicants in all fields, must surely be given allowance so that they can support themselves. So, argument I is valid. However, such allowances would mar the spirit to work, in them and make them idle. So, argument II also holds. Incorrect ANSWER D) Explanation: Young people, who do not get employment due to the large number of applicants in all fields, must surely be given allowance so that they can support themselves. So, argument I is valid. However, such allowances would mar the spirit to work, in them and make them idle. So, argument II also holds.

#### 21. Question

Directions: Below question consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is ,’strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement: should the educated unemployed youth be paid “unemployment allowance” by the Government?

Argument: I. Yes. It will provide them some monetary help to either seek employment or to kickstart some ‘self-employment’ venture.

ii. No. It will dampen their urge to do something to earn their livelihood and thus promote idleness among the unemployed youth.

Give answer

• (a) if only argument I is strong;

• (b) if only argument II is strong;

• (c) if neither I nor II is strong and

• (d) if both 1 and If are strong.

Explanation:

Young people, who do not get employment due to the large number of applicants in all fields, must surely be given allowance so that they can support themselves. So, argument I is valid. However, such allowances would mar the spirit to work, in them and make them idle. So, argument II also holds.

Explanation:

• Question 22 of 25 22. Question 1 points Statement: Prime age school-going children in urban India have now become avid as well as more regular viewers of television, even in households without a T.V. As a result there has been an alarming decline in the extent of readership of newspapers. Conclusions: I. Method of increasing the readership of newspapers should be devised. II. A team of experts should be sent to other countries to study the impact of T.V. on the readership of newspapers. (a) if only conclusion I follows; (b) if either I or II follows; (c) if neither I nor II follows; and (d) if both I and II follow. Correct Answer C) Explanation : The statement concentrates on the increasing viewership of T.V. and does not stress either on increasing the readership of newspapers or making studies regarding the same. So, neither I nor II follows. Incorrect Answer C) Explanation : The statement concentrates on the increasing viewership of T.V. and does not stress either on increasing the readership of newspapers or making studies regarding the same. So, neither I nor II follows.

#### 22. Question

Statement: Prime age school-going children in urban India have now become avid as well as more regular viewers of television, even in households without a T.V. As a result there has been an alarming decline in the extent of readership of newspapers.

Conclusions: I. Method of increasing the readership of newspapers should be devised.

II. A team of experts should be sent to other countries to study the impact of T.V. on the readership of newspapers.

• (a) if only conclusion I follows;

• (b) if either I or II follows;

• (c) if neither I nor II follows; and

• (d) if both I and II follow.

Explanation :

The statement concentrates on the increasing viewership of T.V. and does not stress either on increasing the readership of newspapers or making studies regarding the same. So, neither I nor II follows.

Explanation :

• Question 23 of 25 23. Question 1 points Statement: A court can convict an accused solely on the basis of a dying declaration but such a declaration should be free from any doubt and the victim making the statement should be mentally fit – issued by supreme court. Assumptions: One who is not mentally fit always makes statement untrustworthy in nature. Declaration made by the dying person is likely to be true. III. It is possible to distinguish whether a declaration is doubtful or not. A. Only I is implicit B. Both I and II are implicit C. Both II and III are implicit D. Only III is implicit Correct Option C) Assumption I: Statement I is not implicit as it is not mentioned in the statement that persons who are not mentally fit makes untrustworthy statements Assumption II: Statement II is implicit because court can convict only if the declaration made by the dying person is true. Assumption III: Statement III is also implicit as declaration made by the person should be distinguishable that declaration is doubtful or not. Incorrect Option C) Assumption I: Statement I is not implicit as it is not mentioned in the statement that persons who are not mentally fit makes untrustworthy statements Assumption II: Statement II is implicit because court can convict only if the declaration made by the dying person is true. Assumption III: Statement III is also implicit as declaration made by the person should be distinguishable that declaration is doubtful or not.

#### 23. Question

Statement: A court can convict an accused solely on the basis of a dying declaration but such a declaration should be free from any doubt and the victim making the statement should be mentally fit – issued by supreme court.

Assumptions:

• One who is not mentally fit always makes statement untrustworthy in nature.

• Declaration made by the dying person is likely to be true.

III. It is possible to distinguish whether a declaration is doubtful or not.

• A. Only I is implicit

• B. Both I and II are implicit

• C. Both II and III are implicit

• D. Only III is implicit

Assumption I: Statement I is not implicit as it is not mentioned in the statement that persons who are not mentally fit makes untrustworthy statements

Assumption II: Statement II is implicit because court can convict only if the declaration made by the dying person is true.

Assumption III: Statement III is also implicit as declaration made by the person should be distinguishable that declaration is doubtful or not.

Assumption I: Statement I is not implicit as it is not mentioned in the statement that persons who are not mentally fit makes untrustworthy statements

Assumption II: Statement II is implicit because court can convict only if the declaration made by the dying person is true.

Assumption III: Statement III is also implicit as declaration made by the person should be distinguishable that declaration is doubtful or not.

• Question 24 of 25 24. Question 1 points For several years the number of people who cannot meet their daily food needs without humanitarian assistance has been rising, primarily driven by two factors: persistent instability in conflict-ridden regions and adverse climate events. These growing needs have been reflected in the increasing level of international humanitarian assistance, which reached US$27.3 billion in 2017, up from US$18.4 billion in 2013. While critical to saving lives and alleviating human suffering, humanitarian assistance does not address the root causes of food crises. In response, those coordinating emergency humanitarian assistance are working more seriously with those in development support and conflict prevention to find ways to reverse the current trend in escalating numbers of food-insecure people in need of urgent action. This “new way of working,” aims to address the humanitarian-development (HD) nexus, which emerged from the World Humanitarian Summit in 2016, as well as the Agenda for Humanity’s call to “move from delivering aid to ending need,” which provided a framework for thinking about innovative approaches to address food crises more sustainably in line with Sustainable Development Goal 2.1. Based on the reading of the passage, which of the following proverb best captures the central idea of the passage? A. A stitch in time saves nine B. Prevention is better than cure C. Time and tide wait for none D. Necessity is the mother of invention Correct Answer. B. The focus of the passage is on bringing out how humanitarian efforts are now aimed at preventing the problem of food shortages instead of reacting to food shortages through distribution of aids. Thus B is the most accurate answer. Incorrect Answer. B. The focus of the passage is on bringing out how humanitarian efforts are now aimed at preventing the problem of food shortages instead of reacting to food shortages through distribution of aids. Thus B is the most accurate answer.

#### 24. Question

For several years the number of people who cannot meet their daily food needs without humanitarian assistance has been rising, primarily driven by two factors: persistent instability in conflict-ridden regions and adverse climate events.

These growing needs have been reflected in the increasing level of international humanitarian assistance, which reached US$27.3 billion in 2017, up from US$18.4 billion in 2013. While critical to saving lives and alleviating human suffering, humanitarian assistance does not address the root causes of food crises.

In response, those coordinating emergency humanitarian assistance are working more seriously with those in development support and conflict prevention to find ways to reverse the current trend in escalating numbers of food-insecure people in need of urgent action.

This “new way of working,” aims to address the humanitarian-development (HD) nexus, which emerged from the World Humanitarian Summit in 2016, as well as the Agenda for Humanity’s call to “move from delivering aid to ending need,” which provided a framework for thinking about innovative approaches to address food crises more sustainably in line with Sustainable Development Goal 2.1.

Based on the reading of the passage, which of the following proverb best captures the central idea of the passage?

• A. A stitch in time saves nine

• B. Prevention is better than cure

• C. Time and tide wait for none

• D. Necessity is the mother of invention

Answer. B. The focus of the passage is on bringing out how humanitarian efforts are now aimed at preventing the problem of food shortages instead of reacting to food shortages through distribution of aids. Thus B is the most accurate answer.

• Question 25 of 25 25. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are valid assumption(s) that have been made in the passage? Our efforts at managing climate change has failed 2. The work done by humanitarian agencies is hogwash A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer. D. Statement 1 is wrong as the passage does not make any assumption about our efforts at managing climate change. The passage just explains that climate change is one of the major reason behind persistent food shortage. Statement 2 is wrong as the passage does not make a subjective assessment of the way in which such agencies function. Instead it explains how the focus of such agencies is undergoing a change. Hence D. Incorrect Answer. D. Statement 1 is wrong as the passage does not make any assumption about our efforts at managing climate change. The passage just explains that climate change is one of the major reason behind persistent food shortage. Statement 2 is wrong as the passage does not make a subjective assessment of the way in which such agencies function. Instead it explains how the focus of such agencies is undergoing a change. Hence D.

#### 25. Question

Which of the following is/are valid assumption(s) that have been made in the passage?

• Our efforts at managing climate change has failed

1.The work done by humanitarian agencies is hogwash

• C. Both 1 and 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. D. Statement 1 is wrong as the passage does not make any assumption about our efforts at managing climate change. The passage just explains that climate change is one of the major reason behind persistent food shortage. Statement 2 is wrong as the passage does not make a subjective assessment of the way in which such agencies function. Instead it explains how the focus of such agencies is undergoing a change. Hence D.

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