DAY – 67 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : Geography Full Syllabus

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Match List-I (Plate Boundary Interaction) with List-II (Prominent Geographical Feature/Phenomenon) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Plate Boundary Interaction) List-II (Prominent Geographical Feature/Phenomenon) A. Collision of two continental plates 1. Formation of Rift Valleys and Block Mountains B. Divergence of two oceanic plates 2. Andes Mountains and Peru-Chile Trench C. Convergence of an oceanic and a continental plate 3. Mid-Atlantic Ridge and Seafloor Spreading D. Transform fault boundary between any two plates 4. Himalayan Mountain Range and Tibetan Plateau 5. San Andreas Fault and associated earthquakes Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-5 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (c) A-4, B-1, C-5, D-2 (d) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-1 Correct Solution: A A. Collision of two continental plates: This type of boundary leads to intense folding, faulting, and crustal thickening, resulting in the formation of high fold mountain ranges and extensive plateaus. The Himalayas and the Tibetan Plateau are classic examples of the collision between the Indian and Eurasian continental plates. So, A matches with 4. B. Divergence of two oceanic plates: When two oceanic plates move apart, magma rises from the mantle to create new oceanic crust. This process forms mid-oceanic ridges and is associated with seafloor spreading. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a prime example. So, B matches with 3. C. Convergence of an oceanic and a continental plate: When an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate, the denser oceanic plate subducts beneath the lighter continental plate. This leads to the formation of a volcanic mountain range on the continent (like the Andes) and a deep oceanic trench offshore (like the Peru-Chile Trench). So, C matches with 2. D. Transform fault boundary between any two plates: At a transform boundary, plates slide past each other horizontally. This movement can cause significant earthquakes but typically does not result in volcanism or the creation/destruction of crust on a large scale. The San Andreas Fault in California is a well-known example. So, D matches with 5. Incorrect Solution: A A. Collision of two continental plates: This type of boundary leads to intense folding, faulting, and crustal thickening, resulting in the formation of high fold mountain ranges and extensive plateaus. The Himalayas and the Tibetan Plateau are classic examples of the collision between the Indian and Eurasian continental plates. So, A matches with 4. B. Divergence of two oceanic plates: When two oceanic plates move apart, magma rises from the mantle to create new oceanic crust. This process forms mid-oceanic ridges and is associated with seafloor spreading. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a prime example. So, B matches with 3. C. Convergence of an oceanic and a continental plate: When an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate, the denser oceanic plate subducts beneath the lighter continental plate. This leads to the formation of a volcanic mountain range on the continent (like the Andes) and a deep oceanic trench offshore (like the Peru-Chile Trench). So, C matches with 2. D. Transform fault boundary between any two plates: At a transform boundary, plates slide past each other horizontally. This movement can cause significant earthquakes but typically does not result in volcanism or the creation/destruction of crust on a large scale. The San Andreas Fault in California is a well-known example. So, D matches with 5.

#### 1. Question

Match List-I (Plate Boundary Interaction) with List-II (Prominent Geographical Feature/Phenomenon) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Plate Boundary Interaction) | List-II (Prominent Geographical Feature/Phenomenon)

A. Collision of two continental plates | 1. Formation of Rift Valleys and Block Mountains

B. Divergence of two oceanic plates | 2. Andes Mountains and Peru-Chile Trench

C. Convergence of an oceanic and a continental plate | 3. Mid-Atlantic Ridge and Seafloor Spreading

D. Transform fault boundary between any two plates | 4. Himalayan Mountain Range and Tibetan Plateau

| 5. San Andreas Fault and associated earthquakes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-5

• (b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

• (c) A-4, B-1, C-5, D-2

• (d) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-1

Solution: A

• A. Collision of two continental plates: This type of boundary leads to intense folding, faulting, and crustal thickening, resulting in the formation of high fold mountain ranges and extensive plateaus. The Himalayas and the Tibetan Plateau are classic examples of the collision between the Indian and Eurasian continental plates. So, A matches with 4.

• B. Divergence of two oceanic plates: When two oceanic plates move apart, magma rises from the mantle to create new oceanic crust. This process forms mid-oceanic ridges and is associated with seafloor spreading. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a prime example. So, B matches with 3.

• C. Convergence of an oceanic and a continental plate: When an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate, the denser oceanic plate subducts beneath the lighter continental plate. This leads to the formation of a volcanic mountain range on the continent (like the Andes) and a deep oceanic trench offshore (like the Peru-Chile Trench). So, C matches with 2.

• D. Transform fault boundary between any two plates: At a transform boundary, plates slide past each other horizontally. This movement can cause significant earthquakes but typically does not result in volcanism or the creation/destruction of crust on a large scale. The San Andreas Fault in California is a well-known example. So, D matches with 5.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement–I: Tropical cyclones typically do not form at or very near the Equator (within about 5 degrees latitude). Statement–II: The Coriolis force, which is essential for initiating the cyclonic rotation of air, is negligible or absent at the Equator and increases with latitude. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–I b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is not the correct explanation for Statement–I c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct Correct Solution: A Tropical cyclones require specific atmospheric and oceanic conditions to develop, including warm sea surface temperatures, high humidity, and most crucially, a sufficiently strong Coriolis force to induce cyclonic rotation. Statement–I is correct: empirical records and meteorological studies show that tropical cyclones rarely form within 5 degrees of latitude from the Equator. While equatorial waters are often warm enough, cyclogenesis is typically absent in this zone. Statement–II is also correct. The Coriolis force is an apparent force due to Earth’s rotation. It acts perpendicular to the motion of air masses and is essential in generating the spin of cyclones. However, this force is zero at the Equator and increases with latitude, making it too weak near the Equator to induce the rotation needed to sustain a tropical cyclone. Therefore, Statement–II correctly explains Statement–I. Without the Coriolis effect, even favorable ocean temperatures cannot organize a tropical depression into a rotating storm system. Hence, the correct answer is (a). Incorrect Solution: A Tropical cyclones require specific atmospheric and oceanic conditions to develop, including warm sea surface temperatures, high humidity, and most crucially, a sufficiently strong Coriolis force to induce cyclonic rotation. Statement–I is correct: empirical records and meteorological studies show that tropical cyclones rarely form within 5 degrees of latitude from the Equator. While equatorial waters are often warm enough, cyclogenesis is typically absent in this zone. Statement–II is also correct. The Coriolis force is an apparent force due to Earth’s rotation. It acts perpendicular to the motion of air masses and is essential in generating the spin of cyclones. However, this force is zero at the Equator and increases with latitude, making it too weak near the Equator to induce the rotation needed to sustain a tropical cyclone. Therefore, Statement–II correctly explains Statement–I. Without the Coriolis effect, even favorable ocean temperatures cannot organize a tropical depression into a rotating storm system. Hence, the correct answer is (a).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement–I: Tropical cyclones typically do not form at or very near the Equator (within about 5 degrees latitude). Statement–II: The Coriolis force, which is essential for initiating the cyclonic rotation of air, is negligible or absent at the Equator and increases with latitude.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–I

• b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is not the correct explanation for Statement–I

• c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect

• d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct

Solution: A

Tropical cyclones require specific atmospheric and oceanic conditions to develop, including warm sea surface temperatures, high humidity, and most crucially, a sufficiently strong Coriolis force to induce cyclonic rotation.

Statement–I is correct: empirical records and meteorological studies show that tropical cyclones rarely form within 5 degrees of latitude from the Equator. While equatorial waters are often warm enough, cyclogenesis is typically absent in this zone.

Statement–II is also correct. The Coriolis force is an apparent force due to Earth’s rotation. It acts perpendicular to the motion of air masses and is essential in generating the spin of cyclones. However, this force is zero at the Equator and increases with latitude, making it too weak near the Equator to induce the rotation needed to sustain a tropical cyclone.

Therefore, Statement–II correctly explains Statement–I. Without the Coriolis effect, even favorable ocean temperatures cannot organize a tropical depression into a rotating storm system. Hence, the correct answer is (a).

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following weathering processes: Exfoliation Carbonation Frost Wedging Salt Crystal Growth Which of the above processes are predominantly physical weathering processes, although chemical processes might act as a precursor or facilitator? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B 1. Exfoliation: This is primarily a physical weathering process where curved sheets of rock break away from the outcrop, often due to pressure release (unloading) as overlying material is removed, or due to thermal expansion and contraction. While chemical weathering might weaken the rock initially, the detachment itself is physical. 2. Carbonation: This is a chemical weathering process involving the reaction of carbonic acid (formed when CO2 dissolves in water) with minerals, particularly calcite in limestone, leading to their dissolution. It is distinctly chemical. 3. Frost Wedging (or Frost Shattering): This is a classic physical weathering process where water seeps into cracks in rocks, freezes, expands, and exerts pressure, widening the cracks and eventually breaking the rock apart. 4. Salt Crystal Growth (or Haloclasty): This is a physical weathering process common in arid/semi-arid and coastal areas. Saline solutions seep into rock pores and cracks; when the water evaporates, salt crystals grow and exert pressure, prying apart mineral grains and breaking the rock. Chemical processes might lead to the presence of salts, but the crystal growth and resultant stress are physical. Incorrect Solution: B 1. Exfoliation: This is primarily a physical weathering process where curved sheets of rock break away from the outcrop, often due to pressure release (unloading) as overlying material is removed, or due to thermal expansion and contraction. While chemical weathering might weaken the rock initially, the detachment itself is physical. 2. Carbonation: This is a chemical weathering process involving the reaction of carbonic acid (formed when CO2 dissolves in water) with minerals, particularly calcite in limestone, leading to their dissolution. It is distinctly chemical. 3. Frost Wedging (or Frost Shattering): This is a classic physical weathering process where water seeps into cracks in rocks, freezes, expands, and exerts pressure, widening the cracks and eventually breaking the rock apart. 4. Salt Crystal Growth (or Haloclasty): This is a physical weathering process common in arid/semi-arid and coastal areas. Saline solutions seep into rock pores and cracks; when the water evaporates, salt crystals grow and exert pressure, prying apart mineral grains and breaking the rock. Chemical processes might lead to the presence of salts, but the crystal growth and resultant stress are physical.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following weathering processes:

• Exfoliation

• Carbonation

• Frost Wedging

• Salt Crystal Growth

Which of the above processes are predominantly physical weathering processes, although chemical processes might act as a precursor or facilitator?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

• 1. Exfoliation: This is primarily a physical weathering process where curved sheets of rock break away from the outcrop, often due to pressure release (unloading) as overlying material is removed, or due to thermal expansion and contraction. While chemical weathering might weaken the rock initially, the detachment itself is physical.

• 2. Carbonation: This is a chemical weathering process involving the reaction of carbonic acid (formed when CO2 dissolves in water) with minerals, particularly calcite in limestone, leading to their dissolution. It is distinctly chemical.

• 3. Frost Wedging (or Frost Shattering): This is a classic physical weathering process where water seeps into cracks in rocks, freezes, expands, and exerts pressure, widening the cracks and eventually breaking the rock apart.

• 4. Salt Crystal Growth (or Haloclasty): This is a physical weathering process common in arid/semi-arid and coastal areas. Saline solutions seep into rock pores and cracks; when the water evaporates, salt crystals grow and exert pressure, prying apart mineral grains and breaking the rock. Chemical processes might lead to the presence of salts, but the crystal growth and resultant stress are physical.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following conditions: Long winter nights with clear skies and calm air in a valley region. Rapid advection of warm, moist air over a cold ocean current or snow-covered surface. Subsidence of air from higher altitudes in a high-pressure system, leading to adiabatic warming at upper levels. Which of the above conditions are conducive to the formation of a temperature inversion? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Long winter nights allow for significant radiational cooling of the Earth’s surface. Clear skies permit this radiation to escape easily, and calm air prevents mixing with warmer air above. In valley regions, cold, dense air can drain down slopes and accumulate at the bottom, forming a layer of cold air beneath warmer air (surface temperature inversion or radiation inversion). Statement 2 is correct. When warm, moist air moves horizontally (advection) over a colder surface (like a cold ocean current or a snow/ice-covered landmass), the lower layers of the warm air are cooled by contact with the cold surface. This creates a situation where colder air underlies warmer air, forming an advection inversion. Fog is often associated with this. Statement 3 is correct. In a high-pressure system (anticyclone), air generally subsides (sinks) from higher altitudes. As this air subsides, it is compressed and warms adiabatically. If this subsidence occurs above a cooler layer of air near the surface (which might be trapped or have cooled independently), it can create or strengthen a temperature inversion (subsidence inversion) where warmer air overlies cooler air. This is common in subtropical high-pressure zones. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Long winter nights allow for significant radiational cooling of the Earth’s surface. Clear skies permit this radiation to escape easily, and calm air prevents mixing with warmer air above. In valley regions, cold, dense air can drain down slopes and accumulate at the bottom, forming a layer of cold air beneath warmer air (surface temperature inversion or radiation inversion). Statement 2 is correct. When warm, moist air moves horizontally (advection) over a colder surface (like a cold ocean current or a snow/ice-covered landmass), the lower layers of the warm air are cooled by contact with the cold surface. This creates a situation where colder air underlies warmer air, forming an advection inversion. Fog is often associated with this. Statement 3 is correct. In a high-pressure system (anticyclone), air generally subsides (sinks) from higher altitudes. As this air subsides, it is compressed and warms adiabatically. If this subsidence occurs above a cooler layer of air near the surface (which might be trapped or have cooled independently), it can create or strengthen a temperature inversion (subsidence inversion) where warmer air overlies cooler air. This is common in subtropical high-pressure zones.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following conditions:

• Long winter nights with clear skies and calm air in a valley region.

• Rapid advection of warm, moist air over a cold ocean current or snow-covered surface.

• Subsidence of air from higher altitudes in a high-pressure system, leading to adiabatic warming at upper levels.

Which of the above conditions are conducive to the formation of a temperature inversion?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. Long winter nights allow for significant radiational cooling of the Earth’s surface. Clear skies permit this radiation to escape easily, and calm air prevents mixing with warmer air above. In valley regions, cold, dense air can drain down slopes and accumulate at the bottom, forming a layer of cold air beneath warmer air (surface temperature inversion or radiation inversion).

• Statement 2 is correct. When warm, moist air moves horizontally (advection) over a colder surface (like a cold ocean current or a snow/ice-covered landmass), the lower layers of the warm air are cooled by contact with the cold surface. This creates a situation where colder air underlies warmer air, forming an advection inversion. Fog is often associated with this.

• Statement 3 is correct. In a high-pressure system (anticyclone), air generally subsides (sinks) from higher altitudes. As this air subsides, it is compressed and warms adiabatically. If this subsidence occurs above a cooler layer of air near the surface (which might be trapped or have cooled independently), it can create or strengthen a temperature inversion (subsidence inversion) where warmer air overlies cooler air. This is common in subtropical high-pressure zones.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to Shifting Cultivation (Jhumming or Bewar, Pamlou, Dahiya, etc.) as practiced in parts of India, consider the following statements: It is primarily a traditional agroforestry system characterized by short cropping periods alternating with long fallow periods, aimed at regeneration of soil fertility through natural processes. The practice is most widespread in the densely forested and hilly terrains of Northeastern states, but is also found, albeit to a lesser extent, in parts of the Western Ghats and some tribal belts of Central India. While ecologically sustainable at very low population densities and extensive land availability, increased population pressure and reduced Jhum cycles have led to severe land degradation, deforestation, and soil erosion in many areas. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only onea (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Shifting cultivation involves clearing a patch of forest, cultivating it for a few years, and then abandoning it for a long fallow period to allow natural vegetation and soil fertility to recover. It is a traditional system that integrates forestry and agriculture. Statement 2 is correct. The practice is most prominent and widespread in the hilly regions of Northeast India (e.g., Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh). However, similar forms of shifting cultivation are also practiced by tribal communities in other forested and hilly areas, including parts of the Western Ghats, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh. Statement 3 is correct. Historically, with low population densities and long fallow periods (15-20 years or more), shifting cultivation could be relatively sustainable. However, increasing population pressure has led to shorter fallow cycles (3-5 years in many areas), which does not allow sufficient time for soil and forest regeneration. This has resulted in significant environmental problems like deforestation, soil erosion, and loss of biodiversity. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Shifting cultivation involves clearing a patch of forest, cultivating it for a few years, and then abandoning it for a long fallow period to allow natural vegetation and soil fertility to recover. It is a traditional system that integrates forestry and agriculture. Statement 2 is correct. The practice is most prominent and widespread in the hilly regions of Northeast India (e.g., Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh). However, similar forms of shifting cultivation are also practiced by tribal communities in other forested and hilly areas, including parts of the Western Ghats, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh. Statement 3 is correct. Historically, with low population densities and long fallow periods (15-20 years or more), shifting cultivation could be relatively sustainable. However, increasing population pressure has led to shorter fallow cycles (3-5 years in many areas), which does not allow sufficient time for soil and forest regeneration. This has resulted in significant environmental problems like deforestation, soil erosion, and loss of biodiversity.

#### 5. Question

With reference to Shifting Cultivation (Jhumming or Bewar, Pamlou, Dahiya, etc.) as practiced in parts of India, consider the following statements:

• It is primarily a traditional agroforestry system characterized by short cropping periods alternating with long fallow periods, aimed at regeneration of soil fertility through natural processes.

• The practice is most widespread in the densely forested and hilly terrains of Northeastern states, but is also found, albeit to a lesser extent, in parts of the Western Ghats and some tribal belts of Central India.

• While ecologically sustainable at very low population densities and extensive land availability, increased population pressure and reduced Jhum cycles have led to severe land degradation, deforestation, and soil erosion in many areas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only onea

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Shifting cultivation involves clearing a patch of forest, cultivating it for a few years, and then abandoning it for a long fallow period to allow natural vegetation and soil fertility to recover. It is a traditional system that integrates forestry and agriculture.

• Statement 2 is correct. The practice is most prominent and widespread in the hilly regions of Northeast India (e.g., Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh). However, similar forms of shifting cultivation are also practiced by tribal communities in other forested and hilly areas, including parts of the Western Ghats, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.

• Statement 3 is correct. Historically, with low population densities and long fallow periods (15-20 years or more), shifting cultivation could be relatively sustainable. However, increasing population pressure has led to shorter fallow cycles (3-5 years in many areas), which does not allow sufficient time for soil and forest regeneration. This has resulted in significant environmental problems like deforestation, soil erosion, and loss of biodiversity.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement–I: The Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream (STWJ) plays a crucial role in influencing the winter weather conditions over the Indian subcontinent, including the intensity and tracks of Western Disturbances. Statement–II: During winter, the STWJ bifurcates due to the Himalayan barrier, with its southern branch flowing south of the Himalayas, guiding temperate cyclones (Western Disturbances) from the Mediterranean region into Northwest India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–I b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is not the correct explanation for Statement–I c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct Correct Solution: A The Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream (STWJ) is a prominent upper-tropospheric wind belt situated around 25°–35°N latitude in the winter hemisphere. Over the Indian subcontinent, it becomes a major determinant of winter weather, especially by influencing the movement and characteristics of Western Disturbances (WDs)—eastward-moving extratropical cyclones that originate in the Mediterranean region. Statement–I is correct, as the STWJ controls the trajectory and strength of these WDs, which bring vital winter rainfall and snowfall to Northwest India, parts of the Western Himalayas, and adjoining plains. Statement–II is also correct. During winter, when the STWJ reaches the Indian subcontinent, the Himalayan-Tibetan highland acts as a formidable orographic barrier, splitting the jet into two branches—northern and southern. The southern branch descends south of the Himalayas and steers the Western Disturbances into India. Thus, Statement–II provides the mechanistic explanation for Statement–I, making option (a) the correct answer. The interplay between the STWJ and the Himalayan orography is crucial to India’s winter climatology. Incorrect Solution: A The Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream (STWJ) is a prominent upper-tropospheric wind belt situated around 25°–35°N latitude in the winter hemisphere. Over the Indian subcontinent, it becomes a major determinant of winter weather, especially by influencing the movement and characteristics of Western Disturbances (WDs)—eastward-moving extratropical cyclones that originate in the Mediterranean region. Statement–I is correct, as the STWJ controls the trajectory and strength of these WDs, which bring vital winter rainfall and snowfall to Northwest India, parts of the Western Himalayas, and adjoining plains. Statement–II is also correct. During winter, when the STWJ reaches the Indian subcontinent, the Himalayan-Tibetan highland acts as a formidable orographic barrier, splitting the jet into two branches—northern and southern. The southern branch descends south of the Himalayas and steers the Western Disturbances into India. Thus, Statement–II provides the mechanistic explanation for Statement–I, making option (a) the correct answer. The interplay between the STWJ and the Himalayan orography is crucial to India’s winter climatology.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement–I: The Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream (STWJ) plays a crucial role in influencing the winter weather conditions over the Indian subcontinent, including the intensity and tracks of Western Disturbances. Statement–II: During winter, the STWJ bifurcates due to the Himalayan barrier, with its southern branch flowing south of the Himalayas, guiding temperate cyclones (Western Disturbances) from the Mediterranean region into Northwest India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–I

• b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is not the correct explanation for Statement–I

• c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect

• d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct

Solution: A

The Sub-Tropical Westerly Jet Stream (STWJ) is a prominent upper-tropospheric wind belt situated around 25°–35°N latitude in the winter hemisphere. Over the Indian subcontinent, it becomes a major determinant of winter weather, especially by influencing the movement and characteristics of Western Disturbances (WDs)—eastward-moving extratropical cyclones that originate in the Mediterranean region.

Statement–I is correct, as the STWJ controls the trajectory and strength of these WDs, which bring vital winter rainfall and snowfall to Northwest India, parts of the Western Himalayas, and adjoining plains.

Statement–II is also correct. During winter, when the STWJ reaches the Indian subcontinent, the Himalayan-Tibetan highland acts as a formidable orographic barrier, splitting the jet into two branches—northern and southern. The southern branch descends south of the Himalayas and steers the Western Disturbances into India.

Thus, Statement–II provides the mechanistic explanation for Statement–I, making option (a) the correct answer. The interplay between the STWJ and the Himalayan orography is crucial to India’s winter climatology.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding mineral distribution in India: Rajasthan possesses the largest reserves of lead-zinc, gypsum, and rock phosphate in India, and is also a significant producer of copper and mica. The state of Odisha is the leading producer of bauxite and chromite in India, with substantial reserves of manganese and iron ore also contributing to its mineral wealth. Kerala’s coastal sands are uniquely rich in monazite, which is a primary source of thorium and several rare earth elements, but lacks significant deposits of ilmenite and rutile. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Rajasthan has the largest reserves of lead-zinc (e.g., Zawar mines), gypsum, and rock phosphate in India. It is also a significant producer of copper (e.g., Khetri mines) and was historically a major producer of mica (though Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand are also key mica areas). Statement 2 is correct. Odisha is indeed India’s largest producer of bauxite (the ore for aluminum) and chromite. The state also has very large reserves and is a major producer of manganese ore and iron ore, making it extremely rich in metallic minerals. Statement 3 is incorrect. Kerala’s coastal sands (particularly Chavara and Manavalakurichi which extends into Tamil Nadu) are rich in monazite (source of thorium and REEs). However, these beach sands are also very rich in ilmenite (titanium ore) and rutile (another titanium mineral), as well as zircon. So, the claim that it “lacks significant deposits of ilmenite and rutile” is false. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Rajasthan has the largest reserves of lead-zinc (e.g., Zawar mines), gypsum, and rock phosphate in India. It is also a significant producer of copper (e.g., Khetri mines) and was historically a major producer of mica (though Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand are also key mica areas). Statement 2 is correct. Odisha is indeed India’s largest producer of bauxite (the ore for aluminum) and chromite. The state also has very large reserves and is a major producer of manganese ore and iron ore, making it extremely rich in metallic minerals. Statement 3 is incorrect. Kerala’s coastal sands (particularly Chavara and Manavalakurichi which extends into Tamil Nadu) are rich in monazite (source of thorium and REEs). However, these beach sands are also very rich in ilmenite (titanium ore) and rutile (another titanium mineral), as well as zircon. So, the claim that it “lacks significant deposits of ilmenite and rutile” is false.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding mineral distribution in India:

• Rajasthan possesses the largest reserves of lead-zinc, gypsum, and rock phosphate in India, and is also a significant producer of copper and mica.

• The state of Odisha is the leading producer of bauxite and chromite in India, with substantial reserves of manganese and iron ore also contributing to its mineral wealth.

• Kerala’s coastal sands are uniquely rich in monazite, which is a primary source of thorium and several rare earth elements, but lacks significant deposits of ilmenite and rutile.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Rajasthan has the largest reserves of lead-zinc (e.g., Zawar mines), gypsum, and rock phosphate in India. It is also a significant producer of copper (e.g., Khetri mines) and was historically a major producer of mica (though Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand are also key mica areas).

• Statement 2 is correct. Odisha is indeed India’s largest producer of bauxite (the ore for aluminum) and chromite. The state also has very large reserves and is a major producer of manganese ore and iron ore, making it extremely rich in metallic minerals.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Kerala’s coastal sands (particularly Chavara and Manavalakurichi which extends into Tamil Nadu) are rich in monazite (source of thorium and REEs). However, these beach sands are also very rich in ilmenite (titanium ore) and rutile (another titanium mineral), as well as zircon. So, the claim that it “lacks significant deposits of ilmenite and rutile” is false.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following conditions are generally considered detrimental to the healthy growth and survival of coral reef ecosystems? Consistently high sea surface temperatures significantly above the long-term average. Low salinity levels due to large freshwater influx from river mouths. High turbidity and sedimentation rates in coastal waters. Shallow, clear, and warm tropical waters with moderate wave action. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Condition 1 is detrimental. Prolonged periods of sea surface temperatures above the normal tolerance range of corals (even by 1-2°C) can cause coral bleaching, where corals expel their symbiotic zooxanthellae, leading to stress and potential death. This is a major threat due to global warming. Condition 2 is detrimental. Corals are marine organisms adapted to specific salinity levels (typically 32-42 parts per thousand). A large influx of freshwater from rivers can significantly lower salinity, stressing and potentially killing corals. Thus, reefs are usually not found very close to major river mouths. Condition 3 is detrimental. High turbidity (cloudiness of water) reduces light penetration, which is essential for the photosynthetic zooxanthellae living within coral tissues. High sedimentation rates can smother corals, clogging their feeding structures and blocking light. Condition 4 describes *favourable* conditions, not detrimental ones. Corals generally thrive in shallow (for light penetration), clear (low turbidity), warm tropical waters (typically 23-29°C), with moderate wave action (which brings oxygen and nutrients, and removes waste, but not so strong as to cause physical damage). Incorrect Solution: B Condition 1 is detrimental. Prolonged periods of sea surface temperatures above the normal tolerance range of corals (even by 1-2°C) can cause coral bleaching, where corals expel their symbiotic zooxanthellae, leading to stress and potential death. This is a major threat due to global warming. Condition 2 is detrimental. Corals are marine organisms adapted to specific salinity levels (typically 32-42 parts per thousand). A large influx of freshwater from rivers can significantly lower salinity, stressing and potentially killing corals. Thus, reefs are usually not found very close to major river mouths. Condition 3 is detrimental. High turbidity (cloudiness of water) reduces light penetration, which is essential for the photosynthetic zooxanthellae living within coral tissues. High sedimentation rates can smother corals, clogging their feeding structures and blocking light. Condition 4 describes *favourable* conditions, not detrimental ones. Corals generally thrive in shallow (for light penetration), clear (low turbidity), warm tropical waters (typically 23-29°C), with moderate wave action (which brings oxygen and nutrients, and removes waste, but not so strong as to cause physical damage).

#### 8. Question

Which of the following conditions are generally considered detrimental to the healthy growth and survival of coral reef ecosystems?

• Consistently high sea surface temperatures significantly above the long-term average.

• Low salinity levels due to large freshwater influx from river mouths.

• High turbidity and sedimentation rates in coastal waters.

• Shallow, clear, and warm tropical waters with moderate wave action.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

• Condition 1 is detrimental. Prolonged periods of sea surface temperatures above the normal tolerance range of corals (even by 1-2°C) can cause coral bleaching, where corals expel their symbiotic zooxanthellae, leading to stress and potential death. This is a major threat due to global warming.

• Condition 2 is detrimental. Corals are marine organisms adapted to specific salinity levels (typically 32-42 parts per thousand). A large influx of freshwater from rivers can significantly lower salinity, stressing and potentially killing corals. Thus, reefs are usually not found very close to major river mouths.

• Condition 3 is detrimental. High turbidity (cloudiness of water) reduces light penetration, which is essential for the photosynthetic zooxanthellae living within coral tissues. High sedimentation rates can smother corals, clogging their feeding structures and blocking light.

• Condition 4 describes *favourable* conditions, not detrimental ones. Corals generally thrive in shallow (for light penetration), clear (low turbidity), warm tropical waters (typically 23-29°C), with moderate wave action (which brings oxygen and nutrients, and removes waste, but not so strong as to cause physical damage).

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement–I: El Niño events are associated with anomalous warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean, which can significantly disrupt global atmospheric circulation patterns. Statement–II: During a strong El Niño, the Walker Circulation weakens or reverses, leading to suppressed rainfall over the western Pacific and enhanced rainfall over the eastern/central Pacific and parts of the Americas. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–I b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is not the correct explanation for Statement–I c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct Correct Solution: A El Niño is a climatic phenomenon characterized by the abnormal warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. This warming disrupts the typical atmospheric circulation known as the Walker Circulation, which under normal conditions moves warm air westward across the Pacific, causing convection and rainfall over Indonesia and northern Australia. Statement–I is correct because El Niño leads to major disturbances in global atmospheric circulation, influencing the Indian monsoon, causing droughts in Australia and Indonesia, and floods in the Americas. Statement–II is also correct as the weakening or reversal of the Walker Circulation during El Niño leads to suppressed rainfall in the western Pacific and enhanced convection and rainfall in the central and eastern Pacific. This change is due to the flattening or reversal of the east-west temperature gradient, which drives the circulation. Since this shift in circulation patterns is the direct atmospheric mechanism through which El Niño impacts global weather systems, Statement–II correctly explains Statement–I, making option (a) the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: A El Niño is a climatic phenomenon characterized by the abnormal warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. This warming disrupts the typical atmospheric circulation known as the Walker Circulation, which under normal conditions moves warm air westward across the Pacific, causing convection and rainfall over Indonesia and northern Australia. Statement–I is correct because El Niño leads to major disturbances in global atmospheric circulation, influencing the Indian monsoon, causing droughts in Australia and Indonesia, and floods in the Americas. Statement–II is also correct as the weakening or reversal of the Walker Circulation during El Niño leads to suppressed rainfall in the western Pacific and enhanced convection and rainfall in the central and eastern Pacific. This change is due to the flattening or reversal of the east-west temperature gradient, which drives the circulation. Since this shift in circulation patterns is the direct atmospheric mechanism through which El Niño impacts global weather systems, Statement–II correctly explains Statement–I, making option (a) the correct answer.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement–I: El Niño events are associated with anomalous warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean, which can significantly disrupt global atmospheric circulation patterns. Statement–II: During a strong El Niño, the Walker Circulation weakens or reverses, leading to suppressed rainfall over the western Pacific and enhanced rainfall over the eastern/central Pacific and parts of the Americas.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–I

• b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is not the correct explanation for Statement–I

• c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect

• d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct

Solution: A

El Niño is a climatic phenomenon characterized by the abnormal warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. This warming disrupts the typical atmospheric circulation known as the Walker Circulation, which under normal conditions moves warm air westward across the Pacific, causing convection and rainfall over Indonesia and northern Australia.

Statement–I is correct because El Niño leads to major disturbances in global atmospheric circulation, influencing the Indian monsoon, causing droughts in Australia and Indonesia, and floods in the Americas. Statement–II is also correct as the weakening or reversal of the Walker Circulation during El Niño leads to suppressed rainfall in the western Pacific and enhanced convection and rainfall in the central and eastern Pacific. This change is due to the flattening or reversal of the east-west temperature gradient, which drives the circulation.

Since this shift in circulation patterns is the direct atmospheric mechanism through which El Niño impacts global weather systems, Statement–II correctly explains Statement–I, making option (a) the correct answer.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following seas/gulfs and the countries that border them: Adriatic Sea: Italy, Croatia, Albania, Austria, Slovenia, Bosnia and Hungary. Persian Gulf: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, and Oman. Red Sea: Egypt, Sudan, Ethiopia, Djibouti, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Israel, Jordan. Black Sea: Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria, and Romania. How many of the above listings of bordering countries are entirely correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The Adriatic Sea is bordered by six countries: Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, and Italy. Hence, pair 1 is incorrect. The eight countries that border the Persian Gulf are: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, and Oman. Hence, pair 2 is correct. The six countries that border the Red Sea are Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect The Black Sea is bordered by six countries: Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria, and Romania. Hence, pair 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Adriatic Sea is bordered by six countries: Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, and Italy. Hence, pair 1 is incorrect. The eight countries that border the Persian Gulf are: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, and Oman. Hence, pair 2 is correct. The six countries that border the Red Sea are Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect The Black Sea is bordered by six countries: Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria, and Romania. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following seas/gulfs and the countries that border them:

• Adriatic Sea: Italy, Croatia, Albania, Austria, Slovenia, Bosnia and Hungary.

• Persian Gulf: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, and Oman.

• Red Sea: Egypt, Sudan, Ethiopia, Djibouti, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Israel, Jordan.

• Black Sea: Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria, and Romania.

How many of the above listings of bordering countries are entirely correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

The Adriatic Sea is bordered by six countries: Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, and Italy.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrect.

The eight countries that border the Persian Gulf are: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, and Oman.

Hence, pair 2 is correct.

The six countries that border the Red Sea are Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrect

The Black Sea is bordered by six countries: Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria, and Romania.

Hence, pair 4 is correct.

Solution: B

The Adriatic Sea is bordered by six countries: Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, and Italy.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrect.

The eight countries that border the Persian Gulf are: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, and Oman.

Hence, pair 2 is correct.

The six countries that border the Red Sea are Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrect

The Black Sea is bordered by six countries: Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria, and Romania.

Hence, pair 4 is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Zagros Mountains run only through the countries of Iran, Iraq and Turkey. The Zagros Mountains has been formed by collision between the major Eurasian plate and the minor Arabian plate. Formation of the Neotethys Oceanic slab is responsible for gradual upliftment of the Zagros mountains in recent years. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Zagros Mountains are mountain range located primarily in north Western Iran, roughly following Western border of the country while covering much of South Eastern part of Turkey and northeastern Iraq. From this border region, the Range continues south east to the Persian Gulf. Hence statement 1 is correct The Zagros Mountains were formed by collision of the Arabian and Eurasian plates (a process known as orogeny), the collision caused upliftment of the mountains and sinking of the surrounding lands leading to formation of the Mesopotamian sedimentary basin. Arabian plate is a minor tectonic plate in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres moving northward along with the African and Indian plates. The Eurasian plate is a major tectonic plate that includes most of Eurasia (Europe and Asia) and surrounding oceanic crust. Hence statement 2 is correct The Zagros Mountains are slowly sinking along with Northern part of the Iraq. The Neotethys Oceanic slab is a remnant of an ancient Ocean that existed over 66 million years ago; it is now sinking into the mantle of the earth; as the slab is sinking, it is pulling down the Zagros region downward. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The Zagros Mountains are mountain range located primarily in north Western Iran, roughly following Western border of the country while covering much of South Eastern part of Turkey and northeastern Iraq. From this border region, the Range continues south east to the Persian Gulf. Hence statement 1 is correct The Zagros Mountains were formed by collision of the Arabian and Eurasian plates (a process known as orogeny), the collision caused upliftment of the mountains and sinking of the surrounding lands leading to formation of the Mesopotamian sedimentary basin. Arabian plate is a minor tectonic plate in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres moving northward along with the African and Indian plates. The Eurasian plate is a major tectonic plate that includes most of Eurasia (Europe and Asia) and surrounding oceanic crust. Hence statement 2 is correct The Zagros Mountains are slowly sinking along with Northern part of the Iraq. The Neotethys Oceanic slab is a remnant of an ancient Ocean that existed over 66 million years ago; it is now sinking into the mantle of the earth; as the slab is sinking, it is pulling down the Zagros region downward. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Zagros Mountains run only through the countries of Iran, Iraq and Turkey.

• The Zagros Mountains has been formed by collision between the major Eurasian plate and the minor Arabian plate.

• Formation of the Neotethys Oceanic slab is responsible for gradual upliftment of the Zagros mountains in recent years.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Zagros Mountains are mountain range located primarily in north Western Iran, roughly following Western border of the country while covering much of South Eastern part of Turkey and northeastern Iraq.

• From this border region, the Range continues south east to the Persian Gulf.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Zagros Mountains were formed by collision of the Arabian and Eurasian plates (a process known as orogeny), the collision caused upliftment of the mountains and sinking of the surrounding lands leading to formation of the Mesopotamian sedimentary basin.

• Arabian plate is a minor tectonic plate in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres moving northward along with the African and Indian plates.

• The Eurasian plate is a major tectonic plate that includes most of Eurasia (Europe and Asia) and surrounding oceanic crust.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Zagros Mountains are slowly sinking along with Northern part of the Iraq.

• The Neotethys Oceanic slab is a remnant of an ancient Ocean that existed over 66 million years ago; it is now sinking into the mantle of the earth; as the slab is sinking, it is pulling down the Zagros region downward.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• From this border region, the Range continues south east to the Persian Gulf.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Arabian plate is a minor tectonic plate in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres moving northward along with the African and Indian plates.

• The Eurasian plate is a major tectonic plate that includes most of Eurasia (Europe and Asia) and surrounding oceanic crust.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Zagros Mountains are slowly sinking along with Northern part of the Iraq.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Nagar Van scheme envisages development of 400 Nagar Vatikas across India within 2026-27. The National Funds under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority sponsors Rs 4 lakhs per hectare for Fencing, soil moisture conservation and administrative expenses under the Nagar Van Scheme. Which of the above statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The Nagar Van scheme was announced on the occasion of World Environment Day in 2020. It focuses on creation of urban Forests across the country from 2020-21 to 2026-27) with a focus on people’s participation and collaboration between Forest Department, municipal bodies, NGOs, corporates and citizens. It aims to develop 600 Nagar van and 400 Nagar vatika across India. Hence statement 1 is correct The central grants from funds under the National Authority of Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is provided under the scheme to cover mainly the cost of fencing, soil moisture conservation measures and related activities, administrative activities, plantation and maintenance. Financial assistance is provided at the rate of Rs. 4 lakhs per hectare for creating and maintaining Nagar Van. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Nagar Van scheme was announced on the occasion of World Environment Day in 2020. It focuses on creation of urban Forests across the country from 2020-21 to 2026-27) with a focus on people’s participation and collaboration between Forest Department, municipal bodies, NGOs, corporates and citizens. It aims to develop 600 Nagar van and 400 Nagar vatika across India. Hence statement 1 is correct The central grants from funds under the National Authority of Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is provided under the scheme to cover mainly the cost of fencing, soil moisture conservation measures and related activities, administrative activities, plantation and maintenance. Financial assistance is provided at the rate of Rs. 4 lakhs per hectare for creating and maintaining Nagar Van. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Nagar Van scheme envisages development of 400 Nagar Vatikas across India within 2026-27.

• The National Funds under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority sponsors Rs 4 lakhs per hectare for Fencing, soil moisture conservation and administrative expenses under the Nagar Van Scheme.

Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The Nagar Van scheme was announced on the occasion of World Environment Day in 2020.

• It focuses on creation of urban Forests across the country from 2020-21 to 2026-27) with a focus on people’s participation and collaboration between Forest Department, municipal bodies, NGOs, corporates and citizens.

• It aims to develop 600 Nagar van and 400 Nagar vatika across India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The central grants from funds under the National Authority of Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is provided under the scheme to cover mainly the cost of fencing, soil moisture conservation measures and related activities, administrative activities, plantation and maintenance.

• Financial assistance is provided at the rate of Rs. 4 lakhs per hectare for creating and maintaining Nagar Van.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• The Nagar Van scheme was announced on the occasion of World Environment Day in 2020.

• It aims to develop 600 Nagar van and 400 Nagar vatika across India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Financial assistance is provided at the rate of Rs. 4 lakhs per hectare for creating and maintaining Nagar Van.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding mangrove forests of India : Mangrove : Location Vikhroli Mangrove : Andhra Pradesh Karankadu Mangroves : Kerala Ratnagiri Mangroves: Maharashtra Which of the above are Mangrove forests in India? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 only Correct Solution: C Vikhroli Mangroves are one of the largest private mangrove forest in Maharashtra covering nearly 2000 hectares ; The area houses a diverse range of flora and fauna including various Mangrove species, birds, butterfly, crab, prawn and even some mammals like jackals and mongoose. It is managed by the Godrej Foundation since 1940. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Karankadu mangrove forest is located in Tamil Nadu. Falling under the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park, this human made mangrove forest is important to the surrounding ecosystem. It was in news as the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park proposed to introduce eco tourism in the Karankadu mangrove forest area by involving local fishermen. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Ratnagiri mangrove are locate in Maharashtra. This coastal district has significant mangrove forest particularly along the Estuarine areas; these forests are vital for local ecosystem and face threat from rising sea level and other issues. Hence pair 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Vikhroli Mangroves are one of the largest private mangrove forest in Maharashtra covering nearly 2000 hectares ; The area houses a diverse range of flora and fauna including various Mangrove species, birds, butterfly, crab, prawn and even some mammals like jackals and mongoose. It is managed by the Godrej Foundation since 1940. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Karankadu mangrove forest is located in Tamil Nadu. Falling under the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park, this human made mangrove forest is important to the surrounding ecosystem. It was in news as the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park proposed to introduce eco tourism in the Karankadu mangrove forest area by involving local fishermen. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Ratnagiri mangrove are locate in Maharashtra. This coastal district has significant mangrove forest particularly along the Estuarine areas; these forests are vital for local ecosystem and face threat from rising sea level and other issues. Hence pair 3 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding mangrove forests of India :

Mangrove : Location

• Vikhroli Mangrove : Andhra Pradesh

• Karankadu Mangroves : Kerala

• Ratnagiri Mangroves: Maharashtra

Which of the above are Mangrove forests in India?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1 only

Solution: C

• Vikhroli Mangroves are one of the largest private mangrove forest in Maharashtra covering nearly 2000 hectares ;

• The area houses a diverse range of flora and fauna including various Mangrove species, birds, butterfly, crab, prawn and even some mammals like jackals and mongoose.

• It is managed by the Godrej Foundation since 1940.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Karankadu mangrove forest is located in Tamil Nadu.

• Falling under the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park, this human made mangrove forest is important to the surrounding ecosystem.

• It was in news as the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park proposed to introduce eco tourism in the Karankadu mangrove forest area by involving local fishermen.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Ratnagiri mangrove are locate in Maharashtra.

• This coastal district has significant mangrove forest particularly along the Estuarine areas; these forests are vital for local ecosystem and face threat from rising sea level and other issues.

Hence pair 3 is correct

Solution: C

• Vikhroli Mangroves are one of the largest private mangrove forest in Maharashtra covering nearly 2000 hectares ;

• The area houses a diverse range of flora and fauna including various Mangrove species, birds, butterfly, crab, prawn and even some mammals like jackals and mongoose.

• It is managed by the Godrej Foundation since 1940.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Karankadu mangrove forest is located in Tamil Nadu.

• Falling under the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park, this human made mangrove forest is important to the surrounding ecosystem.

• It was in news as the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park proposed to introduce eco tourism in the Karankadu mangrove forest area by involving local fishermen.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Ratnagiri mangrove are locate in Maharashtra.

• This coastal district has significant mangrove forest particularly along the Estuarine areas; these forests are vital for local ecosystem and face threat from rising sea level and other issues.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs : River Water Dispute: State parties associated Mahadayi : Maharashtra and Karnataka Vamsdhara : Andhra Pradesh and Telangana Pennaiyar : Kerala and Tamil Nadu How many of the pairs given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D The Mahadayi or Mandovi river dispute is a long standing conflict between the states of Goa and Karnataka regarding sharing of water The dispute revolves around Karnataka’s proposal to divert water from its tributaries Kalsa and Bhandari to the Malprabha river basin. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Vamsdhara dispute is an important and ongoing conflict between the states of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha regarding sharing of water of the river. The Vamsdhara is an important east flowing river between Rushikulya and Godavari in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh respectively. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Pennaiyar is the second longest river in Tamil Nadu; it rises in the Nandi Hills and flows into the Bay of Bengal. The Pennaiyar River Dispute is between the states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Regarding it Tamil Nadu approached the supreme court in 2018 opposing Karnataka’s construction of check dams and diversion structures on the river. Tamil Nadu argued that the river’s flowing water is a national asset and Karnataka has no right to claim it’s water depriving the residents of Tamil Nadu. It is severely polluted by industrial waste as it flows through major industrial areas in Eastern suburbs of Bangalore and the industrial parts of Hosur and Chengum. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Mahadayi or Mandovi river dispute is a long standing conflict between the states of Goa and Karnataka regarding sharing of water The dispute revolves around Karnataka’s proposal to divert water from its tributaries Kalsa and Bhandari to the Malprabha river basin. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Vamsdhara dispute is an important and ongoing conflict between the states of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha regarding sharing of water of the river. The Vamsdhara is an important east flowing river between Rushikulya and Godavari in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh respectively. Hence pair 2 is incorrect Pennaiyar is the second longest river in Tamil Nadu; it rises in the Nandi Hills and flows into the Bay of Bengal. The Pennaiyar River Dispute is between the states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Regarding it Tamil Nadu approached the supreme court in 2018 opposing Karnataka’s construction of check dams and diversion structures on the river. Tamil Nadu argued that the river’s flowing water is a national asset and Karnataka has no right to claim it’s water depriving the residents of Tamil Nadu. It is severely polluted by industrial waste as it flows through major industrial areas in Eastern suburbs of Bangalore and the industrial parts of Hosur and Chengum. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following pairs :

River Water Dispute: State parties associated

• Mahadayi : Maharashtra and Karnataka

• Vamsdhara : Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

• Pennaiyar : Kerala and Tamil Nadu

How many of the pairs given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• The Mahadayi or Mandovi river dispute is a long standing conflict between the states of Goa and Karnataka regarding sharing of water

• The dispute revolves around Karnataka’s proposal to divert water from its tributaries Kalsa and Bhandari to the Malprabha river basin.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Vamsdhara dispute is an important and ongoing conflict between the states of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha regarding sharing of water of the river.

• The Vamsdhara is an important east flowing river between Rushikulya and Godavari in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh respectively.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Pennaiyar is the second longest river in Tamil Nadu; it rises in the Nandi Hills and flows into the Bay of Bengal.

• The Pennaiyar River Dispute is between the states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

• Regarding it Tamil Nadu approached the supreme court in 2018 opposing Karnataka’s construction of check dams and diversion structures on the river.

• Tamil Nadu argued that the river’s flowing water is a national asset and Karnataka has no right to claim it’s water depriving the residents of Tamil Nadu.

• It is severely polluted by industrial waste as it flows through major industrial areas in Eastern suburbs of Bangalore and the industrial parts of Hosur and Chengum.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The Mahadayi or Mandovi river dispute is a long standing conflict between the states of Goa and Karnataka regarding sharing of water

• The dispute revolves around Karnataka’s proposal to divert water from its tributaries Kalsa and Bhandari to the Malprabha river basin.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Vamsdhara dispute is an important and ongoing conflict between the states of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha regarding sharing of water of the river.

• The Vamsdhara is an important east flowing river between Rushikulya and Godavari in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh respectively.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Pennaiyar is the second longest river in Tamil Nadu; it rises in the Nandi Hills and flows into the Bay of Bengal.

• The Pennaiyar River Dispute is between the states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

• Regarding it Tamil Nadu approached the supreme court in 2018 opposing Karnataka’s construction of check dams and diversion structures on the river.

• Tamil Nadu argued that the river’s flowing water is a national asset and Karnataka has no right to claim it’s water depriving the residents of Tamil Nadu.

• It is severely polluted by industrial waste as it flows through major industrial areas in Eastern suburbs of Bangalore and the industrial parts of Hosur and Chengum.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Cinnabar is the most common source for refining elemental Mercury. Cinnabar Reserves are found in areas of recent volcanic activity. Cinnabar deposits are responsible for groundwater contamination. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Cinnabar is a toxic Mercury sulphide mineral with a chemical composition of HgS and the most important ore of Mercury. It has a bright red colour for which it has been used by people for centuries for ornament purposes but due to its toxicity it’s uses have been discontinued. Cinnabar is offten found in areas of recent volcanic activity and alkaline hot springs; it is a vein filling mineral that is it formed within cracks and fracture in rocks. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Cinnabar containing Mercury can be a source of groundwater contamination and is widely prevalent in India Mercury is a heavy metal that can leach into soil and groundwater, contaminating sources of water. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Cinnabar is a toxic Mercury sulphide mineral with a chemical composition of HgS and the most important ore of Mercury. It has a bright red colour for which it has been used by people for centuries for ornament purposes but due to its toxicity it’s uses have been discontinued. Cinnabar is offten found in areas of recent volcanic activity and alkaline hot springs; it is a vein filling mineral that is it formed within cracks and fracture in rocks. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Cinnabar containing Mercury can be a source of groundwater contamination and is widely prevalent in India Mercury is a heavy metal that can leach into soil and groundwater, contaminating sources of water. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Cinnabar is the most common source for refining elemental Mercury.

• Cinnabar Reserves are found in areas of recent volcanic activity.

• Cinnabar deposits are responsible for groundwater contamination.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Cinnabar is a toxic Mercury sulphide mineral with a chemical composition of HgS and the most important ore of Mercury.

• It has a bright red colour for which it has been used by people for centuries for ornament purposes but due to its toxicity it’s uses have been discontinued.

• Cinnabar is offten found in areas of recent volcanic activity and alkaline hot springs; it is a vein filling mineral that is it formed within cracks and fracture in rocks.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Cinnabar containing Mercury can be a source of groundwater contamination and is widely prevalent in India

• Mercury is a heavy metal that can leach into soil and groundwater, contaminating sources of water.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• Cinnabar is a toxic Mercury sulphide mineral with a chemical composition of HgS and the most important ore of Mercury.

• It has a bright red colour for which it has been used by people for centuries for ornament purposes but due to its toxicity it’s uses have been discontinued.

• Cinnabar is offten found in areas of recent volcanic activity and alkaline hot springs; it is a vein filling mineral that is it formed within cracks and fracture in rocks.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Cinnabar containing Mercury can be a source of groundwater contamination and is widely prevalent in India

• Mercury is a heavy metal that can leach into soil and groundwater, contaminating sources of water.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following rivers of India : Pranhita Pravara Indravati Hindan Mullayar How many of the above rivers directly joins the Godavari River? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: B Godavari is the largest peninsular river that rises in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and drains into the Bay of Bengal after forming a large delta. Its tributaries run through Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It’s major tributaries are Indravati, Pranitha (fond by the confluence of Penganga, Wainanga and Wardha) and Manjra. other than these Pravara, Mula and Maner are right Bank tributaries that directly join river Godavari. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct Hindan is the left Bank tributary of River Yamuna, the main tributary of River Ganga. It originates from the Shakumbhari Devi range in Uttar Pradesh. The Kali river originating in Shivalik hills is the tributary of Hindan river. Hence option 4 is incorrect Mullayar is a tributary of the Periyar river that joins it at Mullakudy. The Mullayar originates at Kottamalai peak in the Periyar Tiger Reserve and flows West to join the Periyar. Hence option 5 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Godavari is the largest peninsular river that rises in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and drains into the Bay of Bengal after forming a large delta. Its tributaries run through Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It’s major tributaries are Indravati, Pranitha (fond by the confluence of Penganga, Wainanga and Wardha) and Manjra. other than these Pravara, Mula and Maner are right Bank tributaries that directly join river Godavari. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct Hindan is the left Bank tributary of River Yamuna, the main tributary of River Ganga. It originates from the Shakumbhari Devi range in Uttar Pradesh. The Kali river originating in Shivalik hills is the tributary of Hindan river. Hence option 4 is incorrect Mullayar is a tributary of the Periyar river that joins it at Mullakudy. The Mullayar originates at Kottamalai peak in the Periyar Tiger Reserve and flows West to join the Periyar. Hence option 5 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following rivers of India :

How many of the above rivers directly joins the Godavari River?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: B

• Godavari is the largest peninsular river that rises in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and drains into the Bay of Bengal after forming a large delta.

• Its tributaries run through Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

• It’s major tributaries are Indravati, Pranitha (fond by the confluence of Penganga, Wainanga and Wardha) and Manjra.

• other than these Pravara, Mula and Maner are right Bank tributaries that directly join river Godavari.

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Hindan is the left Bank tributary of River Yamuna, the main tributary of River Ganga.

• It originates from the Shakumbhari Devi range in Uttar Pradesh.

• The Kali river originating in Shivalik hills is the tributary of Hindan river.

Hence option 4 is incorrect

• Mullayar is a tributary of the Periyar river that joins it at Mullakudy.

• The Mullayar originates at Kottamalai peak in the Periyar Tiger Reserve and flows West to join the Periyar.

Hence option 5 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Godavari is the largest peninsular river that rises in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and drains into the Bay of Bengal after forming a large delta.

• Its tributaries run through Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

• It’s major tributaries are Indravati, Pranitha (fond by the confluence of Penganga, Wainanga and Wardha) and Manjra.

• other than these Pravara, Mula and Maner are right Bank tributaries that directly join river Godavari.

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Hindan is the left Bank tributary of River Yamuna, the main tributary of River Ganga.

• It originates from the Shakumbhari Devi range in Uttar Pradesh.

• The Kali river originating in Shivalik hills is the tributary of Hindan river.

Hence option 4 is incorrect

• Mullayar is a tributary of the Periyar river that joins it at Mullakudy.

• The Mullayar originates at Kottamalai peak in the Periyar Tiger Reserve and flows West to join the Periyar.

Hence option 5 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Black Sea is an inland water body bodered by both Russia and Ukraine. The Black Sea is separated from the Caspian Sea by the Caucasus mountains. The Bosphorus Strait and Dardenellis Strait transitional zone between Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: C The Black Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean located between Eastern Europe and Western Asia. It is an inland water body that was formed by a complex process involving tectonic activity and climate change over several millions of years. It is bordered by Ukraine to the north and Northwest, Russia and Georgia to the East, Turkey to the south and Bulgaria and Romania to the west. The Caucasus Mountains lie between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea forming a natural boundary between the two water bodies. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct The Bosphorus Strait connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara and then to the Aegean Sea through the Dardenelles Strait These two straits form a transational zone between the Mediterranean Sea and the Black Sea. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Black Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean located between Eastern Europe and Western Asia. It is an inland water body that was formed by a complex process involving tectonic activity and climate change over several millions of years. It is bordered by Ukraine to the north and Northwest, Russia and Georgia to the East, Turkey to the south and Bulgaria and Romania to the west. The Caucasus Mountains lie between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea forming a natural boundary between the two water bodies. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct The Bosphorus Strait connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara and then to the Aegean Sea through the Dardenelles Strait These two straits form a transational zone between the Mediterranean Sea and the Black Sea. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Black Sea is an inland water body bodered by both Russia and Ukraine.

• The Black Sea is separated from the Caspian Sea by the Caucasus mountains.

• The Bosphorus Strait and Dardenellis Strait transitional zone between Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: C

• The Black Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean located between Eastern Europe and Western Asia.

• It is an inland water body that was formed by a complex process involving tectonic activity and climate change over several millions of years.

• It is bordered by Ukraine to the north and Northwest, Russia and Georgia to the East, Turkey to the south and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.

• The Caucasus Mountains lie between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea forming a natural boundary between the two water bodies.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct

• The Bosphorus Strait connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara and then to the Aegean Sea through the Dardenelles Strait

• These two straits form a transational zone between the Mediterranean Sea and the Black Sea.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• The Black Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean located between Eastern Europe and Western Asia.

• It is an inland water body that was formed by a complex process involving tectonic activity and climate change over several millions of years.

• It is bordered by Ukraine to the north and Northwest, Russia and Georgia to the East, Turkey to the south and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.

• The Caucasus Mountains lie between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea forming a natural boundary between the two water bodies.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct

• The Bosphorus Strait connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara and then to the Aegean Sea through the Dardenelles Strait

• These two straits form a transational zone between the Mediterranean Sea and the Black Sea.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following mountain ranges: Vosges Mountain Sierra Nevada Sulaiman Mountains How many of the above are considered as ‘Block Mountains’? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B Block mountains also known as fault block mountains are formed by vertical displacement of large blocks of Earth’s crust along faults; these Mountains are characterized by steep sides and often have Horst and Graben structure. Vosges Mountains are block mountains located in France. These are part of the larger Rhine Graben system which includes the Rhine valley and the Palatinate forest in Germany. Sierra Nevada is a mountain range in western United States between the central Valley of California and the great basin; majority of the range lies in California. It is a fault-block mountain formed by the uplift and tilting of large blocks of Earth’s crust along fault lines. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct Sulaiman Mountains are north- south extension of the southern Hindu Kush mountain system in Eastern Afghanistan and western Pakistan. These are not considered block mountain They do have some features resembling block mountains but they are primarily fold and thrust belt formed by collision of the Indian and The Eurasian techtonic plates. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B Block mountains also known as fault block mountains are formed by vertical displacement of large blocks of Earth’s crust along faults; these Mountains are characterized by steep sides and often have Horst and Graben structure. Vosges Mountains are block mountains located in France. These are part of the larger Rhine Graben system which includes the Rhine valley and the Palatinate forest in Germany. Sierra Nevada is a mountain range in western United States between the central Valley of California and the great basin; majority of the range lies in California. It is a fault-block mountain formed by the uplift and tilting of large blocks of Earth’s crust along fault lines. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct Sulaiman Mountains are north- south extension of the southern Hindu Kush mountain system in Eastern Afghanistan and western Pakistan. These are not considered block mountain They do have some features resembling block mountains but they are primarily fold and thrust belt formed by collision of the Indian and The Eurasian techtonic plates. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following mountain ranges:

• Vosges Mountain

• Sierra Nevada

• Sulaiman Mountains

How many of the above are considered as ‘Block Mountains’?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

Block mountains also known as fault block mountains are formed by vertical displacement of large blocks of Earth’s crust along faults; these Mountains are characterized by steep sides and often have Horst and Graben structure.

• Vosges Mountains are block mountains located in France. These are part of the larger Rhine Graben system which includes the Rhine valley and the Palatinate forest in Germany.

• Sierra Nevada is a mountain range in western United States between the central Valley of California and the great basin; majority of the range lies in California. It is a fault-block mountain formed by the uplift and tilting of large blocks of Earth’s crust along fault lines.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

• Sulaiman Mountains are north- south extension of the southern Hindu Kush mountain system in Eastern Afghanistan and western Pakistan.

• These are not considered block mountain

• They do have some features resembling block mountains but they are primarily fold and thrust belt formed by collision of the Indian and The Eurasian techtonic plates.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution : B

• Vosges Mountains are block mountains located in France. These are part of the larger Rhine Graben system which includes the Rhine valley and the Palatinate forest in Germany.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

• Sulaiman Mountains are north- south extension of the southern Hindu Kush mountain system in Eastern Afghanistan and western Pakistan.

• These are not considered block mountain

• They do have some features resembling block mountains but they are primarily fold and thrust belt formed by collision of the Indian and The Eurasian techtonic plates.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Physical feature : Description Drumlin: Winding ridges of sand and gravel deposited by glacial melt water. Playas : Dry Lake bed in arid regions Stalactites: Calcium carbonate formations that grows upwards from cave floor Which of the pairs given above is/ are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only Correct Solution : A Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge like feature composed mainly of glacial till with some masses of gravel and sand. The long axes of the drumlins are parallel to the direction of ice movement. Stalactites are geological formations that hang from the ceiling of a cave or from ceiling of other structures like bridges or mines; these are icicle shaped structures formed by precipitation of minerals from water dripping through the ceiling. On the other hand, Stalagmite is a geological formation that grows upwards from the floor of a cave due to accumulation of mineral deposits from dipping water; these are typically composed of calcium carbonate. Hence options 1 and 3 are incorrect Playas are flat dry Lake bed found in arid or semi arid regions often within a desert basin It is a low lying nearly level area that periodically collects water forming a shallow temporary lake; as the water evaporates, it leaves behind a surface reach in salt, silt and clay. Hence pair 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : A Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge like feature composed mainly of glacial till with some masses of gravel and sand. The long axes of the drumlins are parallel to the direction of ice movement. Stalactites are geological formations that hang from the ceiling of a cave or from ceiling of other structures like bridges or mines; these are icicle shaped structures formed by precipitation of minerals from water dripping through the ceiling. On the other hand, Stalagmite is a geological formation that grows upwards from the floor of a cave due to accumulation of mineral deposits from dipping water; these are typically composed of calcium carbonate. Hence options 1 and 3 are incorrect Playas are flat dry Lake bed found in arid or semi arid regions often within a desert basin It is a low lying nearly level area that periodically collects water forming a shallow temporary lake; as the water evaporates, it leaves behind a surface reach in salt, silt and clay. Hence pair 2 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Physical feature : Description

• Drumlin: Winding ridges of sand and gravel deposited by glacial melt water.

• Playas : Dry Lake bed in arid regions

• Stalactites: Calcium carbonate formations that grows upwards from cave floor

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1 only

Solution : A

• Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge like feature composed mainly of glacial till with some masses of gravel and sand. The long axes of the drumlins are parallel to the direction of ice movement.

• Stalactites are geological formations that hang from the ceiling of a cave or from ceiling of other structures like bridges or mines; these are icicle shaped structures formed by precipitation of minerals from water dripping through the ceiling.

• On the other hand, Stalagmite is a geological formation that grows upwards from the floor of a cave due to accumulation of mineral deposits from dipping water; these are typically composed of calcium carbonate.

Hence options 1 and 3 are incorrect

• Playas are flat dry Lake bed found in arid or semi arid regions often within a desert basin

• It is a low lying nearly level area that periodically collects water forming a shallow temporary lake; as the water evaporates, it leaves behind a surface reach in salt, silt and clay.

Hence pair 2 is correct

Solution : A

Hence options 1 and 3 are incorrect

• Playas are flat dry Lake bed found in arid or semi arid regions often within a desert basin

• It is a low lying nearly level area that periodically collects water forming a shallow temporary lake; as the water evaporates, it leaves behind a surface reach in salt, silt and clay.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Balaghat Range, that originates in the Western Ghats at Harishchandra Range, extends to the border between Maharashtra and Karnataka. Kaimur Range is the eastward extension of the Satpura Range, that extends from Uttar Pradesh to Bihar. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Balaghat Range is located in Maharashtra and runs southeast ward from the Western Ghat at the Harishchandra Range to the border of Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Range separates Godavari river basin in the north from Bhima river basin in the south. The Bhima is a major river in western India that flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana and finally joins river Krishna. Hence statement 1 is correct Kaimur Range is the Eastern portion of the Vindhya range that extends from Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh to Rohtas district of Bihar. The most important physiographic feature in Eastern Madhya Pradesh is the great Kaimur escarpment which forms watershed or divide for two major rivers of the Peninsular India -the Tamsa in the north and the Son on the south; both of these rivers are tributaries of river Ganga. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Balaghat Range is located in Maharashtra and runs southeast ward from the Western Ghat at the Harishchandra Range to the border of Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Range separates Godavari river basin in the north from Bhima river basin in the south. The Bhima is a major river in western India that flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana and finally joins river Krishna. Hence statement 1 is correct Kaimur Range is the Eastern portion of the Vindhya range that extends from Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh to Rohtas district of Bihar. The most important physiographic feature in Eastern Madhya Pradesh is the great Kaimur escarpment which forms watershed or divide for two major rivers of the Peninsular India -the Tamsa in the north and the Son on the south; both of these rivers are tributaries of river Ganga. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Balaghat Range, that originates in the Western Ghats at Harishchandra Range, extends to the border between Maharashtra and Karnataka.

• Kaimur Range is the eastward extension of the Satpura Range, that extends from Uttar Pradesh to Bihar.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Balaghat Range is located in Maharashtra and runs southeast ward from the Western Ghat at the Harishchandra Range to the border of Maharashtra and Karnataka.

• The Range separates Godavari river basin in the north from Bhima river basin in the south.

• The Bhima is a major river in western India that flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana and finally joins river Krishna.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Kaimur Range is the Eastern portion of the Vindhya range that extends from Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh to Rohtas district of Bihar.

• The most important physiographic feature in Eastern Madhya Pradesh is the great Kaimur escarpment which forms watershed or divide for two major rivers of the Peninsular India -the Tamsa in the north and the Son on the south; both of these rivers are tributaries of river Ganga.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Balaghat Range is located in Maharashtra and runs southeast ward from the Western Ghat at the Harishchandra Range to the border of Maharashtra and Karnataka.

• The Range separates Godavari river basin in the north from Bhima river basin in the south.

• The Bhima is a major river in western India that flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana and finally joins river Krishna.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Kaimur Range is the Eastern portion of the Vindhya range that extends from Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh to Rohtas district of Bihar.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Makhana, primarily cultivated in Bihar, is considered a climate-resilient superfood due to its high nutritional and medicinal value. Statement II: Makhana is grown in well-drained upland soils with low water retention capacity. Statement III: The crop is mainly cultivated in perennial stagnant water bodies like ponds and oxbow lakes, especially in the Mithila region of Bihar. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct Correct Solution: C Makhana, also known as foxnut, is considered a climate-resilient superfood because of its rich nutritional profile—high in proteins, fiber, and essential minerals like magnesium and potassium. It is also known for its antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties, which contribute to its increasing recognition in global health circles. Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect. Makhana is not grown in well-drained upland soils. It requires stagnant perennial water bodies with significant water depth (about 4–6 feet). It thrives in swamps, ditches, ponds, and oxbow lakes, which offer the ideal submerged conditions for its cultivation. Statement III is correct and it explains Statement I—as the cultivation in Mithila’s stagnant water ecosystems allows for year-round, resilient production despite changing rainfall patterns, justifying its label as a climate-resilient crop. Hence, only one of the statements (Statement III) is correct and explains Statement I. Incorrect Solution: C Makhana, also known as foxnut, is considered a climate-resilient superfood because of its rich nutritional profile—high in proteins, fiber, and essential minerals like magnesium and potassium. It is also known for its antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties, which contribute to its increasing recognition in global health circles. Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect. Makhana is not grown in well-drained upland soils. It requires stagnant perennial water bodies with significant water depth (about 4–6 feet). It thrives in swamps, ditches, ponds, and oxbow lakes, which offer the ideal submerged conditions for its cultivation. Statement III is correct and it explains Statement I—as the cultivation in Mithila’s stagnant water ecosystems allows for year-round, resilient production despite changing rainfall patterns, justifying its label as a climate-resilient crop. Hence, only one of the statements (Statement III) is correct and explains Statement I.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Makhana, primarily cultivated in Bihar, is considered a climate-resilient superfood due to its high nutritional and medicinal value. Statement II: Makhana is grown in well-drained upland soils with low water retention capacity. Statement III: The crop is mainly cultivated in perennial stagnant water bodies like ponds and oxbow lakes, especially in the Mithila region of Bihar.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I

• (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

Solution: C

Makhana, also known as foxnut, is considered a climate-resilient superfood because of its rich nutritional profile—high in proteins, fiber, and essential minerals like magnesium and potassium. It is also known for its antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties, which contribute to its increasing recognition in global health circles. Statement I is correct.

Statement II is incorrect. Makhana is not grown in well-drained upland soils. It requires stagnant perennial water bodies with significant water depth (about 4–6 feet). It thrives in swamps, ditches, ponds, and oxbow lakes, which offer the ideal submerged conditions for its cultivation.

Statement III is correct and it explains Statement I—as the cultivation in Mithila’s stagnant water ecosystems allows for year-round, resilient production despite changing rainfall patterns, justifying its label as a climate-resilient crop.

Hence, only one of the statements (Statement III) is correct and explains Statement I.

Solution: C

Hence, only one of the statements (Statement III) is correct and explains Statement I.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to India’s Integrated Counter-UAS (Unmanned Aerial Systems) Grid, consider the following statements: It combines radar-based surveillance, electromagnetic jamming, and kinetic interception to neutralize drone threats. The system is designed to operate only against large drones and cruise missiles flying at mid-to-high altitudes. Its effectiveness is enhanced through integration with legacy systems like Pechora and Akash. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B India’s Integrated Counter-UAS (Unmanned Aerial Systems) Grid represents a multi-layered defence architecture developed in response to the evolving threat from drones, especially low-cost, low-flying, radar-evading UAVs and loitering munitions used in asymmetric warfare. Statement 1 is correct as the system uses a triad approach—radar and optical surveillance for detection, electromagnetic jamming/spoofing for disruption, and kinetic interceptors (like guns or missiles) for physical destruction. This mirrors the evolving global best practices in drone neutralization. Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to its claim, the grid is not limited to large drones or high-altitude threats. Its key innovation lies in countering small, low-altitude, highly manoeuvrable drones, which evade traditional radar systems. Statement 3 is correct. The system’s effectiveness is enhanced through interoperability with legacy missile systems like Akash and Pechora, enabling a layered response across the spectrum—from low-end drone threats to high-end missile threats. Incorrect Solution: B India’s Integrated Counter-UAS (Unmanned Aerial Systems) Grid represents a multi-layered defence architecture developed in response to the evolving threat from drones, especially low-cost, low-flying, radar-evading UAVs and loitering munitions used in asymmetric warfare. Statement 1 is correct as the system uses a triad approach—radar and optical surveillance for detection, electromagnetic jamming/spoofing for disruption, and kinetic interceptors (like guns or missiles) for physical destruction. This mirrors the evolving global best practices in drone neutralization. Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to its claim, the grid is not limited to large drones or high-altitude threats. Its key innovation lies in countering small, low-altitude, highly manoeuvrable drones, which evade traditional radar systems. Statement 3 is correct. The system’s effectiveness is enhanced through interoperability with legacy missile systems like Akash and Pechora, enabling a layered response across the spectrum—from low-end drone threats to high-end missile threats.

#### 22. Question

With reference to India’s Integrated Counter-UAS (Unmanned Aerial Systems) Grid, consider the following statements:

• It combines radar-based surveillance, electromagnetic jamming, and kinetic interception to neutralize drone threats.

• The system is designed to operate only against large drones and cruise missiles flying at mid-to-high altitudes.

• Its effectiveness is enhanced through integration with legacy systems like Pechora and Akash.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

India’s Integrated Counter-UAS (Unmanned Aerial Systems) Grid represents a multi-layered defence architecture developed in response to the evolving threat from drones, especially low-cost, low-flying, radar-evading UAVs and loitering munitions used in asymmetric warfare.

Statement 1 is correct as the system uses a triad approach—radar and optical surveillance for detection, electromagnetic jamming/spoofing for disruption, and kinetic interceptors (like guns or missiles) for physical destruction. This mirrors the evolving global best practices in drone neutralization.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to its claim, the grid is not limited to large drones or high-altitude threats. Its key innovation lies in countering small, low-altitude, highly manoeuvrable drones, which evade traditional radar systems.

Statement 3 is correct. The system’s effectiveness is enhanced through interoperability with legacy missile systems like Akash and Pechora, enabling a layered response across the spectrum—from low-end drone threats to high-end missile threats.

Solution: B

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following factors: Increased household savings flowing into equity markets Rising participation of retail investors in financial assets Rising NPAs in the banking system Policy incentives favouring market-led instruments over real assets How many of the above are factors contributing to financialisation of the economy? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) All four (d) Only one Correct Solution: B The Economic Survey 2025 defines financialisation as the growing influence of financial markets, motives, and institutions on the broader economy. It particularly cautions against excessive financialisation, which can distort economic fundamentals by increasing inequality, debt levels, and dependence on asset prices. Statement 1 is correct: More households are shifting savings from traditional assets like gold or real estate into stock markets and mutual funds, marking deeper financial penetration. Statement 2 is correct: There has been a surge in retail investor participation, aided by mobile apps, low-cost brokerages, and awareness campaigns. Statement 3 is incorrect: While rising Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) are a concern for banking stability, they do not directly drive financialisation. Statement 4 is correct: Regulatory and fiscal incentives promoting financial instruments over real assets like land or physical gold further accelerate financialisation. Hence, three of the four statements are valid contributors to financialisation. Incorrect Solution: B The Economic Survey 2025 defines financialisation as the growing influence of financial markets, motives, and institutions on the broader economy. It particularly cautions against excessive financialisation, which can distort economic fundamentals by increasing inequality, debt levels, and dependence on asset prices. Statement 1 is correct: More households are shifting savings from traditional assets like gold or real estate into stock markets and mutual funds, marking deeper financial penetration. Statement 2 is correct: There has been a surge in retail investor participation, aided by mobile apps, low-cost brokerages, and awareness campaigns. Statement 3 is incorrect: While rising Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) are a concern for banking stability, they do not directly drive financialisation. Statement 4 is correct: Regulatory and fiscal incentives promoting financial instruments over real assets like land or physical gold further accelerate financialisation. Hence, three of the four statements are valid contributors to financialisation.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following factors:

• Increased household savings flowing into equity markets

• Rising participation of retail investors in financial assets

• Rising NPAs in the banking system

• Policy incentives favouring market-led instruments over real assets

How many of the above are factors contributing to financialisation of the economy?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) All four

• (d) Only one

Solution: B The Economic Survey 2025 defines financialisation as the growing influence of financial markets, motives, and institutions on the broader economy. It particularly cautions against excessive financialisation, which can distort economic fundamentals by increasing inequality, debt levels, and dependence on asset prices.

• Statement 1 is correct: More households are shifting savings from traditional assets like gold or real estate into stock markets and mutual funds, marking deeper financial penetration.

• Statement 2 is correct: There has been a surge in retail investor participation, aided by mobile apps, low-cost brokerages, and awareness campaigns.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: While rising Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) are a concern for banking stability, they do not directly drive financialisation.

• Statement 4 is correct: Regulatory and fiscal incentives promoting financial instruments over real assets like land or physical gold further accelerate financialisation.

Hence, three of the four statements are valid contributors to financialisation.

• Statement 1 is correct: More households are shifting savings from traditional assets like gold or real estate into stock markets and mutual funds, marking deeper financial penetration.

• Statement 2 is correct: There has been a surge in retail investor participation, aided by mobile apps, low-cost brokerages, and awareness campaigns.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: While rising Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) are a concern for banking stability, they do not directly drive financialisation.

• Statement 4 is correct: Regulatory and fiscal incentives promoting financial instruments over real assets like land or physical gold further accelerate financialisation.

Hence, three of the four statements are valid contributors to financialisation.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points The term “Greenhushing,” often used in corporate environmental discourse, refers to: (a) Falsely promoting green achievements to mislead consumers (b) Downplaying or deliberately withholding information about sustainability efforts (c) Accusing competitors of poor environmental performance (d) Delaying climate action commitments pending international treaties Correct Solution: B Greenhushing is a relatively new term in environmental governance and corporate sustainability communication. It refers to the strategic underreporting or complete withholding of environmental goals and achievements by corporations. Unlike greenwashing, where companies overstate or fabricate green credentials to improve their image, greenhushing is more subtle. Here, firms choose silence—they don’t promote or even disclose their legitimate sustainability progress or climate targets, often to avoid public scrutiny, regulatory liabilities, or greenwashing accusations. This tactic may be driven by a fear of not meeting publicly declared goals, legal implications, or criticism from environmental activists and investors. While it avoids misleading the public, greenhushing undermines transparency, hinders peer learning, and disrupts stakeholder trust in corporate environmental reporting. Thus, option (b) is correct. In contrast, greenwashing involves misleading information, and greenwishing refers to aspirational but non-substantive claims, not deliberate silence. Incorrect Solution: B Greenhushing is a relatively new term in environmental governance and corporate sustainability communication. It refers to the strategic underreporting or complete withholding of environmental goals and achievements by corporations. Unlike greenwashing, where companies overstate or fabricate green credentials to improve their image, greenhushing is more subtle. Here, firms choose silence—they don’t promote or even disclose their legitimate sustainability progress or climate targets, often to avoid public scrutiny, regulatory liabilities, or greenwashing accusations. This tactic may be driven by a fear of not meeting publicly declared goals, legal implications, or criticism from environmental activists and investors. While it avoids misleading the public, greenhushing undermines transparency, hinders peer learning, and disrupts stakeholder trust in corporate environmental reporting. Thus, option (b) is correct. In contrast, greenwashing involves misleading information, and greenwishing refers to aspirational but non-substantive claims, not deliberate silence.

#### 24. Question

The term “Greenhushing,” often used in corporate environmental discourse, refers to:

• (a) Falsely promoting green achievements to mislead consumers

• (b) Downplaying or deliberately withholding information about sustainability efforts

• (c) Accusing competitors of poor environmental performance

• (d) Delaying climate action commitments pending international treaties

Solution: B Greenhushing is a relatively new term in environmental governance and corporate sustainability communication. It refers to the strategic underreporting or complete withholding of environmental goals and achievements by corporations. Unlike greenwashing, where companies overstate or fabricate green credentials to improve their image, greenhushing is more subtle. Here, firms choose silence—they don’t promote or even disclose their legitimate sustainability progress or climate targets, often to avoid public scrutiny, regulatory liabilities, or greenwashing accusations.

This tactic may be driven by a fear of not meeting publicly declared goals, legal implications, or criticism from environmental activists and investors. While it avoids misleading the public, greenhushing undermines transparency, hinders peer learning, and disrupts stakeholder trust in corporate environmental reporting.

Thus, option (b) is correct. In contrast, greenwashing involves misleading information, and greenwishing refers to aspirational but non-substantive claims, not deliberate silence.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the CPCB’s industrial colour categorization: The classification is based on Pollution Index (PI), with Red Category industries having PI less than 40. White Category industries are considered nearly non-polluting and require no Consent to Establish or Operate. The Blue Category was introduced as part of the 2016 recategorization guidelines under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Both CPCB and SPCBs have the power to categorize industries under colour-based pollution norms. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: Red Category industries have a Pollution Index (PI) of 60–100, not below 40. Industries with PI between 0–20 are White, while PI between 21–40 and 41–59 are Green and Orange, respectively. Statement 2 is correct: The White Category comprises industries with negligible pollution, such as chalk manufacturing or solar panel assembly. These industries do not require Consent to Establish (CTE) or Operate (CTO) under pollution control laws. Statement 3 is correct: The Blue Category is a recent extension under the 2016 recategorization framework, governed by the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It seeks to fill a regulatory space between Green and White, especially for Essential Environmental Services like STPs and biogas plants. Statement 4 is correct: Both the CPCB and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) are empowered to classify and monitor industries based on pollution levels, under provisions of the EP Act, 1986. Hence, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct, making the answer (c) Only three. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: Red Category industries have a Pollution Index (PI) of 60–100, not below 40. Industries with PI between 0–20 are White, while PI between 21–40 and 41–59 are Green and Orange, respectively. Statement 2 is correct: The White Category comprises industries with negligible pollution, such as chalk manufacturing or solar panel assembly. These industries do not require Consent to Establish (CTE) or Operate (CTO) under pollution control laws. Statement 3 is correct: The Blue Category is a recent extension under the 2016 recategorization framework, governed by the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It seeks to fill a regulatory space between Green and White, especially for Essential Environmental Services like STPs and biogas plants. Statement 4 is correct: Both the CPCB and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) are empowered to classify and monitor industries based on pollution levels, under provisions of the EP Act, 1986. Hence, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct, making the answer (c) Only three.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the CPCB’s industrial colour categorization:

• The classification is based on Pollution Index (PI), with Red Category industries having PI less than 40.

• White Category industries are considered nearly non-polluting and require no Consent to Establish or Operate.

• The Blue Category was introduced as part of the 2016 recategorization guidelines under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• Both CPCB and SPCBs have the power to categorize industries under colour-based pollution norms.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Red Category industries have a Pollution Index (PI) of 60–100, not below 40. Industries with PI between 0–20 are White, while PI between 21–40 and 41–59 are Green and Orange, respectively.

• Statement 2 is correct: The White Category comprises industries with negligible pollution, such as chalk manufacturing or solar panel assembly. These industries do not require Consent to Establish (CTE) or Operate (CTO) under pollution control laws.

• Statement 3 is correct: The Blue Category is a recent extension under the 2016 recategorization framework, governed by the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It seeks to fill a regulatory space between Green and White, especially for Essential Environmental Services like STPs and biogas plants.

• Statement 4 is correct: Both the CPCB and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) are empowered to classify and monitor industries based on pollution levels, under provisions of the EP Act, 1986.

Hence, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct, making the answer (c) Only three.

Solution: C

Hence, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct, making the answer (c) Only three.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Modern economic discourse often glorifies consumption as the engine of growth, equating increased consumer spending with prosperity. However, this belief masks a fallacy: the assumption that more consumption always leads to better economic outcomes. This fallacy, rooted in a misreading of Keynesian prescriptions, ignores the qualitative and long-term implications of unchecked consumption. When consumption becomes a cultural norm rather than a functional necessity, it detaches from productive investment and begins to erode capital rather than generate it. The substitution of durable production with ephemeral gratification leads to what classical economists feared—misallocation of resources, inflationary spirals, and decline in real productivity. Moreover, societies addicted to consumption often fund it through debt, both public and private, creating artificial demand that must eventually reconcile with supply-side realities. In such cases, the apparent prosperity is but a borrowing from the future, not a creation of present wealth. Thus, the fallacy lies in assuming that consumption is synonymous with wealth creation, rather than a derivative of it. Consider the following statements regarding the message of the passage: Overemphasis on consumerism can distort long-term economic stability and productive investment. High levels of consumption necessarily translate to increased real wealth in an economy. The passage argues that sustained consumption without investment may create artificial growth. The passage equates Keynesian economics directly with the modern consumerism model. Which of the above statements best reflect the core arguments made in the passage? a. 1 and 3 only b. 2 and 4 only b. 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, and 3 only. Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Statement 1 is correct as the passage argues that when consumption becomes detached from production and investment, it erodes capital, causes misallocation of resources, and declines real productivity—clearly showing distortion of long-term stability and investment. Statement 2 is incorrect as the passage explicitly calls this a fallacy. It says that this belief masks the reality and is often the result of debt-driven artificial demand, not actual wealth creation. Statement 3 is correct as the text says consumption funded through debt creates apparent prosperity which is borrowing from the future, not true wealth creation—hence artificial growth. Statement 4 is incorrect because the passage actually says this belief is rooted in a misreading of Keynesian prescriptions—meaning it criticizes the misinterpretation of Keynes, not Keynes himself. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Statement 1 is correct as the passage argues that when consumption becomes detached from production and investment, it erodes capital, causes misallocation of resources, and declines real productivity—clearly showing distortion of long-term stability and investment. Statement 2 is incorrect as the passage explicitly calls this a fallacy. It says that this belief masks the reality and is often the result of debt-driven artificial demand, not actual wealth creation. Statement 3 is correct as the text says consumption funded through debt creates apparent prosperity which is borrowing from the future, not true wealth creation—hence artificial growth. Statement 4 is incorrect because the passage actually says this belief is rooted in a misreading of Keynesian prescriptions—meaning it criticizes the misinterpretation of Keynes, not Keynes himself.

#### 26. Question

Modern economic discourse often glorifies consumption as the engine of growth, equating increased consumer spending with prosperity. However, this belief masks a fallacy: the assumption that more consumption always leads to better economic outcomes. This fallacy, rooted in a misreading of Keynesian prescriptions, ignores the qualitative and long-term implications of unchecked consumption. When consumption becomes a cultural norm rather than a functional necessity, it detaches from productive investment and begins to erode capital rather than generate it. The substitution of durable production with ephemeral gratification leads to what classical economists feared—misallocation of resources, inflationary spirals, and decline in real productivity. Moreover, societies addicted to consumption often fund it through debt, both public and private, creating artificial demand that must eventually reconcile with supply-side realities. In such cases, the apparent prosperity is but a borrowing from the future, not a creation of present wealth. Thus, the fallacy lies in assuming that consumption is synonymous with wealth creation, rather than a derivative of it.

Consider the following statements regarding the message of the passage:

• Overemphasis on consumerism can distort long-term economic stability and productive investment.

• High levels of consumption necessarily translate to increased real wealth in an economy.

• The passage argues that sustained consumption without investment may create artificial growth.

• The passage equates Keynesian economics directly with the modern consumerism model.

Which of the above statements best reflect the core arguments made in the passage?

• a. 1 and 3 only

• b. 2 and 4 only

• d. 1, 2, and 3 only.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Statement 1 is correct as the passage argues that when consumption becomes detached from production and investment, it erodes capital, causes misallocation of resources, and declines real productivity—clearly showing distortion of long-term stability and investment. Statement 2 is incorrect as the passage explicitly calls this a fallacy. It says that this belief masks the reality and is often the result of debt-driven artificial demand, not actual wealth creation.

Statement 3 is correct as the text says consumption funded through debt creates apparent prosperity which is borrowing from the future, not true wealth creation—hence artificial growth.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the passage actually says this belief is rooted in a misreading of Keynesian prescriptions—meaning it criticizes the misinterpretation of Keynes, not Keynes himself.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Statement 3 is correct as the text says consumption funded through debt creates apparent prosperity which is borrowing from the future, not true wealth creation—hence artificial growth.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Some of the letters are missing in the following letter series which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative. a b _ _ b a a _ _ a b _ a) a a a a a b) a a b a a c) a a b a b d) b a a b b Correct Solution : B Justification : Explanation: The best way to solve is to substitute the alternatives and check. If (a) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaaaaaba: No pattern can be found. If (b) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaabaaba: the pattern is aba aba aba aba If (c) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaabaabb: No pattern can be found. If (d) is substituted, then the letter series is abbabaaababb: No pattern can be found. Incorrect Solution : B Justification : Explanation: The best way to solve is to substitute the alternatives and check. If (a) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaaaaaba: No pattern can be found. If (b) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaabaaba: the pattern is aba aba aba aba If (c) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaabaabb: No pattern can be found. If (d) is substituted, then the letter series is abbabaaababb: No pattern can be found.

#### 27. Question

Some of the letters are missing in the following letter series which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.

a b _ _ b a a _ _ a b _

• a) a a a a a

• b) a a b a a

• c) a a b a b

• d) b a a b b

Solution : B

Justification :

Explanation:

The best way to solve is to substitute the alternatives and check.

If (a) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaaaaaba: No pattern can be found.

If (b) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaabaaba: the pattern is aba aba aba aba

If (c) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaabaabb: No pattern can be found.

If (d) is substituted, then the letter series is abbabaaababb: No pattern can be found.

Solution : B

Justification :

Explanation:

The best way to solve is to substitute the alternatives and check.

If (a) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaaaaaba: No pattern can be found.

If (b) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaabaaba: the pattern is aba aba aba aba

If (c) is substituted, then the letter series is abaabaabaabb: No pattern can be found.

If (d) is substituted, then the letter series is abbabaaababb: No pattern can be found.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points In a garden, two concentric circular ponds are constructed. The bigger pond has a diameter of 50 meters, and the smaller pond has a radius of 15 meters. What is the area of the ring-shaped region between the ponds? a. 325π b. 400π c. 275π c. 275π Correct Solution : B Justification : Radius of larger pond = 50/2 = 25 m Radius of smaller pond = 15 m Area of ring-shaped region = π(25² – 15²) = π (625 – 225) = 400π square meters. Answer A) 24.64 Explanation Let the length of the rectangle=x Radius of the sphere=125x/100=5x/4 422/7(5x/4)(5x/4)=22x X=28/25 Radius=5/428/25=7/5 CSA of sphere=422/77/57/5=24.64 Incorrect Solution : B Justification : Radius of larger pond = 50/2 = 25 m Radius of smaller pond = 15 m Area of ring-shaped region = π(25² – 15²) = π (625 – 225) = 400π* square meters.

#### 28. Question

In a garden, two concentric circular ponds are constructed. The bigger pond has a diameter of 50 meters, and the smaller pond has a radius of 15 meters. What is the area of the ring-shaped region between the ponds?

Solution : B

Justification :

• Radius of larger pond = 50/2 = 25 m

• Radius of smaller pond = 15 m

• Area of ring-shaped region = π(25² – 15²) = π (625 – 225) = 400π square meters.

Answer A) 24.64

Explanation

Let the length of the rectangle=x

Radius of the sphere=125x/100=5x/4

422/7(5x/4)(5x/4)=22*x

Radius=5/4*28/25=7/5

CSA of sphere=422/77/5*7/5=24.64

Solution : B

Justification :

• Radius of larger pond = 50/2 = 25 m

• Radius of smaller pond = 15 m

• Area of ring-shaped region = π(25² – 15²) = π (625 – 225) = 400π square meters.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Total surface area (in cm2) of a cube is 75% of volume (in cm3) of that cube. Find the total surface area of the cube? a. 390 cm2 b. 384 cm2 c. 375 cm2 d. 387 cm2 Correct Solution : B Justification : Let side of the cube = ‘a’ cm So, total surface area of the cube = 6a2 cm2 And volume of the cube = a3 cm3 From the question: 6a2 = a3 (75/100) 6a2 = 3a3/4 a = 8 cm So, total surface area of the cube = 6 8 8 = 384 cm2 Incorrect Solution : B Justification : Let side of the cube = ‘a’ cm So, total surface area of the cube = 6a2 cm2 And volume of the cube = a3 cm3 From the question: 6a2 = a3 (75/100) 6a2 = 3a3/4 a = 8 cm So, total surface area of the cube = 6 8 8 = 384 cm2

#### 29. Question

Total surface area (in cm2) of a cube is 75% of volume (in cm3) of that cube. Find the total surface area of the cube?

• a. 390 cm2

• b. 384 cm2

• c. 375 cm2

• d. 387 cm2

Solution : B

Justification :

Let side of the cube = ‘a’ cm

So, total surface area of the cube = 6a2 cm2

And volume of the cube = a3 cm3

From the question:

6a2 = a3 * (75/100)

6a2 = 3a3/4

So, total surface area of the cube = 6 8 8 = 384 cm2

Solution : B

Justification :

Let side of the cube = ‘a’ cm

So, total surface area of the cube = 6a2 cm2

And volume of the cube = a3 cm3

From the question:

6a2 = a3 * (75/100)

6a2 = 3a3/4

So, total surface area of the cube = 6 8 8 = 384 cm2

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In the following charts, the first pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of total students studying in different schools and the second pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of total girl students studying in these schools. Total number of students in all the schools together is 30000 and the ratio of boys to girls is 3:2. Chart I: Chart II Total number of boys in School F is approximately what percentage more than the total number of boys in School D? a. 21.4% b. 25.8% c. 27.5% d. 32% Correct Solution : B Justification : The number of boys in School F = (30000 0.24) – (12000 0.21) = 4680 The number of boys in School D = (30000 0.18) – (12000 0.14) = 3720. Thus, required percent = ((4680 – 3720 )/3720) 100 = 25.8 %. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution : B Justification : The number of boys in School F = (30000 0.24) – (12000 0.21) = 4680 The number of boys in School D = (30000 0.18) – (12000 0.14) = 3720. Thus, required percent = ((4680 – 3720 )/3720) 100 = 25.8 %. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 30. Question

In the following charts, the first pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of total students studying in different schools and the second pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of total girl students studying in these schools. Total number of students in all the schools together is 30000 and the ratio of boys to girls is 3:2.

Chart I: Chart II

Total number of boys in School F is approximately what percentage more than the total number of boys in School D?

Solution : B

Justification :

The number of boys in School F = (30000 0.24) – (12000 0.21) = 4680

The number of boys in School D = (30000 0.18) – (12000 0.14) = 3720.

Thus, required percent = ((4680 – 3720 )/3720) * 100 = 25.8 %.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution : B

Justification :

The number of boys in School F = (30000 0.24) – (12000 0.21) = 4680

The number of boys in School D = (30000 0.18) – (12000 0.14) = 3720.

Thus, required percent = ((4680 – 3720 )/3720) * 100 = 25.8 %.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

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