DAY – 67 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – MODERN INDIA , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2015 and Mar 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are direct causes of Exfoliation? Chemical reactions Thermal contraction and expansion Biological activity Gravitational force How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: Exfoliation is a weathering process where layers or sheets of rock peel off from the main rock body, often resulting in rounded rock forms and smooth surfaces. This process can be attributed to a combination of factors, primarily physical in nature. Let’s evaluate each factor listed in the question: Chemical reactions involve processes such as oxidation, hydrolysis, and carbonation, which lead to the decomposition and alteration of minerals within rocks. While chemical weathering can weaken rocks and make them more susceptible to physical weathering, it is not a direct cause of exfoliation. Thermal Contraction and Expansion: Rocks expand when heated and contract when cooled. This repeated expansion and contraction can create stress within the rock. In regions with significant temperature fluctuations, this stress causes the outer layers of the rock to detach and flake off in thin, curved sheets. Thermal contraction and expansion are key drivers of exfoliation, particularly in environments with high diurnal temperature ranges (e.g., deserts). Biological weathering involves the physical and chemical actions of organisms, such as root growth, burrowing, and the production of organic acids. While biological activity can contribute to the breakdown and weakening of rocks, it does not typically lead to the characteristic sheet-like peeling seen in exfoliation. Thus, biological activity is not a direct cause of exfoliation. Gravitational force contributes to physical weathering through processes such as unloading and pressure release. When overlying materials (like soil or other rock layers) are removed, the reduction in pressure can cause the underlying rock to expand and fracture parallel to the surface. This process, known as unloading, can lead to exfoliation as the rock adjusts to the decreased pressure and the outer layers peel away. Therefore, gravitational force indirectly contributes to exfoliation through stress release mechanisms. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Exfoliation is a weathering process where layers or sheets of rock peel off from the main rock body, often resulting in rounded rock forms and smooth surfaces. This process can be attributed to a combination of factors, primarily physical in nature. Let’s evaluate each factor listed in the question: Chemical reactions involve processes such as oxidation, hydrolysis, and carbonation, which lead to the decomposition and alteration of minerals within rocks. While chemical weathering can weaken rocks and make them more susceptible to physical weathering, it is not a direct cause of exfoliation. Thermal Contraction and Expansion: Rocks expand when heated and contract when cooled. This repeated expansion and contraction can create stress within the rock. In regions with significant temperature fluctuations, this stress causes the outer layers of the rock to detach and flake off in thin, curved sheets. Thermal contraction and expansion are key drivers of exfoliation, particularly in environments with high diurnal temperature ranges (e.g., deserts). Biological weathering involves the physical and chemical actions of organisms, such as root growth, burrowing, and the production of organic acids. While biological activity can contribute to the breakdown and weakening of rocks, it does not typically lead to the characteristic sheet-like peeling seen in exfoliation. Thus, biological activity is not a direct cause of exfoliation. Gravitational force contributes to physical weathering through processes such as unloading and pressure release. When overlying materials (like soil or other rock layers) are removed, the reduction in pressure can cause the underlying rock to expand and fracture parallel to the surface. This process, known as unloading, can lead to exfoliation as the rock adjusts to the decreased pressure and the outer layers peel away. Therefore, gravitational force indirectly contributes to exfoliation through stress release mechanisms. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following is/are direct causes of Exfoliation?

• Chemical reactions

• Thermal contraction and expansion

• Biological activity

• Gravitational force

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Exfoliation is a weathering process where layers or sheets of rock peel off from the main rock body, often resulting in rounded rock forms and smooth surfaces. This process can be attributed to a combination of factors, primarily physical in nature. Let’s evaluate each factor listed in the question:

• Chemical reactions involve processes such as oxidation, hydrolysis, and carbonation, which lead to the decomposition and alteration of minerals within rocks. While chemical weathering can weaken rocks and make them more susceptible to physical weathering, it is not a direct cause of exfoliation.

• Thermal Contraction and Expansion: Rocks expand when heated and contract when cooled. This repeated expansion and contraction can create stress within the rock. In regions with significant temperature fluctuations, this stress causes the outer layers of the rock to detach and flake off in thin, curved sheets. Thermal contraction and expansion are key drivers of exfoliation, particularly in environments with high diurnal temperature ranges (e.g., deserts).

• Biological weathering involves the physical and chemical actions of organisms, such as root growth, burrowing, and the production of organic acids. While biological activity can contribute to the breakdown and weakening of rocks, it does not typically lead to the characteristic sheet-like peeling seen in exfoliation. Thus, biological activity is not a direct cause of exfoliation.

• Gravitational force contributes to physical weathering through processes such as unloading and pressure release. When overlying materials (like soil or other rock layers) are removed, the reduction in pressure can cause the underlying rock to expand and fracture parallel to the surface. This process, known as unloading, can lead to exfoliation as the rock adjusts to the decreased pressure and the outer layers peel away. Therefore, gravitational force indirectly contributes to exfoliation through stress release mechanisms.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes differential weathering? a) Weathering that occurs at the same rate across all types of rocks b) Weathering due to variations in rock composition, structure, and resistance. c) Weathering processes that exclusively occur in tropical climates d) Weathering that results solely from chemical reactions. Correct Answer: b Explanation: Differential weathering refers to the process by which different types of rocks weather at different rates due to their varying compositions, structures, and resistances to weathering agent This leads to the development of diverse and often striking landforms as some rocks are worn away faster than others. This process can occur in any climate and involves all types of weathering mechanisms (chemical, physical, and biological). Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Differential weathering refers to the process by which different types of rocks weather at different rates due to their varying compositions, structures, and resistances to weathering agent This leads to the development of diverse and often striking landforms as some rocks are worn away faster than others. This process can occur in any climate and involves all types of weathering mechanisms (chemical, physical, and biological). Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following statements best describes differential weathering?

• a) Weathering that occurs at the same rate across all types of rocks

• b) Weathering due to variations in rock composition, structure, and resistance.

• c) Weathering processes that exclusively occur in tropical climates

• d) Weathering that results solely from chemical reactions.

Explanation:

• Differential weathering refers to the process by which different types of rocks weather at different rates due to their varying compositions, structures, and resistances to weathering agent This leads to the development of diverse and often striking landforms as some rocks are worn away faster than others. This process can occur in any climate and involves all types of weathering mechanisms (chemical, physical, and biological).

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points What is the correct chronological order of the eons from oldest to most recent? a) Hadean, Archean, Proterozoic, Phanerozoic b) Archean, Hadean, Proterozoic, Phanerozoic c) Hadean, Proterozoic, Archean, Phanerozoic d) Proterozoic, Hadean, Archean, Phanerozoic Correct Answer: a Explanation: Earth’s history is divided into four major eons: the Hadean, Archean, Proterozoic, and Phanerozoic. Each eon represents a significant chapter in the planet’s development, characterized by distinct geological, atmospheric, and biological changes. Hadean Eon: Time Period: Approximately 4.6 billion years ago to 4 billion years ago. Characteristics: This is the earliest eon in Earth’s history, starting from the formation of the Earth. The Earth’s surface was initially molten, and it experienced frequent collisions with other celestial bodies. There was extreme volcanism, and the atmosphere was dominated by gases from volcanic outgassing. Archean Eon: Time Period: Approximately 4 billion years ago to 2.5 billion years ago. Characteristics: This eon saw the formation of the first stable continental crusts. Life began to emerge, primarily in the form of simple, single-celled organisms like cyanobacteria. The Earth’s atmosphere still lacked oxygen. Proterozoic Eon: Time Period: Approximately 2.5 billion years ago to 541 million years ago. Characteristics: Significant for the first accumulation of oxygen in the atmosphere (Great Oxidation Event) and the emergence of more complex life forms, including eukaryotes (organisms with a nucleus). It was also marked by the formation of supercontinents and significant tectonic activity. Phanerozoic Eon: Time Period: Approximately 541 million years ago to the present. Characteristics: Known for the proliferation of complex life forms. It includes three eras: Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic. The Phanerozoic Eon began with the Cambrian Explosion, a period of rapid diversification of life forms. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Earth’s history is divided into four major eons: the Hadean, Archean, Proterozoic, and Phanerozoic. Each eon represents a significant chapter in the planet’s development, characterized by distinct geological, atmospheric, and biological changes. Hadean Eon: Time Period: Approximately 4.6 billion years ago to 4 billion years ago. Characteristics: This is the earliest eon in Earth’s history, starting from the formation of the Earth. The Earth’s surface was initially molten, and it experienced frequent collisions with other celestial bodies. There was extreme volcanism, and the atmosphere was dominated by gases from volcanic outgassing. Archean Eon: Time Period: Approximately 4 billion years ago to 2.5 billion years ago. Characteristics: This eon saw the formation of the first stable continental crusts. Life began to emerge, primarily in the form of simple, single-celled organisms like cyanobacteria. The Earth’s atmosphere still lacked oxygen. Proterozoic Eon: Time Period: Approximately 2.5 billion years ago to 541 million years ago. Characteristics: Significant for the first accumulation of oxygen in the atmosphere (Great Oxidation Event) and the emergence of more complex life forms, including eukaryotes (organisms with a nucleus). It was also marked by the formation of supercontinents and significant tectonic activity. Phanerozoic Eon: Time Period: Approximately 541 million years ago to the present. Characteristics: Known for the proliferation of complex life forms. It includes three eras: Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic. The Phanerozoic Eon began with the Cambrian Explosion, a period of rapid diversification of life forms. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 3. Question

What is the correct chronological order of the eons from oldest to most recent?

• a) Hadean, Archean, Proterozoic, Phanerozoic

• b) Archean, Hadean, Proterozoic, Phanerozoic

• c) Hadean, Proterozoic, Archean, Phanerozoic

• d) Proterozoic, Hadean, Archean, Phanerozoic

Explanation:

• Earth’s history is divided into four major eons: the Hadean, Archean, Proterozoic, and Phanerozoic. Each eon represents a significant chapter in the planet’s development, characterized by distinct geological, atmospheric, and biological changes.

• Hadean Eon:

• Time Period: Approximately 4.6 billion years ago to 4 billion years ago.

• Characteristics: This is the earliest eon in Earth’s history, starting from the formation of the Earth. The Earth’s surface was initially molten, and it experienced frequent collisions with other celestial bodies. There was extreme volcanism, and the atmosphere was dominated by gases from volcanic outgassing.

• Archean Eon:

• Time Period: Approximately 4 billion years ago to 2.5 billion years ago.

• Characteristics: This eon saw the formation of the first stable continental crusts. Life began to emerge, primarily in the form of simple, single-celled organisms like cyanobacteria. The Earth’s atmosphere still lacked oxygen.

• Proterozoic Eon:

• Time Period: Approximately 2.5 billion years ago to 541 million years ago.

• Characteristics: Significant for the first accumulation of oxygen in the atmosphere (Great Oxidation Event) and the emergence of more complex life forms, including eukaryotes (organisms with a nucleus). It was also marked by the formation of supercontinents and significant tectonic activity.

• Phanerozoic Eon:

• Time Period: Approximately 541 million years ago to the present.

• Characteristics: Known for the proliferation of complex life forms. It includes three eras: Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic. The Phanerozoic Eon began with the Cambrian Explosion, a period of rapid diversification of life forms.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hadean Eon:

• Time Period: Approximately 4.6 billion years ago to 4 billion years ago.

• Archean Eon:

• Time Period: Approximately 4 billion years ago to 2.5 billion years ago.

• Proterozoic Eon:

• Time Period: Approximately 2.5 billion years ago to 541 million years ago.

• Phanerozoic Eon:

• Time Period: Approximately 541 million years ago to the present.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to difference between glacial valleys and river valleys: Glacial valleys are V-shaped, while river valleys are U-shaped. River valleys have steep sides, while glacial valleys have gentle slopes. River valleys are wider at the bottom, while glacial valleys are wider at the top. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: Glacial valleys, also known as glacial troughs or U-shaped valleys, are characterized by wide, deep troughs with steep, straight sides and flat bottoms. These features result from the erosive action of glaciers, which carve and widen the valleys as they flow downhill. The ice erodes the valley floor and sides uniformly, resulting in a broad, U-shaped profile. River valleys, on the other hand, are typically V-shaped, with narrower, deeper channels and steep-sided slopes. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. River valleys often have steep sides, particularly near the channel, where erosion by flowing water has cut into the landscape vertically. The steepness of the sides can vary depending on factors such as the type of rock, the volume of water flow, and the gradient of the terrain. Glacial valleys, in contrast, tend to have more gently sloping sides. This is because glaciers erode the landscape through a combination of abrasion and plucking, which can create a smoother, more gradual profile compared to the steep, vertical walls of river valleys. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Glacial valleys are typically wider at the bottom due to the erosive action of the glacier, which tends to carve and widen the valley as it flows downhill. The weight and pressure of the ice exerted on the valley floor and sides contribute to this widening effect. River valleys can vary in width throughout their length, depending on factors such as the volume of water flow, the type of rock, and the gradient of the terrain. While some river valleys may indeed be wider at the bottom, this is not a universal characteristic, as the width of river valleys can be influenced by a variety of factors. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Glacial valleys, also known as glacial troughs or U-shaped valleys, are characterized by wide, deep troughs with steep, straight sides and flat bottoms. These features result from the erosive action of glaciers, which carve and widen the valleys as they flow downhill. The ice erodes the valley floor and sides uniformly, resulting in a broad, U-shaped profile. River valleys, on the other hand, are typically V-shaped, with narrower, deeper channels and steep-sided slopes. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. River valleys often have steep sides, particularly near the channel, where erosion by flowing water has cut into the landscape vertically. The steepness of the sides can vary depending on factors such as the type of rock, the volume of water flow, and the gradient of the terrain. Glacial valleys, in contrast, tend to have more gently sloping sides. This is because glaciers erode the landscape through a combination of abrasion and plucking, which can create a smoother, more gradual profile compared to the steep, vertical walls of river valleys. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Glacial valleys are typically wider at the bottom due to the erosive action of the glacier, which tends to carve and widen the valley as it flows downhill. The weight and pressure of the ice exerted on the valley floor and sides contribute to this widening effect. River valleys can vary in width throughout their length, depending on factors such as the volume of water flow, the type of rock, and the gradient of the terrain. While some river valleys may indeed be wider at the bottom, this is not a universal characteristic, as the width of river valleys can be influenced by a variety of factors. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to difference between glacial valleys and river valleys:

• Glacial valleys are V-shaped, while river valleys are U-shaped.

• River valleys have steep sides, while glacial valleys have gentle slopes.

• River valleys are wider at the bottom, while glacial valleys are wider at the top.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Glacial valleys, also known as glacial troughs or U-shaped valleys, are characterized by wide, deep troughs with steep, straight sides and flat bottoms. These features result from the erosive action of glaciers, which carve and widen the valleys as they flow downhill. The ice erodes the valley floor and sides uniformly, resulting in a broad, U-shaped profile.

• River valleys, on the other hand, are typically V-shaped, with narrower, deeper channels and steep-sided slopes. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• River valleys often have steep sides, particularly near the channel, where erosion by flowing water has cut into the landscape vertically. The steepness of the sides can vary depending on factors such as the type of rock, the volume of water flow, and the gradient of the terrain.

• Glacial valleys, in contrast, tend to have more gently sloping sides. This is because glaciers erode the landscape through a combination of abrasion and plucking, which can create a smoother, more gradual profile compared to the steep, vertical walls of river valleys. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Glacial valleys are typically wider at the bottom due to the erosive action of the glacier, which tends to carve and widen the valley as it flows downhill. The weight and pressure of the ice exerted on the valley floor and sides contribute to this widening effect.

• River valleys can vary in width throughout their length, depending on factors such as the volume of water flow, the type of rock, and the gradient of the terrain. While some river valleys may indeed be wider at the bottom, this is not a universal characteristic, as the width of river valleys can be influenced by a variety of factors. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• River valleys, on the other hand, are typically V-shaped, with narrower, deeper channels and steep-sided slopes. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points What type of erosion is primarily responsible for shaping cirques? a) Abrasion b) Plucking c) Weathering d) Corrosion Correct Answer: b Explanation: Cirques, which are bowl-shaped depressions found at the head of glacial valleys, are primarily shaped by the process of plucking. Plucking occurs when glaciers flow over bedrock, and the ice freezes onto rock fragments. As the glacier moves, it pulls these frozen rock fragments away from the valley walls, contributing to the enlargement and deepening of the cirque. While abrasion (option a) also plays a role in glacial erosion by grinding and polishing the bedrock surfaces, it is not the primary process responsible for shaping cirques. Weathering (option c) refers to the breakdown of rock materials by chemical or physical processes but is not the dominant mechanism in cirque formation. Corrosion (option d) typically refers to chemical dissolution processes, which are not as significant in shaping cirques as plucking. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Cirques, which are bowl-shaped depressions found at the head of glacial valleys, are primarily shaped by the process of plucking. Plucking occurs when glaciers flow over bedrock, and the ice freezes onto rock fragments. As the glacier moves, it pulls these frozen rock fragments away from the valley walls, contributing to the enlargement and deepening of the cirque. While abrasion (option a) also plays a role in glacial erosion by grinding and polishing the bedrock surfaces, it is not the primary process responsible for shaping cirques. Weathering (option c) refers to the breakdown of rock materials by chemical or physical processes but is not the dominant mechanism in cirque formation. Corrosion (option d) typically refers to chemical dissolution processes, which are not as significant in shaping cirques as plucking. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 5. Question

What type of erosion is primarily responsible for shaping cirques?

• a) Abrasion

• b) Plucking

• c) Weathering

• d) Corrosion

Explanation:

• Cirques, which are bowl-shaped depressions found at the head of glacial valleys, are primarily shaped by the process of plucking.

• Plucking occurs when glaciers flow over bedrock, and the ice freezes onto rock fragments. As the glacier moves, it pulls these frozen rock fragments away from the valley walls, contributing to the enlargement and deepening of the cirque.

• While abrasion (option a) also plays a role in glacial erosion by grinding and polishing the bedrock surfaces, it is not the primary process responsible for shaping cirques. Weathering (option c) refers to the breakdown of rock materials by chemical or physical processes but is not the dominant mechanism in cirque formation. Corrosion (option d) typically refers to chemical dissolution processes, which are not as significant in shaping cirques as plucking.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Cirques, which are bowl-shaped depressions found at the head of glacial valleys, are primarily shaped by the process of plucking.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Carbon dioxide is transparent to incoming solar radiation but opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation. Water vapor decreases in concentration towards the poles, balancing temperature differentials. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Carbon dioxide is i transparent to incoming solar radiation, allowing it to penetrate the atmosphere and reach the Earth’s surface. However, it is opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation, meaning it absorbs and re-emits infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface, contributing to the greenhouse effect. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Water vapor does not decrease in concentration towards the poles. In fact, water vapor concentration tends to be higher in warmer, tropical regions and decreases towards the poles due to lower temperatures. This gradient in water vapor concentration contributes to temperature differentials rather than balancing them. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Carbon dioxide is i transparent to incoming solar radiation, allowing it to penetrate the atmosphere and reach the Earth’s surface. However, it is opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation, meaning it absorbs and re-emits infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface, contributing to the greenhouse effect. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Water vapor does not decrease in concentration towards the poles. In fact, water vapor concentration tends to be higher in warmer, tropical regions and decreases towards the poles due to lower temperatures. This gradient in water vapor concentration contributes to temperature differentials rather than balancing them. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Carbon dioxide is transparent to incoming solar radiation but opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation.

• Water vapor decreases in concentration towards the poles, balancing temperature differentials.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Carbon dioxide is i transparent to incoming solar radiation, allowing it to penetrate the atmosphere and reach the Earth’s surface. However, it is opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation, meaning it absorbs and re-emits infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface, contributing to the greenhouse effect. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Water vapor does not decrease in concentration towards the poles. In fact, water vapor concentration tends to be higher in warmer, tropical regions and decreases towards the poles due to lower temperatures. This gradient in water vapor concentration contributes to temperature differentials rather than balancing them. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which factors directly influence the temperature distribution on Earth’s surface? a) Latitude, longitude, and air pressure b) Altitude, ocean currents, and distance from the sea c) Precipitation patterns, wind direction, and soil composition d) Humidity, cloud cover, and atmospheric pressure Correct Answer: b Explanation: Latitude, longitude, and air pressure: Latitude is indeed a crucial factor influencing temperature distribution, as regions closer to the equator receive more direct sunlight and tend to be warmer. However, longitude and air pressure are not as directly related to temperature distribution. Altitude, ocean currents, and distance from the sea: Altitude affects temperature because temperature generally decreases with increasing altitude due to changes in air pressure and density. Ocean currents can moderate temperatures by transferring heat from one region to another, and proximity to the sea influences temperature due to the moderating effect of water bodies. Precipitation patterns, wind direction, and soil composition: While these factors can indirectly influence temperature by affecting local climate conditions, they are not as directly related to temperature distribution as altitude, ocean currents, and distance from the sea. Humidity, cloud cover, and atmospheric pressure: Humidity and cloud cover can influence temperature by affecting the amount of incoming solar radiation that reaches the Earth’s surface and by trapping heat. Atmospheric pressure, while related to weather patterns, does not directly determine temperature distribution. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Latitude, longitude, and air pressure: Latitude is indeed a crucial factor influencing temperature distribution, as regions closer to the equator receive more direct sunlight and tend to be warmer. However, longitude and air pressure are not as directly related to temperature distribution. Altitude, ocean currents, and distance from the sea: Altitude affects temperature because temperature generally decreases with increasing altitude due to changes in air pressure and density. Ocean currents can moderate temperatures by transferring heat from one region to another, and proximity to the sea influences temperature due to the moderating effect of water bodies. Precipitation patterns, wind direction, and soil composition: While these factors can indirectly influence temperature by affecting local climate conditions, they are not as directly related to temperature distribution as altitude, ocean currents, and distance from the sea. Humidity, cloud cover, and atmospheric pressure: Humidity and cloud cover can influence temperature by affecting the amount of incoming solar radiation that reaches the Earth’s surface and by trapping heat. Atmospheric pressure, while related to weather patterns, does not directly determine temperature distribution. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Which factors directly influence the temperature distribution on Earth’s surface?

• a) Latitude, longitude, and air pressure

• b) Altitude, ocean currents, and distance from the sea

• c) Precipitation patterns, wind direction, and soil composition

• d) Humidity, cloud cover, and atmospheric pressure

Explanation:

• Latitude, longitude, and air pressure: Latitude is indeed a crucial factor influencing temperature distribution, as regions closer to the equator receive more direct sunlight and tend to be warmer. However, longitude and air pressure are not as directly related to temperature distribution.

• Altitude, ocean currents, and distance from the sea: Altitude affects temperature because temperature generally decreases with increasing altitude due to changes in air pressure and density. Ocean currents can moderate temperatures by transferring heat from one region to another, and proximity to the sea influences temperature due to the moderating effect of water bodies.

• Precipitation patterns, wind direction, and soil composition: While these factors can indirectly influence temperature by affecting local climate conditions, they are not as directly related to temperature distribution as altitude, ocean currents, and distance from the sea.

• Humidity, cloud cover, and atmospheric pressure: Humidity and cloud cover can influence temperature by affecting the amount of incoming solar radiation that reaches the Earth’s surface and by trapping heat. Atmospheric pressure, while related to weather patterns, does not directly determine temperature distribution.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which type of cloud covers large portions of the sky and is often associated with overcast weather? a) Cirrus b) Cumulus c) Stratus d) Nimbus Correct Answer: c Explanation: Stratus clouds are one of the main types of low-level clouds characterized by their layered appearance and uniform, extensive coverage across the sky. These clouds typically form in stable atmospheric conditions where there is little vertical movement of air. They often appear as a gray, featureless sheet covering large portions of the sky, giving it a dull and overcast appearance. The word “stratus” originates from the Latin word for “layer,” reflecting the cloud’s characteristic flat, horizontal formation. Unlike cumulus clouds, which have noticeable vertical development and individual puffy shapes, stratus clouds appear more uniform and spread out. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Stratus clouds are one of the main types of low-level clouds characterized by their layered appearance and uniform, extensive coverage across the sky. These clouds typically form in stable atmospheric conditions where there is little vertical movement of air. They often appear as a gray, featureless sheet covering large portions of the sky, giving it a dull and overcast appearance. The word “stratus” originates from the Latin word for “layer,” reflecting the cloud’s characteristic flat, horizontal formation. Unlike cumulus clouds, which have noticeable vertical development and individual puffy shapes, stratus clouds appear more uniform and spread out. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Which type of cloud covers large portions of the sky and is often associated with overcast weather?

• b) Cumulus

• c) Stratus

Explanation:

• Stratus clouds are one of the main types of low-level clouds characterized by their layered appearance and uniform, extensive coverage across the sky. These clouds typically form in stable atmospheric conditions where there is little vertical movement of air. They often appear as a gray, featureless sheet covering large portions of the sky, giving it a dull and overcast appearance.

• The word “stratus” originates from the Latin word for “layer,” reflecting the cloud’s characteristic flat, horizontal formation. Unlike cumulus clouds, which have noticeable vertical development and individual puffy shapes, stratus clouds appear more uniform and spread out.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Under what conditions does dew form? a) High wind speed and low humidity b) Low wind speed and high relative humidity c) High wind speed and high humidity d) Low wind speed and low relative humidity Correct Answer: b Explanation: When the wind is calm, the air near the surface remains still, allowing it to cool down. High relative humidity means that the air is already holding a significant amount of moisture. As the air cools, it reaches its dew point temperature, which is the temperature at which it becomes saturated with moisture. When this happens, the excess water vapor in the air condenses into liquid water droplets on surfaces like grass, leaves, or other objects that have cooled down overnight. This process forms dew. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: When the wind is calm, the air near the surface remains still, allowing it to cool down. High relative humidity means that the air is already holding a significant amount of moisture. As the air cools, it reaches its dew point temperature, which is the temperature at which it becomes saturated with moisture. When this happens, the excess water vapor in the air condenses into liquid water droplets on surfaces like grass, leaves, or other objects that have cooled down overnight. This process forms dew. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Under what conditions does dew form?

• a) High wind speed and low humidity

• b) Low wind speed and high relative humidity

• c) High wind speed and high humidity

• d) Low wind speed and low relative humidity

Explanation:

• When the wind is calm, the air near the surface remains still, allowing it to cool down. High relative humidity means that the air is already holding a significant amount of moisture. As the air cools, it reaches its dew point temperature, which is the temperature at which it becomes saturated with moisture. When this happens, the excess water vapor in the air condenses into liquid water droplets on surfaces like grass, leaves, or other objects that have cooled down overnight. This process forms dew.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Tundra Climate: It experiences long, dark winters and short, cool summers. Vegetation in this climate is mainly composed of coniferous forests. Permafrost is a characteristic feature of this climate. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Long, dark winters and short, cool summers: The Tundra Climate, found in high-latitude regions near the poles, experiences long periods of darkness during the winter months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis away from the sun. This results in extended periods of cold temperatures, often below freezing. Summers, on the other hand, are short and relatively cool, with temperatures rising only slightly above freezing. This seasonal variation in daylight and temperature is a defining characteristic of the Tundra Climate. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Vegetation mainly composed of coniferous forests: The vegetation in the Tundra Climate is not primarily composed of coniferous forests. Instead, it consists of low-growing plants adapted to the harsh environmental conditions, including mosses, lichens, grasses, and dwarf shrubs. Trees, including conifers, are generally sparse in the tundra (Tundra is largely treeless) due to the short growing season, permafrost, and low nutrient availability. Tundra vegetation consists of low-growing plants adapted to the harsh environmental conditions, including mosses, lichens, grasses, and dwarf shrubs. Coniferous forests are more characteristic of boreal or taiga climates, which are found at lower latitudes than the tundra. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Permafrost as a characteristic feature: Permafrost refers to soil or rock that remains permanently frozen for two or more consecutive years. It is indeed a characteristic feature of the Tundra Climate. The frozen ground extends below the surface and can vary in depth from a few centimeters to several hundred meters. Permafrost plays a crucial role in shaping the landscape and influencing the distribution of vegetation and water flow in tundra ecosystems. Its presence significantly impacts soil stability, drainage patterns, and the availability of nutrients for plant growth in the Tundra Climate. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Long, dark winters and short, cool summers: The Tundra Climate, found in high-latitude regions near the poles, experiences long periods of darkness during the winter months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis away from the sun. This results in extended periods of cold temperatures, often below freezing. Summers, on the other hand, are short and relatively cool, with temperatures rising only slightly above freezing. This seasonal variation in daylight and temperature is a defining characteristic of the Tundra Climate. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Vegetation mainly composed of coniferous forests: The vegetation in the Tundra Climate is not primarily composed of coniferous forests. Instead, it consists of low-growing plants adapted to the harsh environmental conditions, including mosses, lichens, grasses, and dwarf shrubs. Trees, including conifers, are generally sparse in the tundra (Tundra is largely treeless) due to the short growing season, permafrost, and low nutrient availability. Tundra vegetation consists of low-growing plants adapted to the harsh environmental conditions, including mosses, lichens, grasses, and dwarf shrubs. Coniferous forests are more characteristic of boreal or taiga climates, which are found at lower latitudes than the tundra. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Permafrost as a characteristic feature: Permafrost refers to soil or rock that remains permanently frozen for two or more consecutive years. It is indeed a characteristic feature of the Tundra Climate. The frozen ground extends below the surface and can vary in depth from a few centimeters to several hundred meters. Permafrost plays a crucial role in shaping the landscape and influencing the distribution of vegetation and water flow in tundra ecosystems. Its presence significantly impacts soil stability, drainage patterns, and the availability of nutrients for plant growth in the Tundra Climate. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Tundra Climate:

• It experiences long, dark winters and short, cool summers.

• Vegetation in this climate is mainly composed of coniferous forests.

• Permafrost is a characteristic feature of this climate.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Long, dark winters and short, cool summers: The Tundra Climate, found in high-latitude regions near the poles, experiences long periods of darkness during the winter months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis away from the sun. This results in extended periods of cold temperatures, often below freezing. Summers, on the other hand, are short and relatively cool, with temperatures rising only slightly above freezing. This seasonal variation in daylight and temperature is a defining characteristic of the Tundra Climate. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Vegetation mainly composed of coniferous forests: The vegetation in the Tundra Climate is not primarily composed of coniferous forests. Instead, it consists of low-growing plants adapted to the harsh environmental conditions, including mosses, lichens, grasses, and dwarf shrubs. Trees, including conifers, are generally sparse in the tundra (Tundra is largely treeless) due to the short growing season, permafrost, and low nutrient availability. Tundra vegetation consists of low-growing plants adapted to the harsh environmental conditions, including mosses, lichens, grasses, and dwarf shrubs. Coniferous forests are more characteristic of boreal or taiga climates, which are found at lower latitudes than the tundra. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Permafrost as a characteristic feature: Permafrost refers to soil or rock that remains permanently frozen for two or more consecutive years. It is indeed a characteristic feature of the Tundra Climate. The frozen ground extends below the surface and can vary in depth from a few centimeters to several hundred meters. Permafrost plays a crucial role in shaping the landscape and influencing the distribution of vegetation and water flow in tundra ecosystems. Its presence significantly impacts soil stability, drainage patterns, and the availability of nutrients for plant growth in the Tundra Climate. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS): The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable. The role of Members of Parliament is limited to recommending works. The Ministry of Rural Development is the nodal ministry for this scheme. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) was launched in 1993. Statement 1 is correct: The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable, i.e., the entitlement of funds not released in a particular year is carried forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility. Statement 2 is correct: Under it, the role of the Members of Parliament is limited to recommending works. Thereafter, it is the responsibility of the district authority to sanction, execute and complete the recommended works within the stipulated time perio Statement 3 is not correct: Initially, Ministry of Rural Development was the nodal ministry for this scheme. In October 1994, this scheme was transferred to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The objective of MPLADS is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on creation of durable community assets in the areas of national priorities, The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India under which funds are released in the form of grants-in-aid directly to the district authorities. Incorrect Solution: A The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) was launched in 1993. Statement 1 is correct: The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable, i.e., the entitlement of funds not released in a particular year is carried forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility. Statement 2 is correct: Under it, the role of the Members of Parliament is limited to recommending works. Thereafter, it is the responsibility of the district authority to sanction, execute and complete the recommended works within the stipulated time perio Statement 3 is not correct:* Initially, Ministry of Rural Development was the nodal ministry for this scheme. In October 1994, this scheme was transferred to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The objective of MPLADS is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on creation of durable community assets in the areas of national priorities, The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India under which funds are released in the form of grants-in-aid directly to the district authorities.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):

• The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable.

• The role of Members of Parliament is limited to recommending works.

• The Ministry of Rural Development is the nodal ministry for this scheme.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) was launched in 1993.

Statement 1 is correct: The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable, i.e., the entitlement of funds not released in a particular year is carried forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility.

Statement 2 is correct: Under it, the role of the Members of Parliament is limited to recommending works. Thereafter, it is the responsibility of the district authority to sanction, execute and complete the recommended works within the stipulated time perio

Statement 3 is not correct: Initially, Ministry of Rural Development was the nodal ministry for this scheme. In October 1994, this scheme was transferred to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

The objective of MPLADS is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on creation of durable community assets in the areas of national priorities,

The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India under which funds are released in the form of grants-in-aid directly to the district authorities.

Solution: A

The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) was launched in 1993.

The objective of MPLADS is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on creation of durable community assets in the areas of national priorities,

The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India under which funds are released in the form of grants-in-aid directly to the district authorities.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points The Financial Stability Board (FSB) was originally established under the ambit of- (a) The World Economic Forum (b) The International Monetary Fund (c) The United Nations Development Programme (d) None of the above Correct Solution: D Option (d) is correct: Financial Stability Board (FSB) was established in 2009 under the aegis of G20 by bringing together the national authorities, standard setting bodies and international financial institutions for addressing vulnerabilities and developing and implementing strong regulatory, supervisory and other policies in the interest of financial stability. India is an active member of the FSB having three seats in its Plenary. Incorrect Solution: D Option (d) is correct: Financial Stability Board (FSB) was established in 2009 under the aegis of G20 by bringing together the national authorities, standard setting bodies and international financial institutions for addressing vulnerabilities and developing and implementing strong regulatory, supervisory and other policies in the interest of financial stability. India is an active member of the FSB having three seats in its Plenary.

#### 12. Question

The Financial Stability Board (FSB) was originally established under the ambit of-

• (a) The World Economic Forum

• (b) The International Monetary Fund

• (c) The United Nations Development Programme

• (d) None of the above

Solution: D

Option (d) is correct: Financial Stability Board (FSB) was established in 2009 under the aegis of G20 by bringing together the national authorities, standard setting bodies and international financial institutions for addressing vulnerabilities and developing and implementing strong regulatory, supervisory and other policies in the interest of financial stability. India is an active member of the FSB having three seats in its Plenary.

Solution: D

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The New Development Bank is a multilateral development bank established by- (a) The ‘BRICS’ Organisation (b) The Group of Twenty (G20) (c) The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (d) The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development Correct Solution: A Option (a) is correct: The BRICS nations or Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa form the five key pillars of south-south cooperation and are the representative voice of emerging markets and developing countries in the global forums such as the G20. The New Development Bank, established by these nations in 2015, marked its first imprints in India by signing a loan agreement for financing of the major district road project in Madhya Pradesh in March 2017. Incorrect Solution: A Option (a) is correct: The BRICS nations or Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa form the five key pillars of south-south cooperation and are the representative voice of emerging markets and developing countries in the global forums such as the G20. The New Development Bank, established by these nations in 2015, marked its first imprints in India by signing a loan agreement for financing of the major district road project in Madhya Pradesh in March 2017.

#### 13. Question

The New Development Bank is a multilateral development bank established by-

• (a) The ‘BRICS’ Organisation

• (b) The Group of Twenty (G20)

• (c) The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework

• (d) The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development

Solution: A

Option (a) is correct: The BRICS nations or Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa form the five key pillars of south-south cooperation and are the representative voice of emerging markets and developing countries in the global forums such as the G20.

The New Development Bank, established by these nations in 2015, marked its first imprints in India by signing a loan agreement for financing of the major district road project in Madhya Pradesh in March 2017.

Solution: A

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following: India is a founder member of- (a) The International Monetary Fund (b) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Option (c) is correct: India is a founder member of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), which was established to promote a cooperative and stable global monetary framework. At present, 188 nations are members of the IMF. India is a founder member of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) which along with International Development Association (IDA) is referred to as the World Bank. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is correct: India is a founder member of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), which was established to promote a cooperative and stable global monetary framework. At present, 188 nations are members of the IMF. India is a founder member of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) which along with International Development Association (IDA) is referred to as the World Bank.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following:

India is a founder member of-

• (a) The International Monetary Fund

• (b) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Option (c) is correct: India is a founder member of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), which was established to promote a cooperative and stable global monetary framework. At present, 188 nations are members of the IMF.

India is a founder member of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) which along with International Development Association (IDA) is referred to as the World Bank.

Solution: C

India is a founder member of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) which along with International Development Association (IDA) is referred to as the World Bank.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND): It is the central national agency for disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions. It has the authority to investigate cases under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) is the central national agency for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions. FIU-IND was established by the Government of India in 2004 for coordinating and strengthening collection and sharing of financial intelligence through an effective national, regional and global network to combat money laundering, related crimes and terrorist financing. Statement 2 is not correct: It is an independent body reporting to the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC) headed by the Finance Minister. FIU-IND does not investigate cases. For administrative purposes, FIU-IND is under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. FIU-IND is established as an administrative FIU, i.e., as an independent government body that receives analyses and disseminates STR to the appropriate law enforcement or investigation agency. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) is the central national agency for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions. FIU-IND was established by the Government of India in 2004 for coordinating and strengthening collection and sharing of financial intelligence through an effective national, regional and global network to combat money laundering, related crimes and terrorist financing. Statement 2 is not correct: It is an independent body reporting to the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC) headed by the Finance Minister. FIU-IND does not investigate cases. For administrative purposes, FIU-IND is under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. FIU-IND is established as an administrative FIU, i.e., as an independent government body that receives analyses and disseminates STR to the appropriate law enforcement or investigation agency.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND):

• It is the central national agency for disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions.

• It has the authority to investigate cases under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct: Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) is the central national agency for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions.

FIU-IND was established by the Government of India in 2004 for coordinating and strengthening collection and sharing of financial intelligence through an effective national, regional and global network to combat money laundering, related crimes and terrorist financing.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is an independent body reporting to the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC) headed by the Finance Minister. FIU-IND does not investigate cases. For administrative purposes, FIU-IND is under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

FIU-IND is established as an administrative FIU, i.e., as an independent government body that receives analyses and disseminates STR to the appropriate law enforcement or investigation agency.

Solution: A

FIU-IND is established as an administrative FIU, i.e., as an independent government body that receives analyses and disseminates STR to the appropriate law enforcement or investigation agency.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Luna region in Kutch was a settlement linked to the ancient Harappan Civilization. The Banni Grassland near the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat is considered the largest grassland in Asia. Kori Creek in the Kutch region lies eastward of the Banni Grassland. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Justification: A 1.8 km wide crater (known as Luna Crater) in Gujarat’s Kutch region (in the Banni Plains) has been confirmed as the result of a massive asteroid impact, reshaping the landscape and dating back approximately 6,905 years Luna region was one of the several settlements linked to the ancient Harappan Civilization. Other impact craters in India include Dhala in Madhya Pradesh, Lonar in Maharashtra, and Ramgarh in Rajasthan The Banni Grassland near the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat is considered the largest grassland in Asia, covering 2,618 square kilometres, which is about 45% of Gujarat’s pastureland. Kori Creek is westward of Banni Grassland, as the map below shows. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: A 1.8 km wide crater (known as Luna Crater) in Gujarat’s Kutch region (in the Banni Plains) has been confirmed as the result of a massive asteroid impact, reshaping the landscape and dating back approximately 6,905 years Luna region was one of the several settlements linked to the ancient Harappan Civilization. Other impact craters in India include Dhala in Madhya Pradesh, Lonar in Maharashtra, and Ramgarh in Rajasthan The Banni Grassland near the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat is considered the largest grassland in Asia, covering 2,618 square kilometres, which is about 45% of Gujarat’s pastureland. Kori Creek is westward of Banni Grassland, as the map below shows. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Luna region in Kutch was a settlement linked to the ancient Harappan Civilization.

• The Banni Grassland near the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat is considered the largest grassland in Asia.

• Kori Creek in the Kutch region lies eastward of the Banni Grassland.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

Justification: A 1.8 km wide crater (known as Luna Crater) in Gujarat’s Kutch region (in the Banni Plains) has been confirmed as the result of a massive asteroid impact, reshaping the landscape and dating back approximately 6,905 years

Luna region was one of the several settlements linked to the ancient Harappan Civilization. Other impact craters in India include Dhala in Madhya Pradesh, Lonar in Maharashtra, and Ramgarh in Rajasthan

The Banni Grassland near the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat is considered the largest grassland in Asia, covering 2,618 square kilometres, which is about 45% of Gujarat’s pastureland.

Kori Creek is westward of Banni Grassland, as the map below shows.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

Solution: c)

The Banni Grassland near the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat is considered the largest grassland in Asia, covering 2,618 square kilometres, which is about 45% of Gujarat’s pastureland.

Kori Creek is westward of Banni Grassland, as the map below shows.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. A UN Security Council is a decision adopted by the UN Security Council, responsible for international peace and security, and the UN Charter requires an affirmative vote of at least nine out of fifteen members for resolutions. If UNSC fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: UNSC resolution is a decision adopted by the UN Security Council, responsible for international peace and security. Article 27 of the UN Charter requires an affirmative vote of nine out of fifteen members for resolutions. Any of the five permanent members can veto resolutions, except procedural ones. The permanent members are China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US. Article 25 obligates UN members to accept and implement UNSC decisions. As of today, the Security Council has passed 2728 resolutions. The ICJ has affirmed the legal bindingness of all Security Council resolutions. If the Security Council fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus. These statements apply political pressure and signal the Council’s attention, often indicating that further action may follow. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: UNSC resolution is a decision adopted by the UN Security Council, responsible for international peace and security. Article 27 of the UN Charter requires an affirmative vote of nine out of fifteen members for resolutions. Any of the five permanent members can veto resolutions, except procedural ones. The permanent members are China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US. Article 25 obligates UN members to accept and implement UNSC decisions. As of today, the Security Council has passed 2728 resolutions. The ICJ has affirmed the legal bindingness of all Security Council resolutions. If the Security Council fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus. These statements apply political pressure and signal the Council’s attention, often indicating that further action may follow. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements.

• A UN Security Council is a decision adopted by the UN Security Council, responsible for international peace and security, and the UN Charter requires an affirmative vote of at least nine out of fifteen members for resolutions.

• If UNSC fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: c)

Justification: UNSC resolution is a decision adopted by the UN Security Council, responsible for international peace and security. Article 27 of the UN Charter requires an affirmative vote of nine out of fifteen members for resolutions. Any of the five permanent members can veto resolutions, except procedural ones. The permanent members are China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US. Article 25 obligates UN members to accept and implement UNSC decisions. As of today, the Security Council has passed 2728 resolutions. The ICJ has affirmed the legal bindingness of all Security Council resolutions.

If the Security Council fails to pass a resolution, it may issue a non-binding presidential statement adopted by consensus. These statements apply political pressure and signal the Council’s attention, often indicating that further action may follow.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Which of the following bodies in India have been identified for 2023-24 as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) for the stability of the economy? State Bank of India Life Insurance Corporation of India New India Assurance Co. Ltd. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: In the financial year 2023-24, three domestic insurance companies have been identified as systemically important for the stability of the economy: Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC), and New India Assurance Co. Ltd. These companies are considered “too important to fail,” and there is an expectation of government support in case of financial distress. Designated as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs), they play a critical role in ensuring the availability of insurance services to the national economy. D-SIIs are subject to additional regulatory measures to manage systemic risks and moral hazard issues, including enhancing corporate governance and implementing robust risk management frameworks. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: In the financial year 2023-24, three domestic insurance companies have been identified as systemically important for the stability of the economy: Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC), and New India Assurance Co. Ltd. These companies are considered “too important to fail,” and there is an expectation of government support in case of financial distress. Designated as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs), they play a critical role in ensuring the availability of insurance services to the national economy. D-SIIs are subject to additional regulatory measures to manage systemic risks and moral hazard issues, including enhancing corporate governance and implementing robust risk management frameworks. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

#### 18. Question

Which of the following bodies in India have been identified for 2023-24 as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) for the stability of the economy?

• State Bank of India

• Life Insurance Corporation of India

• New India Assurance Co. Ltd.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: In the financial year 2023-24, three domestic insurance companies have been identified as systemically important for the stability of the economy:

Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC), and New India Assurance Co. Ltd.

These companies are considered “too important to fail,” and there is an expectation of government support in case of financial distress.

Designated as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs), they play a critical role in ensuring the availability of insurance services to the national economy.

D-SIIs are subject to additional regulatory measures to manage systemic risks and moral hazard issues, including enhancing corporate governance and implementing robust risk management frameworks.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

Solution: b)

Justification: In the financial year 2023-24, three domestic insurance companies have been identified as systemically important for the stability of the economy:

Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC), and New India Assurance Co. Ltd.

These companies are considered “too important to fail,” and there is an expectation of government support in case of financial distress.

Designated as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs), they play a critical role in ensuring the availability of insurance services to the national economy.

D-SIIs are subject to additional regulatory measures to manage systemic risks and moral hazard issues, including enhancing corporate governance and implementing robust risk management frameworks.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Which of the following places in India host bird sanctuaries? Gurumara Vedantahangal Ranganathittu How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

#### 19. Question

Which of the following places in India host bird sanctuaries?

• Vedantahangal

• Ranganathittu

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which of the following species can be found in the protected areas of south-eastern India? Sloth bear Leopard Indian gaurs How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: For instance, Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located in the Indian state of Telangana. It is one of the largest tiger reserves in the country, covering an area of approximately 2,800 square kilometers. The reserve is situated on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, encompassing parts of the Nallamala Hills. It was established with the aim of conserving the endangered Bengal tiger and its habitat. Apart from tigers, the reserve is home to various other species of wildlife including leopards, sloth bears, Indian gaurs, and several species of birds and reptiles. Also, the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, which is located near Warangal, Telangana, and lies on the border of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh, harbors species such as the sloth bear, chinkara, nilgai, black buck, among others. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: For instance, Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located in the Indian state of Telangana. It is one of the largest tiger reserves in the country, covering an area of approximately 2,800 square kilometers. The reserve is situated on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, encompassing parts of the Nallamala Hills. It was established with the aim of conserving the endangered Bengal tiger and its habitat. Apart from tigers, the reserve is home to various other species of wildlife including leopards, sloth bears, Indian gaurs, and several species of birds and reptiles. Also, the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, which is located near Warangal, Telangana, and lies on the border of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh, harbors species such as the sloth bear, chinkara, nilgai, black buck, among others. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

#### 20. Question

Which of the following species can be found in the protected areas of south-eastern India?

• Sloth bear

• Indian gaurs

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: For instance, Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located in the Indian state of Telangana.

It is one of the largest tiger reserves in the country, covering an area of approximately 2,800 square kilometers.

The reserve is situated on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, encompassing parts of the Nallamala Hills.

It was established with the aim of conserving the endangered Bengal tiger and its habitat.

Apart from tigers, the reserve is home to various other species of wildlife including leopards, sloth bears, Indian gaurs, and several species of birds and reptiles.

Also, the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, which is located near Warangal, Telangana, and lies on the border of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh, harbors species such as the sloth bear, chinkara, nilgai, black buck, among others.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification: For instance, Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located in the Indian state of Telangana.

It is one of the largest tiger reserves in the country, covering an area of approximately 2,800 square kilometers.

The reserve is situated on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, encompassing parts of the Nallamala Hills.

It was established with the aim of conserving the endangered Bengal tiger and its habitat.

Apart from tigers, the reserve is home to various other species of wildlife including leopards, sloth bears, Indian gaurs, and several species of birds and reptiles.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/03/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-march-2024/

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points In March 2018, fishermen hauled 400 kg of fishing nets out of the sea in a few locations off Kerala’s south coast. There are many such reports of divers regularly making underwater trips just to extract nets that have sunk to the ocean floor off India’s coasts, ranging from Tamil Nadu to Maharashtra. The problem of ghost gear (any fishing equipment that has been lost, discarded or abandoned in water bodies) has grown from a fishing fallout that people had not heard of to one that is now difficult to ignore. And rightly so, for the consequences of marine debris are many. Between 2011 and 2018 alone, the Olive Ridley Project, a U.K. registered charity that removes ghost nets and protects sea turtles, recorded 601 sea turtles being entangled in ghost gear near the Maldives, of which 528 were Olive Ridleys — the same species that come in thousands to Odisha’s coasts to nest. Other casualties worldwide include whales, dolphins, sharks and even pelagic birds. In 2016, when a team of marine biologists reviewed 76 publications and other sources of literature on ghost gear from across the world, they found that over 5,400 marine animals belonging to 40 different species were recorded as entangled in ghost gear, or associated with it. This analysis also showed a huge gap in data from the Indian, Southern and Arctic Oceans, prompting the team to recommend that future studies focus on these areas. Yet, two years later, there are still no data pertaining to the extent of prevalence of ghost gear off India’s coast. The key focus area of the passage is A. Emphasizing on the need for data collection to understand the magnitude of the problem B. Emphasizing on the ill effects of ghost gear C. Highlight that the problems on account of ghost gear can no longer be ignored D. None of the above Correct Ans. C. The focus becomes clear from the last line of the first para which says that the problems on account of ghost gear is tough to ignore and needs to be tackled. Hence C. Incorrect Ans. C. The focus becomes clear from the last line of the first para which says that the problems on account of ghost gear is tough to ignore and needs to be tackled. Hence C.

#### 21. Question

In March 2018, fishermen hauled 400 kg of fishing nets out of the sea in a few locations off Kerala’s south coast. There are many such reports of divers regularly making underwater trips just to extract nets that have sunk to the ocean floor off India’s coasts, ranging from Tamil Nadu to Maharashtra. The problem of ghost gear (any fishing equipment that has been lost, discarded or abandoned in water bodies) has grown from a fishing fallout that people had not heard of to one that is now difficult to ignore.

And rightly so, for the consequences of marine debris are many. Between 2011 and 2018 alone, the Olive Ridley Project, a U.K. registered charity that removes ghost nets and protects sea turtles, recorded 601 sea turtles being entangled in ghost gear near the Maldives, of which 528 were Olive Ridleys — the same species that come in thousands to Odisha’s coasts to nest. Other casualties worldwide include whales, dolphins, sharks and even pelagic birds. In 2016, when a team of marine biologists reviewed 76 publications and other sources of literature on ghost gear from across the world, they found that over 5,400 marine animals belonging to 40 different species were recorded as entangled in ghost gear, or associated with it. This analysis also showed a huge gap in data from the Indian, Southern and Arctic Oceans, prompting the team to recommend that future studies focus on these areas. Yet, two years later, there are still no data pertaining to the extent of prevalence of ghost gear off India’s coast.

The key focus area of the passage is

• A. Emphasizing on the need for data collection to understand the magnitude of the problem

• B. Emphasizing on the ill effects of ghost gear

• C. Highlight that the problems on account of ghost gear can no longer be ignored

• D. None of the above

Ans. C. The focus becomes clear from the last line of the first para which says that the problems on account of ghost gear is tough to ignore and needs to be tackled. Hence C.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Which of the following is the most logical and critical corollary to the above passage? A. Policy makers need to focus attention on the problem of ghost gear B. The danger to marine animals on account of human generated waste is immense C. There is a need to hold fishermen accountable for the gear they leave in sea D. India can emulate innovative solutions from across the world to tackle the problem of ghost gear Correct Ans. D. A is a very generic option which is not the most rational nor the most critical corollary. B is not a corollary but an inference to the passage. C is again not rational as it is impossible to do so. D is the most appropriate answer. Incorrect Ans. D. A is a very generic option which is not the most rational nor the most critical corollary. B is not a corollary but an inference to the passage. C is again not rational as it is impossible to do so. D is the most appropriate answer.

#### 22. Question

Which of the following is the most logical and critical corollary to the above passage?

• A. Policy makers need to focus attention on the problem of ghost gear

• B. The danger to marine animals on account of human generated waste is immense

• C. There is a need to hold fishermen accountable for the gear they leave in sea

• D. India can emulate innovative solutions from across the world to tackle the problem of ghost gear

Ans. D. A is a very generic option which is not the most rational nor the most critical corollary. B is not a corollary but an inference to the passage. C is again not rational as it is impossible to do so. D is the most appropriate answer.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Directions: (23-24 Q) Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside. Given bar graph shows number of students (i.e. boys and girls) of school A in different years. Find the ratio of total number of boys in the year 2004 and 2006 to the total number of girls in the year 2004 and 2005? A. 11 : 13 B. 17 : 11 C. 17 : 13 D. 13 : 11 Correct ANSWER B) 17:11 Number of boys in the year 2004 = 400 Number of boys in the year 2006 = 450 Total boys = 850 Number of girls in the year 2004 = 300 Number of girls in the year 2005 = 250 Total girls = 550 Boys: Girls = 850 : 550 = 17 : 11 Hence, option B is correct. Incorrect ANSWER B) 17:11 Number of boys in the year 2004 = 400 Number of boys in the year 2006 = 450 Total boys = 850 Number of girls in the year 2004 = 300 Number of girls in the year 2005 = 250 Total girls = 550 Boys: Girls = 850 : 550 = 17 : 11 Hence, option B is correct.

#### 23. Question

Directions: (23-24 Q) Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.

Given bar graph shows number of students (i.e. boys and girls) of school A in different

Find the ratio of total number of boys in the year 2004 and 2006 to the total

number of girls in the year 2004 and 2005?

• A. 11 : 13

• B. 17 : 11

• C. 17 : 13

• D. 13 : 11

ANSWER B) 17:11

Number of boys in the year 2004 = 400

Number of boys in the year 2006 = 450

Total boys = 850

Number of girls in the year 2004 = 300

Number of girls in the year 2005 = 250

Total girls = 550

Boys: Girls = 850 : 550 = 17 : 11

Hence, option B is correct.

ANSWER B) 17:11

Number of boys in the year 2004 = 400

Number of boys in the year 2006 = 450

Total boys = 850

Number of girls in the year 2004 = 300

Number of girls in the year 2005 = 250

Total girls = 550

Boys: Girls = 850 : 550 = 17 : 11

Hence, option B is correct.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points What is the difference between the total number of girls in school A in the year 2005 and 2007 to the total number of boys in the year 2004 and 2005? A. 50 B. 150 C. 100 D. 25 Correct ANSWER C) 100 Total number of girls in the year 2005 and 2007 together = (250 + 400) = 650 Total number of boys in the year 2004 and 2005 together = (400 + 150) = 550 Difference between the girls and boys = (650 – 550) = 100 Hence, option C is correct. Incorrect ANSWER C) 100 Total number of girls in the year 2005 and 2007 together = (250 + 400) = 650 Total number of boys in the year 2004 and 2005 together = (400 + 150) = 550 Difference between the girls and boys = (650 – 550) = 100 Hence, option C is correct.

#### 24. Question

What is the difference between the total number of girls in school A in the year

2005 and 2007 to the total number of boys in the year 2004 and 2005?

ANSWER C) 100

Total number of girls in the year 2005 and 2007 together = (250 + 400) = 650

Total number of boys in the year 2004 and 2005 together = (400 + 150) = 550

Difference between the girls and boys = (650 – 550) = 100

Hence, option C is correct.

ANSWER C) 100

Total number of girls in the year 2005 and 2007 together = (250 + 400) = 650

Total number of boys in the year 2004 and 2005 together = (400 + 150) = 550

Difference between the girls and boys = (650 – 550) = 100

Hence, option C is correct.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points What is the area of square ? I. The perimeter of square is 36 cm. II. The area of rectangle is 96 cm^2 and side of square is 3 cm less than length of rectangular. A. Only statement I is sufficient. B. Only statement II is sufficient. C. Either statement I or statement II is sufficient. D. Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient. Correct Option A) Only statement I is sufficient. From I, perimeter of square is 36 cm. side of square = 36/4 = 9 cm area of square = 9 9 = 81 cm^2 From II, Area of rectangle = 96 cm^2 only from II we can not find the answer. only statement I is sufficient. Incorrect Option A) Only statement I is sufficient. From I, perimeter of square is 36 cm. side of square = 36/4 = 9 cm area of square = 9 9 = 81 cm^2 From II, Area of rectangle = 96 cm^2 only from II we can not find the answer. only statement I is sufficient.

#### 25. Question

What is the area of square ?

I. The perimeter of square is 36 cm.

II. The area of rectangle is 96 cm^2 and side of square is 3 cm less than length of rectangular.

• A. Only statement I is sufficient.

• B. Only statement II is sufficient.

• C. Either statement I or statement II is sufficient.

• D. Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient.

Option A) Only statement I is sufficient.

From I, perimeter of square is 36 cm.

side of square = 36/4 = 9 cm

area of square = 9 * 9 = 81 cm^2

From II, Area of rectangle = 96 cm^2

only from II we can not find the answer.

only statement I is sufficient.

Option A) Only statement I is sufficient.

From I, perimeter of square is 36 cm.

side of square = 36/4 = 9 cm

area of square = 9 * 9 = 81 cm^2

From II, Area of rectangle = 96 cm^2

only from II we can not find the answer.

only statement I is sufficient.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Hangul Deer: It is the only Asiatic survivor or the sub-species of the European red deer. It is mostly found in the mountainous regions of Mongolia and the Himalayas. It is the only species declared ‘critically endangered’ in Jammu and Kashmir. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Kashmir’s iconic wildlife species, the Hangul (Cervus hanglu hanglu), is also known as the Kashmir stag. The Hangul is considered equally significant to the state of Jammu & Kashmir as the tiger is to the whole of India. Statement 1 is correct: It is the only Asiatic survivor or sub-species of the European red deer. But the state animal’s decreasing population remains a big concern. Statement 2 is not correct: The Hangul, the state animal of Jammu & Kashmir, is restricted to the Dachigam National Park some 15 km north-west of Jammu & Kashmir’s Srinagar. The Tibetan antelope or ‘Chiru’, is found mostly in the mountainous regions of Mongolia and the Himalayas. The Hangul was once widely distributed in the mountains of Kashmir and parts of Chamba district in neighbouring Himachal Pradesh. Statement 3 is correct: Now, the IUCN’s Red List has classified it as Critically Endangered and is similarly listed under the Species Recovery Programme of the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the Environmental Information System (ENVIS) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Kashmir’s iconic wildlife species, the Hangul (Cervus hanglu hanglu), is also known as the Kashmir stag. The Hangul is considered equally significant to the state of Jammu & Kashmir as the tiger is to the whole of India. Statement 1 is correct: It is the only Asiatic survivor or sub-species of the European red deer. But the state animal’s decreasing population remains a big concern. Statement 2 is not correct: The Hangul, the state animal of Jammu & Kashmir, is restricted to the Dachigam National Park some 15 km north-west of Jammu & Kashmir’s Srinagar. The Tibetan antelope or ‘Chiru’, is found mostly in the mountainous regions of Mongolia and the Himalayas. The Hangul was once widely distributed in the mountains of Kashmir and parts of Chamba district in neighbouring Himachal Pradesh. Statement 3 is correct: Now, the IUCN’s Red List has classified it as Critically Endangered and is similarly listed under the Species Recovery Programme of the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the Environmental Information System (ENVIS) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).

#### 26. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Hangul Deer:

• It is the only Asiatic survivor or the sub-species of the European red deer.

• It is mostly found in the mountainous regions of Mongolia and the Himalayas.

• It is the only species declared ‘critically endangered’ in Jammu and Kashmir.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Kashmir’s iconic wildlife species, the Hangul (Cervus hanglu hanglu), is also known as the Kashmir stag.

The Hangul is considered equally significant to the state of Jammu & Kashmir as the tiger is to the whole of India.

Statement 1 is correct: It is the only Asiatic survivor or sub-species of the European red deer. But the state animal’s decreasing population remains a big concern.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Hangul, the state animal of Jammu & Kashmir, is restricted to the Dachigam National Park some 15 km north-west of Jammu & Kashmir’s Srinagar.

The Tibetan antelope or ‘Chiru’, is found mostly in the mountainous regions of Mongolia and the Himalayas.

The Hangul was once widely distributed in the mountains of Kashmir and parts of Chamba district in neighbouring Himachal Pradesh.

Statement 3 is correct: Now, the IUCN’s Red List has classified it as Critically Endangered and is similarly listed under the Species Recovery Programme of the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the Environmental Information System (ENVIS) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).

Answer: B

Explanation:

Kashmir’s iconic wildlife species, the Hangul (Cervus hanglu hanglu), is also known as the Kashmir stag.

The Hangul is considered equally significant to the state of Jammu & Kashmir as the tiger is to the whole of India.

Statement 1 is correct: It is the only Asiatic survivor or sub-species of the European red deer. But the state animal’s decreasing population remains a big concern.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Hangul, the state animal of Jammu & Kashmir, is restricted to the Dachigam National Park some 15 km north-west of Jammu & Kashmir’s Srinagar.

The Tibetan antelope or ‘Chiru’, is found mostly in the mountainous regions of Mongolia and the Himalayas.

The Hangul was once widely distributed in the mountains of Kashmir and parts of Chamba district in neighbouring Himachal Pradesh.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Silver Filigree: It is also referred to as the Rupa Tarakasi. It received considerable patronage under the Mughals. It has recently received the geographical indication (GI) tag. It is directly linked to the customs of the tribes of Tripura. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statements 1 is correct: The famous Rupa Tarakasi, or silver filigree work belongs to Odisha’s Cuttack. Cuttack is known for its silver filigree work, of intricate design and fine craftsmanship. In Odia, “tara” means wire and “kasi” means to design. Thus, as part of Rupa Tarakasi, silver bricks are transformed into thin fine wires or foils and used to create jewellery or showpieces. While the exact origin of the filigree art in Cuttack is not clear, it is known to have existed as far back as the 12th century. Statement 2 is correct: The art form received considerable patronage under the Mughals. Over the years, as Cuttack transitioned through the hands of different rulers, the silver filigree took on a new form with each. Statement 3 is correct: It has received the geographical indication (GI) tag. Statement 4 is not correct: The iconic Silver filigree items found only in Cuttack are the Durga Puja Medha (silver decorations for the Durga idol and pandal), Odissi jewellery, religious/cultural pieces linked directly to the customs of Odisha, and the Dama chain. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statements 1 is correct: The famous Rupa Tarakasi, or silver filigree work belongs to Odisha’s Cuttack. Cuttack is known for its silver filigree work, of intricate design and fine craftsmanship. In Odia, “tara” means wire and “kasi” means to design. Thus, as part of Rupa Tarakasi, silver bricks are transformed into thin fine wires or foils and used to create jewellery or showpieces. While the exact origin of the filigree art in Cuttack is not clear, it is known to have existed as far back as the 12th century. Statement 2 is correct: The art form received considerable patronage under the Mughals. Over the years, as Cuttack transitioned through the hands of different rulers, the silver filigree took on a new form with each. Statement 3 is correct: It has received the geographical indication (GI) tag. Statement 4 is not correct: The iconic Silver filigree items found only in Cuttack are the Durga Puja Medha (silver decorations for the Durga idol and pandal), Odissi jewellery, religious/cultural pieces linked directly to the customs of Odisha, and the Dama chain.

#### 27. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Silver Filigree:

• It is also referred to as the Rupa Tarakasi.

• It received considerable patronage under the Mughals.

• It has recently received the geographical indication (GI) tag.

• It is directly linked to the customs of the tribes of Tripura.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statements 1 is correct: The famous Rupa Tarakasi, or silver filigree work belongs to Odisha’s Cuttack.

Cuttack is known for its silver filigree work, of intricate design and fine craftsmanship. In Odia, “tara” means wire and “kasi” means to design.

Thus, as part of Rupa Tarakasi, silver bricks are transformed into thin fine wires or foils and used to create jewellery or showpieces.

While the exact origin of the filigree art in Cuttack is not clear, it is known to have existed as far back as the 12th century.

Statement 2 is correct: The art form received considerable patronage under the Mughals. Over the years, as Cuttack transitioned through the hands of different rulers, the silver filigree took on a new form with each.

Statement 3 is correct: It has received the geographical indication (GI) tag.

Statement 4 is not correct: The iconic Silver filigree items found only in Cuttack are the Durga Puja Medha (silver decorations for the Durga idol and pandal), Odissi jewellery, religious/cultural pieces linked directly to the customs of Odisha, and the Dama chain.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statements 1 is correct: The famous Rupa Tarakasi, or silver filigree work belongs to Odisha’s Cuttack.

Cuttack is known for its silver filigree work, of intricate design and fine craftsmanship. In Odia, “tara” means wire and “kasi” means to design.

Thus, as part of Rupa Tarakasi, silver bricks are transformed into thin fine wires or foils and used to create jewellery or showpieces.

While the exact origin of the filigree art in Cuttack is not clear, it is known to have existed as far back as the 12th century.

Statement 3 is correct: It has received the geographical indication (GI) tag.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Pyrolysis refers to the thermal degradation of complex material in an inert atmosphere or a vacuum. Pyrolysis can be used for valorising biomass by converting it to produce biochar in a short process time. Which of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Pyrolysis is the thermal degradation of complex material in an inert atmosphere or a vacuum. Molecules cleave into smaller, volatile fragments called pyrolysate. Pyrolysis is a type of thermochemical conversion involving the conversion of complex hydrocarbons into value-added compounds using heat and little or no oxygen. Statement 2 is correct: Pyrolysis shows beneficial features as a promising technique for valorizing biomass by converting it to produce desirable biochar at a short process time. Potential applications of biochar include as an adsorbent, soil amender, direct carbon fuel, and catalyst. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Pyrolysis is the thermal degradation of complex material in an inert atmosphere or a vacuum. Molecules cleave into smaller, volatile fragments called pyrolysate. Pyrolysis is a type of thermochemical conversion involving the conversion of complex hydrocarbons into value-added compounds using heat and little or no oxygen. Statement 2 is correct*: Pyrolysis shows beneficial features as a promising technique for valorizing biomass by converting it to produce desirable biochar at a short process time. Potential applications of biochar include as an adsorbent, soil amender, direct carbon fuel, and catalyst.

#### 28. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Pyrolysis refers to the thermal degradation of complex material in an inert atmosphere or a vacuum.

• Pyrolysis can be used for valorising biomass by converting it to produce biochar in a short process time.

Which of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pyrolysis is the thermal degradation of complex material in an inert atmosphere or a vacuum. Molecules cleave into smaller, volatile fragments called pyrolysate.

Pyrolysis is a type of thermochemical conversion involving the conversion of complex hydrocarbons into value-added compounds using heat and little or no oxygen.

Statement 2 is correct: Pyrolysis shows beneficial features as a promising technique for valorizing biomass by converting it to produce desirable biochar at a short process time.

Potential applications of biochar include as an adsorbent, soil amender, direct carbon fuel, and catalyst.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pyrolysis is the thermal degradation of complex material in an inert atmosphere or a vacuum. Molecules cleave into smaller, volatile fragments called pyrolysate.

Pyrolysis is a type of thermochemical conversion involving the conversion of complex hydrocarbons into value-added compounds using heat and little or no oxygen.

Statement 2 is correct: Pyrolysis shows beneficial features as a promising technique for valorizing biomass by converting it to produce desirable biochar at a short process time.

Potential applications of biochar include as an adsorbent, soil amender, direct carbon fuel, and catalyst.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Consider the following: Which one of the following schemes in India is aimed to reduce poverty of the Scheduled Classes (SC) by generating additional employment opportunities through skill development to improve socio-economic developmental indicators in the SC-dominated villages? (a) The PM-AJAY Scheme (b) The SVAMITVA Scheme (c) The PM-AASHA Scheme (d) The SVANidhi Scheme Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM- AJAY) is a merged scheme of Centrally Sponsored Scheme namely- Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY) Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan ( SCA to SCSP) Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana(BJRCY) It aims to reduce poverty of the SC communities by generation of employment opportunities through Skill development, income generating schemes and other initiatives and to improve socio-economic developmental indicators by ensuring adequate infrastructure and requisite services in the SC dominated villages. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM- AJAY) is a merged scheme of Centrally Sponsored Scheme namely- Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY) Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan ( SCA to SCSP) Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana(BJRCY) It aims to reduce poverty of the SC communities by generation of employment opportunities through Skill development, income generating schemes and other initiatives and to improve socio-economic developmental indicators by ensuring adequate infrastructure and requisite services in the SC dominated villages.

#### 29. Question

Consider the following:

Which one of the following schemes in India is aimed to reduce poverty of the Scheduled Classes (SC) by generating additional employment opportunities through skill development to improve socio-economic developmental indicators in the SC-dominated villages?

• (a) The PM-AJAY Scheme

• (b) The SVAMITVA Scheme

• (c) The PM-AASHA Scheme

• (d) The SVANidhi Scheme

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM- AJAY) is a merged scheme of Centrally Sponsored Scheme namely-

Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY)

Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan ( SCA to SCSP)

Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana(BJRCY)

It aims to reduce poverty of the SC communities by generation of employment opportunities through Skill development, income generating schemes and other initiatives and to improve socio-economic developmental indicators by ensuring adequate infrastructure and requisite services in the SC dominated villages.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM- AJAY) is a merged scheme of Centrally Sponsored Scheme namely-

Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY)

Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan ( SCA to SCSP)

Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana(BJRCY)

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Which one of the following countries recently participated along with India in the Bilateral Maritime Exercise “Samudra Laksamana”? (a) Maldives (b) Sri Lanka (c) Indonesia (d) Malaysia Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Indian Naval Ship Kiltan and Royal Malaysian Ship KD Lekir are participating in the 3rd edition of the Exercise Samudra Laksamana which has professional interactions followed by the operational phase at sea. During the sea phase, units were jointly honing skills while conducting various operations at sea. The exercise aims to strengthen bonds and enhance interoperability between the Indian and Royal Malaysian Navy. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The Indian Naval Ship Kiltan and Royal Malaysian Ship KD Lekir are participating in the 3rd edition of the Exercise Samudra Laksamana which has professional interactions followed by the operational phase at sea. During the sea phase, units were jointly honing skills while conducting various operations at sea. The exercise aims to strengthen bonds and enhance interoperability between the Indian and Royal Malaysian Navy.

#### 30. Question

Which one of the following countries recently participated along with India in the Bilateral Maritime Exercise “Samudra Laksamana”?

• (a) Maldives

• (b) Sri Lanka

• (c) Indonesia

• (d) Malaysia

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The Indian Naval Ship Kiltan and Royal Malaysian Ship KD Lekir are participating in the 3rd edition of the Exercise Samudra Laksamana which has professional interactions followed by the operational phase at sea.

During the sea phase, units were jointly honing skills while conducting various operations at sea.

The exercise aims to strengthen bonds and enhance interoperability between the Indian and Royal Malaysian Navy.

Answer: D

Explanation:

During the sea phase, units were jointly honing skills while conducting various operations at sea.

The exercise aims to strengthen bonds and enhance interoperability between the Indian and Royal Malaysian Navy.

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