DAY – 66 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – MODERN INDIA , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2015 and Feb 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the scope and impact of Claudia Goldin’s research on women’s labor market participation? Goldin’s work primarily focused on the post-World War II period in the US. Her research provided a comprehensive account of women’s earnings and labor market participation over centuries. Goldin’s findings were limited to low-income countries. Her work revealed why the gender pay gap persists even in high-income countries. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Nobel Prize in Economics for 2023 has been awarded to Claudia Goldin, a Harvard University professor, for research that has advanced the understanding of the Gender Gap in the Labor Market. Goldin is only the third woman to win this honor. In 2009, Elinor Ostrom got the award along with Oliver E Williamson, while in 2019, Esther Duflo shared it with Abhijit Banerjee and Michael Kremer. Goldin’s research spans a much broader historical period, covering women’s labor market participation over centuries. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Her research provided a comprehensive account of women’s earnings and labor market participation over centuries. Goldin’s work has provided a detailed historical perspective on the economic roles of women over a long period. Hence, statement 2 is correct. While her research focused primarily on the U.S., its findings are applicable to many other countries, not specifically limited to low-income countries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Her work revealed why the gender pay gap persists even in high-income countries where women are often better educated than men. Goldin’s research addresses why the gender pay gap continues to exist, particularly highlighting factors such as parenthood and career interruptions in high-income countries. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Nobel Prize in Economics for 2023 has been awarded to Claudia Goldin, a Harvard University professor, for research that has advanced the understanding of the Gender Gap in the Labor Market. Goldin is only the third woman to win this honor. In 2009, Elinor Ostrom got the award along with Oliver E Williamson, while in 2019, Esther Duflo shared it with Abhijit Banerjee and Michael Kremer. Goldin’s research spans a much broader historical period, covering women’s labor market participation over centuries. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Her research provided a comprehensive account of women’s earnings and labor market participation over centuries. Goldin’s work has provided a detailed historical perspective on the economic roles of women over a long period. Hence, statement 2 is correct. While her research focused primarily on the U.S., its findings are applicable to many other countries, not specifically limited to low-income countries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Her work revealed why the gender pay gap persists even in high-income countries where women are often better educated than men. Goldin’s research addresses why the gender pay gap continues to exist, particularly highlighting factors such as parenthood and career interruptions in high-income countries. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following best describes the scope and impact of Claudia Goldin’s research on women’s labor market participation?

• Goldin’s work primarily focused on the post-World War II period in the US.

• Her research provided a comprehensive account of women’s earnings and labor market participation over centuries.

• Goldin’s findings were limited to low-income countries.

• Her work revealed why the gender pay gap persists even in high-income countries.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• a) 1 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 4 only

• c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

• The Nobel Prize in Economics for 2023 has been awarded to Claudia Goldin, a Harvard University professor, for research that has advanced the understanding of the Gender Gap in the Labor Market.

• Goldin is only the third woman to win this honor. In 2009, Elinor Ostrom got the award along with Oliver E Williamson, while in 2019, Esther Duflo shared it with Abhijit Banerjee and Michael Kremer.

• Goldin’s research spans a much broader historical period, covering women’s labor market participation over centuries. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Her research provided a comprehensive account of women’s earnings and labor market participation over centuries. Goldin’s work has provided a detailed historical perspective on the economic roles of women over a long period. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• While her research focused primarily on the U.S., its findings are applicable to many other countries, not specifically limited to low-income countries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Her work revealed why the gender pay gap persists even in high-income countries where women are often better educated than men.

Goldin’s research addresses why the gender pay gap continues to exist, particularly highlighting factors such as parenthood and career interruptions in high-income countries. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Goldin’s research spans a much broader historical period, covering women’s labor market participation over centuries. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• While her research focused primarily on the U.S., its findings are applicable to many other countries, not specifically limited to low-income countries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Her work revealed why the gender pay gap persists even in high-income countries where women are often better educated than men.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following: Skill Mismatch Current account deficit Low Wages Overemphasis on Blue-Collar Jobs How many of the above is/are challenges faced in Implementation of Lewis Model of economic development in India? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Lewis Model has proved successful for China, India grapples with its implementation, encountering challenges in the transition from agriculture to industrialization. In 1954, economist William Arthur Lewis put forth the “Economic Development with Unlimited Supplies of Labor”. For this work Lewis won Nobel Prize in Economics in 1979. The crux of the model suggested that surplus labor in agriculture could be redirected to the manufacturing sector by offering wages just high enough to attract workers away from the farm. This shift, in theory, would stimulate industrial growth, enhance productivity, and lead to economic development. Lewis Model and China: The model’s application in China was successful. Leveraging surplus rural labor and demographic advantages, China employed a dual-track system merging market forces with state planning. This strategy attracted foreign investment, boosted exports, and nurtured domestic industries. Extensive investments in infrastructure, education, and research and development enhanced China’s productivity and competitiveness, resulting in rapid industrialization, poverty reduction, and a substantial transformation of the economy. Challenges in Implementation of Lewis Model in India: Low Wages: Low wages and inadequate social security in urban manufacturing facilities fails to entice rural agricultural laborers to relocate, given the high costs of urban living, posing a hurdle to the implementation of the Lewis model. Technological Shift in Manufacturing: Manufacturing industries are increasingly capital-intensive, relying on labor-displacing technologies like robotics and artificial intelligence. Disguised Unemployment: India faces a scenario of disguised unemployment in the agricultural sector, where a surplus of workers is engaged in activities that do not significantly contribute to increased productivity or income. This surplus labor situation complicates the transition of workers to other sectors. Skill Mismatch: There exists a mismatch between the skills demanded by the industries and the skills possessed by the workforce. The education system might not adequately prepare individuals for the demands of the modern job market, resulting in a skill gap that impedes labor absorption in industries. Overemphasis on White-Collar Jobs: Societal perceptions often prioritize white-collar jobs over vocational or technical skills. This bias against blue-collar work can limit the workforce available for skilled trade positions and technical jobs, affecting industrial growth. While a current account deficit reflects an imbalance in a country’s trade and investment with the rest of the world, it is not directly mentioned as a challenge in the implementation of the Lewis Model in India. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Lewis Model has proved successful for China, India grapples with its implementation, encountering challenges in the transition from agriculture to industrialization. In 1954, economist William Arthur Lewis put forth the “Economic Development with Unlimited Supplies of Labor”. For this work Lewis won Nobel Prize in Economics in 1979. The crux of the model suggested that surplus labor in agriculture could be redirected to the manufacturing sector by offering wages just high enough to attract workers away from the farm. This shift, in theory, would stimulate industrial growth, enhance productivity, and lead to economic development. Lewis Model and China: The model’s application in China was successful. Leveraging surplus rural labor and demographic advantages, China employed a dual-track system merging market forces with state planning. This strategy attracted foreign investment, boosted exports, and nurtured domestic industries. Extensive investments in infrastructure, education, and research and development enhanced China’s productivity and competitiveness, resulting in rapid industrialization, poverty reduction, and a substantial transformation of the economy. Challenges in Implementation of Lewis Model in India: Low Wages: Low wages and inadequate social security in urban manufacturing facilities fails to entice rural agricultural laborers to relocate, given the high costs of urban living, posing a hurdle to the implementation of the Lewis model. Technological Shift in Manufacturing: Manufacturing industries are increasingly capital-intensive, relying on labor-displacing technologies like robotics and artificial intelligence. Disguised Unemployment: India faces a scenario of disguised unemployment in the agricultural sector, where a surplus of workers is engaged in activities that do not significantly contribute to increased productivity or income. This surplus labor situation complicates the transition of workers to other sectors. Skill Mismatch: There exists a mismatch between the skills demanded by the industries and the skills possessed by the workforce. The education system might not adequately prepare individuals for the demands of the modern job market, resulting in a skill gap that impedes labor absorption in industries. Overemphasis on White-Collar Jobs: Societal perceptions often prioritize white-collar jobs over vocational or technical skills. This bias against blue-collar work can limit the workforce available for skilled trade positions and technical jobs, affecting industrial growth. While a current account deficit reflects an imbalance in a country’s trade and investment with the rest of the world, it is not directly mentioned as a challenge in the implementation of the Lewis Model in India. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following:

• Skill Mismatch

• Current account deficit

• Overemphasis on Blue-Collar Jobs

How many of the above is/are challenges faced in Implementation of Lewis Model of economic development in India?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The Lewis Model has proved successful for China, India grapples with its implementation, encountering challenges in the transition from agriculture to industrialization.

• In 1954, economist William Arthur Lewis put forth the “Economic Development with Unlimited Supplies of Labor”. For this work Lewis won Nobel Prize in Economics in 1979.

• The crux of the model suggested that surplus labor in agriculture could be redirected to the manufacturing sector by offering wages just high enough to attract workers away from the farm.

• This shift, in theory, would stimulate industrial growth, enhance productivity, and lead to economic development.

• Lewis Model and China:

• The model’s application in China was successful. Leveraging surplus rural labor and demographic advantages, China employed a dual-track system merging market forces with state planning.

• This strategy attracted foreign investment, boosted exports, and nurtured domestic industries.

• Extensive investments in infrastructure, education, and research and development enhanced China’s productivity and competitiveness, resulting in rapid industrialization, poverty reduction, and a substantial transformation of the economy.

• Challenges in Implementation of Lewis Model in India:

• Low Wages: Low wages and inadequate social security in urban manufacturing facilities fails to entice rural agricultural laborers to relocate, given the high costs of urban living, posing a hurdle to the implementation of the Lewis model.

• Technological Shift in Manufacturing: Manufacturing industries are increasingly capital-intensive, relying on labor-displacing technologies like robotics and artificial intelligence.

• Disguised Unemployment: India faces a scenario of disguised unemployment in the agricultural sector, where a surplus of workers is engaged in activities that do not significantly contribute to increased productivity or income. This surplus labor situation complicates the transition of workers to other sectors.

• Skill Mismatch: There exists a mismatch between the skills demanded by the industries and the skills possessed by the workforce. The education system might not adequately prepare individuals for the demands of the modern job market, resulting in a skill gap that impedes labor absorption in industries.

• Overemphasis on White-Collar Jobs: Societal perceptions often prioritize white-collar jobs over vocational or technical skills. This bias against blue-collar work can limit the workforce available for skilled trade positions and technical jobs, affecting industrial growth.

• While a current account deficit reflects an imbalance in a country’s trade and investment with the rest of the world, it is not directly mentioned as a challenge in the implementation of the Lewis Model in India.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Lewis Model has proved successful for China, India grapples with its implementation, encountering challenges in the transition from agriculture to industrialization.

• In 1954, economist William Arthur Lewis put forth the “Economic Development with Unlimited Supplies of Labor”. For this work Lewis won Nobel Prize in Economics in 1979.

• The crux of the model suggested that surplus labor in agriculture could be redirected to the manufacturing sector by offering wages just high enough to attract workers away from the farm.

• This shift, in theory, would stimulate industrial growth, enhance productivity, and lead to economic development.

• Lewis Model and China:

• The model’s application in China was successful. Leveraging surplus rural labor and demographic advantages, China employed a dual-track system merging market forces with state planning.

• This strategy attracted foreign investment, boosted exports, and nurtured domestic industries.

• Challenges in Implementation of Lewis Model in India:

• Technological Shift in Manufacturing: Manufacturing industries are increasingly capital-intensive, relying on labor-displacing technologies like robotics and artificial intelligence.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the ‘Farm- as- Factory’ concept? a) A concept emphasizing the establishment of large-scale automated farms to increase efficiency and output in agriculture. b) An approach aimed at industrializing agriculture through the adoption of advanced technologies and genetically modified crops. c) A strategy emphasizing the integration of manufacturing industries into rural agricultural communities to streamline production processes. d) A model advocating for enhancing productivity and value addition within the agricultural sector rather than transferring workers to manufacturing. Correct Answer: d Explanation: India is contemplating shifting to a ‘farm-as-factory’ labor model to increase employment and economic growth. Farm-as-Factory Model suggests a focus on elevating the value addition and productivity within India’s agricultural sector rather than transferring workers from agriculture to manufacturing. By emphasizing the promotion of agribusiness, bio-fuels, and food processing this approach aims to enhance employment opportunities, income generation, and innovation for rural workers. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: India is contemplating shifting to a ‘farm-as-factory’ labor model to increase employment and economic growth. Farm-as-Factory Model suggests a focus on elevating the value addition and productivity within India’s agricultural sector rather than transferring workers from agriculture to manufacturing. By emphasizing the promotion of agribusiness, bio-fuels, and food processing this approach aims to enhance employment opportunities, income generation, and innovation for rural workers. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following best describes the ‘Farm- as- Factory’ concept?

• a) A concept emphasizing the establishment of large-scale automated farms to increase efficiency and output in agriculture.

• b) An approach aimed at industrializing agriculture through the adoption of advanced technologies and genetically modified crops.

• c) A strategy emphasizing the integration of manufacturing industries into rural agricultural communities to streamline production processes.

• d) A model advocating for enhancing productivity and value addition within the agricultural sector rather than transferring workers to manufacturing.

Explanation:

• India is contemplating shifting to a ‘farm-as-factory’ labor model to increase employment and economic growth.

• Farm-as-Factory Model suggests a focus on elevating the value addition and productivity within India’s agricultural sector rather than transferring workers from agriculture to manufacturing.

• By emphasizing the promotion of agribusiness, bio-fuels, and food processing this approach aims to enhance employment opportunities, income generation, and innovation for rural workers.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• India is contemplating shifting to a ‘farm-as-factory’ labor model to increase employment and economic growth.

• By emphasizing the promotion of agribusiness, bio-fuels, and food processing this approach aims to enhance employment opportunities, income generation, and innovation for rural workers.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points What does the term ‘Last Natural Person above every person’ refer to in the context of financial investments? a) The final beneficiary of a financial investment b) The individual with the highest ownership stake in a company c) The last person in the ownership chain who holds an economic interest d) The ultimate controller of a financial institution Correct Answer: c Explanation: In the case regarding Hindenburg-Adani allegations, the issue before the Supreme Court revolved around market volatility following a report against the Adani Group. The court appointed a committee to suggest measures for investor protection, which highlighted challenges in identifying beneficiaries of offshore funds investing in Adani Group companies. However, SEBI clarified that challenges did not stem from 2019 FPI regulation changes but from the absence of disclosing the ‘last natural person above every person’ owning economic interest in FPIs. The term ‘Last Natural Person above every person’ refers to identifying and disclosing the ultimate individual controlling or owning a financial investment like FPIs, ensuring transparency and accountability in investment structures. It refers to the final individual in the ownership chain who holds an economic interest in the financial investment. This individual may not necessarily be the largest shareholder but holds the ultimate position in the ownership structure. The last person in the ownership chain who holds an economic interest best describes the meaning of the term ‘Last Natural Person above every person’ in the context of financial investments. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: In the case regarding Hindenburg-Adani allegations, the issue before the Supreme Court revolved around market volatility following a report against the Adani Group. The court appointed a committee to suggest measures for investor protection, which highlighted challenges in identifying beneficiaries of offshore funds investing in Adani Group companies. However, SEBI clarified that challenges did not stem from 2019 FPI regulation changes but from the absence of disclosing the ‘last natural person above every person’ owning economic interest in FPIs. The term ‘Last Natural Person above every person’ refers to identifying and disclosing the ultimate individual controlling or owning a financial investment like FPIs, ensuring transparency and accountability in investment structures. It refers to the final individual in the ownership chain who holds an economic interest in the financial investment. This individual may not necessarily be the largest shareholder but holds the ultimate position in the ownership structure. The last person in the ownership chain who holds an economic interest best describes the meaning of the term ‘Last Natural Person above every person’ in the context of financial investments. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

What does the term ‘Last Natural Person above every person’ refer to in the context of financial investments?

• a) The final beneficiary of a financial investment

• b) The individual with the highest ownership stake in a company

• c) The last person in the ownership chain who holds an economic interest

• d) The ultimate controller of a financial institution

Explanation:

• In the case regarding Hindenburg-Adani allegations, the issue before the Supreme Court revolved around market volatility following a report against the Adani Group. The court appointed a committee to suggest measures for investor protection, which highlighted challenges in identifying beneficiaries of offshore funds investing in Adani Group companies. However, SEBI clarified that challenges did not stem from 2019 FPI regulation changes but from the absence of disclosing the ‘last natural person above every person’ owning economic interest in FPIs.

• The term ‘Last Natural Person above every person’ refers to identifying and disclosing the ultimate individual controlling or owning a financial investment like FPIs, ensuring transparency and accountability in investment structures.

• It refers to the final individual in the ownership chain who holds an economic interest in the financial investment. This individual may not necessarily be the largest shareholder but holds the ultimate position in the ownership structure.

• The last person in the ownership chain who holds an economic interest best describes the meaning of the term ‘Last Natural Person above every person’ in the context of financial investments.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The last person in the ownership chain who holds an economic interest best describes the meaning of the term ‘Last Natural Person above every person’ in the context of financial investments.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Under whose supervision does C-PACE (Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit) operate? a) Registrar of Companies b) Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs c) Director General of Corporate Affairs d) Ministry of Finance Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) recently established C-PACE, or Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit, to bring efficiency into the strike off process of companies. C-PACE has been set up to centralize the process of striking off companies from the MCA Register. Location: It is located at the Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs in Gurgaon. C-PACE will be in operation through the Registrar of Companies (RoC) for the purposes of exercising functional jurisdiction of processing and disposal of applications. It will work under the supervision of the Director General of Corporate Affairs (DGCoA). Director General of Corporate Affairs (DGCoA) is a senior official within the Ministry of Corporate Affairs responsible for overseeing corporate governance, compliance, and regulatory matters. C-PACE operates under the supervision of the DGCoA, who ensures its proper functioning and adherence to regulatory guidelines. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) recently established C-PACE, or Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit, to bring efficiency into the strike off process of companies. C-PACE has been set up to centralize the process of striking off companies from the MCA Register. Location: It is located at the Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs in Gurgaon. C-PACE will be in operation through the Registrar of Companies (RoC) for the purposes of exercising functional jurisdiction of processing and disposal of applications. It will work under the supervision of the Director General of Corporate Affairs (DGCoA). Director General of Corporate Affairs (DGCoA) is a senior official within the Ministry of Corporate Affairs responsible for overseeing corporate governance, compliance, and regulatory matters. C-PACE operates under the supervision of the DGCoA, who ensures its proper functioning and adherence to regulatory guidelines. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Under whose supervision does C-PACE (Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit) operate?

• a) Registrar of Companies

• b) Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs

• c) Director General of Corporate Affairs

• d) Ministry of Finance

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) recently established C-PACE, or Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit, to bring efficiency into the strike off process of companies.

• C-PACE has been set up to centralize the process of striking off companies from the MCA Register.

• Location: It is located at the Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs in Gurgaon.

• C-PACE will be in operation through the Registrar of Companies (RoC) for the purposes of exercising functional jurisdiction of processing and disposal of applications.

• It will work under the supervision of the Director General of Corporate Affairs (DGCoA).

• Director General of Corporate Affairs (DGCoA) is a senior official within the Ministry of Corporate Affairs responsible for overseeing corporate governance, compliance, and regulatory matters. C-PACE operates under the supervision of the DGCoA, who ensures its proper functioning and adherence to regulatory guidelines.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) recently established C-PACE, or Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit, to bring efficiency into the strike off process of companies.

• C-PACE has been set up to centralize the process of striking off companies from the MCA Register.

• Location: It is located at the Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs in Gurgaon.

• C-PACE will be in operation through the Registrar of Companies (RoC) for the purposes of exercising functional jurisdiction of processing and disposal of applications.

• It will work under the supervision of the Director General of Corporate Affairs (DGCoA).

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the concept of ‘purple economy’? a) A movement emphasizing the revitalization of traditional crafts and artisanal industries for economic growth. b) A vision that recognizes the importance of care work and women's empowerment to sustainable development and societal well-being. c) A philosophy advocating for the inclusion of creative arts and humanities in STEM-focused curricula. d) An ideology prioritizing diplomacy and international cooperation in economic policy-making for global stability. Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Purple Economy, also sometimes referred to as the care economy, obtains its name from the color adopted by many feminist movements. It represents a new vision of economics that recognizes the importance of care work, empowerment and autonomy of women to the functioning of the economies, wellbeing of societies and life sustainability. Care work consists of two overlapping activities and can be paid or unpaid: 1) direct, personal, and relational care activities, such as feeding a baby or nursing an ill partner; and 2) indirect care activities or domestic work, such as cooking and cleaning. Paid care work refers to occupations where workers provide direct face-to-face care or indirect forms of care that provide the preconditions for caregiving. It thus includes the work carried out by nurses, childminders, community health workers and elderly care assistants as well as domestic workers, cooks, and cleaners. Unpaid care and domestic work are provided without explicit monetary reward in homes and communities. Care Economy refers to the economic activities related to providing care and support services, often in healthcare, childcare, elderly care, and other areas aimed at improving people’s well-being. It encompasses both paid and unpaid care work and is a critical aspect of social and economic development. The purple economy is an economic order that focuses on the sustainability of caring labour. The purple economy aims to: Organize the system around the sustainability of caring labour Address the inequalities created by the disproportionate reliance on women’s unpaid and underpaid labour Contribute to sustainable development by promoting the cultural potential of goods and services Contribute to a richer and more diverse cultural environment. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Purple Economy, also sometimes referred to as the care economy, obtains its name from the color adopted by many feminist movements. It represents a new vision of economics that recognizes the importance of care work, empowerment and autonomy of women to the functioning of the economies, wellbeing of societies and life sustainability. Care work consists of two overlapping activities and can be paid or unpaid: 1) direct, personal, and relational care activities, such as feeding a baby or nursing an ill partner; and 2) indirect care activities or domestic work, such as cooking and cleaning. Paid care work refers to occupations where workers provide direct face-to-face care or indirect forms of care that provide the preconditions for caregiving. It thus includes the work carried out by nurses, childminders, community health workers and elderly care assistants as well as domestic workers, cooks, and cleaners. Unpaid care and domestic work are provided without explicit monetary reward in homes and communities. Care Economy refers to the economic activities related to providing care and support services, often in healthcare, childcare, elderly care, and other areas aimed at improving people’s well-being. It encompasses both paid and unpaid care work and is a critical aspect of social and economic development. The purple economy is an economic order that focuses on the sustainability of caring labour. The purple economy aims to: Organize the system around the sustainability of caring labour Address the inequalities created by the disproportionate reliance on women’s unpaid and underpaid labour Contribute to sustainable development by promoting the cultural potential of goods and services Contribute to a richer and more diverse cultural environment. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best describes the concept of ‘purple economy’?

• a) A movement emphasizing the revitalization of traditional crafts and artisanal industries for economic growth.

• b) A vision that recognizes the importance of care work and women's empowerment to sustainable development and societal well-being.

• c) A philosophy advocating for the inclusion of creative arts and humanities in STEM-focused curricula.

• d) An ideology prioritizing diplomacy and international cooperation in economic policy-making for global stability.

Explanation:

• The Purple Economy, also sometimes referred to as the care economy, obtains its name from the color adopted by many feminist movements.

• It represents a new vision of economics that recognizes the importance of care work, empowerment and autonomy of women to the functioning of the economies, wellbeing of societies and life sustainability.

• Care work consists of two overlapping activities and can be paid or unpaid: 1) direct, personal, and relational care activities, such as feeding a baby or nursing an ill partner; and 2) indirect care activities or domestic work, such as cooking and cleaning.

• Paid care work refers to occupations where workers provide direct face-to-face care or indirect forms of care that provide the preconditions for caregiving. It thus includes the work carried out by nurses, childminders, community health workers and elderly care assistants as well as domestic workers, cooks, and cleaners. Unpaid care and domestic work are provided without explicit monetary reward in homes and communities.

• Care Economy refers to the economic activities related to providing care and support services, often in healthcare, childcare, elderly care, and other areas aimed at improving people’s well-being. It encompasses both paid and unpaid care work and is a critical aspect of social and economic development.

• The purple economy is an economic order that focuses on the sustainability of caring labour.

• The purple economy aims to:

• Organize the system around the sustainability of caring labour

• Address the inequalities created by the disproportionate reliance on women’s unpaid and underpaid labour

• Contribute to sustainable development by promoting the cultural potential of goods and services

• Contribute to a richer and more diverse cultural environment.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Purple Economy, also sometimes referred to as the care economy, obtains its name from the color adopted by many feminist movements.

• The purple economy is an economic order that focuses on the sustainability of caring labour.

• The purple economy aims to:

• Organize the system around the sustainability of caring labour

• Address the inequalities created by the disproportionate reliance on women’s unpaid and underpaid labour

• Contribute to sustainable development by promoting the cultural potential of goods and services

• Contribute to a richer and more diverse cultural environment.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points A country has been experiencing stagnant economic growth despite maintaining a high level of investment. Upon analysis, it is discovered that the Capital Output Ratio (COR) has increased from 4 to 5. What could be a potential consequence of this change in COR? a) Increased efficiency in capital utilization b) Decreased productivity in the economy c) Lower dependency on capital for output d) Higher return on investment for each unit of capital spent Correct Answer: b Explanation: Capital Output Ratio (COR) is the amount of capital required to produce one unit of output. It is the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). For example, suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the economic growth corresponding to this level of investment is 8%. Here, Rs.32 investment produces an output of Rs.8. Capital output ratio is 32/8 or 4. In other words, to produce one unit of output, 4 unit of capital is needed. The Capital Output Ratio (COR) represents the efficiency of capital utilization in an economy. When the COR increases, it means that more capital is required to produce the same level of output (which is not good). Given that the country has been experiencing stagnant economic growth despite maintaining a high level of investment and the COR has increased from 4 to 5. An increase in COR suggests that productivity may have declined, as more capital is required to generate the same level of output. This could lead to stagnant economic growth despite high levels of investment. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Capital Output Ratio (COR) is the amount of capital required to produce one unit of output. It is the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). For example, suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the economic growth corresponding to this level of investment is 8%. Here, Rs.32 investment produces an output of Rs.8. Capital output ratio is 32/8 or 4. In other words, to produce one unit of output, 4 unit of capital is needed. The Capital Output Ratio (COR) represents the efficiency of capital utilization in an economy. When the COR increases, it means that more capital is required to produce the same level of output (which is not good). Given that the country has been experiencing stagnant economic growth despite maintaining a high level of investment and the COR has increased from 4 to 5. An increase in COR suggests that productivity may have declined, as more capital is required to generate the same level of output. This could lead to stagnant economic growth despite high levels of investment. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

A country has been experiencing stagnant economic growth despite maintaining a high level of investment. Upon analysis, it is discovered that the Capital Output Ratio (COR) has increased from 4 to 5. What could be a potential consequence of this change in COR?

• a) Increased efficiency in capital utilization

• b) Decreased productivity in the economy

• c) Lower dependency on capital for output

• d) Higher return on investment for each unit of capital spent

Explanation:

• Capital Output Ratio (COR) is the amount of capital required to produce one unit of output. It is the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

• For example, suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the economic growth corresponding to this level of investment is 8%. Here, Rs.32 investment produces an output of Rs.8. Capital output ratio is 32/8 or 4. In other words, to produce one unit of output, 4 unit of capital is needed.

• The Capital Output Ratio (COR) represents the efficiency of capital utilization in an economy.

• When the COR increases, it means that more capital is required to produce the same level of output (which is not good).

• Given that the country has been experiencing stagnant economic growth despite maintaining a high level of investment and the COR has increased from 4 to 5. An increase in COR suggests that productivity may have declined, as more capital is required to generate the same level of output. This could lead to stagnant economic growth despite high levels of investment.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Capital Output Ratio (COR) represents the efficiency of capital utilization in an economy.

• When the COR increases, it means that more capital is required to produce the same level of output (which is not good).

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following type of incomes: Profits from sales Profits earned from sale of assets Interest earned Income from properties How many of the above are taxed under the ambit of corporate tax? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: Corporation tax is a tax imposed on the Profits (Net Income) of the company. Net income is an entity’s income minus cost of goods, expenses and depreciation. In order to compute corporate tax on the income of a company it is necessary to first learn what all factors make up the total income of any company. Profits from sales: These are revenues generated from selling goods or services. In most jurisdictions, these profits are subject to corporate tax. Profits earned from the sale of assets: These are capital gains derived from selling assets such as stocks, real estate, or equipment. In many countries, capital gains are subject to corporate tax. Interest earned: Interest income can arise from various sources such as loans, bonds, or bank deposits. Generally, interest income earned by a corporation is subject to corporate tax. Income from properties: This includes rental income from real estate properties. In most cases, income from properties earned by a corporation is subject to corporate tax. Companies, both private and public which are registered in India under the Companies Act 1956, are liable to pay corporate tax. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Corporation tax is a tax imposed on the Profits (Net Income) of the company. Net income is an entity’s income minus cost of goods, expenses and depreciation. In order to compute corporate tax on the income of a company it is necessary to first learn what all factors make up the total income of any company. Profits from sales: These are revenues generated from selling goods or services. In most jurisdictions, these profits are subject to corporate tax. Profits earned from the sale of assets: These are capital gains derived from selling assets such as stocks, real estate, or equipment. In many countries, capital gains are subject to corporate tax. Interest earned: Interest income can arise from various sources such as loans, bonds, or bank deposits. Generally, interest income earned by a corporation is subject to corporate tax. Income from properties: This includes rental income from real estate properties. In most cases, income from properties earned by a corporation is subject to corporate tax. Companies, both private and public which are registered in India under the Companies Act 1956, are liable to pay corporate tax. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following type of incomes:

• Profits from sales

• Profits earned from sale of assets

• Interest earned

• Income from properties

How many of the above are taxed under the ambit of corporate tax?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Corporation tax is a tax imposed on the Profits (Net Income) of the company.

• Net income is an entity’s income minus cost of goods, expenses and depreciation.

• In order to compute corporate tax on the income of a company it is necessary to first learn what all factors make up the total income of any company.

• Profits from sales: These are revenues generated from selling goods or services. In most jurisdictions, these profits are subject to corporate tax.

• Profits earned from the sale of assets: These are capital gains derived from selling assets such as stocks, real estate, or equipment. In many countries, capital gains are subject to corporate tax.

• Interest earned: Interest income can arise from various sources such as loans, bonds, or bank deposits. Generally, interest income earned by a corporation is subject to corporate tax.

• Income from properties: This includes rental income from real estate properties. In most cases, income from properties earned by a corporation is subject to corporate tax.

• Companies, both private and public which are registered in India under the Companies Act 1956, are liable to pay corporate tax.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Corporation tax is a tax imposed on the Profits (Net Income) of the company.

• Net income is an entity’s income minus cost of goods, expenses and depreciation.

• In order to compute corporate tax on the income of a company it is necessary to first learn what all factors make up the total income of any company.

• Profits from sales: These are revenues generated from selling goods or services. In most jurisdictions, these profits are subject to corporate tax.

• Interest earned: Interest income can arise from various sources such as loans, bonds, or bank deposits. Generally, interest income earned by a corporation is subject to corporate tax.

• Income from properties: This includes rental income from real estate properties. In most cases, income from properties earned by a corporation is subject to corporate tax.

• Companies, both private and public which are registered in India under the Companies Act 1956, are liable to pay corporate tax.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points How does greedflation differ from the traditional wage-price spiral? a) Greedflation is driven by government policies, while the wage-price spiral is market-driven. b) Greedflation results from increased consumer demand, while the wage-price spiral is caused by declining demand. c) In greedflation, corporate profit motives lead to price increases, while in the wage-price spiral, rising wages drive up prices. d) Greedflation occurs during periods of economic recession, while the wage-price spiral occurs during economic expansion. Correct Answer: c Explanation: Greedflation and the traditional wage-price spiral are both economic phenomena associated with inflation, but they operate through different mechanisms. In greedflation, corporate greed or profit motives drive price increases. This means that companies raise prices not necessarily in response to increased demand or production costs but rather to maximize their profits. For example, companies may increase profit margins by keeping market prices high even when input costs decrease. On the other hand, the wage-price spiral describes a situation where rising wages lead to increased consumer spending, which, in turn, drives up prices. This occurs when workers negotiate higher wages to keep up with rising prices, creating a cycle of wage increases followed by price increases. It’s a demand-driven process where increased consumer demand pushes prices higher. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Greedflation and the traditional wage-price spiral are both economic phenomena associated with inflation, but they operate through different mechanisms. In greedflation, corporate greed or profit motives drive price increases. This means that companies raise prices not necessarily in response to increased demand or production costs but rather to maximize their profits. For example, companies may increase profit margins by keeping market prices high even when input costs decrease. On the other hand, the wage-price spiral describes a situation where rising wages lead to increased consumer spending, which, in turn, drives up prices. This occurs when workers negotiate higher wages to keep up with rising prices, creating a cycle of wage increases followed by price increases. It’s a demand-driven process where increased consumer demand pushes prices higher. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 9. Question

How does greedflation differ from the traditional wage-price spiral?

• a) Greedflation is driven by government policies, while the wage-price spiral is market-driven.

• b) Greedflation results from increased consumer demand, while the wage-price spiral is caused by declining demand.

• c) In greedflation, corporate profit motives lead to price increases, while in the wage-price spiral, rising wages drive up prices.

• d) Greedflation occurs during periods of economic recession, while the wage-price spiral occurs during economic expansion.

Explanation:

• Greedflation and the traditional wage-price spiral are both economic phenomena associated with inflation, but they operate through different mechanisms.

• In greedflation, corporate greed or profit motives drive price increases. This means that companies raise prices not necessarily in response to increased demand or production costs but rather to maximize their profits. For example, companies may increase profit margins by keeping market prices high even when input costs decrease.

• On the other hand, the wage-price spiral describes a situation where rising wages lead to increased consumer spending, which, in turn, drives up prices. This occurs when workers negotiate higher wages to keep up with rising prices, creating a cycle of wage increases followed by price increases. It’s a demand-driven process where increased consumer demand pushes prices higher.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Greedflation and the traditional wage-price spiral are both economic phenomena associated with inflation, but they operate through different mechanisms.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to snowball effect: Economists often uses the snowball effect to describe the compounding effects of inflation on consumer purchasing power. The snowball effect in economics occurs when a firm’s product gains widespread popularity, leading to increased demand and profitability. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: d Explanation: India is expected to clock the highest growth among the world’s big economies this year and the country’s economy is witnessing the “famous snowball effect” that will lead to more investments and more jobs, according to WEF President Borge Brende. The snowball effect is a phenomenon often used to describe situations where a small action or event triggers a series of additional actions or events that compound or magnify the initial impact. Much like a snowball rolling down a hill, gradually accumulating more snow and growing larger in size, the snowball effect illustrates how small changes can lead to significant consequences over time. In economics, the snowball effect can manifest in various ways. For example, in the context of investments, the snowball effect describes how small initial investments can grow exponentially over time due to compounding returns. As investment earnings are reinvested and continue to generate returns, the total investment grows at an increasing rate, akin to a snowball gaining momentum as it rolls downhill. Additionally, the snowball effect can be observed in the multiplier effect of government spending. When the government injects funds into the economy through spending programs or investments, this initial injection of capital stimulates economic activity, leading to increased income and spending by businesses and consumers. As the additional income circulates through the economy, it generates further rounds of spending and economic growth, amplifying the initial impact of government spending. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. When a firm’s product experiences increasing demand and profitability, this is more commonly referred to as the “network effect” or “bandwagon effect” and not snowball effect. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: India is expected to clock the highest growth among the world’s big economies this year and the country’s economy is witnessing the “famous snowball effect” that will lead to more investments and more jobs, according to WEF President Borge Brende. The snowball effect is a phenomenon often used to describe situations where a small action or event triggers a series of additional actions or events that compound or magnify the initial impact. Much like a snowball rolling down a hill, gradually accumulating more snow and growing larger in size, the snowball effect illustrates how small changes can lead to significant consequences over time. In economics, the snowball effect can manifest in various ways. For example, in the context of investments, the snowball effect describes how small initial investments can grow exponentially over time due to compounding returns. As investment earnings are reinvested and continue to generate returns, the total investment grows at an increasing rate, akin to a snowball gaining momentum as it rolls downhill. Additionally, the snowball effect can be observed in the multiplier effect of government spending. When the government injects funds into the economy through spending programs or investments, this initial injection of capital stimulates economic activity, leading to increased income and spending by businesses and consumers. As the additional income circulates through the economy, it generates further rounds of spending and economic growth, amplifying the initial impact of government spending. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. When a firm’s product experiences increasing demand and profitability, this is more commonly referred to as the “network effect” or “bandwagon effect” and not snowball effect. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to snowball effect:

• Economists often uses the snowball effect to describe the compounding effects of inflation on consumer purchasing power.

• The snowball effect in economics occurs when a firm’s product gains widespread popularity, leading to increased demand and profitability.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• India is expected to clock the highest growth among the world’s big economies this year and the country’s economy is witnessing the “famous snowball effect” that will lead to more investments and more jobs, according to WEF President Borge Brende.

• The snowball effect is a phenomenon often used to describe situations where a small action or event triggers a series of additional actions or events that compound or magnify the initial impact. Much like a snowball rolling down a hill, gradually accumulating more snow and growing larger in size, the snowball effect illustrates how small changes can lead to significant consequences over time.

• In economics, the snowball effect can manifest in various ways. For example, in the context of investments, the snowball effect describes how small initial investments can grow exponentially over time due to compounding returns. As investment earnings are reinvested and continue to generate returns, the total investment grows at an increasing rate, akin to a snowball gaining momentum as it rolls downhill.

• Additionally, the snowball effect can be observed in the multiplier effect of government spending. When the government injects funds into the economy through spending programs or investments, this initial injection of capital stimulates economic activity, leading to increased income and spending by businesses and consumers. As the additional income circulates through the economy, it generates further rounds of spending and economic growth, amplifying the initial impact of government spending. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• When a firm’s product experiences increasing demand and profitability, this is more commonly referred to as the “network effect” or “bandwagon effect” and not snowball effect. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Environmental DNA (eDNA): It refers to the practice of genetically modifying organisms in their natural habitats to enhance biodiversity It can used to identify species in water bodies Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment. Sources of eDNA include secreted faeces, mucous, and gametes; shed skin and hair; and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form. In aquatic environments, eDNA is diluted and distributed by currents and other hydrological processes (fig. 1), but it only lasts about 7–21 days, depending on environmental conditions (Dejean and others, 2011). Exposure to UVB radiation, acidity, heat, and endo- and exonucleases can degrade eDNA. Environmental DNA (eDNA) is used to identify species in water bodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. First statement is the definition of GMO crops. Incorrect Solution: B Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment. Sources of eDNA include secreted faeces, mucous, and gametes; shed skin and hair; and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form. In aquatic environments, eDNA is diluted and distributed by currents and other hydrological processes (fig. 1), but it only lasts about 7–21 days, depending on environmental conditions (Dejean and others, 2011). Exposure to UVB radiation, acidity, heat, and endo- and exonucleases can degrade eDNA. Environmental DNA (eDNA) is used to identify species in water bodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. First statement is the definition of GMO crops.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Environmental DNA (eDNA):

• It refers to the practice of genetically modifying organisms in their natural habitats to enhance biodiversity

• It can used to identify species in water bodies

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment. Sources of eDNA include secreted faeces, mucous, and gametes; shed skin and hair; and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form.

In aquatic environments, eDNA is diluted and distributed by currents and other hydrological processes (fig. 1), but it only lasts about 7–21 days, depending on environmental conditions (Dejean and others, 2011). Exposure to UVB radiation, acidity, heat, and endo- and exonucleases can degrade eDNA.

Environmental DNA (eDNA) is used to identify species in water bodies.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

First statement is the definition of GMO crops.

Solution: B

Environmental DNA (eDNA) is used to identify species in water bodies.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

First statement is the definition of GMO crops.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Gas hydrates: It contains the huge amounts of Thorium. One of the major advantages of the gas hydrates is that it is highly stable at normal sea-level pressures and temperatures. Gas hydrates are found in sub-oceanic sediments in the polar regions How many statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Gas hydrates are a crystalline solid formed of water and gas. It looks and acts much like ice, but it contains huge amounts of methane; it is known to occur on every continent; and it exists in huge quantities in marine sediments in a layer several hundred meters thick directly below the sea floor and in association with permafrost in the Arctic. It is not stable at normal sea-level pressures and temperatures, which is the primary reason that it is a challenge to study. Gas hydrates are important for three reasons: They may contain a major energy resource It may be a significant hazard because it alters sea floor sediment stability, influencing collapse and land sliding The hydrate reservoir may have strong influence on the environment and climate, because methane is a significant greenhouse gas. Gas hydrates are found in sub-oceanic sediments in the polar regions (shallow water) and in continental slope sediments (deep water), where pressure and temperature conditions combine to make them stable. Incorrect Solution: A Gas hydrates are a crystalline solid formed of water and gas. It looks and acts much like ice, but it contains huge amounts of methane; it is known to occur on every continent; and it exists in huge quantities in marine sediments in a layer several hundred meters thick directly below the sea floor and in association with permafrost in the Arctic. It is not stable at normal sea-level pressures and temperatures, which is the primary reason that it is a challenge to study. Gas hydrates are important for three reasons: They may contain a major energy resource It may be a significant hazard because it alters sea floor sediment stability, influencing collapse and land sliding The hydrate reservoir may have strong influence on the environment and climate, because methane is a significant greenhouse gas. Gas hydrates are found in sub-oceanic sediments in the polar regions (shallow water) and in continental slope sediments (deep water), where pressure and temperature conditions combine to make them stable.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Gas hydrates:

• It contains the huge amounts of Thorium.

• One of the major advantages of the gas hydrates is that it is highly stable at normal sea-level pressures and temperatures.

• Gas hydrates are found in sub-oceanic sediments in the polar regions

How many statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Gas hydrates are a crystalline solid formed of water and gas. It looks and acts much like ice, but it contains huge amounts of methane; it is known to occur on every continent; and it exists in huge quantities in marine sediments in a layer several hundred meters thick directly below the sea floor and in association with permafrost in the Arctic. It is not stable at normal sea-level pressures and temperatures, which is the primary reason that it is a challenge to study.

Gas hydrates are important for three reasons:

• They may contain a major energy resource

• It may be a significant hazard because it alters sea floor sediment stability, influencing collapse and land sliding

• The hydrate reservoir may have strong influence on the environment and climate, because methane is a significant greenhouse gas.

Gas hydrates are found in sub-oceanic sediments in the polar regions (shallow water) and in continental slope sediments (deep water), where pressure and temperature conditions combine to make them stable.

Solution: A

Gas hydrates are important for three reasons:

• They may contain a major energy resource

• It may be a significant hazard because it alters sea floor sediment stability, influencing collapse and land sliding

• The hydrate reservoir may have strong influence on the environment and climate, because methane is a significant greenhouse gas.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The Euclid mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) , recently seen in news, was launched with the primary objective of : (a) to study the Mercury planet's composition, geophysics, atmosphere, and magnetosphere (b) to study Jupiter and its icy moons Ganymede, Callisto, and Europa (c) to study the Sun's atmosphere, its poles, and solar wind in great detail. (d) to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe. Correct Solution: D ESA’s Euclid mission is designed to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe. The space telescope will create a great map of the large-scale structure of the Universe across space and time by observing billions of galaxies out to 10 billion light-years, across more than a third of the sky. Euclid will explore how the Universe has expanded and how structure has formed over cosmic history, revealing more about the role of gravity and the nature of dark energy and dark matter. https://www.esa.int/Science_Exploration/Space_Science/Euclid Incorrect Solution: D ESA’s Euclid mission is designed to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe. The space telescope will create a great map of the large-scale structure of the Universe across space and time by observing billions of galaxies out to 10 billion light-years, across more than a third of the sky. Euclid will explore how the Universe has expanded and how structure has formed over cosmic history, revealing more about the role of gravity and the nature of dark energy and dark matter. https://www.esa.int/Science_Exploration/Space_Science/Euclid

#### 13. Question

The Euclid mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) , recently seen in news, was launched with the primary objective of :

• (a) to study the Mercury planet's composition, geophysics, atmosphere, and magnetosphere

• (b) to study Jupiter and its icy moons Ganymede, Callisto, and Europa

• (c) to study the Sun's atmosphere, its poles, and solar wind in great detail.

• (d) to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe.

Solution: D

ESA’s Euclid mission is designed to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe.

The space telescope will create a great map of the large-scale structure of the Universe across space and time by observing billions of galaxies out to 10 billion light-years, across more than a third of the sky.

Euclid will explore how the Universe has expanded and how structure has formed over cosmic history, revealing more about the role of gravity and the nature of dark energy and dark matter.

https://www.esa.int/Science_Exploration/Space_Science/Euclid

Solution: D

ESA’s Euclid mission is designed to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe.

Euclid will explore how the Universe has expanded and how structure has formed over cosmic history, revealing more about the role of gravity and the nature of dark energy and dark matter.

https://www.esa.int/Science_Exploration/Space_Science/Euclid

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs): India is the largest producer and exporter of APIs in the world. Pharmacy Council of India under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, regulates the manufacturing and import of API drugs in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D None of the statements given above is correct. Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) are the core components in any drug that produce the intended effects to treat or manage diseases. APIs are the biologically active component of a drug product (e.g., tablet, capsule) that directly affects the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or affects the structure or any function of the body. Currently, China is the global leader in the production and export of APIs, which is around 20 percent of the world’s API production. This, due to the low cost of utilities and greater government support. In fact, some of the most important APIs such as paracetamol are imported from China in India. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the regulatory body of India regulating medical devices, drugs, and cosmetics in the Indian market. The CDSCO regulates the manufacturing and import of these products to ensure that the products are safe and effective to use and do not cause any harm to the intended population. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is headed by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI). CDSCO regulates the manufacturing and import of API drugs in India. Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 and Rules 1945 and New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rule, 2019 are important acts related to the manufacturing and import of API drugs in India Incorrect Solution: D None of the statements given above is correct. Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) are the core components in any drug that produce the intended effects to treat or manage diseases. APIs are the biologically active component of a drug product (e.g., tablet, capsule) that directly affects the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or affects the structure or any function of the body. Currently, China is the global leader in the production and export of APIs, which is around 20 percent of the world’s API production. This, due to the low cost of utilities and greater government support. In fact, some of the most important APIs such as paracetamol are imported from China in India. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the regulatory body of India regulating medical devices, drugs, and cosmetics in the Indian market. The CDSCO regulates the manufacturing and import of these products to ensure that the products are safe and effective to use and do not cause any harm to the intended population. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is headed by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI). CDSCO regulates the manufacturing and import of API drugs in India. Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 and Rules 1945 and New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rule, 2019 are important acts related to the manufacturing and import of API drugs in India

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs):

• India is the largest producer and exporter of APIs in the world.

• Pharmacy Council of India under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, regulates the manufacturing and import of API drugs in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

None of the statements given above is correct.

Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) are the core components in any drug that produce the intended effects to treat or manage diseases.

APIs are the biologically active component of a drug product (e.g., tablet, capsule) that directly affects the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or affects the structure or any function of the body.

Currently, China is the global leader in the production and export of APIs, which is around 20 percent of the world’s API production. This, due to the low cost of utilities and greater government support. In fact, some of the most important APIs such as paracetamol are imported from China in India.

Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the regulatory body of India regulating medical devices, drugs, and cosmetics in the Indian market. The CDSCO regulates the manufacturing and import of these products to ensure that the products are safe and effective to use and do not cause any harm to the intended population. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is headed by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI). CDSCO regulates the manufacturing and import of API drugs in India.

Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 and Rules 1945 and New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rule, 2019 are important acts related to the manufacturing and import of API drugs in India

Solution: D

None of the statements given above is correct.

Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) are the core components in any drug that produce the intended effects to treat or manage diseases.

Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 and Rules 1945 and New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rule, 2019 are important acts related to the manufacturing and import of API drugs in India

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bacteriophages (BPs): They are viruses that can infect and kill bacteria without any negative effect on human or animal cells. It is supposed that they can be used to treat bacterial infections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements given above are correct. Bacteriophages (BPs) are viruses that can infect and kill bacteria without any negative effect on human or animal cells. For this reason, it is supposed that they can be used, alone or in combination with antibiotics, to treat bacterial infections. They are comprised of a protein capsule around an RNA or DNA genome. Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements given above are correct. Bacteriophages (BPs) are viruses that can infect and kill bacteria without any negative effect on human or animal cells. For this reason, it is supposed that they can be used, alone or in combination with antibiotics, to treat bacterial infections. They are comprised of a protein capsule around an RNA or DNA genome.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bacteriophages (BPs):

• They are viruses that can infect and kill bacteria without any negative effect on human or animal cells.

• It is supposed that they can be used to treat bacterial infections

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both the statements given above are correct.

Bacteriophages (BPs) are viruses that can infect and kill bacteria without any negative effect on human or animal cells. For this reason, it is supposed that they can be used, alone or in combination with antibiotics, to treat bacterial infections.

They are comprised of a protein capsule around an RNA or DNA genome.

Solution: C

Both the statements given above are correct.

They are comprised of a protein capsule around an RNA or DNA genome.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points During the colonial period, the British government in India had indeed been putting the theory of comparative advantage into practice — to the disadvantage of most Indians. In his book The Discovery of India , Nehru described how the colonial government systematically strangulated Indian entrepreneurship. Writing from his prison cell in Ahmednagar Fort in the early 1940s, Nehru argued that the fundamental requirements for a modern India included “a heavy engineering and machine-making industry, scientific research institutes, and electric power.” In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the following statements follows directly from the passage? a) Post independence India did not focus on the growth of agriculture in the country b) countries should develop industries based on their comparative advantage c) Post independence, India invested in creating centres of knowledge like IITs and capital-intensive industries d) Investment in heavy industries without a sound economic base made no sense Correct Ans. C. The passage talks about Nehru’s dream of economic resurgence of India which he led through economic planning, focus on heavy industries and creation of IITs. Hence C. Incorrect Ans. C. The passage talks about Nehru’s dream of economic resurgence of India which he led through economic planning, focus on heavy industries and creation of IITs. Hence C.

#### 16. Question

During the colonial period, the British government in India had indeed been putting the theory of comparative advantage into practice — to the disadvantage of most Indians. In his book The Discovery of India , Nehru described how the colonial government systematically strangulated Indian entrepreneurship. Writing from his prison cell in Ahmednagar Fort in the early 1940s, Nehru argued that the fundamental requirements for a modern India included “a heavy engineering and machine-making industry, scientific research institutes, and electric power.”

In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the following statements follows directly from the passage?

• a) Post independence India did not focus on the growth of agriculture in the country

• b) countries should develop industries based on their comparative advantage

• c) Post independence, India invested in creating centres of knowledge like IITs and capital-intensive industries

• d) Investment in heavy industries without a sound economic base made no sense

Ans. C. The passage talks about Nehru’s dream of economic resurgence of India which he led through economic planning, focus on heavy industries and creation of IITs. Hence C.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points In many places, large-scale migration of male members leads to greater participation of women in agriculture. This can be in terms of greater work pressure as well as more decision-making power. Though essentially seen as a feminisation movement in agriculture, the reports cites the example of rural China, where a recent paper found that by hiring labour and buying agricultural services, women are spending reduced hours on farms. “We observe developing countries where migration has led to a broader decision-making by women, and others where it has translated more into a higher work burden without empowering women. There are always cultural aspects and nuances to uphold when analysing a specific country. However, women often take heavy burden of agricultural tasks.. Which of the following is the most logical and critical corollary to the above passage? a. a gender-sensitive approach to agriculture where women are empowered and their rights are protected is a positive aim b. Certain patriarchal societies can never allow women to gain an empowered decision making status c. Feminization of agriculture has helped in uplifting the status of women and must be promoted d. Outmigration of male members proves beneficial for women and must be promoted Correct Ans. A. B is wrong as the option talks about patriarchal societies which is not the focus of the passage. A is correct as the passage talks about the improved status of women as a result of migration of men which leads to feminization of agriculture.. Hence incorporating gender sensitive strategy into agricultural policies will yield better outcomes for females. Hence A is the most rational and critical corollary. Incorrect Ans. A. B is wrong as the option talks about patriarchal societies which is not the focus of the passage. A is correct as the passage talks about the improved status of women as a result of migration of men which leads to feminization of agriculture.. Hence incorporating gender sensitive strategy into agricultural policies will yield better outcomes for females. Hence A is the most rational and critical corollary.

#### 17. Question

In many places, large-scale migration of male members leads to greater participation of women in agriculture. This can be in terms of greater work pressure as well as more decision-making power. Though essentially seen as a feminisation movement in agriculture, the reports cites the example of rural China, where a recent paper found that by hiring labour and buying agricultural services, women are spending reduced hours on farms. “We observe developing countries where migration has led to a broader decision-making by women, and others where it has translated more into a higher work burden without empowering women. There are always cultural aspects and nuances to uphold when analysing a specific country. However, women often take heavy burden of agricultural tasks..

Which of the following is the most logical and critical corollary to the above passage?

• a. a gender-sensitive approach to agriculture where women are empowered and their rights are protected is a positive aim

• b. Certain patriarchal societies can never allow women to gain an empowered decision making status

• c. Feminization of agriculture has helped in uplifting the status of women and must be promoted

• d. Outmigration of male members proves beneficial for women and must be promoted

B is wrong as the option talks about patriarchal societies which is not the focus of the passage. A is correct as the passage talks about the improved status of women as a result of migration of men which leads to feminization of agriculture.. Hence incorporating gender sensitive strategy into agricultural policies will yield better outcomes for females. Hence A is the most rational and critical corollary.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Directions for questions 18 and 19 Q Study the following charts and table to answer the following questions. The Pie chart shows the percentages of aspirants who wrote CSE Prelims Exam – 2016. The table shows the final selection in numbers. Region Final Selection North 250 South 300 West 150 East 200 North East 100 Which of the regions has lowest and highest success ratio? a) North East, North b) North, North East c) North East, South d) South, North East Correct Solution: b) North, North East Explanation: If we take the ratio of the percentage in final selection and percentage of aspirants who written CSE prelims, we can get the best performing and worst performing regions. North – 25:35 = 5:7 South – 30:25 = 6:5 West – 15:20 = 3:4 East – 20:15 = 4:3 North East – 10:5 = 2:1 The lowest ratio is North and the best ratio is North East. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Carnatic Wars, which occurred between the British East India Company and the French East India Company, were instrumental in establishing British dominance in trade in India. Through these conflicts, the British East India Company emerged as the preeminent European trading power in India, securing key trading ports and territories. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Battle of Plassey, fought in 1757, was a pivotal event in Indian history. It resulted in the decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal, effectively establishing British control over Bengal and paving the way for further expansion of the British Empire in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Battle of Buxar, fought in 1764, was another significant milestone in British colonial expansion in India. The British victory in this battle solidified their control over the territories of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, consolidating their authority in eastern India. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 18. Question

Directions for questions 18 and 19 Q

Study the following charts and table to answer the following questions. The Pie chart shows the percentages of aspirants who wrote CSE Prelims Exam – 2016. The table shows the final selection in numbers.

Region | Final Selection

North | 250

South | 300

West | 150

East | 200

North East | 100

Which of the regions has lowest and highest success ratio?

• a) North East, North

• b) North, North East

• c) North East, South

• d) South, North East

Solution: b) North, North East

Explanation:

If we take the ratio of the percentage in final selection and percentage of aspirants who written CSE prelims, we can get the best performing and worst performing regions.

North – 25:35 = 5:7

South – 30:25 = 6:5

West – 15:20 = 3:4

East – 20:15 = 4:3

North East – 10:5 = 2:1

The lowest ratio is North and the best ratio is North East.

Explanation:

• The Carnatic Wars, which occurred between the British East India Company and the French East India Company, were instrumental in establishing British dominance in trade in India. Through these conflicts, the British East India Company emerged as the preeminent European trading power in India, securing key trading ports and territories. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Battle of Plassey, fought in 1757, was a pivotal event in Indian history. It resulted in the decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal, effectively establishing British control over Bengal and paving the way for further expansion of the British Empire in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Battle of Buxar, fought in 1764, was another significant milestone in British colonial expansion in India. The British victory in this battle solidified their control over the territories of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, consolidating their authority in eastern India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points If a pie chart was drawn from the data of the table given, what angle would East and West together have subtended at the center of a circle? a) 126˚ b) 30˚ c) 108˚ d) 105˚ Correct Solution: a ) 126˚ Explanation: From the table, The percentages of East and West are 20% and 15% respectively. Together they account for 35%. The angle subtended at the center would be = 35 × 3.6˚ = 126˚ Incorrect Solution: a ) 126˚ Explanation: From the table, The percentages of East and West are 20% and 15% respectively. Together they account for 35%. The angle subtended at the center would be = 35 × 3.6˚ = 126˚

#### 19. Question

If a pie chart was drawn from the data of the table given, what angle would East and West together have subtended at the center of a circle?

Solution: a ) 126˚

Explanation:

From the table,

The percentages of East and West are 20% and 15% respectively.

Together they account for 35%.

The angle subtended at the center would be = 35 × 3.6˚

Solution: a ) 126˚

Explanation:

From the table,

The percentages of East and West are 20% and 15% respectively.

Together they account for 35%.

The angle subtended at the center would be = 35 × 3.6˚

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points The perimeter of a rectangular park is 178 more than the length of the rectangular park. The cost of fencing the boundary of the park at the rate of Rs. 7 per m is Rs. 1708. A path has been made inside the park of width 4 m along its boundary. Find the cost of paving the path with marbles at the rate of Rs. 9 per m^2. A) Rs. 7700 B) Rs. 8208 C) Rs. 7454 D) Rs. 8520 Correct The perimeter of a rectangular park is 178 more than the length of the rectangular park. The cost of fencing the boundary of the park at the rate of Rs. 7 per m is Rs. 1708. A path has been made inside the park of width 4 m along its boundary. Find the cost of paving the path with marbles at the rate of Rs. 9 per m^2. Incorrect The perimeter of a rectangular park is 178 more than the length of the rectangular park. The cost of fencing the boundary of the park at the rate of Rs. 7 per m is Rs. 1708. A path has been made inside the park of width 4 m along its boundary. Find the cost of paving the path with marbles at the rate of Rs. 9 per m^2.

#### 20. Question

The perimeter of a rectangular park is 178 more than the length of the rectangular park. The cost of fencing the boundary of the park at the rate of Rs. 7 per m is Rs. 1708. A path has been made inside the park of width 4 m along its boundary. Find the cost of paving the path with marbles at the rate of Rs. 9 per m^2.

• A) Rs. 7700

• B) Rs. 8208

• C) Rs. 7454

• D) Rs. 8520

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of the following characterise Black-crowned night herons? a) Non-migratory species b) Preference for open grasslands as opposed to swamps or marshes c) Non-nocturnal animals d) Use sharp beaks to spear prey in shallow water Correct Solution: d) Justification: The black-crowned night heron, known locally as ‘Chongkhu’ in Manipur, is a medium-sized species belonging to the heron family found in various parts of the world. They prefer freshwater wetlands like swamps, marshes, and rice paddies, and are mainly nocturnal birds that feed on fish, frogs, insects, and other small animals. These solitary hunters use sharp beaks to spear prey in shallow water. Some populations are migratory, travelling long distances between breeding and wintering grounds. The global population of black-crowned night herons is considered stable, classified as Least Concern by the IUCN, but they face threats such as habitat loss, pollution, and hunting. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: The black-crowned night heron, known locally as ‘Chongkhu’ in Manipur, is a medium-sized species belonging to the heron family found in various parts of the world. They prefer freshwater wetlands like swamps, marshes, and rice paddies, and are mainly nocturnal birds that feed on fish, frogs, insects, and other small animals. These solitary hunters use sharp beaks to spear prey in shallow water. Some populations are migratory, travelling long distances between breeding and wintering grounds. The global population of black-crowned night herons is considered stable, classified as Least Concern by the IUCN, but they face threats such as habitat loss, pollution, and hunting. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2024/

#### 21. Question

Which of the following characterise Black-crowned night herons?

• a) Non-migratory species

• b) Preference for open grasslands as opposed to swamps or marshes

• c) Non-nocturnal animals

• d) Use sharp beaks to spear prey in shallow water

Solution: d)

Justification: The black-crowned night heron, known locally as ‘Chongkhu’ in Manipur, is a medium-sized species belonging to the heron family found in various parts of the world.

They prefer freshwater wetlands like swamps, marshes, and rice paddies, and are mainly nocturnal birds that feed on fish, frogs, insects, and other small animals.

These solitary hunters use sharp beaks to spear prey in shallow water.

Some populations are migratory, travelling long distances between breeding and wintering grounds.

The global population of black-crowned night herons is considered stable, classified as Least Concern by the IUCN, but they face threats such as habitat loss, pollution, and hunting.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification: The black-crowned night heron, known locally as ‘Chongkhu’ in Manipur, is a medium-sized species belonging to the heron family found in various parts of the world.

They prefer freshwater wetlands like swamps, marshes, and rice paddies, and are mainly nocturnal birds that feed on fish, frogs, insects, and other small animals.

These solitary hunters use sharp beaks to spear prey in shallow water.

Some populations are migratory, travelling long distances between breeding and wintering grounds.

The global population of black-crowned night herons is considered stable, classified as Least Concern by the IUCN, but they face threats such as habitat loss, pollution, and hunting.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2024/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Asset tokenization is the process of converting the value of a tangible or intangible asset into a digital token using blockchain technology. Asset tokenization prevents any kind of for fractional ownership but at the same time increases the liquidity of an asset. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plans to explore the tokenization of assets and government bonds as part of its wholesale Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) pilot project, focusing on testing the technology rather than generating large transaction volumes. Asset tokenization is the process of converting the value of a tangible or intangible asset into a digital token using blockchain technology. This transformation allows for fractional ownership, increased liquidity, clear traceability and auditability. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the wholesale CBDC pilot program on November 1, 2022. The pilot program is used to settle secondary market transactions in government securities. The program is called the Digital Rupee-Wholesale (e-W). The RBI also launched a retail CBDC pilot program in December 2022 for P2P and P2M transactions. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plans to explore the tokenization of assets and government bonds as part of its wholesale Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) pilot project, focusing on testing the technology rather than generating large transaction volumes. Asset tokenization is the process of converting the value of a tangible or intangible asset into a digital token using blockchain technology. This transformation allows for fractional ownership, increased liquidity, clear traceability and auditability. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the wholesale CBDC pilot program on November 1, 2022. The pilot program is used to settle secondary market transactions in government securities. The program is called the Digital Rupee-Wholesale (e-W). The RBI also launched a retail CBDC pilot program in December 2022 for P2P and P2M transactions. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Asset tokenization is the process of converting the value of a tangible or intangible asset into a digital token using blockchain technology.

• Asset tokenization prevents any kind of for fractional ownership but at the same time increases the liquidity of an asset.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: a)

Justification: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plans to explore the tokenization of assets and government bonds as part of its wholesale Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) pilot project, focusing on testing the technology rather than generating large transaction volumes.

Asset tokenization is the process of converting the value of a tangible or intangible asset into a digital token using blockchain technology. This transformation allows for fractional ownership, increased liquidity, clear traceability and auditability.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the wholesale CBDC pilot program on November 1, 2022. The pilot program is used to settle secondary market transactions in government securities. The program is called the Digital Rupee-Wholesale (e-W).

The RBI also launched a retail CBDC pilot program in December 2022 for P2P and P2M transactions.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/

Solution: a)

The RBI also launched a retail CBDC pilot program in December 2022 for P2P and P2M transactions.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following about the Fund of Funds for Start-ups (FFS). It is managed by Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) on behalf of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). It is an initiative under the Start-up India Action Plan. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has released the CRISIL study report named “Prabhaav,” assessing the impact of the Fund of Funds for Start-ups (FFS), a key initiative under the Start-up India Action Plan. Managed by SIDBI on behalf of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), the FFS has been instrumental in catalysing investments. The scheme has also supported start-ups in emerging sectors such as deep tech, agri-tech, health tech, and financial services. The report was presented to officials from the Ministry of Finance and DPIIT, who commended SIDBI’s efforts in managing the scheme and achieving positive outcomes. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has released the CRISIL study report named “Prabhaav,” assessing the impact of the Fund of Funds for Start-ups (FFS), a key initiative under the Start-up India Action Plan. Managed by SIDBI on behalf of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), the FFS has been instrumental in catalysing investments. The scheme has also supported start-ups in emerging sectors such as deep tech, agri-tech, health tech, and financial services. The report was presented to officials from the Ministry of Finance and DPIIT, who commended SIDBI’s efforts in managing the scheme and achieving positive outcomes. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/

#### 23. Question

Consider the following about the Fund of Funds for Start-ups (FFS).

• It is managed by Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) on behalf of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).

• It is an initiative under the Start-up India Action Plan.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: c)

Justification: The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has released the CRISIL study report named “Prabhaav,” assessing the impact of the Fund of Funds for Start-ups (FFS), a key initiative under the Start-up India Action Plan.

Managed by SIDBI on behalf of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), the FFS has been instrumental in catalysing investments.

The scheme has also supported start-ups in emerging sectors such as deep tech, agri-tech, health tech, and financial services.

The report was presented to officials from the Ministry of Finance and DPIIT, who commended SIDBI’s efforts in managing the scheme and achieving positive outcomes.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/

Solution: c)

Managed by SIDBI on behalf of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), the FFS has been instrumental in catalysing investments.

The scheme has also supported start-ups in emerging sectors such as deep tech, agri-tech, health tech, and financial services.

The report was presented to officials from the Ministry of Finance and DPIIT, who commended SIDBI’s efforts in managing the scheme and achieving positive outcomes.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Which of the following initiatives aim to address anaemia and malnutrition among women and children nationwide? Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs) National Deworming Day (NDD) Mothers’ Absolute Affection (MAA) How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two b) Only two d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: RMNCAH+N strategy, implemented by the Government of India under the National Health Mission, aims to address anaemia and malnutrition among women and children nationwide. Various interventions include Mothers’ Absolute Affection (MAA) to improve breastfeeding Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs) for children with severe acute malnutrition Anemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) to reduce anaemia National Deworming Day (NDD) to address soil-transmitted helminth infestations Monthly Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Day (VHSND) for maternal and childcare Distribution of MCP Cards and Safe Motherhood Booklets for pregnant women. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: RMNCAH+N strategy, implemented by the Government of India under the National Health Mission, aims to address anaemia and malnutrition among women and children nationwide. Various interventions include Mothers’ Absolute Affection (MAA) to improve breastfeeding Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs) for children with severe acute malnutrition Anemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) to reduce anaemia National Deworming Day (NDD) to address soil-transmitted helminth infestations Monthly Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Day (VHSND) for maternal and childcare Distribution of MCP Cards and Safe Motherhood Booklets for pregnant women. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/

#### 24. Question

Which of the following initiatives aim to address anaemia and malnutrition among women and children nationwide?

• Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs)

• National Deworming Day (NDD)

• Mothers’ Absolute Affection (MAA)

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

Solution: c)

Justification: RMNCAH+N strategy, implemented by the Government of India under the National Health Mission, aims to address anaemia and malnutrition among women and children nationwide. Various interventions include

Mothers’ Absolute Affection (MAA) to improve breastfeeding

Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs) for children with severe acute malnutrition

Anemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) to reduce anaemia

National Deworming Day (NDD) to address soil-transmitted helminth infestations

Monthly Village Health

Sanitation and Nutrition Day (VHSND) for maternal and childcare

Distribution of MCP Cards and Safe Motherhood Booklets for pregnant women.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/

Solution: c)

Mothers’ Absolute Affection (MAA) to improve breastfeeding

Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs) for children with severe acute malnutrition

Anemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) to reduce anaemia

National Deworming Day (NDD) to address soil-transmitted helminth infestations

Monthly Village Health

Sanitation and Nutrition Day (VHSND) for maternal and childcare

Distribution of MCP Cards and Safe Motherhood Booklets for pregnant women.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/13/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-february-2024/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. India accounts for around 25% of the total global cotton production. Most of India’s cotton is grown in irrigated areas. Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: India has the largest area under cotton cultivation India is the second largest producer (after China) and second largest consumer of cotton Majorly, cotton is produced in 11 states with Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana having a major share. Significance of Cotton in India: Cotton in India provides food, feed, and fibre, making it a crucial crop for agriculture and the textile sector. After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste. Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production. Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soybean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading. Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: India has the largest area under cotton cultivation India is the second largest producer (after China) and second largest consumer of cotton Majorly, cotton is produced in 11 states with Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana having a major share. Significance of Cotton in India: Cotton in India provides food, feed, and fibre, making it a crucial crop for agriculture and the textile sector. After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste. Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production. Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soybean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading. Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-february-2024/

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements.

• India accounts for around 25% of the total global cotton production.

• Most of India’s cotton is grown in irrigated areas.

• Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: India has the largest area under cotton cultivation

India is the second largest producer (after China) and second largest consumer of cotton

Majorly, cotton is produced in 11 states with Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana having a major share.

Significance of Cotton in India:

Cotton in India provides food, feed, and fibre, making it a crucial crop for agriculture and the textile sector.

After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste.

Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production.

Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soybean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading.

Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-february-2024/

Solution: b)

Justification: India has the largest area under cotton cultivation

India is the second largest producer (after China) and second largest consumer of cotton

Majorly, cotton is produced in 11 states with Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana having a major share.

Significance of Cotton in India:

Cotton in India provides food, feed, and fibre, making it a crucial crop for agriculture and the textile sector.

After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste.

Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production.

Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soybean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading.

Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two-thirds of the total consumption.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/09/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-9-february-2024/

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Positronium: It has a low mass and moves with high velocities even at room temperature. It is formed by stopping positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas. It does not show a first-order Zeeman Effect in any of its states. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Because positronium has a low mass, it moves with high velocities even at room temperature, and large beam diameters are required to suppress the transit time broadening to acceptable levels. Positronium can be formed by stopping energetic positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas. Statement 2 is correct: Positronium can be formed by stopping energetic positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas. Fast positrons that are scattering in a gas will slow down to a few electron volts of kinetic energy before capturing an electron. Statement 3 is correct: Positronium does not show a first-order Zeeman Effect in any of its states. Since the masses of the two particles are equal and their charges opposite, the orbital motion can never involve a net circulating current. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Because positronium has a low mass, it moves with high velocities even at room temperature, and large beam diameters are required to suppress the transit time broadening to acceptable levels. Positronium can be formed by stopping energetic positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas. Statement 2 is correct: Positronium can be formed by stopping energetic positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas. Fast positrons that are scattering in a gas will slow down to a few electron volts of kinetic energy before capturing an electron. Statement 3 is correct: Positronium does not show a first-order Zeeman Effect in any of its states. Since the masses of the two particles are equal and their charges opposite, the orbital motion can never involve a net circulating current.

#### 26. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Positronium:

• It has a low mass and moves with high velocities even at room temperature.

• It is formed by stopping positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas.

• It does not show a first-order Zeeman Effect in any of its states.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Because positronium has a low mass, it moves with high velocities even at room temperature, and large beam diameters are required to suppress the transit time broadening to acceptable levels.

Positronium can be formed by stopping energetic positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas.

Statement 2 is correct: Positronium can be formed by stopping energetic positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas.

Fast positrons that are scattering in a gas will slow down to a few electron volts of kinetic energy before capturing an electron.

Statement 3 is correct: Positronium does not show a first-order Zeeman Effect in any of its states. Since the masses of the two particles are equal and their charges opposite, the orbital motion can never involve a net circulating current.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Positronium can be formed by stopping energetic positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas.

Statement 2 is correct: Positronium can be formed by stopping energetic positrons from a radioactive source in a low-density gas.

Fast positrons that are scattering in a gas will slow down to a few electron volts of kinetic energy before capturing an electron.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Despite living in the water, whales breathe air and like humans, they are warm-blooded mammals. The baleen whales have special bristle-like structures in their mouths that strain food from the water. The pygmy blue whales have been declared as the endangered species under the IUCN Red List. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Despite living in the water, whales breathe air. And like humans, they are warm-blooded mammals who nurse their young. A thick layer of fat called blubber insulates them from cold ocean waters. Statement 2 is correct: Some whales are known as baleen whales, including blue, right, bowhead, sei, and gray whales. This refers to the fact that they have special bristle-like structures in their mouths (called baleen) that strain food from the water. Other whales, such as beluga or sperm whales, have teeth. Statement 3 is not correct: Whereas the Antarctic blue whale has been declared as an endangered species by the IUCN (International Union for the Conservation of Nature), the status of the pygmy blue whales is unknown and therefore considered ‘data deficient’ by the IUCN. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Despite living in the water, whales breathe air. And like humans, they are warm-blooded mammals who nurse their young. A thick layer of fat called blubber insulates them from cold ocean waters. Statement 2 is correct: Some whales are known as baleen whales, including blue, right, bowhead, sei, and gray whales. This refers to the fact that they have special bristle-like structures in their mouths (called baleen) that strain food from the water. Other whales, such as beluga or sperm whales, have teeth. Statement 3 is not correct: Whereas the Antarctic blue whale has been declared as an endangered species by the IUCN (International Union for the Conservation of Nature), the status of the pygmy blue whales is unknown and therefore considered ‘data deficient’ by the IUCN.

#### 27. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Despite living in the water, whales breathe air and like humans, they are warm-blooded mammals.

• The baleen whales have special bristle-like structures in their mouths that strain food from the water.

• The pygmy blue whales have been declared as the endangered species under the IUCN Red List.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Despite living in the water, whales breathe air. And like humans, they are warm-blooded mammals who nurse their young. A thick layer of fat called blubber insulates them from cold ocean waters.

Statement 2 is correct: Some whales are known as baleen whales, including blue, right, bowhead, sei, and gray whales. This refers to the fact that they have special bristle-like structures in their mouths (called baleen) that strain food from the water. Other whales, such as beluga or sperm whales, have teeth.

Statement 3 is not correct: Whereas the Antarctic blue whale has been declared as an endangered species by the IUCN (International Union for the Conservation of Nature), the status of the pygmy blue whales is unknown and therefore considered ‘data deficient’ by the IUCN.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points The Operation AMRITH recently seen in the news is associated with- (a) The prevention of the overuse of antibiotics in particular Indian states. (b) The evacuation of Indian citizens and foreign nationals from Sudan. (c) The rehabilitation and renewal of the tributaries of River Yamuna. (d) The Sludge treatment in India using an anaerobic digestion method. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Kerala Drug Control Department launched tests called Operation Amrith (AMRITH – Antimicrobial Resistance Intervention For Total Health) to prevent the overuse of antibiotics in the state. “The Drugs Control Department has a very significant role to play by way of regulatory action for optimising the use of antibiotics by preventing over-the-counter (OTC) sale of antibiotics. Operation Amrith is aimed at conducting surprise raids in retail medical shops for detecting OTC sale of antibiotics Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Kerala Drug Control Department launched tests called Operation Amrith (AMRITH – Antimicrobial Resistance Intervention For Total Health) to prevent the overuse of antibiotics in the state. “The Drugs Control Department has a very significant role to play by way of regulatory action for optimising the use of antibiotics by preventing over-the-counter (OTC) sale of antibiotics. Operation Amrith is aimed at conducting surprise raids in retail medical shops for detecting OTC sale of antibiotics

#### 28. Question

The Operation AMRITH recently seen in the news is associated with-

• (a) The prevention of the overuse of antibiotics in particular Indian states.

• (b) The evacuation of Indian citizens and foreign nationals from Sudan.

• (c) The rehabilitation and renewal of the tributaries of River Yamuna.

• (d) The Sludge treatment in India using an anaerobic digestion method.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Kerala Drug Control Department launched tests called Operation Amrith (AMRITH – Antimicrobial Resistance Intervention For Total Health) to prevent the overuse of antibiotics in the state.

“The Drugs Control Department has a very significant role to play by way of regulatory action for optimising the use of antibiotics by preventing over-the-counter (OTC) sale of antibiotics.

Operation Amrith is aimed at conducting surprise raids in retail medical shops for detecting OTC sale of antibiotics

Answer: A

Explanation:

“The Drugs Control Department has a very significant role to play by way of regulatory action for optimising the use of antibiotics by preventing over-the-counter (OTC) sale of antibiotics.

Operation Amrith is aimed at conducting surprise raids in retail medical shops for detecting OTC sale of antibiotics

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Which one of the following Organisations recently launched the Women Exporters in the Digital Economy (WEIDE) Fund? (a) The World Bank Group (b) The International Monetary Fund (c) The World Economic Forum (d) The World Trade Organisation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: In a landmark initiative, the World Trade Organization (WTO) and the International Trade Centre (ITC) have announced the launch of a global fund aimed at enabling women to harness opportunities in international trade and the digital economy. The WEIDE Fund is designed to assist women-led businesses and entrepreneurs in developing economies and least-developed countries in adopting digital technologies and expanding their online presence. With digital trade emerging as the fastest-growing segment in international trade, this initiative aims to empower women entrepreneurs and foster inclusive growth. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: In a landmark initiative, the World Trade Organization (WTO) and the International Trade Centre (ITC) have announced the launch of a global fund aimed at enabling women to harness opportunities in international trade and the digital economy. The WEIDE Fund is designed to assist women-led businesses and entrepreneurs in developing economies and least-developed countries in adopting digital technologies and expanding their online presence. With digital trade emerging as the fastest-growing segment in international trade, this initiative aims to empower women entrepreneurs and foster inclusive growth.

#### 29. Question

Which one of the following Organisations recently launched the Women Exporters in the Digital Economy (WEIDE) Fund?

• (a) The World Bank Group

• (b) The International Monetary Fund

• (c) The World Economic Forum

• (d) The World Trade Organisation

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: In a landmark initiative, the World Trade Organization (WTO) and the International Trade Centre (ITC) have announced the launch of a global fund aimed at enabling women to harness opportunities in international trade and the digital economy.

The WEIDE Fund is designed to assist women-led businesses and entrepreneurs in developing economies and least-developed countries in adopting digital technologies and expanding their online presence.

With digital trade emerging as the fastest-growing segment in international trade, this initiative aims to empower women entrepreneurs and foster inclusive growth.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The WEIDE Fund is designed to assist women-led businesses and entrepreneurs in developing economies and least-developed countries in adopting digital technologies and expanding their online presence.

With digital trade emerging as the fastest-growing segment in international trade, this initiative aims to empower women entrepreneurs and foster inclusive growth.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Krishna is an east-flowing river originating at the Amarkantak Plateau that merges with the Bay of Bengal. The geology of the Krishna River Basin is dominated by the crystalline rocks with lateritic soils as minor components. The climate of the Krishna Basin is semi-arid and the Bhima and Tungabhadra rivers are the largest tributaries of the rivers. How many the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None. Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Krishna is an east-flowing river that originates at Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and merges with the Bay of Bengal, flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. Together with its tributaries, it forms a vast basin that covers 33% of the total area of the four states. Statement 2 is correct: The geology of the basin is dominated by basalts and crystalline rocks with alluvium, lateritic soils as minor components. Statement 3 is correct: It has about thirteen major tributaries (the Bhima and the Tungabhadra are the two largest) and several small-to-large-scale reservoirs for irrigation and/or hydropower generation schemes. The climate of the region is mostly semi-arid and dry except for humid regions along the Western Gha Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Krishna is an east-flowing river that originates at Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and merges with the Bay of Bengal, flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. Together with its tributaries, it forms a vast basin that covers 33% of the total area of the four states. Statement 2 is correct: The geology of the basin is dominated by basalts and crystalline rocks with alluvium, lateritic soils as minor components. Statement 3 is correct: It has about thirteen major tributaries (the Bhima and the Tungabhadra are the two largest) and several small-to-large-scale reservoirs for irrigation and/or hydropower generation schemes. The climate of the region is mostly semi-arid and dry except for humid regions along the Western Gha

#### 30. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Krishna is an east-flowing river originating at the Amarkantak Plateau that merges with the Bay of Bengal.

• The geology of the Krishna River Basin is dominated by the crystalline rocks with lateritic soils as minor components.

• The climate of the Krishna Basin is semi-arid and the Bhima and Tungabhadra rivers are the largest tributaries of the rivers.

How many the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Krishna is an east-flowing river that originates at Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and merges with the Bay of Bengal, flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.

Together with its tributaries, it forms a vast basin that covers 33% of the total area of the four states.

Statement 2 is correct: The geology of the basin is dominated by basalts and crystalline rocks with alluvium, lateritic soils as minor components.

Statement 3 is correct: It has about thirteen major tributaries (the Bhima and the Tungabhadra are the two largest) and several small-to-large-scale reservoirs for irrigation and/or hydropower generation schemes.

The climate of the region is mostly semi-arid and dry except for humid regions along the Western Gha

Answer: B

Explanation:

Together with its tributaries, it forms a vast basin that covers 33% of the total area of the four states.

Statement 2 is correct: The geology of the basin is dominated by basalts and crystalline rocks with alluvium, lateritic soils as minor components.

The climate of the region is mostly semi-arid and dry except for humid regions along the Western Gha

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