DAY – 65 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : MODERN INDIA

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Lord Curzon’s administrative policies: The primary objective of the Indian Universities Act, 1904, was to enhance the autonomy of universities and promote private Indian participation in their governance. The establishment of the Imperial Cadet Corps was aimed at preparing Indian youth for commissioned ranks in the British Indian Army on par with British officers. The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, was enacted primarily to facilitate the acquisition of Indian antiquities by British museums and collectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) None (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Universities Act, 1904, was aimed at increasing government control over universities. It reduced the number of elected senators, increased nominated members, and gave the government veto power over university regulations. It was seen as an attempt to curb the growing nationalist sentiment in educational institutions rather than enhance their autonomy or Indian participation in governance in a substantive way. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Imperial Cadet Corps, established by Curzon, was intended to provide military training to young men from aristocratic Indian families. However, it did not lead to their appointment to commissioned ranks on par with British officers in the regular army. The officer corps remained largely a British preserve, and the Cadet Corps was more of a symbolic gesture aimed at securing the loyalty of Indian princely and landed elites. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, was a landmark piece of legislation aimed at the protection and preservation of ancient monuments and objects of archaeological, historical, or artistic interest in India. While issues of colonial acquisition of antiquities did occur throughout British rule, the stated and primary purpose of this specific Act was preservation within India, including empowering the government to protect and repair monuments and regulate excavations. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Universities Act, 1904, was aimed at increasing government control over universities. It reduced the number of elected senators, increased nominated members, and gave the government veto power over university regulations. It was seen as an attempt to curb the growing nationalist sentiment in educational institutions rather than enhance their autonomy or Indian participation in governance in a substantive way. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Imperial Cadet Corps, established by Curzon, was intended to provide military training to young men from aristocratic Indian families. However, it did not lead to their appointment to commissioned ranks on par with British officers in the regular army. The officer corps remained largely a British preserve, and the Cadet Corps was more of a symbolic gesture aimed at securing the loyalty of Indian princely and landed elites. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, was a landmark piece of legislation aimed at the protection and preservation of ancient monuments and objects of archaeological, historical, or artistic interest in India. While issues of colonial acquisition of antiquities did occur throughout British rule, the stated and primary purpose of this specific Act was preservation within India, including empowering the government to protect and repair monuments and regulate excavations.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Lord Curzon’s administrative policies:

• The primary objective of the Indian Universities Act, 1904, was to enhance the autonomy of universities and promote private Indian participation in their governance.

• The establishment of the Imperial Cadet Corps was aimed at preparing Indian youth for commissioned ranks in the British Indian Army on par with British officers.

• The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, was enacted primarily to facilitate the acquisition of Indian antiquities by British museums and collectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Universities Act, 1904, was aimed at increasing government control over universities. It reduced the number of elected senators, increased nominated members, and gave the government veto power over university regulations. It was seen as an attempt to curb the growing nationalist sentiment in educational institutions rather than enhance their autonomy or Indian participation in governance in a substantive way.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Imperial Cadet Corps, established by Curzon, was intended to provide military training to young men from aristocratic Indian families. However, it did not lead to their appointment to commissioned ranks on par with British officers in the regular army. The officer corps remained largely a British preserve, and the Cadet Corps was more of a symbolic gesture aimed at securing the loyalty of Indian princely and landed elites.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, was a landmark piece of legislation aimed at the protection and preservation of ancient monuments and objects of archaeological, historical, or artistic interest in India. While issues of colonial acquisition of antiquities did occur throughout British rule, the stated and primary purpose of this specific Act was preservation within India, including empowering the government to protect and repair monuments and regulate excavations.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Lord Bentinck is known for major social reforms like abolishing Sati and suppressing Thuggee, undertaken with little regard for financial or administrative impact. Statement II: His tenure also faced financial strain, prompting cost-cutting measures, including military and land revenue reforms. Which of the following is the correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. While Lord William Bentinck is indeed renowned for significant social reforms, it is inaccurate to state these were undertaken “without any significant consideration for financial implications or administrative efficiency.” Bentinck was also deeply concerned with the Company’s finances. His social reforms were often justified not just on humanitarian grounds but also as measures that could contribute to a more stable and governable society, which indirectly benefited the Company. Moreover, his administration was marked by a strong drive for economy. Statement II is correct. Bentinck’s governorship (1828-1835) occurred during a period when the East India Company was facing financial difficulties. He was tasked with reducing expenditure and improving the Company’s financial health. To this end, he implemented several economy measures, including cuts in military spending (e.g., abolition of the ‘half-batta’ allowance for army officers in certain areas), streamlining of the civil administration, and reforms in the land revenue system (e.g., the Mahalwari settlement in North-Western Provinces under R.M. Bird aimed at enhancing revenue). His focus on “peace, retrenchment, and reform” reflects this dual concern. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. While Lord William Bentinck is indeed renowned for significant social reforms, it is inaccurate to state these were undertaken “without any significant consideration for financial implications or administrative efficiency.” Bentinck was also deeply concerned with the Company’s finances. His social reforms were often justified not just on humanitarian grounds but also as measures that could contribute to a more stable and governable society, which indirectly benefited the Company. Moreover, his administration was marked by a strong drive for economy. Statement II is correct. Bentinck’s governorship (1828-1835) occurred during a period when the East India Company was facing financial difficulties. He was tasked with reducing expenditure and improving the Company’s financial health. To this end, he implemented several economy measures, including cuts in military spending (e.g., abolition of the ‘half-batta’ allowance for army officers in certain areas), streamlining of the civil administration, and reforms in the land revenue system (e.g., the Mahalwari settlement in North-Western Provinces under R.M. Bird aimed at enhancing revenue). His focus on “peace, retrenchment, and reform” reflects this dual concern.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Lord Bentinck is known for major social reforms like abolishing Sati and suppressing Thuggee, undertaken with little regard for financial or administrative impact.

Statement II: His tenure also faced financial strain, prompting cost-cutting measures, including military and land revenue reforms.

Which of the following is the correct with respect to the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Solution: D

Statement I is incorrect. While Lord William Bentinck is indeed renowned for significant social reforms, it is inaccurate to state these were undertaken “without any significant consideration for financial implications or administrative efficiency.” Bentinck was also deeply concerned with the Company’s finances. His social reforms were often justified not just on humanitarian grounds but also as measures that could contribute to a more stable and governable society, which indirectly benefited the Company. Moreover, his administration was marked by a strong drive for economy.

• Statement II is correct. Bentinck’s governorship (1828-1835) occurred during a period when the East India Company was facing financial difficulties. He was tasked with reducing expenditure and improving the Company’s financial health. To this end, he implemented several economy measures, including cuts in military spending (e.g., abolition of the ‘half-batta’ allowance for army officers in certain areas), streamlining of the civil administration, and reforms in the land revenue system (e.g., the Mahalwari settlement in North-Western Provinces under R.M. Bird aimed at enhancing revenue). His focus on “peace, retrenchment, and reform” reflects this dual concern.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points The Cornwallis Code of 1793, a significant attempt at administrative and judicial structuration, had which of the following long-term consequences? It successfully eradicated corruption within the East India Company’s administration by ensuring high salaries and strict Sastric/Quranic codes of conduct for all officials. It established a clear separation of powers between the executive (revenue collection) and the judiciary, with District Judges taking over magisterial functions from Collectors. It inadvertently led to increased litigation and overburdening of the courts due to the emphasis on formal legal procedures and the recognition of property rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Cornwallis Code aimed to reduce corruption by measures like providing handsome salaries to European officials and prohibiting private trade for certain officials, it did not successfully eradicate corruption entirely. Furthermore, it was based on European principles and did not enforce “strict Sastric/Quranic codes of conduct” for all officials in the sense of making them the primary basis of the legal system for company administration, though personal laws were applied in certain civil matters. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Cornwallis Code did attempt a separation of powers. It divested the Collector (primarily a revenue official) of his judicial powers and vested them in newly created posts of District Judges. However, the Collector retained magisterial functions (police and some criminal justice powers). So, while revenue and purely civil judicial functions were separated from the Collector, the Collector was not entirely divested of all magisterial/police powers, and a complete separation of executive from judiciary as understood today was not achieved at the district level in all aspects. The District Judge presided over the Diwani Adalat (civil court). Statement 3 is correct. The Cornwallis Code introduced a complex system of formal legal procedures, written laws, and recognized property rights (especially under the Permanent Settlement). This, combined with the establishment of a hierarchy of courts and the emphasis on litigation as a means of dispute resolution, led to a significant increase in lawsuits. The courts became overburdened, and justice became expensive and delayed, particularly for the common people who were often unfamiliar with the new legal intricacies. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Cornwallis Code aimed to reduce corruption by measures like providing handsome salaries to European officials and prohibiting private trade for certain officials, it did not successfully eradicate corruption entirely. Furthermore, it was based on European principles and did not enforce “strict Sastric/Quranic codes of conduct” for all officials in the sense of making them the primary basis of the legal system for company administration, though personal laws were applied in certain civil matters. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Cornwallis Code did attempt a separation of powers. It divested the Collector (primarily a revenue official) of his judicial powers and vested them in newly created posts of District Judges. However, the Collector retained magisterial functions (police and some criminal justice powers). So, while revenue and purely civil judicial functions were separated from the Collector, the Collector was not entirely divested of all magisterial/police powers, and a complete separation of executive from judiciary as understood today was not achieved at the district level in all aspects. The District Judge presided over the Diwani Adalat (civil court). Statement 3 is correct. The Cornwallis Code introduced a complex system of formal legal procedures, written laws, and recognized property rights (especially under the Permanent Settlement). This, combined with the establishment of a hierarchy of courts and the emphasis on litigation as a means of dispute resolution, led to a significant increase in lawsuits. The courts became overburdened, and justice became expensive and delayed, particularly for the common people who were often unfamiliar with the new legal intricacies.

#### 3. Question

The Cornwallis Code of 1793, a significant attempt at administrative and judicial structuration, had which of the following long-term consequences?

• It successfully eradicated corruption within the East India Company’s administration by ensuring high salaries and strict Sastric/Quranic codes of conduct for all officials.

• It established a clear separation of powers between the executive (revenue collection) and the judiciary, with District Judges taking over magisterial functions from Collectors.

• It inadvertently led to increased litigation and overburdening of the courts due to the emphasis on formal legal procedures and the recognition of property rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Cornwallis Code aimed to reduce corruption by measures like providing handsome salaries to European officials and prohibiting private trade for certain officials, it did not successfully eradicate corruption entirely. Furthermore, it was based on European principles and did not enforce “strict Sastric/Quranic codes of conduct” for all officials in the sense of making them the primary basis of the legal system for company administration, though personal laws were applied in certain civil matters.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Cornwallis Code did attempt a separation of powers. It divested the Collector (primarily a revenue official) of his judicial powers and vested them in newly created posts of District Judges. However, the Collector retained magisterial functions (police and some criminal justice powers). So, while revenue and purely civil judicial functions were separated from the Collector, the Collector was not entirely divested of all magisterial/police powers, and a complete separation of executive from judiciary as understood today was not achieved at the district level in all aspects. The District Judge presided over the Diwani Adalat (civil court).

• Statement 3 is correct. The Cornwallis Code introduced a complex system of formal legal procedures, written laws, and recognized property rights (especially under the Permanent Settlement). This, combined with the establishment of a hierarchy of courts and the emphasis on litigation as a means of dispute resolution, led to a significant increase in lawsuits. The courts became overburdened, and justice became expensive and delayed, particularly for the common people who were often unfamiliar with the new legal intricacies.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs of journals/newspapers and the prominent ideology or individual primarily associated with their founding/editing during the Indian national movement: Kesari : Gopal Krishna Gokhale Young India : Mahatma Gandhi Al-Hilal : Muhammad Ali Jinnah The Comrade : Maulana Abul Kalam Azad How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs Correct Solution: A Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Kesari (Marathi) and Mahratta (English) were influential newspapers founded and primarily associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a prominent Extremist leader. Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a Moderate leader, was associated with journals like Sudharak (which he co-founded) and later started the Hitavada. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Young India was an English weekly journal with which Mahatma Gandhi was deeply associated, using it extensively to propagate his views and mobilize public opinion, especially during the Non-Cooperation Movement. He also edited Navajivan (Gujarati) and later Harijan. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Al-Hilal (Urdu) was a highly influential journal founded and edited by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It played a significant role in promoting nationalist and pan-Islamic sentiments among Muslims, advocating for Hindu-Muslim unity and participation in the anti-colonial struggle. Muhammad Ali Jinnah was associated with newspapers like Dawn much later. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. The Comrade (English) was a weekly newspaper founded and edited by Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar (not Abul Kalam Azad). It was influential in advocating for Muslim interests and pan-Islamic causes, especially during the Khilafat Movement. Incorrect Solution: A Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Kesari (Marathi) and Mahratta (English) were influential newspapers founded and primarily associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a prominent Extremist leader. Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a Moderate leader, was associated with journals like Sudharak (which he co-founded) and later started the Hitavada. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Young India was an English weekly journal with which Mahatma Gandhi was deeply associated, using it extensively to propagate his views and mobilize public opinion, especially during the Non-Cooperation Movement. He also edited Navajivan (Gujarati) and later Harijan. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Al-Hilal (Urdu) was a highly influential journal founded and edited by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It played a significant role in promoting nationalist and pan-Islamic sentiments among Muslims, advocating for Hindu-Muslim unity and participation in the anti-colonial struggle. Muhammad Ali Jinnah was associated with newspapers like Dawn much later. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. The Comrade (English) was a weekly newspaper founded and edited by Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar (not Abul Kalam Azad). It was influential in advocating for Muslim interests and pan-Islamic causes, especially during the Khilafat Movement.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following pairs of journals/newspapers and the prominent ideology or individual primarily associated with their founding/editing during the Indian national movement:

• Kesari : Gopal Krishna Gokhale

• Young India : Mahatma Gandhi

• Al-Hilal : Muhammad Ali Jinnah

• The Comrade : Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) Only three pairs

• (d) All four pairs

Solution: A

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Kesari (Marathi) and Mahratta (English) were influential newspapers founded and primarily associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a prominent Extremist leader. Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a Moderate leader, was associated with journals like Sudharak (which he co-founded) and later started the Hitavada.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Young India was an English weekly journal with which Mahatma Gandhi was deeply associated, using it extensively to propagate his views and mobilize public opinion, especially during the Non-Cooperation Movement. He also edited Navajivan (Gujarati) and later Harijan.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Al-Hilal (Urdu) was a highly influential journal founded and edited by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It played a significant role in promoting nationalist and pan-Islamic sentiments among Muslims, advocating for Hindu-Muslim unity and participation in the anti-colonial struggle. Muhammad Ali Jinnah was associated with newspapers like Dawn much later.

• Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. The Comrade (English) was a weekly newspaper founded and edited by Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar (not Abul Kalam Azad). It was influential in advocating for Muslim interests and pan-Islamic causes, especially during the Khilafat Movement.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately reflects the approach of the Indian Social Reformer, a prominent journal founded by K.N. Natarajan? (a) It primarily advocated for political Swaraj as the prerequisite for any meaningful social reform in India. (b) It championed radical, iconoclastic social reforms often in direct confrontation with orthodox religious opinions and nationalist sentiments. (c) It focused exclusively on promoting traditional Hindu values and opposed any Western influences on Indian society. (d) It served as the official mouthpiece of the Theosophical Society, primarily disseminating its spiritual doctrines. Correct Solution: B Option (a) is incorrect. The Indian Social Reformer believed in the importance of social reform as an end in itself and often argued that social progress should not wait for political independence. It sometimes criticized nationalists who prioritized political freedom to the exclusion of urgent social reform. Option (b) is correct. The Indian Social Reformer (started in 1890) was known for its bold, rationalist, and often uncompromising stance on social issues. It advocated for significant social reforms like abolition of child marriage, promotion of widow remarriage, women’s education, and eradication of caste discrimination. It was not afraid to criticize orthodox religious practices and beliefs, and even took on nationalist leaders if it felt they were compromising on social reform principles for political expediency. Its approach was often seen as iconoclastic. Option (c) is incorrect. The journal was progressive and reformist; it did not exclusively promote traditional Hindu values in a way that opposed all Western influences. It engaged with Western ideas and advocated for reforms inspired by reason and social justice, whether from indigenous or Western sources. Option (d) is incorrect. While it might have reported on various social and religious movements, the Indian Social Reformer was an independent journal focused on social reform and was not the official mouthpiece of the Theosophical Society. Incorrect Solution: B Option (a) is incorrect. The Indian Social Reformer believed in the importance of social reform as an end in itself and often argued that social progress should not wait for political independence. It sometimes criticized nationalists who prioritized political freedom to the exclusion of urgent social reform. Option (b) is correct. The Indian Social Reformer (started in 1890) was known for its bold, rationalist, and often uncompromising stance on social issues. It advocated for significant social reforms like abolition of child marriage, promotion of widow remarriage, women’s education, and eradication of caste discrimination. It was not afraid to criticize orthodox religious practices and beliefs, and even took on nationalist leaders if it felt they were compromising on social reform principles for political expediency. Its approach was often seen as iconoclastic. Option (c) is incorrect. The journal was progressive and reformist; it did not exclusively promote traditional Hindu values in a way that opposed all Western influences. It engaged with Western ideas and advocated for reforms inspired by reason and social justice, whether from indigenous or Western sources. Option (d) is incorrect. While it might have reported on various social and religious movements, the Indian Social Reformer was an independent journal focused on social reform and was not the official mouthpiece of the Theosophical Society.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the approach of the Indian Social Reformer, a prominent journal founded by K.N. Natarajan?

• (a) It primarily advocated for political Swaraj as the prerequisite for any meaningful social reform in India.

• (b) It championed radical, iconoclastic social reforms often in direct confrontation with orthodox religious opinions and nationalist sentiments.

• (c) It focused exclusively on promoting traditional Hindu values and opposed any Western influences on Indian society.

• (d) It served as the official mouthpiece of the Theosophical Society, primarily disseminating its spiritual doctrines.

Solution: B

• Option (a) is incorrect. The Indian Social Reformer believed in the importance of social reform as an end in itself and often argued that social progress should not wait for political independence. It sometimes criticized nationalists who prioritized political freedom to the exclusion of urgent social reform.

• Option (b) is correct. The Indian Social Reformer (started in 1890) was known for its bold, rationalist, and often uncompromising stance on social issues. It advocated for significant social reforms like abolition of child marriage, promotion of widow remarriage, women’s education, and eradication of caste discrimination. It was not afraid to criticize orthodox religious practices and beliefs, and even took on nationalist leaders if it felt they were compromising on social reform principles for political expediency. Its approach was often seen as iconoclastic.

• Option (c) is incorrect. The journal was progressive and reformist; it did not exclusively promote traditional Hindu values in a way that opposed all Western influences. It engaged with Western ideas and advocated for reforms inspired by reason and social justice, whether from indigenous or Western sources.

• Option (d) is incorrect. While it might have reported on various social and religious movements, the Indian Social Reformer was an independent journal focused on social reform and was not the official mouthpiece of the Theosophical Society.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: In response to recurring late 19th-century famines, the British Indian government prioritized large-scale irrigation projects based on Famine Commission recommendations. Statement II: Famine Codes stressed early detection, relief works, and charity, but faced criticism for delays, harsh conditions, and limited food distribution. Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. While some investment in irrigation did occur (and was recommended by Famine Commissions like the one in 1880), the British government’s primary focus in famine response was not on “extensive state-led investment in large-scale irrigation projects” as a proactive, primary solution to enhance overall productivity to prevent famines. Much of the major irrigation investment was also in areas growing cash crops for export or to secure revenue. The immediate famine response was more reactive. Statement II is correct. Following devastating famines, various Famine Commissions (e.g., Strachey Commission 1880, Lyall Commission 1898, MacDonnell Commission 1901) made recommendations that led to the development of Famine Codes. These codes outlined principles for famine relief, including early warning systems, opening of relief works (where people could earn wages, often very low and under harsh conditions, through manual labor), suspension/remission of revenue in affected areas, and provision of gratuitous (charitable) relief for those unable to work. However, the implementation of these codes was often criticized for being too little, too late, overly bureaucratic, and insufficient to prevent mass mortality. Direct, large-scale food distribution by the state was often a last resort and limited. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. While some investment in irrigation did occur (and was recommended by Famine Commissions like the one in 1880), the British government’s primary focus in famine response was not on “extensive state-led investment in large-scale irrigation projects” as a proactive, primary solution to enhance overall productivity to prevent famines. Much of the major irrigation investment was also in areas growing cash crops for export or to secure revenue. The immediate famine response was more reactive. Statement II is correct. Following devastating famines, various Famine Commissions (e.g., Strachey Commission 1880, Lyall Commission 1898, MacDonnell Commission 1901) made recommendations that led to the development of Famine Codes. These codes outlined principles for famine relief, including early warning systems, opening of relief works (where people could earn wages, often very low and under harsh conditions, through manual labor), suspension/remission of revenue in affected areas, and provision of gratuitous (charitable) relief for those unable to work. However, the implementation of these codes was often criticized for being too little, too late, overly bureaucratic, and insufficient to prevent mass mortality. Direct, large-scale food distribution by the state was often a last resort and limited.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In response to recurring late 19th-century famines, the British Indian government prioritized large-scale irrigation projects based on Famine Commission recommendations.

Statement II: Famine Codes stressed early detection, relief works, and charity, but faced criticism for delays, harsh conditions, and limited food distribution.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Solution: D

Statement I is incorrect. While some investment in irrigation did occur (and was recommended by Famine Commissions like the one in 1880), the British government’s primary focus in famine response was not on “extensive state-led investment in large-scale irrigation projects” as a proactive, primary solution to enhance overall productivity to prevent famines. Much of the major irrigation investment was also in areas growing cash crops for export or to secure revenue. The immediate famine response was more reactive.

Statement II is correct. Following devastating famines, various Famine Commissions (e.g., Strachey Commission 1880, Lyall Commission 1898, MacDonnell Commission 1901) made recommendations that led to the development of Famine Codes. These codes outlined principles for famine relief, including early warning systems, opening of relief works (where people could earn wages, often very low and under harsh conditions, through manual labor), suspension/remission of revenue in affected areas, and provision of gratuitous (charitable) relief for those unable to work. However, the implementation of these codes was often criticized for being too little, too late, overly bureaucratic, and insufficient to prevent mass mortality. Direct, large-scale food distribution by the state was often a last resort and limited.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Early Indian nationalist articulation of a distinct foreign policy perspective, even before independence, often included: Strong support for British imperial expansion in Africa and Asia as a means of gaining international experience for Indians. Condemnation of the use of Indian army and resources for British imperial wars and expeditions in other countries. Advocacy for close political and military alliances exclusively with other colonized nations against all Western powers. A commitment to the principles of peaceful co-existence and anti-colonialism, and solidarity with other Asian and African peoples struggling for freedom. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Early Indian nationalists were critical of British imperialism and would not have supported its expansion. They saw British imperialism as detrimental to India and other colonized nations. Statement 2 is correct. A consistent theme in early nationalist discourse, from the late 19th century onwards, was the condemnation of the British government’s policy of using Indian troops and financial resources for its imperial wars and expansionist adventures in regions like Burma, Afghanistan, Tibet, Africa, and West Asia. Leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, G.K. Gokhale, and later the Congress in its resolutions, frequently protested against this burden imposed on India. Statement 3 is incorrect. While there was a sense of solidarity with other colonized nations, advocating for “close political and military alliances exclusively with other colonized nations against all Western powers” was not the dominant or practical foreign policy stance articulated by mainstream nationalism before independence. The focus was more on achieving India’s own freedom and fostering solidarity, rather than forming explicit anti-Western military blocs. Moreover, many nationalists still engaged with or sought support from liberal sections within Western countries. Statement 4 is correct. Even before independence, Indian nationalist leaders, particularly figures like Jawaharlal Nehru who took a keen interest in foreign affairs, began to articulate a foreign policy vision based on principles of peaceful co-existence, non-alignment (in embryonic form), anti-colonialism, anti-imperialism, and anti-racialism. There was a strong sense of solidarity with other Asian and African countries struggling against colonial rule, evident in Congress resolutions and participation in international anti-imperialist forums. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Early Indian nationalists were critical of British imperialism and would not have supported its expansion. They saw British imperialism as detrimental to India and other colonized nations. Statement 2 is correct. A consistent theme in early nationalist discourse, from the late 19th century onwards, was the condemnation of the British government’s policy of using Indian troops and financial resources for its imperial wars and expansionist adventures in regions like Burma, Afghanistan, Tibet, Africa, and West Asia. Leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, G.K. Gokhale, and later the Congress in its resolutions, frequently protested against this burden imposed on India. Statement 3 is incorrect. While there was a sense of solidarity with other colonized nations, advocating for “close political and military alliances exclusively with other colonized nations against all Western powers” was not the dominant or practical foreign policy stance articulated by mainstream nationalism before independence. The focus was more on achieving India’s own freedom and fostering solidarity, rather than forming explicit anti-Western military blocs. Moreover, many nationalists still engaged with or sought support from liberal sections within Western countries. Statement 4 is correct. Even before independence, Indian nationalist leaders, particularly figures like Jawaharlal Nehru who took a keen interest in foreign affairs, began to articulate a foreign policy vision based on principles of peaceful co-existence, non-alignment (in embryonic form), anti-colonialism, anti-imperialism, and anti-racialism. There was a strong sense of solidarity with other Asian and African countries struggling against colonial rule, evident in Congress resolutions and participation in international anti-imperialist forums.

#### 7. Question

Early Indian nationalist articulation of a distinct foreign policy perspective, even before independence, often included:

• Strong support for British imperial expansion in Africa and Asia as a means of gaining international experience for Indians.

• Condemnation of the use of Indian army and resources for British imperial wars and expeditions in other countries.

• Advocacy for close political and military alliances exclusively with other colonized nations against all Western powers.

• A commitment to the principles of peaceful co-existence and anti-colonialism, and solidarity with other Asian and African peoples struggling for freedom.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 4 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 4 only

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Early Indian nationalists were critical of British imperialism and would not have supported its expansion. They saw British imperialism as detrimental to India and other colonized nations.

• Statement 2 is correct. A consistent theme in early nationalist discourse, from the late 19th century onwards, was the condemnation of the British government’s policy of using Indian troops and financial resources for its imperial wars and expansionist adventures in regions like Burma, Afghanistan, Tibet, Africa, and West Asia. Leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, G.K. Gokhale, and later the Congress in its resolutions, frequently protested against this burden imposed on India.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While there was a sense of solidarity with other colonized nations, advocating for “close political and military alliances exclusively with other colonized nations against all Western powers” was not the dominant or practical foreign policy stance articulated by mainstream nationalism before independence. The focus was more on achieving India’s own freedom and fostering solidarity, rather than forming explicit anti-Western military blocs. Moreover, many nationalists still engaged with or sought support from liberal sections within Western countries.

• Statement 4 is correct. Even before independence, Indian nationalist leaders, particularly figures like Jawaharlal Nehru who took a keen interest in foreign affairs, began to articulate a foreign policy vision based on principles of peaceful co-existence, non-alignment (in embryonic form), anti-colonialism, anti-imperialism, and anti-racialism. There was a strong sense of solidarity with other Asian and African countries struggling against colonial rule, evident in Congress resolutions and participation in international anti-imperialist forums.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The “de-industrialization” thesis regarding 19th century India primarily argues that: (a) British policies led to a decline in traditional Indian handicraft industries without a compensating growth in modern machine-based industries, resulting in increased pressure on agriculture. (b) India voluntarily shifted its economic focus from industry to agriculture due to the higher profitability of cash crops in the global market. (c) The British actively dismantled all existing large-scale factory industries in India to prevent competition with British manufacturers. (d) The recurrent famines in 19th century India were solely attributable to the decline of indigenous industries and not to agrarian or administrative factors. Correct Solution: A Option (a) is correct. The de-industrialization thesis posits that British colonial rule, through policies like the influx of cheap machine-made goods from Britain (especially textiles after the Industrial Revolution), discriminatory tariff policies, the disappearance of traditional patron-courts, and the general disruption caused by colonial conquest, led to the ruin of many traditional Indian handicraft industries (e.g., textiles, metallurgy, shipbuilding). Crucially, this decline was not accompanied by a commensurate rise in modern indigenous industries during most of the 19th century. This displacement of artisans and craftsmen led to increased dependence on agriculture and ruralization of the economy. Option (b) is incorrect. The shift was not “voluntary” nor was it universally due to higher profitability that benefited the masses. While cash crop cultivation increased (often under duress or driven by colonial demand), it did not compensate for the loss of industrial livelihoods for many. Option (c) is incorrect. While British policies certainly created an environment hostile to Indian industries, the argument is not that they “actively dismantled all existing large-scale factory industries.” In the early 19th century, India did not have many “large-scale factory industries” in the modern sense. The thesis focuses on the decline of traditional handicraft industries. Some modern industries did emerge later in the 19th century (e.g., cotton textiles, jute), but their growth was slow and hampered. Option (d) is incorrect. While de-industrialization and increased pressure on land could have exacerbated vulnerability to famines, attributing famines solely to this factor is inaccurate. Famines were complex phenomena caused by a combination of factors, including exploitative land revenue policies, failure of rains, lack of investment in agriculture, British administrative apathy or flawed relief measures, and disruptions to traditional coping mechanisms. Incorrect Solution: A Option (a) is correct. The de-industrialization thesis posits that British colonial rule, through policies like the influx of cheap machine-made goods from Britain (especially textiles after the Industrial Revolution), discriminatory tariff policies, the disappearance of traditional patron-courts, and the general disruption caused by colonial conquest, led to the ruin of many traditional Indian handicraft industries (e.g., textiles, metallurgy, shipbuilding). Crucially, this decline was not accompanied by a commensurate rise in modern indigenous industries during most of the 19th century. This displacement of artisans and craftsmen led to increased dependence on agriculture and ruralization of the economy. Option (b) is incorrect. The shift was not “voluntary” nor was it universally due to higher profitability that benefited the masses. While cash crop cultivation increased (often under duress or driven by colonial demand), it did not compensate for the loss of industrial livelihoods for many. Option (c) is incorrect. While British policies certainly created an environment hostile to Indian industries, the argument is not that they “actively dismantled all existing large-scale factory industries.” In the early 19th century, India did not have many “large-scale factory industries” in the modern sense. The thesis focuses on the decline of traditional handicraft industries. Some modern industries did emerge later in the 19th century (e.g., cotton textiles, jute), but their growth was slow and hampered. Option (d) is incorrect. While de-industrialization and increased pressure on land could have exacerbated vulnerability to famines, attributing famines solely to this factor is inaccurate. Famines were complex phenomena caused by a combination of factors, including exploitative land revenue policies, failure of rains, lack of investment in agriculture, British administrative apathy or flawed relief measures, and disruptions to traditional coping mechanisms.

#### 8. Question

The “de-industrialization” thesis regarding 19th century India primarily argues that:

• (a) British policies led to a decline in traditional Indian handicraft industries without a compensating growth in modern machine-based industries, resulting in increased pressure on agriculture.

• (b) India voluntarily shifted its economic focus from industry to agriculture due to the higher profitability of cash crops in the global market.

• (c) The British actively dismantled all existing large-scale factory industries in India to prevent competition with British manufacturers.

• (d) The recurrent famines in 19th century India were solely attributable to the decline of indigenous industries and not to agrarian or administrative factors.

Solution: A

Option (a) is correct. The de-industrialization thesis posits that British colonial rule, through policies like the influx of cheap machine-made goods from Britain (especially textiles after the Industrial Revolution), discriminatory tariff policies, the disappearance of traditional patron-courts, and the general disruption caused by colonial conquest, led to the ruin of many traditional Indian handicraft industries (e.g., textiles, metallurgy, shipbuilding). Crucially, this decline was not accompanied by a commensurate rise in modern indigenous industries during most of the 19th century. This displacement of artisans and craftsmen led to increased dependence on agriculture and ruralization of the economy.

Option (b) is incorrect. The shift was not “voluntary” nor was it universally due to higher profitability that benefited the masses. While cash crop cultivation increased (often under duress or driven by colonial demand), it did not compensate for the loss of industrial livelihoods for many.

Option (c) is incorrect. While British policies certainly created an environment hostile to Indian industries, the argument is not that they “actively dismantled all existing large-scale factory industries.” In the early 19th century, India did not have many “large-scale factory industries” in the modern sense. The thesis focuses on the decline of traditional handicraft industries. Some modern industries did emerge later in the 19th century (e.g., cotton textiles, jute), but their growth was slow and hampered.

Option (d) is incorrect. While de-industrialization and increased pressure on land could have exacerbated vulnerability to famines, attributing famines solely to this factor is inaccurate. Famines were complex phenomena caused by a combination of factors, including exploitative land revenue policies, failure of rains, lack of investment in agriculture, British administrative apathy or flawed relief measures, and disruptions to traditional coping mechanisms.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The Ryotwari System of land revenue settlement, as implemented in parts of British India, particularly the Madras and Bombay Presidencies, had which of the following inherent consequences? It completely eliminated the role of intermediaries between the state and the actual cultivator, leading to enhanced peasant prosperity. The revenue demand was permanently fixed, providing long-term security to the ryots against arbitrary enhancements. It often led to increased peasant indebtedness and land alienation due to high revenue assessments, rigidity in collection, and fluctuating agricultural prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Ryotwari system theoretically aimed to establish a direct relationship between the state and the individual cultivator (ryot) by recognizing him as the proprietor of the land, it did not completely eliminate intermediaries. In practice, village headmen, moneylenders, and richer peasants often acted as intermediaries. Furthermore, peasant prosperity was not a guaranteed outcome; often, the reverse happened. Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of the Ryotwari system, unlike the Permanent Settlement, was that the revenue demand was not permanently fixed. It was subject to periodic revision, typically every 20 to 30 years, through resurveys and reassessments, which often led to an enhancement of the revenue demand. This lack of permanence created insecurity for the ryots. Statement 3 is correct. The Ryotwari system, despite its theoretical merits, often had adverse consequences for the peasantry. Revenue assessments were frequently very high (sometimes up to half or more of the gross produce). The collection was rigid, irrespective of crop failure or price fluctuations. This forced ryots to borrow from moneylenders at exorbitant interest rates, leading to widespread indebtedness. Inability to pay revenue or repay debts often resulted in the alienation of land to moneylenders or richer peasants. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Ryotwari system theoretically aimed to establish a direct relationship between the state and the individual cultivator (ryot) by recognizing him as the proprietor of the land, it did not completely eliminate intermediaries. In practice, village headmen, moneylenders, and richer peasants often acted as intermediaries. Furthermore, peasant prosperity was not a guaranteed outcome; often, the reverse happened. Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of the Ryotwari system, unlike the Permanent Settlement, was that the revenue demand was not permanently fixed. It was subject to periodic revision, typically every 20 to 30 years, through resurveys and reassessments, which often led to an enhancement of the revenue demand. This lack of permanence created insecurity for the ryots. Statement 3 is correct. The Ryotwari system, despite its theoretical merits, often had adverse consequences for the peasantry. Revenue assessments were frequently very high (sometimes up to half or more of the gross produce). The collection was rigid, irrespective of crop failure or price fluctuations. This forced ryots to borrow from moneylenders at exorbitant interest rates, leading to widespread indebtedness. Inability to pay revenue or repay debts often resulted in the alienation of land to moneylenders or richer peasants.

#### 9. Question

The Ryotwari System of land revenue settlement, as implemented in parts of British India, particularly the Madras and Bombay Presidencies, had which of the following inherent consequences?

• It completely eliminated the role of intermediaries between the state and the actual cultivator, leading to enhanced peasant prosperity.

• The revenue demand was permanently fixed, providing long-term security to the ryots against arbitrary enhancements.

• It often led to increased peasant indebtedness and land alienation due to high revenue assessments, rigidity in collection, and fluctuating agricultural prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Ryotwari system theoretically aimed to establish a direct relationship between the state and the individual cultivator (ryot) by recognizing him as the proprietor of the land, it did not completely eliminate intermediaries. In practice, village headmen, moneylenders, and richer peasants often acted as intermediaries. Furthermore, peasant prosperity was not a guaranteed outcome; often, the reverse happened.

Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of the Ryotwari system, unlike the Permanent Settlement, was that the revenue demand was not permanently fixed. It was subject to periodic revision, typically every 20 to 30 years, through resurveys and reassessments, which often led to an enhancement of the revenue demand. This lack of permanence created insecurity for the ryots.

Statement 3 is correct. The Ryotwari system, despite its theoretical merits, often had adverse consequences for the peasantry. Revenue assessments were frequently very high (sometimes up to half or more of the gross produce). The collection was rigid, irrespective of crop failure or price fluctuations. This forced ryots to borrow from moneylenders at exorbitant interest rates, leading to widespread indebtedness. Inability to pay revenue or repay debts often resulted in the alienation of land to moneylenders or richer peasants.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The Haripura Session of the Indian National Congress (1938), presided over by Subhas Chandra Bose, is notable for which of the following resolutions or developments? (a) It formally announced the launching of the Quit India Movement. (b) It adopted a resolution explicitly supporting the cause of the people of the Princely States and their demand for responsible government, thereby reversing the earlier policy of non-interference. (c) It witnessed a major ideological clash between Subhas Chandra Bose and Mahatma Gandhi over the issue of immediate mass struggle, leading to Bose's resignation. (d) It set up a National Planning Committee under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru to draw up a blueprint for India's economic development post-independence. Correct Solution: D Option (a) is incorrect. The Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942 following the “Quit India” resolution passed by the AICC in Bombay. Option (b) is incorrect. While the Congress had been gradually evolving its policy towards the Princely States, the Haripura session reiterated the existing policy of moral support for the States’ peoples’ struggles but maintained that the primary struggle for responsible government should be carried on by the people of the states themselves, with the Congress not directly intervening organizationally in their internal affairs. A more definitive shift towards active engagement came later. Option (c) is incorrect. The major ideological clash between Bose and Gandhi (and the Congress Old Guard) which led to Bose’s resignation as Congress President occurred at the Tripuri Session in 1939, not Haripura. At Haripura, Bose was elected unanimously and delivered a powerful presidential address. Option (d) is correct. A very significant development at the Haripura Session (1938) was the adoption of a resolution that led to the formation of a National Planning Committee (NPC). Subhas Chandra Bose, in his presidential address, had strongly advocated for planned economic development. Subsequently, the NPC was set up with Jawaharlal Nehru as its chairman to formulate plans for India’s industrialization and economic reconstruction after independence. This was a pioneering effort in thinking about post-independence economic policy. Incorrect Solution: D Option (a) is incorrect. The Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942 following the “Quit India” resolution passed by the AICC in Bombay. Option (b) is incorrect. While the Congress had been gradually evolving its policy towards the Princely States, the Haripura session reiterated the existing policy of moral support for the States’ peoples’ struggles but maintained that the primary struggle for responsible government should be carried on by the people of the states themselves, with the Congress not directly intervening organizationally in their internal affairs. A more definitive shift towards active engagement came later. Option (c) is incorrect. The major ideological clash between Bose and Gandhi (and the Congress Old Guard) which led to Bose’s resignation as Congress President occurred at the Tripuri Session in 1939, not Haripura. At Haripura, Bose was elected unanimously and delivered a powerful presidential address. Option (d) is correct. A very significant development at the Haripura Session (1938) was the adoption of a resolution that led to the formation of a National Planning Committee (NPC). Subhas Chandra Bose, in his presidential address, had strongly advocated for planned economic development. Subsequently, the NPC was set up with Jawaharlal Nehru as its chairman to formulate plans for India’s industrialization and economic reconstruction after independence. This was a pioneering effort in thinking about post-independence economic policy.

#### 10. Question

The Haripura Session of the Indian National Congress (1938), presided over by Subhas Chandra Bose, is notable for which of the following resolutions or developments?

• (a) It formally announced the launching of the Quit India Movement.

• (b) It adopted a resolution explicitly supporting the cause of the people of the Princely States and their demand for responsible government, thereby reversing the earlier policy of non-interference.

• (c) It witnessed a major ideological clash between Subhas Chandra Bose and Mahatma Gandhi over the issue of immediate mass struggle, leading to Bose's resignation.

• (d) It set up a National Planning Committee under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru to draw up a blueprint for India's economic development post-independence.

Solution: D

• Option (a) is incorrect. The Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942 following the “Quit India” resolution passed by the AICC in Bombay.

• Option (b) is incorrect. While the Congress had been gradually evolving its policy towards the Princely States, the Haripura session reiterated the existing policy of moral support for the States’ peoples’ struggles but maintained that the primary struggle for responsible government should be carried on by the people of the states themselves, with the Congress not directly intervening organizationally in their internal affairs. A more definitive shift towards active engagement came later.

• Option (c) is incorrect. The major ideological clash between Bose and Gandhi (and the Congress Old Guard) which led to Bose’s resignation as Congress President occurred at the Tripuri Session in 1939, not Haripura. At Haripura, Bose was elected unanimously and delivered a powerful presidential address.

• Option (d) is correct. A very significant development at the Haripura Session (1938) was the adoption of a resolution that led to the formation of a National Planning Committee (NPC). Subhas Chandra Bose, in his presidential address, had strongly advocated for planned economic development. Subsequently, the NPC was set up with Jawaharlal Nehru as its chairman to formulate plans for India’s industrialization and economic reconstruction after independence. This was a pioneering effort in thinking about post-independence economic policy.

Solution: D

• Option (a) is incorrect. The Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942 following the “Quit India” resolution passed by the AICC in Bombay.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Regulating Act of 1773 : The Governor- general -in-Council was created for 5 years and empowered with Civil and military powers for Bengal, Bihar and Odisha. The Bengal Presidency was exclusively empowered to deal with matters of War and Peace. The Governor General alone had the authority to grant licences for private trade to Company servants. No appeal could be made against judgement of the Supreme Court, whose jurisdiction included only Indian subjects. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : B The Regulating act 1773 provided for a new executive for Bengal Presidency comprising of a Governor General and four councillors known as Governor general-in-Council The Council was given at term of 5 years It was vested with the civil and military powers for Bengal, Bihar and Odisha The Council comprised of men specially from England and it was to take all decisions by majority. Hence statement 1 is correct A deficiency in Indian administration was that Bengal, Madras and Bombay presidencies were separate and independent of each other. There was no supreme authority in India that could bring about synergy among them. The act tried to do away with this by establishing an empowered Central authority. Accordingly, Bengal Presidency was made Supreme with exclusive powers to deal with matters of war and peace and other presidencies were made subordinate to it. The Governor General of Bengal was called the Governor General of all British territories in India. The first governor general was Warren Hastings. Hence statement 2 is correct An issue with company servants in India was corruption, in which they engaged due to low salary. The Act provided for payment of liberal salaries to the Employees. It completely prohibited immoral activities such as private trade, receiving or giving bribe, money lending and like activities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect The Act provided for establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774). Its jurisdiction included civil, criminal, admiralty matters. It comprised of a chief justice and three judges. All public servants of the Company were brought under its jurisdiction. All British subjects, both European and Indians could seek redressal in the Supreme Court against oppression. Appeal against the court’s decision could be made to the King in Council in England. Hence statement 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : B The Regulating act 1773 provided for a new executive for Bengal Presidency comprising of a Governor General and four councillors known as Governor general-in-Council The Council was given at term of 5 years It was vested with the civil and military powers for Bengal, Bihar and Odisha The Council comprised of men specially from England and it was to take all decisions by majority. Hence statement 1 is correct A deficiency in Indian administration was that Bengal, Madras and Bombay presidencies were separate and independent of each other. There was no supreme authority in India that could bring about synergy among them. The act tried to do away with this by establishing an empowered Central authority. Accordingly, Bengal Presidency was made Supreme with exclusive powers to deal with matters of war and peace and other presidencies were made subordinate to it. The Governor General of Bengal was called the Governor General of all British territories in India. The first governor general was Warren Hastings. Hence statement 2 is correct An issue with company servants in India was corruption, in which they engaged due to low salary. The Act provided for payment of liberal salaries to the Employees. It completely prohibited immoral activities such as private trade, receiving or giving bribe, money lending and like activities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect The Act provided for establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774). Its jurisdiction included civil, criminal, admiralty matters. It comprised of a chief justice and three judges. All public servants of the Company were brought under its jurisdiction. All British subjects, both European and Indians could seek redressal in the Supreme Court against oppression. Appeal against the court’s decision could be made to the King in Council in England. Hence statement 4 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Regulating Act of 1773 :

• The Governor- general -in-Council was created for 5 years and empowered with Civil and military powers for Bengal, Bihar and Odisha.

• The Bengal Presidency was exclusively empowered to deal with matters of War and Peace.

• The Governor General alone had the authority to grant licences for private trade to Company servants.

• No appeal could be made against judgement of the Supreme Court, whose jurisdiction included only Indian subjects.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : B

• The Regulating act 1773 provided for a new executive for Bengal Presidency comprising of a Governor General and four councillors known as Governor general-in-Council

• The Council was given at term of 5 years

• It was vested with the civil and military powers for Bengal, Bihar and Odisha

• The Council comprised of men specially from England and it was to take all decisions by majority.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• A deficiency in Indian administration was that Bengal, Madras and Bombay presidencies were separate and independent of each other.

• There was no supreme authority in India that could bring about synergy among them.

• The act tried to do away with this by establishing an empowered Central authority.

• Accordingly, Bengal Presidency was made Supreme with exclusive powers to deal with matters of war and peace and other presidencies were made subordinate to it.

• The Governor General of Bengal was called the Governor General of all British territories in India.

• The first governor general was Warren Hastings.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• An issue with company servants in India was corruption, in which they engaged due to low salary.

• The Act provided for payment of liberal salaries to the Employees.

• It completely prohibited immoral activities such as private trade, receiving or giving bribe, money lending and like activities.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• The Act provided for establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774). Its jurisdiction included civil, criminal, admiralty matters.

• It comprised of a chief justice and three judges.

• All public servants of the Company were brought under its jurisdiction.

• All British subjects, both European and Indians could seek redressal in the Supreme Court against oppression.

• Appeal against the court’s decision could be made to the King in Council in England.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

Solution : B

• The Regulating act 1773 provided for a new executive for Bengal Presidency comprising of a Governor General and four councillors known as Governor general-in-Council

• The Council was given at term of 5 years

• It was vested with the civil and military powers for Bengal, Bihar and Odisha

• The Council comprised of men specially from England and it was to take all decisions by majority.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• A deficiency in Indian administration was that Bengal, Madras and Bombay presidencies were separate and independent of each other.

• There was no supreme authority in India that could bring about synergy among them.

• The act tried to do away with this by establishing an empowered Central authority.

• Accordingly, Bengal Presidency was made Supreme with exclusive powers to deal with matters of war and peace and other presidencies were made subordinate to it.

• The Governor General of Bengal was called the Governor General of all British territories in India.

• The first governor general was Warren Hastings.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• An issue with company servants in India was corruption, in which they engaged due to low salary.

• The Act provided for payment of liberal salaries to the Employees.

• It completely prohibited immoral activities such as private trade, receiving or giving bribe, money lending and like activities.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• The Act provided for establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774). Its jurisdiction included civil, criminal, admiralty matters.

• It comprised of a chief justice and three judges.

• All public servants of the Company were brought under its jurisdiction.

• All British subjects, both European and Indians could seek redressal in the Supreme Court against oppression.

• Appeal against the court’s decision could be made to the King in Council in England.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Governor General Dalhousie constituted the first Law Commission under chairmanship of Thomas Babington Macaulay. The Indian Evidence Act 1872 was passed under recommendations of the Law Commission during the colonial period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : B The First Law Commission was established during the colonial period in 1834 under the Charter act of 1833 during the tenure of Lord William Bentinck. The law commissions are constituted by the government to recommend legislative reforms with a view to clarify, consolidate and codify particular branches of law that the government feels the necessity for it. The First Law Commission was established under the chairmanship of Lord Babington Macaulay. Macaulay was the first law member; along with him, there were three other members . Hence statement 1 is incorrect The First law Commission recommended codification of the Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code and few other matters. The members produced a draft Penal code in 1837, Limitation law in 1842 and a scheme of Pleadings and Procedure in 1848. After this, the second, third and fourth law commissions were constituted in 1853, 1861 and 1879 respectively. The Indian Code of Civil Procedure, Indian Contract Act, the Indian Evidence Act 1872 the Transfer of Property Act, etc. were enacted under the first four Law Commissions. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : B The First Law Commission was established during the colonial period in 1834 under the Charter act of 1833 during the tenure of Lord William Bentinck. The law commissions are constituted by the government to recommend legislative reforms with a view to clarify, consolidate and codify particular branches of law that the government feels the necessity for it. The First Law Commission was established under the chairmanship of Lord Babington Macaulay. Macaulay was the first law member; along with him, there were three other members . Hence statement 1 is incorrect The First law Commission recommended codification of the Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code and few other matters. The members produced a draft Penal code in 1837, Limitation law in 1842 and a scheme of Pleadings and Procedure in 1848. After this, the second, third and fourth law commissions were constituted in 1853, 1861 and 1879 respectively. The Indian Code of Civil Procedure, Indian Contract Act, the Indian Evidence Act 1872 the Transfer of Property Act, etc. were enacted under the first four Law Commissions. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements :

• Governor General Dalhousie constituted the first Law Commission under chairmanship of Thomas Babington Macaulay.

• The Indian Evidence Act 1872 was passed under recommendations of the Law Commission during the colonial period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : B

• The First Law Commission was established during the colonial period in 1834 under the Charter act of 1833 during the tenure of Lord William Bentinck.

• The law commissions are constituted by the government to recommend legislative reforms with a view to clarify, consolidate and codify particular branches of law that the government feels the necessity for it.

• The First Law Commission was established under the chairmanship of Lord Babington Macaulay.

• Macaulay was the first law member; along with him, there were three other members .

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The First law Commission recommended codification of the Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code and few other matters.

• The members produced a draft Penal code in 1837, Limitation law in 1842 and a scheme of Pleadings and Procedure in 1848.

• After this, the second, third and fourth law commissions were constituted in 1853, 1861 and 1879 respectively.

• The Indian Code of Civil Procedure, Indian Contract Act, the Indian Evidence Act 1872 the Transfer of Property Act, etc. were enacted under the first four Law Commissions.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : B

• The First Law Commission was established during the colonial period in 1834 under the Charter act of 1833 during the tenure of Lord William Bentinck.

• The First Law Commission was established under the chairmanship of Lord Babington Macaulay.

• Macaulay was the first law member; along with him, there were three other members .

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The First law Commission recommended codification of the Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code and few other matters.

• The members produced a draft Penal code in 1837, Limitation law in 1842 and a scheme of Pleadings and Procedure in 1848.

• After this, the second, third and fourth law commissions were constituted in 1853, 1861 and 1879 respectively.

• The Indian Code of Civil Procedure, Indian Contract Act, the Indian Evidence Act 1872 the Transfer of Property Act, etc. were enacted under the first four Law Commissions.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs : Newspaper : Associated person Amrita Bazar : Debendranath Tagore Patrika East Indian : Dadabhai Naoroji Bangadarshan : Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : A Amrita Bazar Patrika was first published as a Bengali newspaper from Jessore district by Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh in 1868 It later changed into an English daily Hence Pair 2 is incorrect The East Indian newspaper was published by Henry Vivian Derozio. It was an English daily that was published in 1831 in Calcutta. It was a voice for the East Indian community; i.e., people of mixed Indian and European parentage and intended to be a platform for their perspectives Hence Pair 2 is incorrect Bangadarshan was a Bengali literary magazine founded by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1872. It was later revived in 1901 under editorship of Rabindranath Tagore. It played a key roll in shaping Bengali identity and promoting nationalism in Bengal. Hence Pair 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : A Amrita Bazar Patrika was first published as a Bengali newspaper from Jessore district by Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh in 1868 It later changed into an English daily Hence Pair 2 is incorrect The East Indian newspaper was published by Henry Vivian Derozio. It was an English daily that was published in 1831 in Calcutta. It was a voice for the East Indian community; i.e., people of mixed Indian and European parentage and intended to be a platform for their perspectives Hence Pair 2 is incorrect Bangadarshan was a Bengali literary magazine founded by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1872. It was later revived in 1901 under editorship of Rabindranath Tagore. It played a key roll in shaping Bengali identity and promoting nationalism in Bengal. Hence Pair 3 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following pairs :

Newspaper : Associated person

• Amrita Bazar : Debendranath Tagore

• East Indian : Dadabhai Naoroji

• Bangadarshan : Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : A

• Amrita Bazar Patrika was first published as a Bengali newspaper from Jessore district by Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh in 1868

• It later changed into an English daily

Hence Pair 2 is incorrect

• The East Indian newspaper was published by Henry Vivian Derozio.

• It was an English daily that was published in 1831 in Calcutta.

• It was a voice for the East Indian community; i.e., people of mixed Indian and European parentage and intended to be a platform for their perspectives

Hence Pair 2 is incorrect

• Bangadarshan was a Bengali literary magazine founded by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1872.

• It was later revived in 1901 under editorship of Rabindranath Tagore.

• It played a key roll in shaping Bengali identity and promoting nationalism in Bengal.

Hence Pair 3 is correct

Solution : A

• Amrita Bazar Patrika was first published as a Bengali newspaper from Jessore district by Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh in 1868

• It later changed into an English daily

Hence Pair 2 is incorrect

• The East Indian newspaper was published by Henry Vivian Derozio.

• It was an English daily that was published in 1831 in Calcutta.

• It was a voice for the East Indian community; i.e., people of mixed Indian and European parentage and intended to be a platform for their perspectives

Hence Pair 2 is incorrect

• Bangadarshan was a Bengali literary magazine founded by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1872.

• It was later revived in 1901 under editorship of Rabindranath Tagore.

• It played a key roll in shaping Bengali identity and promoting nationalism in Bengal.

Hence Pair 3 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : Drain of wealth from India to England was initiated after the Battle of Plassey. Statement – II : The aftermath of Battle of Plassey witnessed the beginning of Dual government in Bengal under which the East India Company was provided with control of revenue collection from Bengal. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : C After the Battle of Plassey (1757), the Company acquired political power and servants of the Company acquired a lot of wealth through misusing of dastaks as well as private trade. So basically, drain of wealth from India to England started from this period of time only. The company’s servants had large incomes through their participation in inland trade. Before the battle the British company primarily imported bullion (golden silver) to balance trade with India; but after the battle, the company gained significant political power and control over Indian economy and they also collected revenue which was transferred to fund Company’s operations and investments. Hence statement 1 is correct The Dual government in Bengal was established after the Battle of Buxar in 1764. The Battle of Buxar was fought between the British East India company and the combined Army of Nawab of Bengal (Mir Qasim), Suja-ud-daulah. (Nawab of Awadh) and Mughal emperor Shah Alam II This battle resulted in the East India Company led by Robert Clive becoming the dominant power in Bengal Under the Dual system, that was implemented in 1765, the company was given the right of Diwani or revenue collection while the nawab of Bengal retained the power of Administration and law and order, called the Nizamat. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : C After the Battle of Plassey (1757), the Company acquired political power and servants of the Company acquired a lot of wealth through misusing of dastaks as well as private trade. So basically, drain of wealth from India to England started from this period of time only. The company’s servants had large incomes through their participation in inland trade. Before the battle the British company primarily imported bullion (golden silver) to balance trade with India; but after the battle, the company gained significant political power and control over Indian economy and they also collected revenue which was transferred to fund Company’s operations and investments. Hence statement 1 is correct The Dual government in Bengal was established after the Battle of Buxar in 1764. The Battle of Buxar was fought between the British East India company and the combined Army of Nawab of Bengal (Mir Qasim), Suja-ud-daulah. (Nawab of Awadh) and Mughal emperor Shah Alam II This battle resulted in the East India Company led by Robert Clive becoming the dominant power in Bengal Under the Dual system, that was implemented in 1765, the company was given the right of Diwani or revenue collection while the nawab of Bengal retained the power of Administration and law and order, called the Nizamat. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

Drain of wealth from India to England was initiated after the Battle of Plassey.

Statement – II :

The aftermath of Battle of Plassey witnessed the beginning of Dual government in Bengal under which the East India Company was provided with control of revenue collection from Bengal.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : C

• After the Battle of Plassey (1757), the Company acquired political power and servants of the Company acquired a lot of wealth through misusing of dastaks as well as private trade.

• So basically, drain of wealth from India to England started from this period of time only.

• The company’s servants had large incomes through their participation in inland trade.

• Before the battle the British company primarily imported bullion (golden silver) to balance trade with India; but after the battle, the company gained significant political power and control over Indian economy and they also collected revenue which was transferred to fund Company’s operations and investments.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Dual government in Bengal was established after the Battle of Buxar in 1764.

• The Battle of Buxar was fought between the British East India company and the combined Army of Nawab of Bengal (Mir Qasim), Suja-ud-daulah. (Nawab of Awadh) and Mughal emperor Shah Alam II

• This battle resulted in the East India Company led by Robert Clive becoming the dominant power in Bengal

• Under the Dual system, that was implemented in 1765, the company was given the right of Diwani or revenue collection while the nawab of Bengal retained the power of Administration and law and order, called the Nizamat.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution : C

• After the Battle of Plassey (1757), the Company acquired political power and servants of the Company acquired a lot of wealth through misusing of dastaks as well as private trade.

• So basically, drain of wealth from India to England started from this period of time only.

• The company’s servants had large incomes through their participation in inland trade.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Dual government in Bengal was established after the Battle of Buxar in 1764.

• The Battle of Buxar was fought between the British East India company and the combined Army of Nawab of Bengal (Mir Qasim), Suja-ud-daulah. (Nawab of Awadh) and Mughal emperor Shah Alam II

• This battle resulted in the East India Company led by Robert Clive becoming the dominant power in Bengal

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Permanent Settlement : Contract was made with the zamindars who could sell or mortgage the land but could not pass ownership to his heir, which lead to abolition of hereditary land ownership system in Bengal. It resulted in rise of a form of sub- feudalism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution : B Permanent settlement was introduced in Bengal and Bihar in 1793 The land revenue was fixed data very high level of Rs 2 crore and 65 lakh Permanent Settlement was fixed with zamindars. A special feature of this system was that the zamindars and revenue farmers were now converted into landlords and they were now owners of entire land of their zamindari. They had to pay a fixed (10/11) upon it; so as long as he paid his tax he remained owner of his land. The zamindars also had to give the tenants a patta or document which contained information regarding the area of the land given to them and the rent that they had to pay to the landlord. The Zamindar was now considered as owner of whole of his land He could sale, transfer or mortgage it. After his death his land could could be inherited by his heirs. But if he failed to pay the tax, the government could take away his land and sell it by auction. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Under this system 10/ 11 part of the land tax went to the state while 1/11 belonged to the Zamindar Thus zamindars found it very difficult to pay the high tax demanded by the British, hence many of them lost their zamindari Many zamindars also further divided their land into smaller estates and permanently rented them to sub-holders who agreed to pay a fixed rent This gave birth to subinfeudation or a form of sub feudalism. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution : B Permanent settlement was introduced in Bengal and Bihar in 1793 The land revenue was fixed data very high level of Rs 2 crore and 65 lakh Permanent Settlement was fixed with zamindars. A special feature of this system was that the zamindars and revenue farmers were now converted into landlords and they were now owners of entire land of their zamindari. They had to pay a fixed (10/11) upon it; so as long as he paid his tax he remained owner of his land. The zamindars also had to give the tenants a patta or document which contained information regarding the area of the land given to them and the rent that they had to pay to the landlord. The Zamindar was now considered as owner of whole of his land He could sale, transfer or mortgage it. After his death his land could could be inherited by his heirs. But if he failed to pay the tax, the government could take away his land and sell it by auction. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Under this system 10/ 11 part of the land tax went to the state while 1/11 belonged to the Zamindar Thus zamindars found it very difficult to pay the high tax demanded by the British, hence many of them lost their zamindari Many zamindars also further divided their land into smaller estates and permanently rented them to sub-holders who agreed to pay a fixed rent This gave birth to subinfeudation or a form of sub feudalism. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Permanent Settlement :

• Contract was made with the zamindars who could sell or mortgage the land but could not pass ownership to his heir, which lead to abolition of hereditary land ownership system in Bengal.

• It resulted in rise of a form of sub- feudalism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : B

• Permanent settlement was introduced in Bengal and Bihar in 1793

• The land revenue was fixed data very high level of Rs 2 crore and 65 lakh

• Permanent Settlement was fixed with zamindars.

• A special feature of this system was that the zamindars and revenue farmers were now converted into landlords and they were now owners of entire land of their zamindari.

• They had to pay a fixed (10/11) upon it; so as long as he paid his tax he remained owner of his land.

• The zamindars also had to give the tenants a patta or document which contained information regarding the area of the land given to them and the rent that they had to pay to the landlord.

• The Zamindar was now considered as owner of whole of his land

• He could sale, transfer or mortgage it.

• After his death his land could could be inherited by his heirs.

• But if he failed to pay the tax, the government could take away his land and sell it by auction.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Under this system 10/ 11 part of the land tax went to the state while 1/11 belonged to the Zamindar

• Thus zamindars found it very difficult to pay the high tax demanded by the British, hence many of them lost their zamindari

• Many zamindars also further divided their land into smaller estates and permanently rented them to sub-holders who agreed to pay a fixed rent

• This gave birth to subinfeudation or a form of sub feudalism.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : B

• Permanent settlement was introduced in Bengal and Bihar in 1793

• The land revenue was fixed data very high level of Rs 2 crore and 65 lakh

• Permanent Settlement was fixed with zamindars.

• A special feature of this system was that the zamindars and revenue farmers were now converted into landlords and they were now owners of entire land of their zamindari.

• They had to pay a fixed (10/11) upon it; so as long as he paid his tax he remained owner of his land.

• The zamindars also had to give the tenants a patta or document which contained information regarding the area of the land given to them and the rent that they had to pay to the landlord.

• The Zamindar was now considered as owner of whole of his land

• He could sale, transfer or mortgage it.

• After his death his land could could be inherited by his heirs.

• But if he failed to pay the tax, the government could take away his land and sell it by auction.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Under this system 10/ 11 part of the land tax went to the state while 1/11 belonged to the Zamindar

• Thus zamindars found it very difficult to pay the high tax demanded by the British, hence many of them lost their zamindari

• Many zamindars also further divided their land into smaller estates and permanently rented them to sub-holders who agreed to pay a fixed rent

• This gave birth to subinfeudation or a form of sub feudalism.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : Statement – I : The Subsidiary Alliance challenged the political freedom of the signatory Indian ruler. Statement – II : Under the Subsidiary Alliance, the signatory Indian state could negotiate with other Indian states with prior permission of the Governor general. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution : A The Subsidiary Alliance was initiated by Governor General Lord Wellesley Under the system the Indian state had to surrender its foreign relations into the hands of the company and could not negotiate with any other state without consulting the governor general The Indian state could not employ any European in its service without approval of the British It also had to maintain an English force stationed within its territory for its protection in return of an annual subsidy in cash to the company; the larger states had to cede a part of their territories for the purpose Thus, the system abrogated independence of the Indian ruler as the ruler lost the right to self defence as well as maintain independent foreign relations. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution : A The Subsidiary Alliance was initiated by Governor General Lord Wellesley Under the system the Indian state had to surrender its foreign relations into the hands of the company and could not negotiate with any other state without consulting the governor general The Indian state could not employ any European in its service without approval of the British It also had to maintain an English force stationed within its territory for its protection in return of an annual subsidy in cash to the company; the larger states had to cede a part of their territories for the purpose Thus, the system abrogated independence of the Indian ruler as the ruler lost the right to self defence as well as maintain independent foreign relations. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements :

Statement – I :

The Subsidiary Alliance challenged the political freedom of the signatory Indian ruler.

Statement – II :

Under the Subsidiary Alliance, the signatory Indian state could negotiate with other Indian states with prior permission of the Governor general.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution : A

• The Subsidiary Alliance was initiated by Governor General Lord Wellesley

• Under the system the Indian state had to surrender its foreign relations into the hands of the company and could not negotiate with any other state without consulting the governor general

• The Indian state could not employ any European in its service without approval of the British

• It also had to maintain an English force stationed within its territory for its protection in return of an annual subsidy in cash to the company; the larger states had to cede a part of their territories for the purpose

• Thus, the system abrogated independence of the Indian ruler as the ruler lost the right to self defence as well as maintain independent foreign relations.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution : A

• The Subsidiary Alliance was initiated by Governor General Lord Wellesley

• Under the system the Indian state had to surrender its foreign relations into the hands of the company and could not negotiate with any other state without consulting the governor general

• The Indian state could not employ any European in its service without approval of the British

• Thus, the system abrogated independence of the Indian ruler as the ruler lost the right to self defence as well as maintain independent foreign relations.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Considered the following literary works : Thoughts on Pakistan The Buddha and his Dhamma Why I am an atheist How many of the above were authored by BR Ambedkar? (a) 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: C Thoughts on Pakistan : It was written by BR Ambedkar. The Buddha and his Dhamma is a 1957 treatise on the life and philosophy of Lord Buddha. It was the last work of Ambedkar. The text is treated as a scripture for those who follow Navayana Buddhism. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct Why I am an atheist : it is an essay written by Bhagat Singh in 1930 in the Lahore Central Jail. It was basically a reply to his religious friends who thought Singh became an atheist because of his vanity. The essay was published after his death in September 1931 in the English weekly The People, published by Lala Lajpat Rai. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C Thoughts on Pakistan : It was written by BR Ambedkar. The Buddha and his Dhamma is a 1957 treatise on the life and philosophy of Lord Buddha. It was the last work of Ambedkar. The text is treated as a scripture for those who follow Navayana Buddhism. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct Why I am an atheist : it is an essay written by Bhagat Singh in 1930 in the Lahore Central Jail. It was basically a reply to his religious friends who thought Singh became an atheist because of his vanity. The essay was published after his death in September 1931 in the English weekly The People, published by Lala Lajpat Rai. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Considered the following literary works :

• Thoughts on Pakistan

• The Buddha and his Dhamma

• Why I am an atheist

How many of the above were authored by BR Ambedkar?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: C

Thoughts on Pakistan : It was written by BR Ambedkar.

The Buddha and his Dhamma is a 1957 treatise on the life and philosophy of Lord Buddha. It was the last work of Ambedkar. The text is treated as a scripture for those who follow Navayana Buddhism.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

Why I am an atheist : it is an essay written by Bhagat Singh in 1930 in the Lahore Central Jail. It was basically a reply to his religious friends who thought Singh became an atheist because of his vanity. The essay was published after his death in September 1931 in the English weekly The People, published by Lala Lajpat Rai.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution: C

Thoughts on Pakistan : It was written by BR Ambedkar.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The National Planning Committee (NPC) was established by Subhash Chandra Bose in the Haripura Congress Session presided by him. NPC was formed under chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru with the purpose of industrial development in India, Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The National Planning Committee was established in October 1938 by Subhash Chandra Bose who was the President of Indian National Congress. It was formed in the Haripura session presided over by Bose The main objective was to focus on the development of industries in India The committee was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru from Prayagraj. The first meeting of the committee was held on 17 December 1938 in Bombay The committee played a significant role in India’s freedom struggle by providing a vision of India’s future development The recommendations of the committee worked towards reducing economic exploitation and inequality which was a key aspect of the colonial rule. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The National Planning Committee was established in October 1938 by Subhash Chandra Bose who was the President of Indian National Congress. It was formed in the Haripura session presided over by Bose The main objective was to focus on the development of industries in India The committee was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru from Prayagraj. The first meeting of the committee was held on 17 December 1938 in Bombay The committee played a significant role in India’s freedom struggle by providing a vision of India’s future development The recommendations of the committee worked towards reducing economic exploitation and inequality which was a key aspect of the colonial rule. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The National Planning Committee (NPC) was established by Subhash Chandra Bose in the Haripura Congress Session presided by him.

• NPC was formed under chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru with the purpose of industrial development in India,

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The National Planning Committee was established in October 1938 by Subhash Chandra Bose who was the President of Indian National Congress.

• It was formed in the Haripura session presided over by Bose

• The main objective was to focus on the development of industries in India

• The committee was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru from Prayagraj.

• The first meeting of the committee was held on 17 December 1938 in Bombay

• The committee played a significant role in India’s freedom struggle by providing a vision of India’s future development

• The recommendations of the committee worked towards reducing economic exploitation and inequality which was a key aspect of the colonial rule.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• The National Planning Committee was established in October 1938 by Subhash Chandra Bose who was the President of Indian National Congress.

• It was formed in the Haripura session presided over by Bose

• The main objective was to focus on the development of industries in India

• The committee was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru from Prayagraj.

• The first meeting of the committee was held on 17 December 1938 in Bombay

• The committee played a significant role in India’s freedom struggle by providing a vision of India’s future development

• The recommendations of the committee worked towards reducing economic exploitation and inequality which was a key aspect of the colonial rule.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding East India Company Act 1784 : The political and commercial functions of the Company were separated and were vested on the Board of Control and Court of Directors respectively. The governor general of Bengal was provided with veto Power. All military officers of the company were required to disclose their property in India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : C On assumption of office of Prime Minister, William Pitt introduced an India bill which later came to be known as East India Company Act or Pitt’s India Act 1784. The aim of the Act was to remove weaknesses of the Regulating act 1773 and bring the Company’s administration in India under supreme control of the British Parliament. The act differentiated political functions of the company from its commercial activities. It created a Board of Control was created to supervise political matters ; it consisted of 6 members; all were appointed by the King It created the Court of Directors representing the company that handled the commercial and daily administrative matters. Hence statement 1 is correct The Governor general of Bengal was given the power to veto decisions made by his executive council; this further strengthened his authority. Hence statement 2 is correct The act mandated that all military and civil officers of the company were required to disclose their property in India and Britain within a specific time period of their appointments. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : C On assumption of office of Prime Minister, William Pitt introduced an India bill which later came to be known as East India Company Act or Pitt’s India Act 1784. The aim of the Act was to remove weaknesses of the Regulating act 1773 and bring the Company’s administration in India under supreme control of the British Parliament. The act differentiated political functions of the company from its commercial activities. It created a Board of Control was created to supervise political matters ; it consisted of 6 members; all were appointed by the King It created the Court of Directors representing the company that handled the commercial and daily administrative matters. Hence statement 1 is correct The Governor general of Bengal was given the power to veto decisions made by his executive council; this further strengthened his authority. Hence statement 2 is correct The act mandated that all military and civil officers of the company were required to disclose their property in India and Britain within a specific time period of their appointments. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding East India Company Act 1784 :

• The political and commercial functions of the Company were separated and were vested on the Board of Control and Court of Directors respectively.

• The governor general of Bengal was provided with veto Power.

• All military officers of the company were required to disclose their property in India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : C

• On assumption of office of Prime Minister, William Pitt introduced an India bill which later came to be known as East India Company Act or Pitt’s India Act 1784.

• The aim of the Act was to remove weaknesses of the Regulating act 1773 and bring the Company’s administration in India under supreme control of the British Parliament.

• The act differentiated political functions of the company from its commercial activities.

• It created a Board of Control was created to supervise political matters ; it consisted of 6 members; all were appointed by the King

• It created the Court of Directors representing the company that handled the commercial and daily administrative matters.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Governor general of Bengal was given the power to veto decisions made by his executive council; this further strengthened his authority.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The act mandated that all military and civil officers of the company were required to disclose their property in India and Britain within a specific time period of their appointments.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution : C

• On assumption of office of Prime Minister, William Pitt introduced an India bill which later came to be known as East India Company Act or Pitt’s India Act 1784.

• The aim of the Act was to remove weaknesses of the Regulating act 1773 and bring the Company’s administration in India under supreme control of the British Parliament.

• The act differentiated political functions of the company from its commercial activities.

• It created a Board of Control was created to supervise political matters ; it consisted of 6 members; all were appointed by the King

• It created the Court of Directors representing the company that handled the commercial and daily administrative matters.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Governor general of Bengal was given the power to veto decisions made by his executive council; this further strengthened his authority.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The act mandated that all military and civil officers of the company were required to disclose their property in India and Britain within a specific time period of their appointments.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs : Educational institution: Related Governor General Fort William college : Lord Dufferin Benaras Sanskrit college : Lord Cornwallis Calcutta Madrasah : Lord Dalhousie Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution : A Fort William college was an Academy of Oriental studies and a centre of learning founded in 1800 in Calcutta by the then Governor general Lord Wellesley. Thousands of books were translated from Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, Bengali, Hindi and Urdu into English. The college also promoted printing and publishing of Urdu books. Hence pair 1 is incorrect In 1791, during the tenure Lord Cornwallis as Governor general in India, Jonathan Duncan proposed establishment of a Sanskrit college at Banaras for the development and preservation of Sanskrit language and to demonstrate British support for Indian education. Hence pair 2 is correct Calcutta Madrasah was set up in 1780 by Warren Hastings,the first Governor-general of the East India Company at the request of a considerable number of learned Muslims of Calcutta. The main object was to promote the study of Arabic and Persian languages and Muslim laws and Customs. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution : A Fort William college was an Academy of Oriental studies and a centre of learning founded in 1800 in Calcutta by the then Governor general Lord Wellesley. Thousands of books were translated from Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, Bengali, Hindi and Urdu into English. The college also promoted printing and publishing of Urdu books. Hence pair 1 is incorrect In 1791, during the tenure Lord Cornwallis as Governor general in India, Jonathan Duncan proposed establishment of a Sanskrit college at Banaras for the development and preservation of Sanskrit language and to demonstrate British support for Indian education. Hence pair 2 is correct Calcutta Madrasah was set up in 1780 by Warren Hastings,the first Governor-general of the East India Company at the request of a considerable number of learned Muslims of Calcutta. The main object was to promote the study of Arabic and Persian languages and Muslim laws and Customs. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following pairs :

Educational institution: Related Governor General

• Fort William college : Lord Dufferin

• Benaras Sanskrit college : Lord Cornwallis

• Calcutta Madrasah : Lord Dalhousie

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution : A

• Fort William college was an Academy of Oriental studies and a centre of learning founded in 1800 in Calcutta by the then Governor general Lord Wellesley.

• Thousands of books were translated from Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, Bengali, Hindi and Urdu into English.

• The college also promoted printing and publishing of Urdu books.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• In 1791, during the tenure Lord Cornwallis as Governor general in India, Jonathan Duncan proposed establishment of a Sanskrit college at Banaras for the development and preservation of Sanskrit language and to demonstrate British support for Indian education.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Calcutta Madrasah was set up in 1780 by Warren Hastings,the first Governor-general of the East India Company at the request of a considerable number of learned Muslims of Calcutta.

• The main object was to promote the study of Arabic and Persian languages and Muslim laws and Customs.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution : A

• Fort William college was an Academy of Oriental studies and a centre of learning founded in 1800 in Calcutta by the then Governor general Lord Wellesley.

• Thousands of books were translated from Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, Bengali, Hindi and Urdu into English.

• The college also promoted printing and publishing of Urdu books.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Calcutta Madrasah was set up in 1780 by Warren Hastings,the first Governor-general of the East India Company at the request of a considerable number of learned Muslims of Calcutta.

• The main object was to promote the study of Arabic and Persian languages and Muslim laws and Customs.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to India’s layered air defence system, consider the following statements: The Akash missile system is of Russian origin and supplements the S-400 in high-altitude interceptions. Barak-8 is an Indo-Israeli medium-range system deployed to neutralize high-speed aerial targets like cruise missiles. S-400 Triumf operates on a “hit-to-kill” principle and can engage stealth aircraft, ballistic missiles, and drones. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Akash is an indigenous Indian missile system, developed by DRDO for low-to-medium altitude threats. Statement 2 is correct: Barak-8, jointly developed by India and Israel, is a high-speed medium-range SAM designed to intercept maneuvering aerial threats, including UAVs and cruise missiles. Statement 3 is correct: The S-400 Triumf, of Russian origin, is capable of intercepting a range of targets including stealth aircraft and ballistic missiles up to 400 km. It uses a variety of missile types, some with hit-to-kill and others with proximity detonation. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Akash is an indigenous Indian missile system, developed by DRDO for low-to-medium altitude threats. Statement 2 is correct: Barak-8, jointly developed by India and Israel, is a high-speed medium-range SAM designed to intercept maneuvering aerial threats, including UAVs and cruise missiles. Statement 3 is correct: The S-400 Triumf, of Russian origin, is capable of intercepting a range of targets including stealth aircraft and ballistic missiles up to 400 km. It uses a variety of missile types, some with hit-to-kill and others with proximity detonation.

#### 21. Question

With reference to India’s layered air defence system, consider the following statements:

• The Akash missile system is of Russian origin and supplements the S-400 in high-altitude interceptions.

• Barak-8 is an Indo-Israeli medium-range system deployed to neutralize high-speed aerial targets like cruise missiles.

• S-400 Triumf operates on a “hit-to-kill” principle and can engage stealth aircraft, ballistic missiles, and drones.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Akash is an indigenous Indian missile system, developed by DRDO for low-to-medium altitude threats.

Statement 2 is correct: Barak-8, jointly developed by India and Israel, is a high-speed medium-range SAM designed to intercept maneuvering aerial threats, including UAVs and cruise missiles.

Statement 3 is correct: The S-400 Triumf, of Russian origin, is capable of intercepting a range of targets including stealth aircraft and ballistic missiles up to 400 km. It uses a variety of missile types, some with hit-to-kill and others with proximity detonation.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Akash is an indigenous Indian missile system, developed by DRDO for low-to-medium altitude threats.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Kanger Valley National Park: Statement-I: Kanger Valley National Park exhibits high endemism and biodiversity due to its karstic caves and geomorphic isolation. Statement-II: Karst caves provide microclimatic stability and ecological niches that enable species isolation and speciation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct as Kanger Valley is known for hosting numerous endemic species, particularly within its limestone cave ecosystems, which are geomorphologically isolated and rich in niche diversity. This isolation is a driver of species diversification. It is home to endemic species like the Bastar Hill Myna. Statement-II is also correct and serves as a valid explanation. Karst caves maintain consistent temperature, humidity, and darkness, which reduces ecological fluctuations and promotes adaptive evolution in organisms. These stable yet extreme environments enable reproductive isolation, leading to endemism. Thus, both statements are correct and connected logically, fulfilling the A-R condition. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct as Kanger Valley is known for hosting numerous endemic species, particularly within its limestone cave ecosystems, which are geomorphologically isolated and rich in niche diversity. This isolation is a driver of species diversification. It is home to endemic species like the Bastar Hill Myna. Statement-II is also correct and serves as a valid explanation. Karst caves maintain consistent temperature, humidity, and darkness, which reduces ecological fluctuations and promotes adaptive evolution in organisms. These stable yet extreme environments enable reproductive isolation, leading to endemism. Thus, both statements are correct and connected logically, fulfilling the A-R condition.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Kanger Valley National Park:

Statement-I: Kanger Valley National Park exhibits high endemism and biodiversity due to its karstic caves and geomorphic isolation. Statement-II: Karst caves provide microclimatic stability and ecological niches that enable species isolation and speciation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Statement-I is correct as Kanger Valley is known for hosting numerous endemic species, particularly within its limestone cave ecosystems, which are geomorphologically isolated and rich in niche diversity. This isolation is a driver of species diversification.

• It is home to endemic species like the Bastar Hill Myna.

Statement-II is also correct and serves as a valid explanation. Karst caves maintain consistent temperature, humidity, and darkness, which reduces ecological fluctuations and promotes adaptive evolution in organisms. These stable yet extreme environments enable reproductive isolation, leading to endemism.

Thus, both statements are correct and connected logically, fulfilling the A-R condition.

Solution: A

• It is home to endemic species like the Bastar Hill Myna.

Thus, both statements are correct and connected logically, fulfilling the A-R condition.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Cali Fund and its operation: It will be administered jointly by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the CBD Secretariat. At least 50% of its resources are earmarked for Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs). It is the result of a global agreement to equitably share benefits arising from the use of Digital Sequence Information (DSI). Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Cali Fund is administered by UNDP and UNEP, with the Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (MPTFO) managing administrative functions — UNFCCC has no role in this biodiversity-specific fund. Statement 2 – Correct: The fund mandates that at least 50% of its proceeds support Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs), recognizing their custodianship of biodiversity. Statement 3 – Correct: It follows a historic agreement under COP16, establishing a global system of benefit-sharing from DSI, a major breakthrough in Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) negotiations. Thus, 2 and 3 are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Cali Fund is administered by UNDP and UNEP, with the Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (MPTFO) managing administrative functions — UNFCCC has no role in this biodiversity-specific fund. Statement 2 – Correct: The fund mandates that at least 50% of its proceeds support Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs), recognizing their custodianship of biodiversity. Statement 3 – Correct: It follows a historic agreement under COP16, establishing a global system of benefit-sharing from DSI, a major breakthrough in Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) negotiations. Thus, 2 and 3 are correct.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Cali Fund and its operation:

• It will be administered jointly by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the CBD Secretariat.

• At least 50% of its resources are earmarked for Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs).

• It is the result of a global agreement to equitably share benefits arising from the use of Digital Sequence Information (DSI).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Cali Fund is administered by UNDP and UNEP, with the Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (MPTFO) managing administrative functions — UNFCCC has no role in this biodiversity-specific fund.

• Statement 2 – Correct: The fund mandates that at least 50% of its proceeds support Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs), recognizing their custodianship of biodiversity.

• Statement 3 – Correct: It follows a historic agreement under COP16, establishing a global system of benefit-sharing from DSI, a major breakthrough in Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) negotiations. Thus, 2 and 3 are correct.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 – Correct: The fund mandates that at least 50% of its proceeds support Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs), recognizing their custodianship of biodiversity.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Mudumal site in Telangana is the only known megalithic site in South Asia with astronomically aligned menhirs. The menhirs at Mudumal also depict celestial constellations, including representations of Ursa Major and Leo. Mudumal is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its archaeological significance. How many of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Mudumal megalithic site is unique in South Asia for its astronomical alignment — menhirs are placed in relation to celestial phenomena like equinoxes and solstices. Some stones are aligned to constellations like Ursa Major and Leo, making the site both funerary and astronomical in purpose. Statement 3 is incorrect. Although culturally revered and of immense archaeological importance, Mudumal is not inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site as of now. Recognition may be pursued in the future, but it currently lacks that official status. Hence, only two statements are valid. Incorrect Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Mudumal megalithic site is unique in South Asia for its astronomical alignment — menhirs are placed in relation to celestial phenomena like equinoxes and solstices. Some stones are aligned to constellations like Ursa Major and Leo, making the site both funerary and astronomical in purpose. Statement 3 is incorrect. Although culturally revered and of immense archaeological importance, Mudumal is not inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site as of now. Recognition may be pursued in the future, but it currently lacks that official status. Hence, only two statements are valid.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Mudumal site in Telangana is the only known megalithic site in South Asia with astronomically aligned menhirs.

• The menhirs at Mudumal also depict celestial constellations, including representations of Ursa Major and Leo.

• Mudumal is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its archaeological significance.

How many of the above given statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Mudumal megalithic site is unique in South Asia for its astronomical alignment — menhirs are placed in relation to celestial phenomena like equinoxes and solstices. Some stones are aligned to constellations like Ursa Major and Leo, making the site both funerary and astronomical in purpose.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Although culturally revered and of immense archaeological importance, Mudumal is not inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site as of now. Recognition may be pursued in the future, but it currently lacks that official status. Hence, only two statements are valid.

Solution: B

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Fourth Buddhist Council led to the final division between Mahayana and Hinayana Buddhism. Statement-II: The council was held in Kashmir under the patronage of Kanishka and marked the compilation of the Mahayana canon in Pali. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: C The Fourth Buddhist Council held around 72 CE under Kanishka (Kushan Empire) was pivotal in the doctrinal evolution of Buddhism. This council is noted for the definitive split between Mahayana and Hinayana traditions, with Sarvastivadins and Mahasanghikas playing central roles. Thus, Statement-I is correct. However, Statement-II is incorrect. The council did not compile the Mahayana canon in Pali — Mahayana texts were primarily in Sanskrit. Moreover, it systematized the Sarvastivada Abhidhamma, leading to Mahavibhasa, not a full Mahayana canon. The Pali Canon is more closely associated with Theravada Buddhism and was finalized earlier in Sri Lanka’s Fourth Council (25 BCE). Thus, while the council was crucial for Mahayana emergence, the claim about compiling a Pali canon is historically inaccurate. Incorrect Answer: C The Fourth Buddhist Council held around 72 CE under Kanishka (Kushan Empire) was pivotal in the doctrinal evolution of Buddhism. This council is noted for the definitive split between Mahayana and Hinayana traditions, with Sarvastivadins and Mahasanghikas playing central roles. Thus, Statement-I is correct. However, Statement-II is incorrect. The council did not compile the Mahayana canon in Pali — Mahayana texts were primarily in Sanskrit. Moreover, it systematized the Sarvastivada Abhidhamma, leading to Mahavibhasa, not a full Mahayana canon. The Pali Canon is more closely associated with Theravada Buddhism and was finalized earlier in Sri Lanka’s Fourth Council (25 BCE). Thus, while the council was crucial for Mahayana emergence, the claim about compiling a Pali canon is historically inaccurate.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Fourth Buddhist Council led to the final division between Mahayana and Hinayana Buddhism.

Statement-II: The council was held in Kashmir under the patronage of Kanishka and marked the compilation of the Mahayana canon in Pali.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C The Fourth Buddhist Council held around 72 CE under Kanishka (Kushan Empire) was pivotal in the doctrinal evolution of Buddhism. This council is noted for the definitive split between Mahayana and Hinayana traditions, with Sarvastivadins and Mahasanghikas playing central roles. Thus, Statement-I is correct. However, Statement-II is incorrect. The council did not compile the Mahayana canon in Pali — Mahayana texts were primarily in Sanskrit. Moreover, it systematized the Sarvastivada Abhidhamma, leading to Mahavibhasa, not a full Mahayana canon. The Pali Canon is more closely associated with Theravada Buddhism and was finalized earlier in Sri Lanka’s Fourth Council (25 BCE). Thus, while the council was crucial for Mahayana emergence, the claim about compiling a Pali canon is historically inaccurate.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points According to Descartes we know that the self exists and that God exists. In fact Descartes believed that we apprehend the existence of these things – along with other abstract rational concepts like numbers geometry and truth itself – innately, In other words humans are born with a set of in-built truths. Locke was on board with some of Descartes’ work but he didn’t share Descartes’ high opinion of humankind. After all do we really behave as though we’re innately supplied with rational ideas? Babies for example didn’t strike Locke as beings endowed with innate rational principles. Locke thought we came by ideas through sensation. As infants we’re exposed to all kinds of sensations which through repetition we slowly organize into patterns and understandings. From these early sensations we develop powers of reflection as we learn to observe our own mental workings. Sensation and reflection according to Locke’s theory of empiricism make up the fundamentals of human knowledge. But as Locke himself acknowledged we’re each exposed to a unique set of sensations and reflections. By Locke’s logic Descartes’ idea that we all apprehend concepts like love or justice in the same way just didn’t hold up. Which of the following is implied by the passage? a. According to Locke humans are born with a set of in-built truths. b. According to Locke sensation and perception are fundamental of human knowledge. c. According to Locke we perceive love and Justice in a same way. d. According to Locke we apprehend the existence of things like abstract rational concept like numbers geometry and truth itself innately. Correct Solution: B Justification : Explanation A is wrong because Locke believed that knowledge is obtained through observation and learning and it is not in built truth. C is wrong because By Locke’s logic Descartes’ idea that we all apprehend concepts like love or justice in the same way just didn’t hold up. D is wrong because the logic held by Descartes not Locke. B is implied in the passage because contrary to Descartes who believed that knowledge is inbuilt Locke believed that is comes through sensation observation and also creating pattern out of all learnings. Incorrect Solution: B Justification : Explanation A is wrong because Locke believed that knowledge is obtained through observation and learning and it is not in built truth. C is wrong because By Locke’s logic Descartes’ idea that we all apprehend concepts like love or justice in the same way just didn’t hold up. D is wrong because the logic held by Descartes not Locke. B is implied in the passage because contrary to Descartes who believed that knowledge is inbuilt Locke believed that is comes through sensation observation and also creating pattern out of all learnings.

#### 26. Question

According to Descartes we know that the self exists and that God exists. In fact Descartes believed that we apprehend the existence of these things – along with other abstract rational concepts like numbers geometry and truth itself – innately, In other words humans are born with a set of in-built truths.

Locke was on board with some of Descartes’ work but he didn’t share Descartes’ high opinion of humankind. After all do we really behave as though we’re innately supplied with rational ideas? Babies for example didn’t strike Locke as beings endowed with innate rational principles.

Locke thought we came by ideas through sensation. As infants we’re exposed to all kinds of sensations which through repetition we slowly organize into patterns and understandings. From these early sensations we develop powers of reflection as we learn to observe our own mental workings. Sensation and reflection according to Locke’s theory of empiricism make up the fundamentals of human knowledge.

But as Locke himself acknowledged we’re each exposed to a unique set of sensations and reflections. By Locke’s logic Descartes’ idea that we all apprehend concepts like love or justice in the same way just didn’t hold up.

Which of the following is implied by the passage?

• a. According to Locke humans are born with a set of in-built truths.

• b. According to Locke sensation and perception are fundamental of human knowledge.

• c. According to Locke we perceive love and Justice in a same way.

• d. According to Locke we apprehend the existence of things like abstract rational concept like numbers geometry and truth itself innately.

Solution: B

Justification :

Explanation

A is wrong because Locke believed that knowledge is obtained through observation and learning and it is not in built truth.

C is wrong because By Locke’s logic Descartes’ idea that we all apprehend concepts like love or justice in the same way just didn’t hold up.

D is wrong because the logic held by Descartes not Locke.

B is implied in the passage because contrary to Descartes who believed that knowledge is inbuilt Locke believed that is comes through sensation observation and also creating pattern out of all learnings.

Solution: B

Justification :

Explanation

A is wrong because Locke believed that knowledge is obtained through observation and learning and it is not in built truth.

C is wrong because By Locke’s logic Descartes’ idea that we all apprehend concepts like love or justice in the same way just didn’t hold up.

D is wrong because the logic held by Descartes not Locke.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a different route of length 1.25 times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at home, the village clock is (a) 10 minutes slow (b) 5 minutes slow (c) 10 minutes fast (d) 5 minutes fast Correct Justification : Total Time Away: 14:30 to 16:00 = 90 minutes. Stay Time: 25 minutes ⇒ Travel Time (T1 + T2) = 65 minutes. Return Trip: Distance = 1.25D, Speed = 2V ⇒ Time T2 = (1.25D)/(2V) = 0.625T1. T1 + 0.625T1 = 65 ⇒ T1 = 40 minutes, T2 = 25 minutes. Arrival at Village: Home clock: 14:30 + 40 min = 15:10. Village clock shows 15:15 ⇒ 5 minutes fast. Incorrect Justification : Total Time Away: 14:30 to 16:00 = 90 minutes. Stay Time: 25 minutes ⇒ Travel Time (T1 + T2) = 65 minutes. Return Trip: Distance = 1.25D, Speed = 2V ⇒ Time T2 = (1.25D)/(2V) = 0.625T1. T1 + 0.625T1 = 65 ⇒ T1 = 40 minutes, T2 = 25 minutes. Arrival at Village: Home clock: 14:30 + 40 min = 15:10. Village clock shows 15:15 ⇒ 5 minutes fast.

#### 27. Question

A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a different route of length 1.25 times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at home, the village clock is

• (a) 10 minutes slow

• (b) 5 minutes slow

• (c) 10 minutes fast

• (d) 5 minutes fast

Justification :

• Total Time Away: 14:30 to 16:00 = 90 minutes.

• Stay Time: 25 minutes ⇒ Travel Time (T1 + T2) = 65 minutes.

• Return Trip: Distance = 1.25D, Speed = 2V ⇒ Time T2 = (1.25D)/(2V) = 0.625T1. T1 + 0.625T1 = 65 ⇒ T1 = 40 minutes, T2 = 25 minutes.

• Distance = 1.25D, Speed = 2V ⇒ Time T2 = (1.25D)/(2V) = 0.625T1.

• T1 + 0.625T1 = 65 ⇒ T1 = 40 minutes, T2 = 25 minutes.

• Arrival at Village: Home clock: 14:30 + 40 min = 15:10. Village clock shows 15:15 ⇒ 5 minutes fast.

• Home clock: 14:30 + 40 min = 15:10.

• Village clock shows 15:15 ⇒ 5 minutes fast.

Justification :

• Total Time Away: 14:30 to 16:00 = 90 minutes.

• Stay Time: 25 minutes ⇒ Travel Time (T1 + T2) = 65 minutes.

• Return Trip: Distance = 1.25D, Speed = 2V ⇒ Time T2 = (1.25D)/(2V) = 0.625T1. T1 + 0.625T1 = 65 ⇒ T1 = 40 minutes, T2 = 25 minutes.

• Distance = 1.25D, Speed = 2V ⇒ Time T2 = (1.25D)/(2V) = 0.625T1.

• T1 + 0.625T1 = 65 ⇒ T1 = 40 minutes, T2 = 25 minutes.

• Arrival at Village: Home clock: 14:30 + 40 min = 15:10. Village clock shows 15:15 ⇒ 5 minutes fast.

• Home clock: 14:30 + 40 min = 15:10.

• Village clock shows 15:15 ⇒ 5 minutes fast.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Following is the graph of the coaching institute students who appeared and cleared the exam: The number of aspirants who could clear the exam in the year 2018 were 20% more than that in the previous year. Only 50% of those who appeared in the year 2018 could clear the bank exam that year. How many aspirants appeared for the bank exam in the year 2018? a. 540 b. 576 c. 518 d. 520 Correct Solution: B Justification : Explanation: Number of aspirants who could clear the exam in the year 2018 = 120% of 240 = 288 50% of x = 288 x = 288 100/50 = 576 Incorrect Solution: B Justification : Explanation: Number of aspirants who could clear the exam in the year 2018 = 120% of 240 = 288 50% of x = 288 x = 288 100/50 = 576

#### 28. Question

Following is the graph of the coaching institute students who appeared and cleared the exam:

The number of aspirants who could clear the exam in the year 2018 were 20% more than that in the previous year. Only 50% of those who appeared in the year 2018 could clear the bank exam that year. How many aspirants appeared for the bank exam in the year 2018?

Solution: B

Justification :

Explanation: Number of aspirants who could clear the exam in the year 2018

= 120% of 240 = 288 50% of x = 288 x = 288 * 100/50 = 576

Solution: B

Justification :

Explanation: Number of aspirants who could clear the exam in the year 2018

= 120% of 240 = 288 50% of x = 288 x = 288 * 100/50 = 576

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A soft drink company prepares drinks of three different flavours – X, Y and Z. T he production of he three flavours over a period of 6 years has been expressed in the bar graph provided below . Study the graph and answer the questions based on it What is the difference between the average production of flavour X in 1995, 1996 and 1997 and the average production of flavour Y in 1998, 1999 and 2000 ? a. 50,000 bottles b. 2,40,000 bottles c. 3,30,000 bottles d. 5,00,000 bottles Correct Solution : D Justification : Explanation Average production of flavour X in 1995, 1996 and 1997 = [(1/3) (50+40 +55)] = (145/3) 1akh bottles Average production of flavour Y in 1998, 1999 and 2000 = [(1/3) (55+50+55)] = (160/3) lakh bottles+ Difference = [(160/3)-(145/3)]=15/3 = 5 lakh bottles = 5,00,000 bottles. Incorrect Solution : D Justification : Explanation Average production of flavour X in 1995, 1996 and 1997 = [(1/3) (50+40 +55)] = (145/3) 1akh bottles Average production of flavour Y in 1998, 1999 and 2000 = [(1/3) (55+50+55)] = (160/3) lakh bottles+ Difference = [(160/3)-(145/3)]=15/3 = 5 lakh bottles = 5,00,000 bottles.

#### 29. Question

A soft drink company prepares drinks of three different flavours – X, Y and Z. T he production of he three flavours over a period of 6 years has been expressed in the bar graph provided below . Study the graph and answer the questions based on it

What is the difference between the average production of flavour X in 1995, 1996 and 1997 and the average production of flavour Y in 1998, 1999 and 2000 ?

• a. 50,000 bottles

• b. 2,40,000 bottles

• c. 3,30,000 bottles

• d. 5,00,000 bottles

Solution : D

Justification :

Explanation

Average production of flavour X in 1995, 1996 and 1997 = [(1/3)* (50+40 +55)]

= (145/3) 1akh bottles

Average production of flavour Y in 1998, 1999 and 2000 = [(1/3) * (55+50+55)]

= (160/3) lakh bottles+

Difference = [(160/3)-(145/3)]=15/3 = 5 lakh bottles = 5,00,000 bottles.

Solution : D

Justification :

Explanation

Average production of flavour X in 1995, 1996 and 1997 = [(1/3)* (50+40 +55)]

= (145/3) 1akh bottles

Average production of flavour Y in 1998, 1999 and 2000 = [(1/3) * (55+50+55)]

= (160/3) lakh bottles+

Difference = [(160/3)-(145/3)]=15/3 = 5 lakh bottles = 5,00,000 bottles.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001. Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from Six Branches – B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 of a publishing Company in 2000 and 2001. What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000? a. 75% b. 77.5% c. 82.5% d. 87.5% Correct Solution : D Justification : Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000 = 1/3×(80+95+70)=(245/3). Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 = 1/3×(105+65+110)=(280/3). i.e, Required percentage = [(245/3)/(280/3)] =(245/280×100)% = 87.5% Incorrect Solution : D Justification : Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000 = 1/3×(80+95+70)=(245/3). Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 = 1/3×(105+65+110)=(280/3). i.e, Required percentage = [(245/3)/(280/3)] =(245/280×100)% = 87.5%

#### 30. Question

The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from Six Branches – B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 of a publishing Company in 2000 and 2001.

What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?

Solution : D

Justification :

Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000

= 1/3×(80+95+70)=(245/3).

Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001

= 1/3×(105+65+110)=(280/3).

i.e, Required percentage = [(245/3)/(280/3)]

=(245/280×100)% = 87.5%

Solution : D

Justification :

Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000

= 1/3×(80+95+70)=(245/3).

Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001

= 1/3×(105+65+110)=(280/3).

i.e, Required percentage = [(245/3)/(280/3)]

=(245/280×100)% = 87.5%

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