DAY – 65 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – MODERN INDIA , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2014 and Feb 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding House Sparrow The female sparrows are distinguished by the small size and presence of dark and light brown striated feathers. Both male and female sparrows take frequent dust baths to keep away feather parasites. Flock of House sparrows follow a pecking order. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B House sparrows are native to Eurasia and North Africa and was introduced to South Africa, North and South America, Australia, New Zealand, Middle East, India and Central Asia. It belongs to the family Passeridae. According to IUCN ,it is of Least Concern. In India it is protected under Schedule IV of Wildlife Protection Act 1972. The male and female house sparrows are easily distinguishable not in size but in colourration the male is dark brown with a black bib, grey chest and white cheeks ; while the female is light brown in colour without black bib, crown or white cheeks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The house sparrow (both genders) are known for taking frequent dust baths. the bird throws soil and dust over its body feathers similar to bathing with water; in doing so, it makes a small depression in the ground and sometimes defends this spot against other sparrows. Dust also smothers the skin and feather parasites and absorbs excess oil, that’s removed as the dust is preened away. Hence statement 2 is correct Pecking order refers to the basic pattern of social organisation within a flock of poultry in which each bird pecks another lower in the scale without fear of retaliation and submit to pecking by one of higher rank. House sparrows in flocks have a pecking order; males with larger patches of black tend to be older and dominant over males with less black by wearing this information on their feathers, sparrows can avoid some fights and thereby save energy. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : B House sparrows are native to Eurasia and North Africa and was introduced to South Africa, North and South America, Australia, New Zealand, Middle East, India and Central Asia. It belongs to the family Passeridae. According to IUCN ,it is of Least Concern. In India it is protected under Schedule IV of Wildlife Protection Act 1972. The male and female house sparrows are easily distinguishable not in size but in colourration the male is dark brown with a black bib, grey chest and white cheeks ; while the female is light brown in colour without black bib, crown or white cheeks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The house sparrow (both genders) are known for taking frequent dust baths. the bird throws soil and dust over its body feathers similar to bathing with water; in doing so, it makes a small depression in the ground and sometimes defends this spot against other sparrows. Dust also smothers the skin and feather parasites and absorbs excess oil, that’s removed as the dust is preened away. Hence statement 2 is correct Pecking order refers to the basic pattern of social organisation within a flock of poultry in which each bird pecks another lower in the scale without fear of retaliation and submit to pecking by one of higher rank. House sparrows in flocks have a pecking order; males with larger patches of black tend to be older and dominant over males with less black by wearing this information on their feathers, sparrows can avoid some fights and thereby save energy. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding House Sparrow

• The female sparrows are distinguished by the small size and presence of dark and light brown striated feathers.

• Both male and female sparrows take frequent dust baths to keep away feather parasites.

• Flock of House sparrows follow a pecking order.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

House sparrows are native to Eurasia and North Africa and was introduced to South Africa, North and South America, Australia, New Zealand, Middle East, India and Central Asia. It belongs to the family Passeridae. According to IUCN ,it is of Least Concern. In India it is protected under Schedule IV of Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

• The male and female house sparrows are easily distinguishable not in size but in colourration

• the male is dark brown with a black bib, grey chest and white cheeks ; while the female is light brown in colour without black bib, crown or white cheeks.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The house sparrow (both genders) are known for taking frequent dust baths.

• the bird throws soil and dust over its body feathers similar to bathing with water; in doing so, it makes a small depression in the ground and sometimes defends this spot against other sparrows.

• Dust also smothers the skin and feather parasites and absorbs excess oil, that’s removed as the dust is preened away.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Pecking order refers to the basic pattern of social organisation within a flock of poultry in which each bird pecks another lower in the scale without fear of retaliation and submit to pecking by one of higher rank.

• House sparrows in flocks have a pecking order; males with larger patches of black tend to be older and dominant over males with less black

• by wearing this information on their feathers, sparrows can avoid some fights and thereby save energy.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution : B

• The male and female house sparrows are easily distinguishable not in size but in colourration

• the male is dark brown with a black bib, grey chest and white cheeks ; while the female is light brown in colour without black bib, crown or white cheeks.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The house sparrow (both genders) are known for taking frequent dust baths.

• the bird throws soil and dust over its body feathers similar to bathing with water; in doing so, it makes a small depression in the ground and sometimes defends this spot against other sparrows.

• Dust also smothers the skin and feather parasites and absorbs excess oil, that’s removed as the dust is preened away.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• House sparrows in flocks have a pecking order; males with larger patches of black tend to be older and dominant over males with less black

• by wearing this information on their feathers, sparrows can avoid some fights and thereby save energy.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Fishing Cat Due to declineing population, it is presently found exclusively in Sunderban mangroves in India and Bangladesh. It has fully developed webbed feet adapted to swim through deep waters. It is a nocturnal animal that scavenges on carcasses of large animals. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : A The fishing cat is a medium sized wild cat that is found in the Indian subcontinent and parts of South East Asia. They are found along the Eastern Ghats in flood planes, tidal mangrove forest and inland freshwater habitats Apart from Sundarbans in West Bengal and Bangladesh, they are also found in Chilka Lagoon and surrounding wetlands in Odisha, Coringa and Krishna river mangroves in Andhra Pradesh. It’s population is declining due to habitat destruction and poaching. Hence statement 1 is incorrect It dives in water to catch it fishes the fishing cat has partly webbed feet but this is not unique to it and it does not appear to have any special adaptations for hunting in water. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Although the fishing cat preys on fish- its pricipal prey; it also eats frogs, crustaceans, small birds, snakes It also scavenges on carcasses of large animals. Fishing cat is nocturnal in nature. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : A The fishing cat is a medium sized wild cat that is found in the Indian subcontinent and parts of South East Asia. They are found along the Eastern Ghats in flood planes, tidal mangrove forest and inland freshwater habitats Apart from Sundarbans in West Bengal and Bangladesh, they are also found in Chilka Lagoon and surrounding wetlands in Odisha, Coringa and Krishna river mangroves in Andhra Pradesh. It’s population is declining due to habitat destruction and poaching. Hence statement 1 is incorrect It dives in water to catch it fishes the fishing cat has partly webbed feet but this is not unique to it and it does not appear to have any special adaptations for hunting in water. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Although the fishing cat preys on fish- its pricipal prey; it also eats frogs, crustaceans, small birds, snakes It also scavenges on carcasses of large animals. Fishing cat is nocturnal in nature. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Fishing Cat

• Due to declineing population, it is presently found exclusively in Sunderban mangroves in India and Bangladesh.

• It has fully developed webbed feet adapted to swim through deep waters.

• It is a nocturnal animal that scavenges on carcasses of large animals.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : A

• The fishing cat is a medium sized wild cat that is found in the Indian subcontinent and parts of South East Asia.

• They are found along the Eastern Ghats in flood planes, tidal mangrove forest and inland freshwater habitats

• Apart from Sundarbans in West Bengal and Bangladesh, they are also found in Chilka Lagoon and surrounding wetlands in Odisha, Coringa and Krishna river mangroves in Andhra Pradesh.

• It’s population is declining due to habitat destruction and poaching.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• It dives in water to catch it fishes

• the fishing cat has partly webbed feet but this is not unique to it and it does not appear to have any special adaptations for hunting in water.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Although the fishing cat preys on fish- its pricipal prey; it also eats frogs, crustaceans, small birds, snakes

• It also scavenges on carcasses of large animals.

• Fishing cat is nocturnal in nature.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution : A

• The fishing cat is a medium sized wild cat that is found in the Indian subcontinent and parts of South East Asia.

• They are found along the Eastern Ghats in flood planes, tidal mangrove forest and inland freshwater habitats

• Apart from Sundarbans in West Bengal and Bangladesh, they are also found in Chilka Lagoon and surrounding wetlands in Odisha, Coringa and Krishna river mangroves in Andhra Pradesh.

• It’s population is declining due to habitat destruction and poaching.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• It dives in water to catch it fishes

• the fishing cat has partly webbed feet but this is not unique to it and it does not appear to have any special adaptations for hunting in water.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Although the fishing cat preys on fish- its pricipal prey; it also eats frogs, crustaceans, small birds, snakes

• It also scavenges on carcasses of large animals.

• Fishing cat is nocturnal in nature.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following organisms Squid Jellyfish Octopus Sea Salp How many of the above can exhibit bioluminescence? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution : D Bioluminescence is light produced by a chemical reaction within a living organisms it is a type of chemicaluminescence , which refers to chemical reaction in which light is produced; Bioluminescence is a cold light, that is, less than 20% of the light generates thermal radiation or heat. Most bioluminescent organisms are found in the ocean; the group includes several fishes, shrimps, bacteria, algae, fungi, jellyfish and other organisms. Squids are cephalopods that inhabit the deep sea. Some species contain light producing photophores over large portions of their bodies. This enables squid to emit a blue or green light along the length of its body. The property is used to attract prey as they migrate to the surface of the waters undercover of night. Bioluminescence is also used by squids to camouflage themselves from Predator that typically hunt by using light variations to detectprey; due to bioluminescence, the squid don’t cast shadow in the moon light, making it difficult for predators to detect them. Jellyfishes are invertebrates that consist of a jelly like material. They have the ability to emit blue or green light. The property of bioluminescence is primarily used by jelly fishes for defence purposes. Octopus usually do not produce bioluminescence; but some species do; bioluminescent octopus is a deep sea creature with light producing organs called photophores on its tentacles. The light is emitted from the organs that resemble suckers, and is often used to attract prey. Sea Salp are similar to jellyfish but are actually Chordates ( animals with a dorsal nerve chord). They are tiny free swimming animals that drift in the ocean individually or form colonies that stretch several feet in length. The play an important role in Marine ecosystem by controlling phytoplankton blooms. Some salp species are bioluminescent and use light to communicate between individuals when Linked in vast chains; individual salps also use bioluminescence to attract prey. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution : D Bioluminescence is light produced by a chemical reaction within a living organisms it is a type of chemicaluminescence , which refers to chemical reaction in which light is produced; Bioluminescence is a cold light, that is, less than 20% of the light generates thermal radiation or heat. Most bioluminescent organisms are found in the ocean; the group includes several fishes, shrimps, bacteria, algae, fungi, jellyfish and other organisms. Squids are cephalopods that inhabit the deep sea. Some species contain light producing photophores over large portions of their bodies. This enables squid to emit a blue or green light along the length of its body. The property is used to attract prey as they migrate to the surface of the waters undercover of night. Bioluminescence is also used by squids to camouflage themselves from Predator that typically hunt by using light variations to detectprey; due to bioluminescence, the squid don’t cast shadow in the moon light, making it difficult for predators to detect them. Jellyfishes are invertebrates that consist of a jelly like material. They have the ability to emit blue or green light. The property of bioluminescence is primarily used by jelly fishes for defence purposes. Octopus usually do not produce bioluminescence; but some species do; bioluminescent octopus is a deep sea creature with light producing organs called photophores on its tentacles. The light is emitted from the organs that resemble suckers, and is often used to attract prey. Sea Salp are similar to jellyfish but are actually Chordates ( animals with a dorsal nerve chord). They are tiny free swimming animals that drift in the ocean individually or form colonies that stretch several feet in length. The play an important role in Marine ecosystem by controlling phytoplankton blooms. Some salp species are bioluminescent and use light to communicate between individuals when Linked in vast chains; individual salps also use bioluminescence to attract prey. Hence option D is correct

#### 3. Question

Consider the following organisms

How many of the above can exhibit bioluminescence?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution : D

• Bioluminescence is light produced by a chemical reaction within a living organisms it is a type of chemicaluminescence , which refers to chemical reaction in which light is produced;

• Bioluminescence is a cold light, that is, less than 20% of the light generates thermal radiation or heat.

• Most bioluminescent organisms are found in the ocean; the group includes several fishes, shrimps, bacteria, algae, fungi, jellyfish and other organisms.

• Squids are cephalopods that inhabit the deep sea. Some species contain light producing photophores over large portions of their bodies. This enables squid to emit a blue or green light along the length of its body. The property is used to attract prey as they migrate to the surface of the waters undercover of night. Bioluminescence is also used by squids to camouflage themselves from Predator that typically hunt by using light variations to detectprey; due to bioluminescence, the squid don’t cast shadow in the moon light, making it difficult for predators to detect them.

• Jellyfishes are invertebrates that consist of a jelly like material. They have the ability to emit blue or green light. The property of bioluminescence is primarily used by jelly fishes for defence purposes.

• Octopus usually do not produce bioluminescence; but some species do; bioluminescent octopus is a deep sea creature with light producing organs called photophores on its tentacles. The light is emitted from the organs that resemble suckers, and is often used to attract prey.

• Sea Salp are similar to jellyfish but are actually Chordates ( animals with a dorsal nerve chord). They are tiny free swimming animals that drift in the ocean individually or form colonies that stretch several feet in length. The play an important role in Marine ecosystem by controlling phytoplankton blooms. Some salp species are bioluminescent and use light to communicate between individuals when Linked in vast chains; individual salps also use bioluminescence to attract prey.

Hence option D is correct

Solution : D

• Bioluminescence is light produced by a chemical reaction within a living organisms it is a type of chemicaluminescence , which refers to chemical reaction in which light is produced;

• Bioluminescence is a cold light, that is, less than 20% of the light generates thermal radiation or heat.

• Most bioluminescent organisms are found in the ocean; the group includes several fishes, shrimps, bacteria, algae, fungi, jellyfish and other organisms.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Green Munia This Vulnerable species is Endemic to Central India. It commonly inhabits wet and marshy areas near water sources. It builds globular nest attached to sugarcane leaf. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : B India is home to eight species of Munias, belonging to the family Estrildidae. It is also called Green Avadat. These small colourful birds are found in different parts of India Endemic to Central India, its population is unevenly distributed across Southern Rajasthan, Central Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Southern Bihar and West Bengal, Southern Maharashtra and northern Andhra Pradesh. This species is listed as vulnerable in the IUCN red list of threatened species as their population is rapidly declining due to wide spread capture from the Wild for pet trade. Hence statement 1 is correct Green Munias inhabits grass and low bushes, sugarcane fields, open shrubby forests and boulder strewn scrub jungle often near water; generally in lowlands and foothills it has also been seen in sparsely vegetated stony arid Wasteland as well as a mango orchard. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Green Munias build globular nests in low thorny bushes or attached to sugarcane leaf The chicks of the bird, once hatched, remain in the nest for 16 to 25 days and are fed soft insects. The bird can be distinguished by its distinct high pitched warble, ending with a prolonge thrill Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : B India is home to eight species of Munias, belonging to the family Estrildidae. It is also called Green Avadat. These small colourful birds are found in different parts of India Endemic to Central India, its population is unevenly distributed across Southern Rajasthan, Central Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Southern Bihar and West Bengal, Southern Maharashtra and northern Andhra Pradesh. This species is listed as vulnerable in the IUCN red list of threatened species as their population is rapidly declining due to wide spread capture from the Wild for pet trade. Hence statement 1 is correct Green Munias inhabits grass and low bushes, sugarcane fields, open shrubby forests and boulder strewn scrub jungle often near water; generally in lowlands and foothills it has also been seen in sparsely vegetated stony arid Wasteland as well as a mango orchard. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Green Munias build globular nests in low thorny bushes or attached to sugarcane leaf The chicks of the bird, once hatched, remain in the nest for 16 to 25 days and are fed soft insects. The bird can be distinguished by its distinct high pitched warble, ending with a prolonge thrill Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Green Munia

• This Vulnerable species is Endemic to Central India.

• It commonly inhabits wet and marshy areas near water sources.

• It builds globular nest attached to sugarcane leaf.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : B

• India is home to eight species of Munias, belonging to the family Estrildidae.

• It is also called Green Avadat.

• These small colourful birds are found in different parts of India

• Endemic to Central India, its population is unevenly distributed across Southern Rajasthan, Central Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Southern Bihar and West Bengal, Southern Maharashtra and northern Andhra Pradesh.

• This species is listed as vulnerable in the IUCN red list of threatened species as their population is rapidly declining due to wide spread capture from the Wild for pet trade.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Green Munias inhabits grass and low bushes, sugarcane fields, open shrubby forests and boulder strewn scrub jungle often near water; generally in lowlands and foothills

• it has also been seen in sparsely vegetated stony arid Wasteland as well as a mango orchard.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Green Munias build globular nests in low thorny bushes or attached to sugarcane leaf

• The chicks of the bird, once hatched, remain in the nest for 16 to 25 days and are fed soft insects.

• The bird can be distinguished by its distinct high pitched warble, ending with a prolonge thrill

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution : B

• India is home to eight species of Munias, belonging to the family Estrildidae.

• It is also called Green Avadat.

• These small colourful birds are found in different parts of India

• This species is listed as vulnerable in the IUCN red list of threatened species as their population is rapidly declining due to wide spread capture from the Wild for pet trade.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Green Munias inhabits grass and low bushes, sugarcane fields, open shrubby forests and boulder strewn scrub jungle often near water; generally in lowlands and foothills

• it has also been seen in sparsely vegetated stony arid Wasteland as well as a mango orchard.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Green Munias build globular nests in low thorny bushes or attached to sugarcane leaf

• The chicks of the bird, once hatched, remain in the nest for 16 to 25 days and are fed soft insects.

• The bird can be distinguished by its distinct high pitched warble, ending with a prolonge thrill

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Spotted Dove Taxonomically it belongs to the same Family as Pigeons. It uses tongue to suck up water from its sources. They contain unmolted feathers that breakdown into fine powder used for lubricating other feathers. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : C Pigeons and Dove are both members of the bird family Columbidae. They are technically the same birds and their is no scientific difference between them. The name Dove is usually given to the smaller members of this family but in taxonomy, there is no real distinction between a Dove and a Pigeon. Hence statement 1 is correct Most bird species drink water by dipping their bills into a water source and then tipping their heads backwards to swallow Ariel birds swoop down and take tiny sips of water from surfaces of lakes and rivers, barely pausing for a second An exception are pigeons and doves which have specially adopted ‘piston tongues’ that act in a similar way to drinking straws; by putting their whole beak in a pool, their tongue suck up the water without the need to tip their head backwards like other birds. Hence statement 2 is correct In some birds like doves, pigeons, herons and some parrots there are some patches of special down feathers; these feathers are never molted and they grow continuously These feathers disintegrate to produce a sort of fine powder (similar to Talcum powder); these powder dust is collected by the dove by its legs for cleaning and lubricating other feathers on its body. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution : C Pigeons and Dove are both members of the bird family Columbidae. They are technically the same birds and their is no scientific difference between them. The name Dove is usually given to the smaller members of this family but in taxonomy, there is no real distinction between a Dove and a Pigeon. Hence statement 1 is correct Most bird species drink water by dipping their bills into a water source and then tipping their heads backwards to swallow Ariel birds swoop down and take tiny sips of water from surfaces of lakes and rivers, barely pausing for a second An exception are pigeons and doves which have specially adopted ‘piston tongues’ that act in a similar way to drinking straws; by putting their whole beak in a pool, their tongue suck up the water without the need to tip their head backwards like other birds. Hence statement 2 is correct In some birds like doves, pigeons, herons and some parrots there are some patches of special down feathers; these feathers are never molted and they grow continuously These feathers disintegrate to produce a sort of fine powder (similar to Talcum powder); these powder dust is collected by the dove by its legs for cleaning and lubricating other feathers on its body. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Spotted Dove

• Taxonomically it belongs to the same Family as Pigeons.

• It uses tongue to suck up water from its sources.

• They contain unmolted feathers that breakdown into fine powder used for lubricating other feathers.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : C

• Pigeons and Dove are both members of the bird family Columbidae.

• They are technically the same birds and their is no scientific difference between them.

• The name Dove is usually given to the smaller members of this family but in taxonomy, there is no real distinction between a Dove and a Pigeon.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Most bird species drink water by dipping their bills into a water source and then tipping their heads backwards to swallow

• Ariel birds swoop down and take tiny sips of water from surfaces of lakes and rivers, barely pausing for a second

• An exception are pigeons and doves which have specially adopted ‘piston tongues’ that act in a similar way to drinking straws; by putting their whole beak in a pool, their tongue suck up the water without the need to tip their head backwards like other birds.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• In some birds like doves, pigeons, herons and some parrots there are some patches of special down feathers; these feathers are never molted and they grow continuously

• These feathers disintegrate to produce a sort of fine powder (similar to Talcum powder); these powder dust is collected by the dove by its legs for cleaning and lubricating other feathers on its body.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution : C

• Pigeons and Dove are both members of the bird family Columbidae.

• They are technically the same birds and their is no scientific difference between them.

• The name Dove is usually given to the smaller members of this family but in taxonomy, there is no real distinction between a Dove and a Pigeon.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Most bird species drink water by dipping their bills into a water source and then tipping their heads backwards to swallow

• Ariel birds swoop down and take tiny sips of water from surfaces of lakes and rivers, barely pausing for a second

Hence statement 2 is correct

• In some birds like doves, pigeons, herons and some parrots there are some patches of special down feathers; these feathers are never molted and they grow continuously

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Land degradation in which of the following regions of India is worst affected by wind erosion? a) North-eastern India b) Western India c) Southern India d) South-eastern India Correct Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-february-2024/

#### 6. Question

Land degradation in which of the following regions of India is worst affected by wind erosion?

• a) North-eastern India

• b) Western India

• c) Southern India

• d) South-eastern India

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-february-2024/

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-february-2024/

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Down syndrome is a condition characterized by the presence of an extra chromosome or an additional piece of a chromosome, leading to changes in the development of a baby’s body and brain Edwards syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes delays in physical growth during fetal development. Both Down and Edwards Syndromes are diseases that have a modern origin and no trace of their existence can be found in historic or pre-historic times. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Down syndrome: A condition characterized by the presence of an extra chromosome or an additional piece of a chromosome, leading to changes in the development of a baby’s body and brain. It can result in both mental and physical challenges throughout life. Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): A genetic disorder that causes delays in physical growth during fetal development. Children diagnosed with Edwards syndrome typically have a short life expectancy due to various life-threatening complications. Survivors may experience significant intellectual challenges, especially if they live beyond their first year. Researchers have reported the discovery of chromosomal disorders, including six cases of Down syndrome and one case of Edwards syndrome, in prehistoric skeletal remains dating back approximately 5,500 years. These findings represent the first identification of Edwards syndrome from historic or prehistoric remains. The individuals affected by these disorders mostly died either before or shortly after birth, with some cases dating as far back as the Bronze Age and Neolithic period. The study suggests a potentially higher frequency of burials of trisomy carriers in certain ancient societies, indicating a recognition of these individuals as part of their communities. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Down syndrome: A condition characterized by the presence of an extra chromosome or an additional piece of a chromosome, leading to changes in the development of a baby’s body and brain. It can result in both mental and physical challenges throughout life. Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): A genetic disorder that causes delays in physical growth during fetal development. Children diagnosed with Edwards syndrome typically have a short life expectancy due to various life-threatening complications. Survivors may experience significant intellectual challenges, especially if they live beyond their first year. Researchers have reported the discovery of chromosomal disorders, including six cases of Down syndrome and one case of Edwards syndrome, in prehistoric skeletal remains dating back approximately 5,500 years. These findings represent the first identification of Edwards syndrome from historic or prehistoric remains. The individuals affected by these disorders mostly died either before or shortly after birth, with some cases dating as far back as the Bronze Age and Neolithic period. The study suggests a potentially higher frequency of burials of trisomy carriers in certain ancient societies, indicating a recognition of these individuals as part of their communities. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-february-2024/

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Down syndrome is a condition characterized by the presence of an extra chromosome or an additional piece of a chromosome, leading to changes in the development of a baby’s body and brain

• Edwards syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes delays in physical growth during fetal development.

• Both Down and Edwards Syndromes are diseases that have a modern origin and no trace of their existence can be found in historic or pre-historic times.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: Down syndrome: A condition characterized by the presence of an extra chromosome or an additional piece of a chromosome, leading to changes in the development of a baby’s body and brain. It can result in both mental and physical challenges throughout life.

Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): A genetic disorder that causes delays in physical growth during fetal development. Children diagnosed with Edwards syndrome typically have a short life expectancy due to various life-threatening complications. Survivors may experience significant intellectual challenges, especially if they live beyond their first year.

Researchers have reported the discovery of chromosomal disorders, including six cases of Down syndrome and one case of Edwards syndrome, in prehistoric skeletal remains dating back approximately 5,500 years.

These findings represent the first identification of Edwards syndrome from historic or prehistoric remains.

The individuals affected by these disorders mostly died either before or shortly after birth, with some cases dating as far back as the Bronze Age and Neolithic period.

The study suggests a potentially higher frequency of burials of trisomy carriers in certain ancient societies, indicating a recognition of these individuals as part of their communities.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-february-2024/

Solution: b)

These findings represent the first identification of Edwards syndrome from historic or prehistoric remains.

The individuals affected by these disorders mostly died either before or shortly after birth, with some cases dating as far back as the Bronze Age and Neolithic period.

The study suggests a potentially higher frequency of burials of trisomy carriers in certain ancient societies, indicating a recognition of these individuals as part of their communities.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-february-2024/

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following in India is/are tiger reserves? Mukundra Hills Satkosia Amrabad Sahyadri How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/19/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/19/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-february-2024/

#### 8. Question

Which of the following in India is/are tiger reserves?

• Mukundra Hills

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/19/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-february-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/19/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-february-2024/

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Match the following service-oriented e-governance initiatives to the respective states: * Initiative: State eUNNAT: Karnataka Seva Sindhu: Uttar Pradesh Nivesh Mitra: Himachal Pradesh How many of the matches above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/16/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Q Source:* https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/16/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-february-2024/

#### 9. Question

Match the following service-oriented e-governance initiatives to the respective states:

* Initiative: State*

• eUNNAT: Karnataka

• Seva Sindhu: Uttar Pradesh

• Nivesh Mitra: Himachal Pradesh

How many of the matches above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/16/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-february-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/16/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-february-2024/

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the UN World Restoration Flagships, which commenced in 2022. These are initiatives recognized by the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration (2021-2030). The flagships are led by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), aiming to counteract ecosystem degradation globally. The award offers technical and financial assistance, global attention, and inclusion in UN publications and campaigns. These are a part of the UN’s commitment to restore one billion hectares of ecosystems. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: About UN World Restoration Flagships (commenced in 2022): These are initiatives recognized by the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration (2021-2030). The flagship is led by UNEP and FAO, aiming to counteract ecosystem degradation globally. The award offers technical and financial assistance, global attention, and inclusion in UN publications and campaigns. It’s part of the UN’s commitment to restore one billion hectares of ecosystems. Progress is monitored through the Framework for Ecosystem Restoration Monitoring Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/16/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-february-2024/ Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: About UN World Restoration Flagships (commenced in 2022): These are initiatives recognized by the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration (2021-2030). The flagship is led by UNEP and FAO, aiming to counteract ecosystem degradation globally. The award offers technical and financial assistance, global attention, and inclusion in UN publications and campaigns. It’s part of the UN’s commitment to restore one billion hectares of ecosystems. Progress is monitored through the Framework for Ecosystem Restoration Monitoring Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/16/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-february-2024/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the UN World Restoration Flagships, which commenced in 2022.

• These are initiatives recognized by the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration (2021-2030).

• The flagships are led by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), aiming to counteract ecosystem degradation globally.

• The award offers technical and financial assistance, global attention, and inclusion in UN publications and campaigns.

• These are a part of the UN’s commitment to restore one billion hectares of ecosystems.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification: About UN World Restoration Flagships (commenced in 2022): These are initiatives recognized by the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration (2021-2030).

The flagship is led by UNEP and FAO, aiming to counteract ecosystem degradation globally. The award offers technical and financial assistance, global attention, and inclusion in UN publications and campaigns.

It’s part of the UN’s commitment to restore one billion hectares of ecosystems. Progress is monitored through the Framework for Ecosystem Restoration Monitoring

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/16/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-february-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification: About UN World Restoration Flagships (commenced in 2022): These are initiatives recognized by the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration (2021-2030).

It’s part of the UN’s commitment to restore one billion hectares of ecosystems. Progress is monitored through the Framework for Ecosystem Restoration Monitoring

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/16/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-16-february-2024/

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Xenotransplantation- Is any procedure that involves the implantation or infusion into a human recipient of live cells from a nonhuman animal source. Is seen as an alternative to the clinical transplantation of human organs whose demand around the world exceeds supply by a long distance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Xenotransplantation is “any procedure that involves the transplantation, implantation or infusion into a human recipient of either (a) live cells, tissues, or organs from a nonhuman animal source, or (b) human body fluids, cells, tissues or organs that have had ex vivo contact with live nonhuman animal cells, tissues or organs”. Statement 2 is correct: Xenotransplantation is seen as an alternative to the clinical transplantation of human organs whose demand around the world exceeds supply by a long distance. Xenotransplantation involving the heart was first tried in humans in the 1980s. Xenotransplantation, if found compatible in the long run, could help provide an alternative supply of organs to those with life-threatening diseases. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Xenotransplantation is “any procedure that involves the transplantation, implantation or infusion into a human recipient of either (a) live cells, tissues, or organs from a nonhuman animal source, or (b) human body fluids, cells, tissues or organs that have had ex vivo contact with live nonhuman animal cells, tissues or organs”. Statement 2 is correct: Xenotransplantation is seen as an alternative to the clinical transplantation of human organs whose demand around the world exceeds supply by a long distance. Xenotransplantation involving the heart was first tried in humans in the 1980s. Xenotransplantation, if found compatible in the long run, could help provide an alternative supply of organs to those with life-threatening diseases.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

Xenotransplantation-

• Is any procedure that involves the implantation or infusion into a human recipient of live cells from a nonhuman animal source.

• Is seen as an alternative to the clinical transplantation of human organs whose demand around the world exceeds supply by a long distance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Xenotransplantation is “any procedure that involves the transplantation, implantation or infusion into a human recipient of either (a) live cells, tissues, or organs from a nonhuman animal source, or (b) human body fluids, cells, tissues or organs that have had ex vivo contact with live nonhuman animal cells, tissues or organs”.

Statement 2 is correct: Xenotransplantation is seen as an alternative to the clinical transplantation of human organs whose demand around the world exceeds supply by a long distance.

Xenotransplantation involving the heart was first tried in humans in the 1980s. Xenotransplantation, if found compatible in the long run, could help provide an alternative supply of organs to those with life-threatening diseases.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: Xenotransplantation is seen as an alternative to the clinical transplantation of human organs whose demand around the world exceeds supply by a long distance.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements is correct about the “Keeling Curve”? (a) It provides a model of the relationship between energy use, economic growth, and the environment. (b) It is a graphical representation of the distribution of income or wealth within a particular population. (c) It is an economic theory providing that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. (d) It aims at tracking the amount of carbon dioxide and is a global benchmark for atmospheric carbon levels. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The measurement, called the Keeling Curve after Charles David Keeling, the scientist who began tracking carbon dioxide there in 1958, is a global benchmark for atmospheric carbon levels. Because carbon dioxide is a key driver of climate change, reducing the use of fossil fuels, deforestation and other practices that lead to carbon emissions must be a top priority to avoid catastrophic consequences. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The measurement, called the Keeling Curve after Charles David Keeling, the scientist who began tracking carbon dioxide there in 1958, is a global benchmark for atmospheric carbon levels. Because carbon dioxide is a key driver of climate change, reducing the use of fossil fuels, deforestation and other practices that lead to carbon emissions must be a top priority to avoid catastrophic consequences.

#### 12. Question

Which one of the following statements is correct about the “Keeling Curve”?

• (a) It provides a model of the relationship between energy use, economic growth, and the environment.

• (b) It is a graphical representation of the distribution of income or wealth within a particular population.

• (c) It is an economic theory providing that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship.

• (d) It aims at tracking the amount of carbon dioxide and is a global benchmark for atmospheric carbon levels.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The measurement, called the Keeling Curve after Charles David Keeling, the scientist who began tracking carbon dioxide there in 1958, is a global benchmark for atmospheric carbon levels.

Because carbon dioxide is a key driver of climate change, reducing the use of fossil fuels, deforestation and other practices that lead to carbon emissions must be a top priority to avoid catastrophic consequences.

Answer: D

Explanation:

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points With reference to the Mekong River, consider the following statements: It originates from Mansarovar Lake in the Tibetan Plateau designated as a national reserve to protect its headwaters. It passes through the Three Parallel Rivers Area which is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Mekong River rises in China’s Southeastern province of Qinghai, specifically Za Qu, where it is referred Lancang. Statement 1 is not correct: It originates from the Sanjianyuang in the Tibetan Plateau, with the area designated a national nature reserve to protect the headwaters of Yangtze, Yellow, and Mekong Rivers. From the Tibetan Plateau, the Mekong River passes through Tibet Autonomous’ eastern part to Yunnan Province’s southeastern section and the Three Parallel Rivers Area. Statement 2 is correct: The three Parallel Rivers Area is a UNESCO World Heritage Site with three drainage basins; the Mekong River sandwiched by Salween River on the west and Yangtze River on the east. From the Yunnan Province, the Mekong River forms the international boundary between Myanmar and China. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: The Mekong River rises in China’s Southeastern province of Qinghai, specifically Za Qu, where it is referred Lancang. Statement 1 is not correct: It originates from the Sanjianyuang in the Tibetan Plateau, with the area designated a national nature reserve to protect the headwaters of Yangtze, Yellow, and Mekong Rivers. From the Tibetan Plateau, the Mekong River passes through Tibet Autonomous’ eastern part to Yunnan Province’s southeastern section and the Three Parallel Rivers Area. Statement 2 is correct: The three Parallel Rivers Area is a UNESCO World Heritage Site with three drainage basins; the Mekong River sandwiched by Salween River on the west and Yangtze River on the east. From the Yunnan Province, the Mekong River forms the international boundary between Myanmar and China.

#### 13. Question

With reference to the Mekong River, consider the following statements:

• It originates from Mansarovar Lake in the Tibetan Plateau designated as a national reserve to protect its headwaters.

• It passes through the Three Parallel Rivers Area which is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Mekong River rises in China’s Southeastern province of Qinghai, specifically Za Qu, where it is referred Lancang.

Statement 1 is not correct: It originates from the Sanjianyuang in the Tibetan Plateau, with the area designated a national nature reserve to protect the headwaters of Yangtze, Yellow, and Mekong Rivers.

From the Tibetan Plateau, the Mekong River passes through Tibet Autonomous’ eastern part to Yunnan Province’s southeastern section and the Three Parallel Rivers Area.

Statement 2 is correct: The three Parallel Rivers Area is a UNESCO World Heritage Site with three drainage basins; the Mekong River sandwiched by Salween River on the west and Yangtze River on the east.

From the Yunnan Province, the Mekong River forms the international boundary between Myanmar and China.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Mekong River rises in China’s Southeastern province of Qinghai, specifically Za Qu, where it is referred Lancang.

From the Tibetan Plateau, the Mekong River passes through Tibet Autonomous’ eastern part to Yunnan Province’s southeastern section and the Three Parallel Rivers Area.

From the Yunnan Province, the Mekong River forms the international boundary between Myanmar and China.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Venezuela: It is located on the northern edge of South America. It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast. It shares maritime borders with Barbados and Argentina. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Venezuela is located on the northern edge of South America. It is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth. Venezuela is bordered by Brazil to the south; by Guyana to the east; by Colombia to the west and southwest. Statement 2 is correct: It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast and by the Caribbean Sea to the north. Statement 3 is not correct: Venezuela shares maritime borders with Barbados but not Argentina. The Dominican Republic, Dominica, Saint Kitts & Nevis, Saint Lucia, Trinidad and Tobago and Puerto Rico. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Venezuela is located on the northern edge of South America. It is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth. Venezuela is bordered by Brazil to the south; by Guyana to the east; by Colombia to the west and southwest. Statement 2 is correct: It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast and by the Caribbean Sea to the north. Statement 3 is not correct: Venezuela shares maritime borders with Barbados but not Argentina. The Dominican Republic, Dominica, Saint Kitts & Nevis, Saint Lucia, Trinidad and Tobago and Puerto Rico.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Venezuela:

• It is located on the northern edge of South America.

• It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast.

• It shares maritime borders with Barbados and Argentina.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Venezuela is located on the northern edge of South America. It is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth.

Venezuela is bordered by Brazil to the south; by Guyana to the east; by Colombia to the west and southwest.

Statement 2 is correct: It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast and by the Caribbean Sea to the north.

Statement 3 is not correct: Venezuela shares maritime borders with Barbados but not Argentina.

The Dominican Republic, Dominica, Saint Kitts & Nevis, Saint Lucia, Trinidad and Tobago and Puerto Rico.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Venezuela is located on the northern edge of South America. It is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth.

Venezuela is bordered by Brazil to the south; by Guyana to the east; by Colombia to the west and southwest.

Statement 2 is correct: It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast and by the Caribbean Sea to the north.

Statement 3 is not correct: Venezuela shares maritime borders with Barbados but not Argentina.

The Dominican Republic, Dominica, Saint Kitts & Nevis, Saint Lucia, Trinidad and Tobago and Puerto Rico.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Chabahar Port: It is a deep water port in Sistan-Baluchistan province. It is the Iranian port that is the closest to India. It is not located in the open sea but provides secure access for cargo ships. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Chabahar is a deep water port in Iran’s Sistan-Baluchistan province. It is the Iranian port that is the closest to India, and is located in the open sea, providing easy and secure access for large cargo ships. Union Minister for Shipping, Ports and Waterways witnessed the signing of the contract between India Ports Global Ltd (IPGL) and Ports & Maritime Organisation of Iran (PMO) in Tehran. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: *Chabahar is a deep water port in Iran’s Sistan-Baluchistan province. It is the Iranian port that is the closest to India, and is located in the open sea, providing easy and secure access for large cargo ships. Union Minister for Shipping, Ports and Waterways witnessed the signing of the contract between India Ports Global Ltd (IPGL) and Ports & Maritime Organisation of Iran (PMO) in Tehran.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Chabahar Port:

• It is a deep water port in Sistan-Baluchistan province.

• It is the Iranian port that is the closest to India.

• It is not located in the open sea but provides secure access for cargo ships.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Chabahar is a deep water port in Iran’s Sistan-Baluchistan province. It is the Iranian port that is the closest to India, and is located in the open sea, providing easy and secure access for large cargo ships.

Union Minister for Shipping, Ports and Waterways witnessed the signing of the contract between India Ports Global Ltd (IPGL) and Ports & Maritime Organisation of Iran (PMO) in Tehran.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Union Minister for Shipping, Ports and Waterways witnessed the signing of the contract between India Ports Global Ltd (IPGL) and Ports & Maritime Organisation of Iran (PMO) in Tehran.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points What role did the emergence of a working class play in the economic situation of colonial India? a) Served as a catalyst for industrial innovation b) Facilitated the diversification of agricultural practices c) Challenged the hegemony of British economic policies d) Exacerbated social inequalities within Indian society Correct Answer: d Explanation: While the presence of a working class can indeed drive industrial innovation by demanding better working conditions, technology, and efficiency, in the context of colonial India, the primary role of the working class was more focused on providing labor for industries rather than driving innovation directly. Working class in colonial India was predominantly associated with industrial labor rather than agricultural practices. Their role was more concentrated in urban centers where industries were emerging, rather than in rural areas where agricultural practices prevailed. While the emergence of a working class did lead to some challenges to British economic policies through labor movements, strikes, and protests against exploitative working conditions, it might not have been the primary role of the working class in the economic transformation of colonial India. While significant, these challenges did not fundamentally alter British economic policies. Emergence of a working class worsened social inequalities within Indian society. The working class in colonial India was often subjected to exploitation by colonial authorities and industrial capitalists. They were paid low wages for long hours of labor in hazardous working conditions. This exploitation widened the economic gap between the wealthy elite who owned industries and the working class who toiled in them. Overall, the emergence of a working class during colonial rule in India exacerbated social inequalities by subjecting them to exploitation, limiting their social mobility, trapping them in poor living conditions, denying them access to resources, perpetuating social stigma, and marginalizing them politically. These factors collectively widened the gap between different socio-economic classes and entrenched social inequalities within Indian society. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: While the presence of a working class can indeed drive industrial innovation by demanding better working conditions, technology, and efficiency, in the context of colonial India, the primary role of the working class was more focused on providing labor for industries rather than driving innovation directly. Working class in colonial India was predominantly associated with industrial labor rather than agricultural practices. Their role was more concentrated in urban centers where industries were emerging, rather than in rural areas where agricultural practices prevailed. While the emergence of a working class did lead to some challenges to British economic policies through labor movements, strikes, and protests against exploitative working conditions, it might not have been the primary role of the working class in the economic transformation of colonial India. While significant, these challenges did not fundamentally alter British economic policies. Emergence of a working class worsened social inequalities within Indian society. The working class in colonial India was often subjected to exploitation by colonial authorities and industrial capitalists. They were paid low wages for long hours of labor in hazardous working conditions. This exploitation widened the economic gap between the wealthy elite who owned industries and the working class who toiled in them. Overall, the emergence of a working class during colonial rule in India exacerbated social inequalities by subjecting them to exploitation, limiting their social mobility, trapping them in poor living conditions, denying them access to resources, perpetuating social stigma, and marginalizing them politically. These factors collectively widened the gap between different socio-economic classes and entrenched social inequalities within Indian society. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 16. Question

What role did the emergence of a working class play in the economic situation of colonial India?

• a) Served as a catalyst for industrial innovation

• b) Facilitated the diversification of agricultural practices

• c) Challenged the hegemony of British economic policies

• d) Exacerbated social inequalities within Indian society

Explanation:

• While the presence of a working class can indeed drive industrial innovation by demanding better working conditions, technology, and efficiency, in the context of colonial India, the primary role of the working class was more focused on providing labor for industries rather than driving innovation directly.

• Working class in colonial India was predominantly associated with industrial labor rather than agricultural practices. Their role was more concentrated in urban centers where industries were emerging, rather than in rural areas where agricultural practices prevailed.

• While the emergence of a working class did lead to some challenges to British economic policies through labor movements, strikes, and protests against exploitative working conditions, it might not have been the primary role of the working class in the economic transformation of colonial India. While significant, these challenges did not fundamentally alter British economic policies.

• Emergence of a working class worsened social inequalities within Indian society. The working class in colonial India was often subjected to exploitation by colonial authorities and industrial capitalists. They were paid low wages for long hours of labor in hazardous working conditions. This exploitation widened the economic gap between the wealthy elite who owned industries and the working class who toiled in them.

• Overall, the emergence of a working class during colonial rule in India exacerbated social inequalities by subjecting them to exploitation, limiting their social mobility, trapping them in poor living conditions, denying them access to resources, perpetuating social stigma, and marginalizing them politically. These factors collectively widened the gap between different socio-economic classes and entrenched social inequalities within Indian society.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Which of the following factor/s contributed to the escalating tensions between the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal before the Battle of Plassey? The British fortification of Calcutta. Misuse of its trade privileges by company officials British military victories in other regions of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 in the Plassey (or Palashi) region of West Bengal, on the east of Bhagirathi River. Events Preceding the Battle: The British victory in the Carnatic had already made Siraj apprehensive of the growing power of the East India Company The officials of the Company made rampant misuse of its trade privileges that adversely affected the nawab’s finances. The British also fortified Calcutta without the nawab’s permission which the nawab took as an ignorance to his sovereign power. The infuriated Nawab marched to Calcutta and occupied Fort William in June 1756. Shortly after Fort William’s surrender, on June 20, 175, Siraj confined 146 British prisoners in a small dungeon in Calcutta, out of which 123 prisoners died of suffocation. It is infamously known as the ‘Black Hole of Calcutta’. This event brought the hostility of the British in the open. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 in the Plassey (or Palashi) region of West Bengal, on the east of Bhagirathi River. Events Preceding the Battle: The British victory in the Carnatic had already made Siraj apprehensive of the growing power of the East India Company The officials of the Company made rampant misuse of its trade privileges that adversely affected the nawab’s finances. The British also fortified Calcutta without the nawab’s permission which the nawab took as an ignorance to his sovereign power. The infuriated Nawab marched to Calcutta and occupied Fort William in June 1756. Shortly after Fort William’s surrender, on June 20, 175, Siraj confined 146 British prisoners in a small dungeon in Calcutta, out of which 123 prisoners died of suffocation. It is infamously known as the ‘Black Hole of Calcutta’. This event brought the hostility of the British in the open. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 17. Question

Which of the following factor/s contributed to the escalating tensions between the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal before the Battle of Plassey?

• The British fortification of Calcutta.

• Misuse of its trade privileges by company officials

• British military victories in other regions of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

• The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 in the Plassey (or Palashi) region of West Bengal, on the east of Bhagirathi River.

• Events Preceding the Battle:

• The British victory in the Carnatic had already made Siraj apprehensive of the growing power of the East India Company

• The officials of the Company made rampant misuse of its trade privileges that adversely affected the nawab’s finances.

• The British also fortified Calcutta without the nawab’s permission which the nawab took as an ignorance to his sovereign power.

• The infuriated Nawab marched to Calcutta and occupied Fort William in June 1756.

• Shortly after Fort William’s surrender, on June 20, 175, Siraj confined 146 British prisoners in a small dungeon in Calcutta, out of which 123 prisoners died of suffocation. It is infamously known as the ‘Black Hole of Calcutta’.

• This event brought the hostility of the British in the open.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 in the Plassey (or Palashi) region of West Bengal, on the east of Bhagirathi River.

• Events Preceding the Battle:

• The British victory in the Carnatic had already made Siraj apprehensive of the growing power of the East India Company

• The officials of the Company made rampant misuse of its trade privileges that adversely affected the nawab’s finances.

• The British also fortified Calcutta without the nawab’s permission which the nawab took as an ignorance to his sovereign power.

• The infuriated Nawab marched to Calcutta and occupied Fort William in June 1756.

• This event brought the hostility of the British in the open.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Carnatic Wars established British supremacy in trade in India. The Battle of Plassey laid the foundation of the British Empire in India. The Battle of Buxar established the British as masters of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Carnatic Wars, which occurred between the British East India Company and the French East India Company, were instrumental in establishing British dominance in trade in India. Through these conflicts, the British East India Company emerged as the preeminent European trading power in India, securing key trading ports and territories. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Battle of Plassey, fought in 1757, was a pivotal event in Indian history. It resulted in the decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal, effectively establishing British control over Bengal and paving the way for further expansion of the British Empire in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Battle of Buxar, fought in 1764, was another significant milestone in British colonial expansion in India. The British victory in this battle solidified their control over the territories of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, consolidating their authority in eastern India. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Carnatic Wars, which occurred between the British East India Company and the French East India Company, were instrumental in establishing British dominance in trade in India. Through these conflicts, the British East India Company emerged as the preeminent European trading power in India, securing key trading ports and territories. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Battle of Plassey, fought in 1757, was a pivotal event in Indian history. It resulted in the decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal, effectively establishing British control over Bengal and paving the way for further expansion of the British Empire in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Battle of Buxar, fought in 1764, was another significant milestone in British colonial expansion in India. The British victory in this battle solidified their control over the territories of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, consolidating their authority in eastern India. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Carnatic Wars established British supremacy in trade in India.

• The Battle of Plassey laid the foundation of the British Empire in India.

• The Battle of Buxar established the British as masters of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Carnatic Wars, which occurred between the British East India Company and the French East India Company, were instrumental in establishing British dominance in trade in India. Through these conflicts, the British East India Company emerged as the preeminent European trading power in India, securing key trading ports and territories. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Battle of Plassey, fought in 1757, was a pivotal event in Indian history. It resulted in the decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal, effectively establishing British control over Bengal and paving the way for further expansion of the British Empire in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Battle of Buxar, fought in 1764, was another significant milestone in British colonial expansion in India. The British victory in this battle solidified their control over the territories of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, consolidating their authority in eastern India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Arrange the following Viceroys of British India in chronological order: Lord Curzon Lord Minto II Lord Irwin Lord Linlithgow Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 2-1-3-4 b) 1-2-3-4 c) 3-2-1-4 d) 4-3-2-1 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Viceroys of British India in chronological order: Lord Curzon: Served as Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905. Lord Minto II: Served as Viceroy of India from 1905 to 1910. Lord Irwin: Served as Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931. Lord Linlithgow: Served as Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1944. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Viceroys of British India in chronological order: Lord Curzon: Served as Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905. Lord Minto II: Served as Viceroy of India from 1905 to 1910. Lord Irwin: Served as Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931. Lord Linlithgow: Served as Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1944. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 19. Question

Arrange the following Viceroys of British India in chronological order:

• Lord Curzon

• Lord Minto II

• Lord Irwin

• Lord Linlithgow

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 2-1-3-4

• b) 1-2-3-4

• c) 3-2-1-4

• d) 4-3-2-1

Explanation:

• Viceroys of British India in chronological order:

• Lord Curzon: Served as Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905.

• Lord Minto II: Served as Viceroy of India from 1905 to 1910.

• Lord Irwin: Served as Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931.

• Lord Linlithgow: Served as Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1944.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Viceroys of British India in chronological order:

• Lord Curzon: Served as Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905.

• Lord Minto II: Served as Viceroy of India from 1905 to 1910.

• Lord Irwin: Served as Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931.

• Lord Linlithgow: Served as Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1944.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which of the following events occurred during Lord Ripon’s tenure? Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act The Ilbert Bill controversy The First Factory Act The appointment of the Police Commission Choose the correct answer from below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1.2 and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Lord Ripon, whose full name was George Robinson, served as the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884. He is often remembered for his liberal and progressive policies during his tenure. One of his significant contributions was the promotion of local self-government, which he believed would empower Indians and foster democratic values. Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act: This was an important reform introduced by Lord Ripon. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 had imposed stringent restrictions on the Indian-language press, particularly in the vernacular languages. Its repeal marked a significant step towards freedom of the press in colonial India. The Ilbert Bill controversy: The Ilbert Bill was introduced during Lord Ripon’s time and aimed to give Indian judges the authority to preside over cases involving Europeans. However, it sparked controversy among the European community in India, who protested against the prospect of being tried by Indian judges. The controversy highlighted racial tensions and the unequal treatment of Indians and Europeans under the law. The First Factory Act: Lord Ripon’s tenure saw the introduction of the First Factory Act in 1881. This legislation aimed to regulate the working conditions in factories, particularly concerning child labor and working hours. It represented an early attempt to address the harsh conditions faced by workers in industrial establishments. The appointment of the Police Commission did not occur during Lord Ripon’s tenure. The Police Commission was appointed during Lord Curzon’s tenure in 1902, not during Lord Ripon’s time. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Lord Ripon, whose full name was George Robinson, served as the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884. He is often remembered for his liberal and progressive policies during his tenure. One of his significant contributions was the promotion of local self-government, which he believed would empower Indians and foster democratic values. Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act: This was an important reform introduced by Lord Ripon. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 had imposed stringent restrictions on the Indian-language press, particularly in the vernacular languages. Its repeal marked a significant step towards freedom of the press in colonial India. The Ilbert Bill controversy: The Ilbert Bill was introduced during Lord Ripon’s time and aimed to give Indian judges the authority to preside over cases involving Europeans. However, it sparked controversy among the European community in India, who protested against the prospect of being tried by Indian judges. The controversy highlighted racial tensions and the unequal treatment of Indians and Europeans under the law. The First Factory Act: Lord Ripon’s tenure saw the introduction of the First Factory Act in 1881. This legislation aimed to regulate the working conditions in factories, particularly concerning child labor and working hours. It represented an early attempt to address the harsh conditions faced by workers in industrial establishments. The appointment of the Police Commission did not occur during Lord Ripon’s tenure. The Police Commission was appointed during Lord Curzon’s tenure in 1902, not during Lord Ripon’s time. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 20. Question

Which of the following events occurred during Lord Ripon’s tenure?

• Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act

• The Ilbert Bill controversy

• The First Factory Act

• The appointment of the Police Commission

Choose the correct answer from below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1.2 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 4 only

• d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

• Lord Ripon, whose full name was George Robinson, served as the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884. He is often remembered for his liberal and progressive policies during his tenure. One of his significant contributions was the promotion of local self-government, which he believed would empower Indians and foster democratic values.

• Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act: This was an important reform introduced by Lord Ripon. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 had imposed stringent restrictions on the Indian-language press, particularly in the vernacular languages. Its repeal marked a significant step towards freedom of the press in colonial India.

• The Ilbert Bill controversy: The Ilbert Bill was introduced during Lord Ripon’s time and aimed to give Indian judges the authority to preside over cases involving Europeans. However, it sparked controversy among the European community in India, who protested against the prospect of being tried by Indian judges. The controversy highlighted racial tensions and the unequal treatment of Indians and Europeans under the law.

• The First Factory Act: Lord Ripon’s tenure saw the introduction of the First Factory Act in 1881. This legislation aimed to regulate the working conditions in factories, particularly concerning child labor and working hours. It represented an early attempt to address the harsh conditions faced by workers in industrial establishments.

• The appointment of the Police Commission did not occur during Lord Ripon’s tenure. The Police Commission was appointed during Lord Curzon’s tenure in 1902, not during Lord Ripon’s time.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which act led to the requirement of a declaration about the place and premises of publication for newspapers in India? a) Licensing Regulations, 1823 b) Vernacular Press Act, 1878 c) Censorship of the Press Act, 1799 d) Metcalfe’s Press Act, 1835 Correct Answer: d Explanation: Metcalfe’s Press Act of 1835 was a significant legislative development in the history of press regulations in British India. It marked a departure from the previous licensing regulations and aimed to introduce more liberal policies regarding the press. Implications of Metcalfe’s Press Act: Repeal of Previous Regulations: Metcalfe’s Press Act repealed the licensing regulations that had been in place before. These regulations had required publishers to obtain a license from the government, which could be revoked at the discretion of the Governor-General. By repealing these regulations, Metcalfe aimed to foster a freer environment for the press. Declaration Requirement: One of the key provisions of Metcalfe’s Press Act was the requirement for publishers to make a declaration about the place and premises of publication. This declaration was aimed at bringing transparency to the publishing process and ensuring that publishers could be held accountable for the content they produced. Liberal Approach: Metcalfe’s tenure as Governor-General was characterized by a relatively liberal approach towards the press. He believed in the importance of a free press as a means of promoting public awareness and accountability. By repealing the previous regulations and introducing the declaration requirement, Metcalfe sought to encourage the growth of the press and facilitate greater public discourse. Impact on Press Freedom: While Metcalfe’s Press Act represented a step towards greater press freedom compared to the previous regulations, it was still far from complete freedom. The Act retained certain provisions that allowed the government to exercise control over the press, albeit to a lesser extent than before. Nevertheless, the Act provided some breathing room for newspapers to operate more independently and contributed to the gradual liberalization of press regulations in India. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Metcalfe’s Press Act of 1835 was a significant legislative development in the history of press regulations in British India. It marked a departure from the previous licensing regulations and aimed to introduce more liberal policies regarding the press. Implications of Metcalfe’s Press Act: Repeal of Previous Regulations: Metcalfe’s Press Act repealed the licensing regulations that had been in place before. These regulations had required publishers to obtain a license from the government, which could be revoked at the discretion of the Governor-General. By repealing these regulations, Metcalfe aimed to foster a freer environment for the press. Declaration Requirement: One of the key provisions of Metcalfe’s Press Act was the requirement for publishers to make a declaration about the place and premises of publication. This declaration was aimed at bringing transparency to the publishing process and ensuring that publishers could be held accountable for the content they produced. Liberal Approach: Metcalfe’s tenure as Governor-General was characterized by a relatively liberal approach towards the press. He believed in the importance of a free press as a means of promoting public awareness and accountability. By repealing the previous regulations and introducing the declaration requirement, Metcalfe sought to encourage the growth of the press and facilitate greater public discourse. Impact on Press Freedom: While Metcalfe’s Press Act represented a step towards greater press freedom compared to the previous regulations, it was still far from complete freedom. The Act retained certain provisions that allowed the government to exercise control over the press, albeit to a lesser extent than before. Nevertheless, the Act provided some breathing room for newspapers to operate more independently and contributed to the gradual liberalization of press regulations in India. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 21. Question

Which act led to the requirement of a declaration about the place and premises of publication for newspapers in India?

• a) Licensing Regulations, 1823

• b) Vernacular Press Act, 1878

• c) Censorship of the Press Act, 1799

• d) Metcalfe’s Press Act, 1835

Explanation:

• Metcalfe’s Press Act of 1835 was a significant legislative development in the history of press regulations in British India. It marked a departure from the previous licensing regulations and aimed to introduce more liberal policies regarding the press.

• Implications of Metcalfe’s Press Act:

• Repeal of Previous Regulations: Metcalfe’s Press Act repealed the licensing regulations that had been in place before. These regulations had required publishers to obtain a license from the government, which could be revoked at the discretion of the Governor-General. By repealing these regulations, Metcalfe aimed to foster a freer environment for the press.

• Declaration Requirement: One of the key provisions of Metcalfe’s Press Act was the requirement for publishers to make a declaration about the place and premises of publication. This declaration was aimed at bringing transparency to the publishing process and ensuring that publishers could be held accountable for the content they produced.

• Liberal Approach: Metcalfe’s tenure as Governor-General was characterized by a relatively liberal approach towards the press. He believed in the importance of a free press as a means of promoting public awareness and accountability. By repealing the previous regulations and introducing the declaration requirement, Metcalfe sought to encourage the growth of the press and facilitate greater public discourse.

• Impact on Press Freedom: While Metcalfe’s Press Act represented a step towards greater press freedom compared to the previous regulations, it was still far from complete freedom. The Act retained certain provisions that allowed the government to exercise control over the press, albeit to a lesser extent than before. Nevertheless, the Act provided some breathing room for newspapers to operate more independently and contributed to the gradual liberalization of press regulations in India.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Implications of Metcalfe’s Press Act:

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Which newspaper converted from Bengali to English overnight to escape the restrictions imposed by the Vernacular Press Act? a) Sambad Kaumudi b) Bengal Samachar c) Amrit Bazaar Patrika d) Rast Goftar Correct Answer: c Explanation: Amrit Bazaar Patrika was a prominent Bengali newspaper founded by Shishir Kumar Ghosh and his brothers in 1868. Initially published as a Bengali weekly in their village Amrit Bazaar, it quickly gained popularity for its insightful reporting and critical analysis of contemporary issues. However, when the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was enacted by Lord Lytton’s government, it imposed stringent restrictions on newspapers published in Indian languages. The aim of this act was to curb criticism of British policies, particularly in regional languages, which were considered a threat to colonial rule. In response to these restrictions, Amrit Bazaar Patrika took a bold and strategic decision to convert overnight from Bengali to English. By switching to English, the newspaper effectively circumvented the provisions of the Vernacular Press Act, as the act applied only to newspapers published in Indian languages. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Amrit Bazaar Patrika was a prominent Bengali newspaper founded by Shishir Kumar Ghosh and his brothers in 1868. Initially published as a Bengali weekly in their village Amrit Bazaar, it quickly gained popularity for its insightful reporting and critical analysis of contemporary issues. However, when the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was enacted by Lord Lytton’s government, it imposed stringent restrictions on newspapers published in Indian languages. The aim of this act was to curb criticism of British policies, particularly in regional languages, which were considered a threat to colonial rule. In response to these restrictions, Amrit Bazaar Patrika took a bold and strategic decision to convert overnight from Bengali to English. By switching to English, the newspaper effectively circumvented the provisions of the Vernacular Press Act, as the act applied only to newspapers published in Indian languages. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 22. Question

Which newspaper converted from Bengali to English overnight to escape the restrictions imposed by the Vernacular Press Act?

• a) Sambad Kaumudi

• b) Bengal Samachar

• c) Amrit Bazaar Patrika

• d) Rast Goftar

Explanation:

• Amrit Bazaar Patrika was a prominent Bengali newspaper founded by Shishir Kumar Ghosh and his brothers in 1868. Initially published as a Bengali weekly in their village Amrit Bazaar, it quickly gained popularity for its insightful reporting and critical analysis of contemporary issues.

• However, when the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was enacted by Lord Lytton’s government, it imposed stringent restrictions on newspapers published in Indian languages. The aim of this act was to curb criticism of British policies, particularly in regional languages, which were considered a threat to colonial rule.

• In response to these restrictions, Amrit Bazaar Patrika took a bold and strategic decision to convert overnight from Bengali to English. By switching to English, the newspaper effectively circumvented the provisions of the Vernacular Press Act, as the act applied only to newspapers published in Indian languages.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs with reference to newspapers and their founders: 1. Rast Goftar Dwarakanath Vidyabhusan 2. Indian Mirror Motilal Ghosh 3. The Hindu P. Anandacharlu 4. Al-Hilal Abdul Ghaffar Khan How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only two pairs b) Only three pairs c) All four pairs d) None Correct Answer: d Explanation: Rast Goftar was actually founded by Dadabhai Naoroji, not Dwarakanath Vidyabhusan. It was a Gujarati newspaper that played a crucial role in discussing political events and promoting social reforms. Dadabhai Naoroji, a prominent figure in the Indian nationalist movement, used Rast Goftar as a platform to advocate for political rights and social justice for Indians under British rule. Indian Mirror was initially founded as a fortnightly paper by Manmohan Ghose, with financial assistance from Debendranath Tagore. Later, it was converted into a daily newspaper by Keshab Chandra Sen, making significant contributions to the journalistic landscape of its time. The Hindu – The Hindu is one of India’s oldest and most respected English-language newspapers. It was founded by G. Subramaniya Iyer in 1878, with the aim of providing accurate and unbiased news to its readers. Over the years, The Hindu has established itself as a leading voice in Indian journalism. Al-Hilal – was a significant Urdu newspaper founded by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It served as a platform for Azad to propagate his rationalist and nationalist ideas, advocating for active Muslim participation in the nationalist movement against British rule. All the pairs are incorrectly matched. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Rast Goftar was actually founded by Dadabhai Naoroji, not Dwarakanath Vidyabhusan. It was a Gujarati newspaper that played a crucial role in discussing political events and promoting social reforms. Dadabhai Naoroji, a prominent figure in the Indian nationalist movement, used Rast Goftar as a platform to advocate for political rights and social justice for Indians under British rule. Indian Mirror was initially founded as a fortnightly paper by Manmohan Ghose, with financial assistance from Debendranath Tagore. Later, it was converted into a daily newspaper by Keshab Chandra Sen, making significant contributions to the journalistic landscape of its time. The Hindu – The Hindu is one of India’s oldest and most respected English-language newspapers. It was founded by G. Subramaniya Iyer in 1878, with the aim of providing accurate and unbiased news to its readers. Over the years, The Hindu has established itself as a leading voice in Indian journalism. Al-Hilal – was a significant Urdu newspaper founded by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It served as a platform for Azad to propagate his rationalist and nationalist ideas, advocating for active Muslim participation in the nationalist movement against British rule. All the pairs are incorrectly matched. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following pairs with reference to newspapers and their founders:

1.Rast Goftar | Dwarakanath Vidyabhusan
2.Indian Mirror | Motilal Ghosh
3.The Hindu | P. Anandacharlu
4.Al-Hilal | Abdul Ghaffar Khan

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• a) Only two pairs

• b) Only three pairs

• c) All four pairs

Explanation:

• Rast Goftar was actually founded by Dadabhai Naoroji, not Dwarakanath Vidyabhusan. It was a Gujarati newspaper that played a crucial role in discussing political events and promoting social reforms. Dadabhai Naoroji, a prominent figure in the Indian nationalist movement, used Rast Goftar as a platform to advocate for political rights and social justice for Indians under British rule.

• Indian Mirror was initially founded as a fortnightly paper by Manmohan Ghose, with financial assistance from Debendranath Tagore. Later, it was converted into a daily newspaper by Keshab Chandra Sen, making significant contributions to the journalistic landscape of its time.

• The Hindu – The Hindu is one of India’s oldest and most respected English-language newspapers. It was founded by G. Subramaniya Iyer in 1878, with the aim of providing accurate and unbiased news to its readers. Over the years, The Hindu has established itself as a leading voice in Indian journalism.

• Al-Hilal – was a significant Urdu newspaper founded by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It served as a platform for Azad to propagate his rationalist and nationalist ideas, advocating for active Muslim participation in the nationalist movement against British rule.

• All the pairs are incorrectly matched.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• All the pairs are incorrectly matched.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points The Justice Party Movement primarily aimed to challenge Brahminic dominance in various sectors. Which organization emerged from this movement, advocating for reservations for marginalized groups? a) South Indian Liberation Federation b) All-India Anti-Untouchability League c) Depressed Classes Institution d) South India Scheduled Caste Federation Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Justice Party Movement, originating in 1916, was a significant socio-political movement in South India. Its primary objective was to challenge the dominance of Brahmins, who held sway over various sectors including government services, education, and politics. Started under the leadership of Dr. T.M Nair, P. Tyagaraja Chetti and C.N Mudalair in 1916. The organization that emerged from the Justice Party Movement advocating for reservations for marginalized groups is the South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF). This organization was formed in 1916 as part of the Justice Party Movement’s efforts to challenge Brahminic dominance in various sectors. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Justice Party Movement, originating in 1916, was a significant socio-political movement in South India. Its primary objective was to challenge the dominance of Brahmins, who held sway over various sectors including government services, education, and politics. Started under the leadership of Dr. T.M Nair, P. Tyagaraja Chetti and C.N Mudalair in 1916. The organization that emerged from the Justice Party Movement advocating for reservations for marginalized groups is the South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF). This organization was formed in 1916 as part of the Justice Party Movement’s efforts to challenge Brahminic dominance in various sectors. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 24. Question

The Justice Party Movement primarily aimed to challenge Brahminic dominance in various sectors. Which organization emerged from this movement, advocating for reservations for marginalized groups?

• a) South Indian Liberation Federation

• b) All-India Anti-Untouchability League

• c) Depressed Classes Institution

• d) South India Scheduled Caste Federation

Explanation:

• The Justice Party Movement, originating in 1916, was a significant socio-political movement in South India. Its primary objective was to challenge the dominance of Brahmins, who held sway over various sectors including government services, education, and politics.

• Started under the leadership of Dr. T.M Nair, P. Tyagaraja Chetti and C.N Mudalair in 1916.

• The organization that emerged from the Justice Party Movement advocating for reservations for marginalized groups is the South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF). This organization was formed in 1916 as part of the Justice Party Movement’s efforts to challenge Brahminic dominance in various sectors.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Started under the leadership of Dr. T.M Nair, P. Tyagaraja Chetti and C.N Mudalair in 1916.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the 1896 Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress: The national song “Vande Mataram” was sung for the first time during this session. The session endorsed the Drain Theory, holding the British responsible for the economic exploitation of India. Congress passed a resolution condemning the British for their role in causing famines in India. The session was presided over by Rash Behari Ghosh. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: During the 1896 Calcutta Session (12th session) of the Indian National Congress, several significant events took place, shaping the trajectory of the Indian independence movement. First singing of “Vande Mataram”: This session marked a historic moment when the national song “Vande Mataram” was sung for the first time, symbolizing a rallying cry for India’s freedom struggle. The song, composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, became an anthem of patriotism and resistance against British colonial rule. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Endorsement of the Drain Theory: The Drain Theory, articulated by Dadabhai Naoroji and others, posited that colonial policies drained India of its wealth, impoverishing the country and hindering its development. The Congress, during this session, endorsed this theory, highlighting the economic exploitation inflicted upon India by the British colonial administration. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Resolution condemning British role in famines: The Congress passed a resolution condemning the British for their role in causing famines in India. This condemnation stemmed from the understanding that British policies, including exploitative land revenue systems and lack of adequate relief measures, exacerbated the impact of famines, leading to widespread suffering and loss of life among Indian populations. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Presidency of Rahimatullah M. Sayani: Contrary to the statement, the 1896 Calcutta Session was presided over by Rahimatullah M. Sayani, not Rash Behari Ghosh. Rahimatullah M. Sayani, a prominent Muslim leader, chaired the session and played a crucial role in guiding the deliberations and decisions of the Congress during this period. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: During the 1896 Calcutta Session (12th session) of the Indian National Congress, several significant events took place, shaping the trajectory of the Indian independence movement. First singing of “Vande Mataram”: This session marked a historic moment when the national song “Vande Mataram” was sung for the first time, symbolizing a rallying cry for India’s freedom struggle. The song, composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, became an anthem of patriotism and resistance against British colonial rule. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Endorsement of the Drain Theory: The Drain Theory, articulated by Dadabhai Naoroji and others, posited that colonial policies drained India of its wealth, impoverishing the country and hindering its development. The Congress, during this session, endorsed this theory, highlighting the economic exploitation inflicted upon India by the British colonial administration. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Resolution condemning British role in famines: The Congress passed a resolution condemning the British for their role in causing famines in India. This condemnation stemmed from the understanding that British policies, including exploitative land revenue systems and lack of adequate relief measures, exacerbated the impact of famines, leading to widespread suffering and loss of life among Indian populations. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Presidency of Rahimatullah M. Sayani: Contrary to the statement, the 1896 Calcutta Session was presided over by Rahimatullah M. Sayani, not Rash Behari Ghosh. Rahimatullah M. Sayani, a prominent Muslim leader, chaired the session and played a crucial role in guiding the deliberations and decisions of the Congress during this period. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the 1896 Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress:

• The national song “Vande Mataram” was sung for the first time during this session.

• The session endorsed the Drain Theory, holding the British responsible for the economic exploitation of India.

• Congress passed a resolution condemning the British for their role in causing famines in India.

• The session was presided over by Rash Behari Ghosh.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• During the 1896 Calcutta Session (12th session) of the Indian National Congress, several significant events took place, shaping the trajectory of the Indian independence movement.

• First singing of “Vande Mataram”: This session marked a historic moment when the national song “Vande Mataram” was sung for the first time, symbolizing a rallying cry for India’s freedom struggle. The song, composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, became an anthem of patriotism and resistance against British colonial rule. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Endorsement of the Drain Theory: The Drain Theory, articulated by Dadabhai Naoroji and others, posited that colonial policies drained India of its wealth, impoverishing the country and hindering its development. The Congress, during this session, endorsed this theory, highlighting the economic exploitation inflicted upon India by the British colonial administration. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Resolution condemning British role in famines: The Congress passed a resolution condemning the British for their role in causing famines in India. This condemnation stemmed from the understanding that British policies, including exploitative land revenue systems and lack of adequate relief measures, exacerbated the impact of famines, leading to widespread suffering and loss of life among Indian populations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Presidency of Rahimatullah M. Sayani: Contrary to the statement, the 1896 Calcutta Session was presided over by Rahimatullah M. Sayani, not Rash Behari Ghosh. Rahimatullah M. Sayani, a prominent Muslim leader, chaired the session and played a crucial role in guiding the deliberations and decisions of the Congress during this period. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• During the 1896 Calcutta Session (12th session) of the Indian National Congress, several significant events took place, shaping the trajectory of the Indian independence movement.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points A well-written code of conduct clarifies an organization’s mission, values and principles, linking them with standards of professional conduct. The code articulates the values the organization wishes to foster in leaders and employees and, in doing so, defines desired behavior. As a result, written codes of conduct or ethics can become benchmarks against which individual and organizational performance can be measured. Which of the following is/are assumption(s) that have been made in the passage? Written code of conduct is not as effective as oral code of conduct Organizations can become more successful if their vision, mission, values and principles are aligned with professional conduct a) I b) II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II Correct Ans. B. Statement I is wrong as the passage talks about the benefits of having a written code of conduct, which means that the vice versa of the statement is true. Statement 2 is correct assumption as per the passage. Hence B. Incorrect Ans. B. Statement I is wrong as the passage talks about the benefits of having a written code of conduct, which means that the vice versa of the statement is true. Statement 2 is correct assumption as per the passage. Hence B.

#### 26. Question

A well-written code of conduct clarifies an organization’s mission, values and principles, linking them with standards of professional conduct. The code articulates the values the organization wishes to foster in leaders and employees and, in doing so, defines desired behavior. As a result, written codes of conduct or ethics can become benchmarks against which individual and organizational performance can be measured.

Which of the following is/are assumption(s) that have been made in the passage?

• Written code of conduct is not as effective as oral code of conduct Organizations can become more successful if their vision, mission, values and principles are aligned with professional conduct

• Written code of conduct is not as effective as oral code of conduct

• Organizations can become more successful if their vision, mission, values and principles are aligned with professional conduct

• c) Both I and II

• d) Neither I nor II

Ans. B. Statement I is wrong as the passage talks about the benefits of having a written code of conduct, which means that the vice versa of the statement is true. Statement 2 is correct assumption as per the passage. Hence B.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The dual-use dilemma occurs when a piece of research or technology can both benefit and harm humanity. Once the technology, drug, chemical or biological agent is developed it can be used for good or bad. This forces researchers to make an ethical judgement on whether they should continue their work. Which of the following technology would lead to dual use dilemma? Genetic modification technology Crispr-Cas9 3D printing a) I, II b) II,III c) III d) I, II, III Correct Ans. C. Apart from 3D printing both the technologies cause sizeable harm and can be developed both for good or bad. Hence C. Incorrect Ans. C. Apart from 3D printing both the technologies cause sizeable harm and can be developed both for good or bad. Hence C.

#### 27. Question

The dual-use dilemma occurs when a piece of research or technology can both benefit and harm humanity. Once the technology, drug, chemical or biological agent is developed it can be used for good or bad. This forces researchers to make an ethical judgement on whether they should continue their work.

Which of the following technology would lead to dual use dilemma?

• Genetic modification technology Crispr-Cas9 3D printing

• Genetic modification technology

• Crispr-Cas9

• 3D printing

• d) I, II, III

Ans. C. Apart from 3D printing both the technologies cause sizeable harm and can be developed both for good or bad. Hence C.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Directions for questions 27-28Q : There are three schools namely DPS, KV and JNV. The following line graphs give the number of students appeared for the board exam year wise and the number of students who passed the board exam year wise respectively. Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow. In which year the total number of failed students is the highest? a) 2013 b) 2014 c) 2015 d) 2016 Correct Solution: a) 2013 Explanation: Number of failed students: year wise: 2013: (1100+1000+700) – (900+800+500) = 2800 – 2200 = 600 2014: (1200+900+800) – (1000+800+700) = 2900 – 2500 = 400 2015: (1100+1000+700) – (1000+900+500) = 2800 – 2400 = 400 2016: (900+800+700) – (800+600+600) = 2400 – 2000 = 400 In year 2013, number of students failed is the highest. Incorrect Solution: a) 2013 Explanation: Number of failed students: year wise: 2013: (1100+1000+700) – (900+800+500) = 2800 – 2200 = 600 2014: (1200+900+800) – (1000+800+700) = 2900 – 2500 = 400 2015: (1100+1000+700) – (1000+900+500) = 2800 – 2400 = 400 2016: (900+800+700) – (800+600+600) = 2400 – 2000 = 400 In year 2013, number of students failed is the highest.

#### 28. Question

Directions for questions 27-28Q :

There are three schools namely DPS, KV and JNV.

The following line graphs give the number of students appeared for the board exam year wise and the number of students who passed the board exam year wise respectively. Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow.

In which year the total number of failed students is the highest?

Solution: a) 2013

Explanation:

Number of failed students: year wise:

2013: (1100+1000+700) – (900+800+500) = 2800 – 2200 = 600

2014: (1200+900+800) – (1000+800+700) = 2900 – 2500 = 400

2015: (1100+1000+700) – (1000+900+500) = 2800 – 2400 = 400

2016: (900+800+700) – (800+600+600) = 2400 – 2000 = 400

In year 2013, number of students failed is the highest.

Solution: a) 2013

Explanation:

Number of failed students: year wise:

2013: (1100+1000+700) – (900+800+500) = 2800 – 2200 = 600

2014: (1200+900+800) – (1000+800+700) = 2900 – 2500 = 400

2015: (1100+1000+700) – (1000+900+500) = 2800 – 2400 = 400

2016: (900+800+700) – (800+600+600) = 2400 – 2000 = 400

In year 2013, number of students failed is the highest.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points For DPS, which year was the best in terms of pass percentage? a) 2013 b) 2014 c) 2015 d) 2016 Correct Solution: c) 2015 Explanation: Yearly pass percentage: From 2013 to 2016 in order 2013: 900/1100 = 81.81% 2014: 800/900 = 88.88% 2015: 900/1000 = 90% 2016: 600/700 = 85.71% In 2015, the pass percentage was the best for DPS. Incorrect Solution: c) 2015 Explanation: Yearly pass percentage: From 2013 to 2016 in order 2013: 900/1100 = 81.81% 2014: 800/900 = 88.88% 2015: 900/1000 = 90% 2016: 600/700 = 85.71% In 2015, the pass percentage was the best for DPS.

#### 29. Question

For DPS, which year was the best in terms of pass percentage?

Solution: c) 2015

Explanation:

Yearly pass percentage: From 2013 to 2016 in order

2013: 900/1100 = 81.81%

2014: 800/900 = 88.88%

2015: 900/1000 = 90%

2016: 600/700 = 85.71%

In 2015, the pass percentage was the best for DPS.

Solution: c) 2015

Explanation:

Yearly pass percentage: From 2013 to 2016 in order

2013: 900/1100 = 81.81%

2014: 800/900 = 88.88%

2015: 900/1000 = 90%

2016: 600/700 = 85.71%

In 2015, the pass percentage was the best for DPS.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points What is perimeter of the rectangle ? I. Perimeter of square is 84 cm and length of rectangle is equal is equal to side of square. II. The length of rectangle is 40% more than the breadth of rectangle. A) Only statement I is sufficient. B) Only statement II is sufficient. C) Either statement I or statement II is sufficient. D) Both statement I and II are sufficient. Correct Option D) Both statement I and II are sufficient. From I, Side of square = 84/4 = 21cm length of rectangle = 21 from II, let of breadth of rectangle = 5x and length = 5x 140/100 = 7x from I and II both, breadth of rectangle = 21/7x 5x = 15 perimeter of rectangle = (21 + 15)2 = 72 cm Both statement are required to find the answer. Incorrect Option D) Both statement I and II are sufficient. From I, Side of square = 84/4 = 21cm length of rectangle = 21 from II, let of breadth of rectangle = 5x and length = 5x 140/100 = 7x from I and II both, breadth of rectangle = 21/7x 5x = 15 perimeter of rectangle = (21 + 15)2 = 72 cm Both statement are required to find the answer.

#### 30. Question

What is perimeter of the rectangle ?

I. Perimeter of square is 84 cm and length of rectangle is equal is equal to side of square.

II. The length of rectangle is 40% more than the breadth of rectangle.

• A) Only statement I is sufficient.

• B) Only statement II is sufficient.

• C) Either statement I or statement II is sufficient.

• D) Both statement I and II are sufficient.

Option D) Both statement I and II are sufficient.

From I, Side of square = 84/4 = 21cm

length of rectangle = 21

from II, let of breadth of rectangle = 5x

and length = 5x * 140/100 = 7x

from I and II both,

breadth of rectangle = 21/7x * 5x = 15

perimeter of rectangle = (21 + 15)2 = 72 cm

Both statement are required to find the answer.

Option D) Both statement I and II are sufficient.

From I, Side of square = 84/4 = 21cm

length of rectangle = 21

from II, let of breadth of rectangle = 5x

and length = 5x * 140/100 = 7x

from I and II both,

breadth of rectangle = 21/7x * 5x = 15

perimeter of rectangle = (21 + 15)2 = 72 cm

Both statement are required to find the answer.

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