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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following assertions regarding the Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908): The movement witnessed significant participation from the Muslim peasantry in East Bengal, who actively supported the boycott of British goods. It led to the establishment of national educational institutions based on vernacular languages and an Indian-centric curriculum, consciously rejecting the existing colonial education system. The emphasis on ‘Atmasakti’ (self-reliance) during this period extended beyond economic self-sufficiency to encompass social reform and cultural regeneration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While some sections of Muslims did participate, the Swadeshi Movement faced challenges in mobilizing the Muslim peasantry in East Bengal. The British policy of ‘divide and rule’, the formation of the Muslim League (1906), and the propaganda that the partition would benefit Muslims in East Bengal (by creating a Muslim-majority province) led to a significant portion of the Muslim peasantry remaining aloof or even opposing the movement. Communal riots also occurred in some parts of East Bengal. Statement 2 is correct. A key constructive aspect of the Swadeshi Movement was the emphasis on national education. Institutions like the Bengal National College (with Aurobindo Ghose as Principal) and the National Council of Education were established. These aimed to provide education in vernacular languages, promote indigenous knowledge systems, technical education, and instill patriotic values, as a direct challenge to the colonial education system which was seen as denationalizing. Statement 3 is correct. ‘Atmasakti’ or self-reliance was a core theme propagated by leaders like Rabindranath Tagore during the Swadeshi Movement. This concept was not limited to economic self-sufficiency (through Swadeshi industries and boycott of foreign goods) but also encompassed broader ideas of social reform (e.g., critique of caste, upliftment of villages), cultural regeneration (through revival of indigenous art, literature, music), and building national strength from within. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While some sections of Muslims did participate, the Swadeshi Movement faced challenges in mobilizing the Muslim peasantry in East Bengal. The British policy of ‘divide and rule’, the formation of the Muslim League (1906), and the propaganda that the partition would benefit Muslims in East Bengal (by creating a Muslim-majority province) led to a significant portion of the Muslim peasantry remaining aloof or even opposing the movement. Communal riots also occurred in some parts of East Bengal. Statement 2 is correct. A key constructive aspect of the Swadeshi Movement was the emphasis on national education. Institutions like the Bengal National College (with Aurobindo Ghose as Principal) and the National Council of Education were established. These aimed to provide education in vernacular languages, promote indigenous knowledge systems, technical education, and instill patriotic values, as a direct challenge to the colonial education system which was seen as denationalizing. Statement 3 is correct. ‘Atmasakti’ or self-reliance was a core theme propagated by leaders like Rabindranath Tagore during the Swadeshi Movement. This concept was not limited to economic self-sufficiency (through Swadeshi industries and boycott of foreign goods) but also encompassed broader ideas of social reform (e.g., critique of caste, upliftment of villages), cultural regeneration (through revival of indigenous art, literature, music), and building national strength from within.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following assertions regarding the Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908):

• The movement witnessed significant participation from the Muslim peasantry in East Bengal, who actively supported the boycott of British goods.

• It led to the establishment of national educational institutions based on vernacular languages and an Indian-centric curriculum, consciously rejecting the existing colonial education system.

• The emphasis on ‘Atmasakti’ (self-reliance) during this period extended beyond economic self-sufficiency to encompass social reform and cultural regeneration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While some sections of Muslims did participate, the Swadeshi Movement faced challenges in mobilizing the Muslim peasantry in East Bengal. The British policy of ‘divide and rule’, the formation of the Muslim League (1906), and the propaganda that the partition would benefit Muslims in East Bengal (by creating a Muslim-majority province) led to a significant portion of the Muslim peasantry remaining aloof or even opposing the movement. Communal riots also occurred in some parts of East Bengal.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key constructive aspect of the Swadeshi Movement was the emphasis on national education. Institutions like the Bengal National College (with Aurobindo Ghose as Principal) and the National Council of Education were established. These aimed to provide education in vernacular languages, promote indigenous knowledge systems, technical education, and instill patriotic values, as a direct challenge to the colonial education system which was seen as denationalizing.

• Statement 3 is correct. ‘Atmasakti’ or self-reliance was a core theme propagated by leaders like Rabindranath Tagore during the Swadeshi Movement. This concept was not limited to economic self-sufficiency (through Swadeshi industries and boycott of foreign goods) but also encompassed broader ideas of social reform (e.g., critique of caste, upliftment of villages), cultural regeneration (through revival of indigenous art, literature, music), and building national strength from within.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919) launched by Mahatma Gandhi marked a significant departure in the Indian national movement by incorporating extra-constitutional methods of mass protest on a nationwide scale for the first time under his leadership. Statement II: The widespread and intense popular participation in the Rowlatt Satyagraha, including hartals and demonstrations, directly compelled the British government to repeal the Rowlatt Act immediately. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. While Gandhi had experimented with Satyagraha in South Africa and in localized struggles in India (Champaran, Kheda, Ahmedabad), the Rowlatt Satyagraha was his first attempt to launch a nationwide mass agitation using extra-constitutional methods like hartal (strike) and civil disobedience against an unjust law. This was a significant shift from the earlier Moderate methods of petitioning and marked the advent of Gandhian techniques on a national stage. Statement II is incorrect. Despite the widespread, enthusiastic, and often intense popular participation in the Rowlatt Satyagraha, which surprised both the British and many Indian leaders, the British government responded with brutal repression (culminating in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre). The Rowlatt Act was not repealed immediately as a direct consequence of the Satyagraha. In fact, the movement was called off by Gandhi due to the outbreak of violence in some areas. The Act remained on the statute book, though its provisions were seldom used. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. While Gandhi had experimented with Satyagraha in South Africa and in localized struggles in India (Champaran, Kheda, Ahmedabad), the Rowlatt Satyagraha was his first attempt to launch a nationwide mass agitation using extra-constitutional methods like hartal (strike) and civil disobedience against an unjust law. This was a significant shift from the earlier Moderate methods of petitioning and marked the advent of Gandhian techniques on a national stage. Statement II is incorrect. Despite the widespread, enthusiastic, and often intense popular participation in the Rowlatt Satyagraha, which surprised both the British and many Indian leaders, the British government responded with brutal repression (culminating in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre). The Rowlatt Act was not repealed immediately as a direct consequence of the Satyagraha. In fact, the movement was called off by Gandhi due to the outbreak of violence in some areas. The Act remained on the statute book, though its provisions were seldom used.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919) launched by Mahatma Gandhi marked a significant departure in the Indian national movement by incorporating extra-constitutional methods of mass protest on a nationwide scale for the first time under his leadership.

Statement II: The widespread and intense popular participation in the Rowlatt Satyagraha, including hartals and demonstrations, directly compelled the British government to repeal the Rowlatt Act immediately.

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. While Gandhi had experimented with Satyagraha in South Africa and in localized struggles in India (Champaran, Kheda, Ahmedabad), the Rowlatt Satyagraha was his first attempt to launch a nationwide mass agitation using extra-constitutional methods like hartal (strike) and civil disobedience against an unjust law. This was a significant shift from the earlier Moderate methods of petitioning and marked the advent of Gandhian techniques on a national stage.

• Statement II is incorrect. Despite the widespread, enthusiastic, and often intense popular participation in the Rowlatt Satyagraha, which surprised both the British and many Indian leaders, the British government responded with brutal repression (culminating in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre). The Rowlatt Act was not repealed immediately as a direct consequence of the Satyagraha. In fact, the movement was called off by Gandhi due to the outbreak of violence in some areas. The Act remained on the statute book, though its provisions were seldom used.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following demands that were part of the “Eleven Points” ultimatum presented by Mahatma Gandhi to Lord Irwin in January 1930 before launching the Civil Disobedience Movement: Complete abolition of the salt tax. Grant of Dominion Status to India. Release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence. Fifty percent reduction in land revenue. Which of the above were included in Gandhi’s Eleven Points? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B Gandhi’s Eleven Points were a mix of general welfare demands, specific bourgeois demands, and peasant demands. They included: Reduction of land revenue by 50 percent. (Correct) Abolition of the salt tax. (Correct) Reduction of military expenditure by 50 percent. Reduction of salaries of higher-grade civil servants by 50 percent. Protection for Indian textiles and coastal shipping. Reforms in the CID (Criminal Investigation Department). Total prohibition of intoxicants. Release of all political prisoners (except those convicted of violence was a common nuance in such demands, making this largely correct in spirit). (Correct) Changes in the Arms Act allowing citizens to bear arms for self-defense. Acceptance of the Postal Reservation Bill. Lowering the rupee-sterling exchange ratio. Demand 2 (Grant of Dominion Status to India) was NOT part of the Eleven Points ultimatum. By this time (post-Lahore Congress 1929 which declared Poorna Swaraj as the goal), demanding Dominion Status would have been a step back. The Eleven Points were specific grievances whose acceptance could have potentially averted Civil Disobedience, but they were not a demand for a constitutional status like Dominion Status. Incorrect Solution: B Gandhi’s Eleven Points were a mix of general welfare demands, specific bourgeois demands, and peasant demands. They included: Reduction of land revenue by 50 percent. (Correct) Abolition of the salt tax. (Correct) Reduction of military expenditure by 50 percent. Reduction of salaries of higher-grade civil servants by 50 percent. Protection for Indian textiles and coastal shipping. Reforms in the CID (Criminal Investigation Department). Total prohibition of intoxicants. Release of all political prisoners (except those convicted of violence was a common nuance in such demands, making this largely correct in spirit). (Correct) Changes in the Arms Act allowing citizens to bear arms for self-defense. Acceptance of the Postal Reservation Bill. Lowering the rupee-sterling exchange ratio. Demand 2 (Grant of Dominion Status to India) was NOT part of the Eleven Points ultimatum. By this time (post-Lahore Congress 1929 which declared Poorna Swaraj as the goal), demanding Dominion Status would have been a step back. The Eleven Points were specific grievances whose acceptance could have potentially averted Civil Disobedience, but they were not a demand for a constitutional status like Dominion Status.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following demands that were part of the “Eleven Points” ultimatum presented by Mahatma Gandhi to Lord Irwin in January 1930 before launching the Civil Disobedience Movement:

• Complete abolition of the salt tax.

• Grant of Dominion Status to India.

• Release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence.

• Fifty percent reduction in land revenue.

Which of the above were included in Gandhi’s Eleven Points?

• (a) 1 and 4 only

• (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

Gandhi’s Eleven Points were a mix of general welfare demands, specific bourgeois demands, and peasant demands. They included:

• Reduction of land revenue by 50 percent. (Correct)

• Abolition of the salt tax. (Correct)

• Reduction of military expenditure by 50 percent.

• Reduction of salaries of higher-grade civil servants by 50 percent.

• Protection for Indian textiles and coastal shipping.

• Reforms in the CID (Criminal Investigation Department).

• Total prohibition of intoxicants.

• Release of all political prisoners (except those convicted of violence was a common nuance in such demands, making this largely correct in spirit). (Correct)

• Changes in the Arms Act allowing citizens to bear arms for self-defense.

• Acceptance of the Postal Reservation Bill.

• Lowering the rupee-sterling exchange ratio.

• Demand 2 (Grant of Dominion Status to India) was NOT part of the Eleven Points ultimatum. By this time (post-Lahore Congress 1929 which declared Poorna Swaraj as the goal), demanding Dominion Status would have been a step back. The Eleven Points were specific grievances whose acceptance could have potentially averted Civil Disobedience, but they were not a demand for a constitutional status like Dominion Status.

Solution: B

Gandhi’s Eleven Points were a mix of general welfare demands, specific bourgeois demands, and peasant demands. They included:

• Reduction of land revenue by 50 percent. (Correct)

• Abolition of the salt tax. (Correct)

• Reduction of military expenditure by 50 percent.

• Reduction of salaries of higher-grade civil servants by 50 percent.

• Protection for Indian textiles and coastal shipping.

• Reforms in the CID (Criminal Investigation Department).

• Total prohibition of intoxicants.

• Release of all political prisoners (except those convicted of violence was a common nuance in such demands, making this largely correct in spirit). (Correct)

• Changes in the Arms Act allowing citizens to bear arms for self-defense.

• Acceptance of the Postal Reservation Bill.

• Lowering the rupee-sterling exchange ratio.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points The Communal Award announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald in 1932 was vehemently opposed by Mahatma Gandhi, leading to his fast unto death, primarily because: (a) It granted separate electorates to Muslims, Sikhs, and Anglo-Indians, which he believed would permanently divide Indian society. (b) It proposed the creation of autonomous Muslim-majority provinces, effectively paving the way for the partition of India. (c) It extended the principle of separate electorates to the Depressed Classes (Scheduled Castes), which Gandhi feared would vivisect the Hindu community and perpetuate untouchability. (d) It allocated a disproportionately large share of seats in provincial legislatures to European commercial interests. Correct Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect as the *primary* reason for Gandhi’s fast. Separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, etc., were already a feature since the Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) and Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1919). While Gandhi was opposed to separate electorates in principle, his immediate and intense opposition leading to the fast was specifically against their extension to the Depressed Classes. Option (b) is incorrect. The Communal Award dealt with representation in legislatures, not the creation of autonomous Muslim-majority provinces in a way that directly paved the way for partition at that point. The demand for Pakistan came later. Option (c) is correct. Mahatma Gandhi’s primary objection to the Communal Award, leading to his “fast unto death” in Yerwada Jail, was its provision for separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (now Scheduled Castes). He viewed this as a political separation of the Depressed Classes from the mainstream Hindu community, which he believed would not only “vivisect” Hinduism but also hinder the ongoing efforts for the eradication of untouchability by creating a permanent political barrier. He argued it would perpetuate their social segregation. This led to the Poona Pact. Option (d) is incorrect. While representation for special interests, including Europeans, was a feature of British constitutional arrangements, the specific and most contentious issue that triggered Gandhi’s fast was the provision for the Depressed Classes. Incorrect Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect as the *primary* reason for Gandhi’s fast. Separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, etc., were already a feature since the Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) and Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1919). While Gandhi was opposed to separate electorates in principle, his immediate and intense opposition leading to the fast was specifically against their extension to the Depressed Classes. Option (b) is incorrect. The Communal Award dealt with representation in legislatures, not the creation of autonomous Muslim-majority provinces in a way that directly paved the way for partition at that point. The demand for Pakistan came later. Option (c) is correct. Mahatma Gandhi’s primary objection to the Communal Award, leading to his “fast unto death” in Yerwada Jail, was its provision for separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (now Scheduled Castes). He viewed this as a political separation of the Depressed Classes from the mainstream Hindu community, which he believed would not only “vivisect” Hinduism but also hinder the ongoing efforts for the eradication of untouchability by creating a permanent political barrier. He argued it would perpetuate their social segregation. This led to the Poona Pact. Option (d) is incorrect. While representation for special interests, including Europeans, was a feature of British constitutional arrangements, the specific and most contentious issue that triggered Gandhi’s fast was the provision for the Depressed Classes.

#### 4. Question

The Communal Award announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald in 1932 was vehemently opposed by Mahatma Gandhi, leading to his fast unto death, primarily because:

• (a) It granted separate electorates to Muslims, Sikhs, and Anglo-Indians, which he believed would permanently divide Indian society.

• (b) It proposed the creation of autonomous Muslim-majority provinces, effectively paving the way for the partition of India.

• (c) It extended the principle of separate electorates to the Depressed Classes (Scheduled Castes), which Gandhi feared would vivisect the Hindu community and perpetuate untouchability.

• (d) It allocated a disproportionately large share of seats in provincial legislatures to European commercial interests.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect as the *primary* reason for Gandhi’s fast. Separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, etc., were already a feature since the Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) and Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1919). While Gandhi was opposed to separate electorates in principle, his immediate and intense opposition leading to the fast was specifically against their extension to the Depressed Classes.

• Option (b) is incorrect. The Communal Award dealt with representation in legislatures, not the creation of autonomous Muslim-majority provinces in a way that directly paved the way for partition at that point. The demand for Pakistan came later.

• Option (c) is correct. Mahatma Gandhi’s primary objection to the Communal Award, leading to his “fast unto death” in Yerwada Jail, was its provision for separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (now Scheduled Castes). He viewed this as a political separation of the Depressed Classes from the mainstream Hindu community, which he believed would not only “vivisect” Hinduism but also hinder the ongoing efforts for the eradication of untouchability by creating a permanent political barrier. He argued it would perpetuate their social segregation. This led to the Poona Pact.

• Option (d) is incorrect. While representation for special interests, including Europeans, was a feature of British constitutional arrangements, the specific and most contentious issue that triggered Gandhi’s fast was the provision for the Depressed Classes.

Solution: C

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following features of the Government of India Act, 1935: It introduced dyarchy at the Centre and abolished it in the provinces. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation, which came into immediate and full operation. It extended the franchise significantly, but separate electorates were completely abolished. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Government of India Act, 1935, abolished dyarchy in the provinces (introducing provincial autonomy) but proposed its introduction at the Centre. However, the federal part of the Act, including dyarchy at the Centre, never actually came into operation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act provided for an All-India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and Princely States. However, the Federation could only come into being if a sufficient number of Princely States acceded to it. This condition was never met, as most Princely States were unwilling to join. Therefore, the federal part of the Act, including the federal legislature and executive, did not come into operation. Provincial autonomy under the Act was implemented in 1937. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act did extend the franchise, enfranchising about 14% of the population of British India. However, it did not abolish separate electorates; in fact, it continued and even extended them for various communities (Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, Europeans) and interests. The Communal Award’s provisions regarding representation were largely incorporated. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Government of India Act, 1935, abolished dyarchy in the provinces (introducing provincial autonomy) but proposed its introduction at the Centre. However, the federal part of the Act, including dyarchy at the Centre, never actually came into operation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act provided for an All-India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and Princely States. However, the Federation could only come into being if a sufficient number of Princely States acceded to it. This condition was never met, as most Princely States were unwilling to join. Therefore, the federal part of the Act, including the federal legislature and executive, did not come into operation. Provincial autonomy under the Act was implemented in 1937. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act did extend the franchise, enfranchising about 14% of the population of British India. However, it did not abolish separate electorates; in fact, it continued and even extended them for various communities (Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, Europeans) and interests. The Communal Award’s provisions regarding representation were largely incorporated.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following features of the Government of India Act, 1935:

• It introduced dyarchy at the Centre and abolished it in the provinces.

• It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation, which came into immediate and full operation.

• It extended the franchise significantly, but separate electorates were completely abolished.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Government of India Act, 1935, abolished dyarchy in the provinces (introducing provincial autonomy) but proposed its introduction at the Centre. However, the federal part of the Act, including dyarchy at the Centre, never actually came into operation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act provided for an All-India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and Princely States. However, the Federation could only come into being if a sufficient number of Princely States acceded to it. This condition was never met, as most Princely States were unwilling to join. Therefore, the federal part of the Act, including the federal legislature and executive, did not come into operation. Provincial autonomy under the Act was implemented in 1937.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act did extend the franchise, enfranchising about 14% of the population of British India. However, it did not abolish separate electorates; in fact, it continued and even extended them for various communities (Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, Europeans) and interests. The Communal Award’s provisions regarding representation were largely incorporated.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed a constitutional framework for India that included: (a) A complete partition of India into two independent nations with immediate effect. (b) A loose confederation of autonomous provinces with a weak central government. (c) The formation of a Union of India with provinces grouped into sections based on religious majority. (d) The direct transfer of power to the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League jointly. Correct Solution: C The Cabinet Mission Plan proposed a Union of India with a weak Centre having powers only over defense, foreign affairs, and communications. Provinces were largely autonomous, grouped into three sections based on religious composition. The aim was to preserve India’s unity while accommodating Muslim League’s concerns—not to create Pakistan. Thus, it envisioned a loose federation, not partition or direct power transfer to political parties. Incorrect Solution: C The Cabinet Mission Plan proposed a Union of India with a weak Centre having powers only over defense, foreign affairs, and communications. Provinces were largely autonomous, grouped into three sections based on religious composition. The aim was to preserve India’s unity while accommodating Muslim League’s concerns—not to create Pakistan. Thus, it envisioned a loose federation, not partition or direct power transfer to political parties.

#### 6. Question

The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed a constitutional framework for India that included:

• (a) A complete partition of India into two independent nations with immediate effect.

• (b) A loose confederation of autonomous provinces with a weak central government.

• (c) The formation of a Union of India with provinces grouped into sections based on religious majority.

• (d) The direct transfer of power to the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League jointly.

Solution: C

The Cabinet Mission Plan proposed a Union of India with a weak Centre having powers only over defense, foreign affairs, and communications. Provinces were largely autonomous, grouped into three sections based on religious composition. The aim was to preserve India’s unity while accommodating Muslim League’s concerns—not to create Pakistan. Thus, it envisioned a loose federation, not partition or direct power transfer to political parties.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following events is NOT directly associated with the Quit India Movement of 1942? (a) Launching of the 'Do or Die' slogan by Mahatma Gandhi. (b) Establishment of parallel governments in some parts of India. (c) Negotiations between the Congress and the Muslim League to form an interim government. (d) Widespread arrests of prominent Congress leaders. Correct Solution: C Negotiations for Interim Government Not Directly Linked to Quit India Movement The Quit India Movement of 1942 was a pivotal moment in India’s struggle for independence, marked by a fervent call for the immediate end of British rule. While several significant events and actions were directly associated with this mass uprising, negotiations between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League specifically aimed at forming an interim government were not a direct outcome or a characteristic feature of the movement itself. Launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8, 1942, the Quit India Movement was a spontaneous and widespread protest that followed the failure of the Cripps Mission, which had offered limited self-government after World War II but did not meet the demand for immediate independence. Key aspects directly associated with the Quit India Movement include: Launching of the ‘Do or Die’ slogan: Mahatma Gandhi gave the iconic call to ‘Do or Die’ during his speech at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay (now Mumbai), urging Indians to make every effort to achieve independence or die in the process. This slogan became the mantra for the movement. Establishment of parallel governments: In several parts of the country, notably in Ballia, Tamluk, and Satara, parallel governments were established by theशनers, challenging British authority at the local level. These governments undertook administrative functions and symbolized the people’s resolve for self-rule. Widespread arrests of prominent Congress leaders: Immediately following the launch of the movement on August 9, 1942, the British government undertook a swift crackdown, arresting Gandhi and almost the entire top leadership of the Indian National Congress. These arrests, rather than stifling the movement, led to leaderless but widespread protests across the country. Incorrect Solution: C Negotiations for Interim Government Not Directly Linked to Quit India Movement The Quit India Movement of 1942 was a pivotal moment in India’s struggle for independence, marked by a fervent call for the immediate end of British rule. While several significant events and actions were directly associated with this mass uprising, negotiations between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League specifically aimed at forming an interim government were not a direct outcome or a characteristic feature of the movement itself. Launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8, 1942, the Quit India Movement was a spontaneous and widespread protest that followed the failure of the Cripps Mission, which had offered limited self-government after World War II but did not meet the demand for immediate independence. Key aspects directly associated with the Quit India Movement include: Launching of the ‘Do or Die’ slogan: Mahatma Gandhi gave the iconic call to ‘Do or Die’ during his speech at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay (now Mumbai), urging Indians to make every effort to achieve independence or die in the process. This slogan became the mantra for the movement. Establishment of parallel governments: In several parts of the country, notably in Ballia, Tamluk, and Satara, parallel governments were established by theशनers, challenging British authority at the local level. These governments undertook administrative functions and symbolized the people’s resolve for self-rule. Widespread arrests of prominent Congress leaders: Immediately following the launch of the movement on August 9, 1942, the British government undertook a swift crackdown, arresting Gandhi and almost the entire top leadership of the Indian National Congress. These arrests, rather than stifling the movement, led to leaderless but widespread protests across the country.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following events is NOT directly associated with the Quit India Movement of 1942?

• (a) Launching of the 'Do or Die' slogan by Mahatma Gandhi.

• (b) Establishment of parallel governments in some parts of India.

• (c) Negotiations between the Congress and the Muslim League to form an interim government.

• (d) Widespread arrests of prominent Congress leaders.

Solution: C

Negotiations for Interim Government Not Directly Linked to Quit India Movement

The Quit India Movement of 1942 was a pivotal moment in India’s struggle for independence, marked by a fervent call for the immediate end of British rule. While several significant events and actions were directly associated with this mass uprising, negotiations between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League specifically aimed at forming an interim government were not a direct outcome or a characteristic feature of the movement itself.

Launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8, 1942, the Quit India Movement was a spontaneous and widespread protest that followed the failure of the Cripps Mission, which had offered limited self-government after World War II but did not meet the demand for immediate independence.

Key aspects directly associated with the Quit India Movement include:

• Launching of the ‘Do or Die’ slogan: Mahatma Gandhi gave the iconic call to ‘Do or Die’ during his speech at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay (now Mumbai), urging Indians to make every effort to achieve independence or die in the process. This slogan became the mantra for the movement.

• Establishment of parallel governments: In several parts of the country, notably in Ballia, Tamluk, and Satara, parallel governments were established by theशनers, challenging British authority at the local level. These governments undertook administrative functions and symbolized the people’s resolve for self-rule.

• Widespread arrests of prominent Congress leaders: Immediately following the launch of the movement on August 9, 1942, the British government undertook a swift crackdown, arresting Gandhi and almost the entire top leadership of the Indian National Congress. These arrests, rather than stifling the movement, led to leaderless but widespread protests across the country.

Solution: C

Negotiations for Interim Government Not Directly Linked to Quit India Movement

Key aspects directly associated with the Quit India Movement include:

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Karachi Resolution of the Indian National Congress in 1931: It advocated for the abolition of the zamindari system. It outlined fundamental rights including the right to free elementary education. It proposed the nationalization of key industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D It advocated for the abolition of the zamindari system. The Karachi Resolution addressed the agrarian structure and the burdens faced by peasants. While the resolution primarily called for a substantial reduction in land revenue and rent and exemption from rent for uneconomic holdings, the broader aim of land reforms and addressing the exploitation of peasants inherent in the zamindari system was a significant aspect of its economic programme. Many interpretations and historical accounts link the spirit and intent of the Karachi Resolution’s agrarian reforms to the eventual abolition of the zamindari system in independent India. It laid the groundwork for future land reform policies by recognizing the need to alleviate the burden on the peasantry and reform the land tenure system. It outlined fundamental rights including the right to free elementary education. This statement is correct. The Karachi Resolution included a detailed section on Fundamental Rights, guaranteeing various civil liberties and political rights to the citizens of independent India. Among the rights explicitly mentioned were freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly and association, equality before the law, religious neutrality of the state, and the right to free and compulsory primary education. It proposed the nationalization of key industries. This statement is also correct. The economic programme outlined in the Karachi Resolution advocated for state ownership or control of key industries, mines, and means of transport. This reflected a move towards a more socialist orientation in the economic policy of the Congress and highlighted the intent to ensure that key sectors of the economy would be under public control for the benefit of the masses and to prevent exploitation. Incorrect Solution: D It advocated for the abolition of the zamindari system. The Karachi Resolution addressed the agrarian structure and the burdens faced by peasants. While the resolution primarily called for a substantial reduction in land revenue and rent and exemption from rent for uneconomic holdings, the broader aim of land reforms and addressing the exploitation of peasants inherent in the zamindari system was a significant aspect of its economic programme. Many interpretations and historical accounts link the spirit and intent of the Karachi Resolution’s agrarian reforms to the eventual abolition of the zamindari system in independent India. It laid the groundwork for future land reform policies by recognizing the need to alleviate the burden on the peasantry and reform the land tenure system. It outlined fundamental rights including the right to free elementary education. This statement is correct. The Karachi Resolution included a detailed section on Fundamental Rights, guaranteeing various civil liberties and political rights to the citizens of independent India. Among the rights explicitly mentioned were freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly and association, equality before the law, religious neutrality of the state, and the right to free and compulsory primary education. It proposed the nationalization of key industries. This statement is also correct. The economic programme outlined in the Karachi Resolution advocated for state ownership or control of key industries, mines, and means of transport. This reflected a move towards a more socialist orientation in the economic policy of the Congress and highlighted the intent to ensure that key sectors of the economy would be under public control for the benefit of the masses and to prevent exploitation.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Karachi Resolution of the Indian National Congress in 1931:

• It advocated for the abolition of the zamindari system.

• It outlined fundamental rights including the right to free elementary education.

• It proposed the nationalization of key industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

It advocated for the abolition of the zamindari system. The Karachi Resolution addressed the agrarian structure and the burdens faced by peasants. While the resolution primarily called for a substantial reduction in land revenue and rent and exemption from rent for uneconomic holdings, the broader aim of land reforms and addressing the exploitation of peasants inherent in the zamindari system was a significant aspect of its economic programme. Many interpretations and historical accounts link the spirit and intent of the Karachi Resolution’s agrarian reforms to the eventual abolition of the zamindari system in independent India. It laid the groundwork for future land reform policies by recognizing the need to alleviate the burden on the peasantry and reform the land tenure system.

It outlined fundamental rights including the right to free elementary education. This statement is correct. The Karachi Resolution included a detailed section on Fundamental Rights, guaranteeing various civil liberties and political rights to the citizens of independent India. Among the rights explicitly mentioned were freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly and association, equality before the law, religious neutrality of the state, and the right to free and compulsory primary education.

It proposed the nationalization of key industries. This statement is also correct. The economic programme outlined in the Karachi Resolution advocated for state ownership or control of key industries, mines, and means of transport. This reflected a move towards a more socialist orientation in the economic policy of the Congress and highlighted the intent to ensure that key sectors of the economy would be under public control for the benefit of the masses and to prevent exploitation.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following personalities is known for their involvement in the Meerut Conspiracy Case (1929) that aimed to highlight the exploitation of workers by the colonial regime? (a) Bhagat Singh (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) S.A. Dange (d) Lala Lajpat Rai Correct Solution: C S.A. Dange, a prominent trade unionist and communist leader, was a key figure among those arrested and tried in the Meerut Conspiracy Case of 1929. The Meerut Conspiracy Case, launched by the British colonial government in March 1929, involved the arrest of a large number of trade unionists and communist leaders across India. The case was initiated to curb the growing influence of communist ideas and the working-class movement, which were seen as a threat to British rule. The accused were charged with conspiring to “deprive the King Emperor of his sovereignty of British India.” Among the prominent individuals targeted in this case was S.A. Dange, who was a leading figure in the burgeoning trade union movement and a founding member of the Communist Party of India. Dange, along with other communist and labour leaders, including Muzaffar Ahmad, Shaukat Usmani, Philip Spratt, and Benjamin Bradley, were arrested and transported to Meerut for trial. The trial, which lasted for over four years, gained significant international attention and highlighted the British government’s efforts to suppress dissent and the working-class movement in India. Although the case aimed to isolate the communist leaders, it inadvertently provided them with a platform to propagate their ideas and expose the exploitative nature of the colonial regime and the capitalist system. Bhagat Singh: Bhagat Singh was a revolutionary nationalist primarily associated with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) and was involved in the Lahore Conspiracy Case, which also began in 1929. His activities and trial were distinct from the Meerut Conspiracy Case. Jawaharlal Nehru: While Jawaharlal Nehru, a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress, showed support for the accused in the Meerut Conspiracy Case and even appeared as a defense lawyer, he was not among those arrested and tried in the case. His involvement was in the capacity of providing legal and political support to the undertrials. Lala Lajpat Rai: Lala Lajpat Rai, a nationalist leader, passed away in November 1928, several months before the Meerut Conspiracy Case began in March 1929. Therefore, he could not have been involved in the case. Incorrect Solution: C S.A. Dange, a prominent trade unionist and communist leader, was a key figure among those arrested and tried in the Meerut Conspiracy Case of 1929. The Meerut Conspiracy Case, launched by the British colonial government in March 1929, involved the arrest of a large number of trade unionists and communist leaders across India. The case was initiated to curb the growing influence of communist ideas and the working-class movement, which were seen as a threat to British rule. The accused were charged with conspiring to “deprive the King Emperor of his sovereignty of British India.” Among the prominent individuals targeted in this case was S.A. Dange, who was a leading figure in the burgeoning trade union movement and a founding member of the Communist Party of India. Dange, along with other communist and labour leaders, including Muzaffar Ahmad, Shaukat Usmani, Philip Spratt, and Benjamin Bradley, were arrested and transported to Meerut for trial. The trial, which lasted for over four years, gained significant international attention and highlighted the British government’s efforts to suppress dissent and the working-class movement in India. Although the case aimed to isolate the communist leaders, it inadvertently provided them with a platform to propagate their ideas and expose the exploitative nature of the colonial regime and the capitalist system. Bhagat Singh: Bhagat Singh was a revolutionary nationalist primarily associated with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) and was involved in the Lahore Conspiracy Case, which also began in 1929. His activities and trial were distinct from the Meerut Conspiracy Case. Jawaharlal Nehru: While Jawaharlal Nehru, a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress, showed support for the accused in the Meerut Conspiracy Case and even appeared as a defense lawyer, he was not among those arrested and tried in the case. His involvement was in the capacity of providing legal and political support to the undertrials. Lala Lajpat Rai: Lala Lajpat Rai, a nationalist leader, passed away in November 1928, several months before the Meerut Conspiracy Case began in March 1929. Therefore, he could not have been involved in the case.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following personalities is known for their involvement in the Meerut Conspiracy Case (1929) that aimed to highlight the exploitation of workers by the colonial regime?

• (a) Bhagat Singh

• (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

• (c) S.A. Dange

• (d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Solution: C

S.A. Dange, a prominent trade unionist and communist leader, was a key figure among those arrested and tried in the Meerut Conspiracy Case of 1929.

The Meerut Conspiracy Case, launched by the British colonial government in March 1929, involved the arrest of a large number of trade unionists and communist leaders across India. The case was initiated to curb the growing influence of communist ideas and the working-class movement, which were seen as a threat to British rule. The accused were charged with conspiring to “deprive the King Emperor of his sovereignty of British India.”

Among the prominent individuals targeted in this case was S.A. Dange, who was a leading figure in the burgeoning trade union movement and a founding member of the Communist Party of India. Dange, along with other communist and labour leaders, including Muzaffar Ahmad, Shaukat Usmani, Philip Spratt, and Benjamin Bradley, were arrested and transported to Meerut for trial.

The trial, which lasted for over four years, gained significant international attention and highlighted the British government’s efforts to suppress dissent and the working-class movement in India. Although the case aimed to isolate the communist leaders, it inadvertently provided them with a platform to propagate their ideas and expose the exploitative nature of the colonial regime and the capitalist system.

• Bhagat Singh: Bhagat Singh was a revolutionary nationalist primarily associated with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) and was involved in the Lahore Conspiracy Case, which also began in 1929. His activities and trial were distinct from the Meerut Conspiracy Case.

• Jawaharlal Nehru: While Jawaharlal Nehru, a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress, showed support for the accused in the Meerut Conspiracy Case and even appeared as a defense lawyer, he was not among those arrested and tried in the case. His involvement was in the capacity of providing legal and political support to the undertrials.

• Lala Lajpat Rai: Lala Lajpat Rai, a nationalist leader, passed away in November 1928, several months before the Meerut Conspiracy Case began in March 1929. Therefore, he could not have been involved in the case.

Solution: C

S.A. Dange, a prominent trade unionist and communist leader, was a key figure among those arrested and tried in the Meerut Conspiracy Case of 1929.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Match the following personalities with the movements or events they are primarily associated with: Personality Movement/Event Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 1. Quit India Movement Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 2. Formation of the Forward Bloc Subhas Chandra Bose 3. Red Shirt Movement Aruna Asaf Ali 4. Bardoli Satyagraha Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 Correct Solution: A Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan: Known as the “Frontier Gandhi,” he was the founder of the Khudai Khidmatgar movement, also known as the Red Shirt Movement (3). He was a staunch follower of Mahatma Gandhi’s principles of non-violence and worked extensively in the North-West Frontier Province. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: A prominent leader of the Indian National Congress, Sardar Patel is famously associated with the Bardoli Satyagraha (4) of 1928. He played a crucial role in organizing the peasants against the arbitrary increase in land revenue by the British government, and his leadership in this movement earned him the title ‘Sardar’ from the women of Bardoli. Subhas Chandra Bose: A charismatic nationalist leader, Subhas Chandra Bose’s primary association from the given options is the Formation of the Forward Bloc (2) in 1939. He formed this political party within the Congress after resigning from the presidency of the Indian National Congress due to ideological differences with Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress High Command. Aruna Asaf Ali: A अरुणाभारतीय independence activist, Aruna Asaf Ali is best known for her role in the Quit India Movement (1) of 1942. She is particularly remembered for hoisting the Indian flag at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay during the movement, a brave act in the face of severe repression by the British. Incorrect Solution: A Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan: Known as the “Frontier Gandhi,” he was the founder of the Khudai Khidmatgar movement, also known as the Red Shirt Movement (3). He was a staunch follower of Mahatma Gandhi’s principles of non-violence and worked extensively in the North-West Frontier Province. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: A prominent leader of the Indian National Congress, Sardar Patel is famously associated with the Bardoli Satyagraha (4) of 1928. He played a crucial role in organizing the peasants against the arbitrary increase in land revenue by the British government, and his leadership in this movement earned him the title ‘Sardar’ from the women of Bardoli. Subhas Chandra Bose: A charismatic nationalist leader, Subhas Chandra Bose’s primary association from the given options is the Formation of the Forward Bloc (2) in 1939. He formed this political party within the Congress after resigning from the presidency of the Indian National Congress due to ideological differences with Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress High Command. Aruna Asaf Ali: A अरुणाभारतीय independence activist, Aruna Asaf Ali is best known for her role in the Quit India Movement (1) of 1942. She is particularly remembered for hoisting the Indian flag at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay during the movement, a brave act in the face of severe repression by the British.

#### 10. Question

Match the following personalities with the movements or events they are primarily associated with:

Personality Movement/Event

• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 1. Quit India Movement

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 2. Formation of the Forward Bloc

• Subhas Chandra Bose 3. Red Shirt Movement

• Aruna Asaf Ali 4. Bardoli Satyagraha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

• (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

• (c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

• (d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Solution: A

• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan: Known as the “Frontier Gandhi,” he was the founder of the Khudai Khidmatgar movement, also known as the Red Shirt Movement (3). He was a staunch follower of Mahatma Gandhi’s principles of non-violence and worked extensively in the North-West Frontier Province.

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: A prominent leader of the Indian National Congress, Sardar Patel is famously associated with the Bardoli Satyagraha (4) of 1928. He played a crucial role in organizing the peasants against the arbitrary increase in land revenue by the British government, and his leadership in this movement earned him the title ‘Sardar’ from the women of Bardoli.

• Subhas Chandra Bose: A charismatic nationalist leader, Subhas Chandra Bose’s primary association from the given options is the Formation of the Forward Bloc (2) in 1939. He formed this political party within the Congress after resigning from the presidency of the Indian National Congress due to ideological differences with Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress High Command.

• Aruna Asaf Ali: A अरुणाभारतीय independence activist, Aruna Asaf Ali is best known for her role in the Quit India Movement (1) of 1942. She is particularly remembered for hoisting the Indian flag at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay during the movement, a brave act in the face of severe repression by the British.

Solution: A

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following: Tamralipta Jatiya Sarkar Talcher Chasi Maulia Satara Prati Sarkar How many of the above places were the ‘parallel governments’ formed during the Quit India Movement? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : C The August Revolution or the Quit India Movement of 1942 evoked various trends and responses among the masses. One of them was the formation of parallel governments. Parallel governments were established at Ballia , UP- this was the first parallel government proclaimed under the leadership of Chittu Pandey. Tamluk, Bengal – here it was established in 1942 and set up its own departments like law and order, health , education and Agriculture. It also undertook cyclone relief work, set up courts and even formed Vidyut Vahini; it was called Tamralipta Jatiya Sarkar. Satara, Maharashtra the longest running parallel government was formed in Satara under the leadership of Nani Patil ; the government set up village libraries, organised Gandhi marriages and peoples court. Talcher, Odisha – the jatiya Sarkar here was called Chasi Maulia or Mazdoor Raj; it was set up on the basis of an adult franchise in each village, block, pargana and subdivision. Satara Prati Sarkar was set up in Maharashtra and continued till 1946 in spite of British repression; its activities included people’s courts, and various type of armed activities and constructive programs. Azamgarh Ghazipur Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution : C The August Revolution or the Quit India Movement of 1942 evoked various trends and responses among the masses. One of them was the formation of parallel governments. Parallel governments were established at Ballia , UP- this was the first parallel government proclaimed under the leadership of Chittu Pandey. Tamluk, Bengal – here it was established in 1942 and set up its own departments like law and order, health , education and Agriculture. It also undertook cyclone relief work, set up courts and even formed Vidyut Vahini; it was called Tamralipta Jatiya Sarkar. Satara, Maharashtra the longest running parallel government was formed in Satara under the leadership of Nani Patil ; the government set up village libraries, organised Gandhi marriages and peoples court. Talcher, Odisha – the jatiya Sarkar here was called Chasi Maulia or Mazdoor Raj; it was set up on the basis of an adult franchise in each village, block, pargana and subdivision. Satara Prati Sarkar was set up in Maharashtra and continued till 1946 in spite of British repression; its activities included people’s courts, and various type of armed activities and constructive programs. Azamgarh Ghazipur Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following:

• Tamralipta Jatiya Sarkar

• Talcher Chasi Maulia

• Satara Prati Sarkar

How many of the above places were the ‘parallel governments’ formed during the Quit India Movement?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : C

The August Revolution or the Quit India Movement of 1942 evoked various trends and responses among the masses. One of them was the formation of parallel governments. Parallel governments were established at

• Ballia , UP- this was the first parallel government proclaimed under the leadership of Chittu Pandey.

• Tamluk, Bengal – here it was established in 1942 and set up its own departments like law and order, health , education and Agriculture. It also undertook cyclone relief work, set up courts and even formed Vidyut Vahini; it was called Tamralipta Jatiya Sarkar.

• Satara, Maharashtra the longest running parallel government was formed in Satara under the leadership of Nani Patil ; the government set up village libraries, organised Gandhi marriages and peoples court.

• Talcher, Odisha – the jatiya Sarkar here was called Chasi Maulia or Mazdoor Raj; it was set up on the basis of an adult franchise in each village, block, pargana and subdivision.

• Satara Prati Sarkar was set up in Maharashtra and continued till 1946 in spite of British repression; its activities included people’s courts, and various type of armed activities and constructive programs.

• Azamgarh

• Ghazipur

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution : C

• Ballia , UP- this was the first parallel government proclaimed under the leadership of Chittu Pandey.

• Talcher, Odisha – the jatiya Sarkar here was called Chasi Maulia or Mazdoor Raj; it was set up on the basis of an adult franchise in each village, block, pargana and subdivision.

• Azamgarh

• Ghazipur

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Regarding August Offer 1940, consider the following statements : It promised a full transfer of power only if all major parties jointly accepted it. It provided for a constituent assembly with only Indian members. It proposed expansion of Viceroy’s Council with inclusion of Indian political representatives. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: C Viceroy Linlithgow put forward the August Offer on August 8, 1940. It did not dealt with full transfer of power but promised a dominion status for India with participation by Indians Dominion status would be provided after victory in the war. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The August Offer promised that the British government would introduce a representative Constituent Body consisting of mainly Indians. The Assembly would frame a new constitution for India in the post war period and would decide subject matters of the constitution. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The August Offer promised expansion of the Viceroy’s Executive Council with a majority of Indians, as a token towards Indian self government. However the Viceroy retained a monopoly in defence, treaties with States, minority rights and All India Services. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Viceroy Linlithgow put forward the August Offer on August 8, 1940. It did not dealt with full transfer of power but promised a dominion status for India with participation by Indians Dominion status would be provided after victory in the war. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The August Offer promised that the British government would introduce a representative Constituent Body consisting of mainly Indians. The Assembly would frame a new constitution for India in the post war period and would decide subject matters of the constitution. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The August Offer promised expansion of the Viceroy’s Executive Council with a majority of Indians, as a token towards Indian self government. However the Viceroy retained a monopoly in defence, treaties with States, minority rights and All India Services. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 12. Question

Regarding August Offer 1940, consider the following statements :

• It promised a full transfer of power only if all major parties jointly accepted it.

• It provided for a constituent assembly with only Indian members.

• It proposed expansion of Viceroy’s Council with inclusion of Indian political representatives.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: C

• Viceroy Linlithgow put forward the August Offer on August 8, 1940.

• It did not dealt with full transfer of power but promised a dominion status for India with participation by Indians

• Dominion status would be provided after victory in the war.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The August Offer promised that the British government would introduce a representative Constituent Body consisting of mainly Indians.

• The Assembly would frame a new constitution for India in the post war period and would decide subject matters of the constitution.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The August Offer promised expansion of the Viceroy’s Executive Council with a majority of Indians, as a token towards Indian self government.

• However the Viceroy retained a monopoly in defence, treaties with States, minority rights and All India Services.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• Viceroy Linlithgow put forward the August Offer on August 8, 1940.

• It did not dealt with full transfer of power but promised a dominion status for India with participation by Indians

• Dominion status would be provided after victory in the war.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The August Offer promised that the British government would introduce a representative Constituent Body consisting of mainly Indians.

• The Assembly would frame a new constitution for India in the post war period and would decide subject matters of the constitution.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The August Offer promised expansion of the Viceroy’s Executive Council with a majority of Indians, as a token towards Indian self government.

• However the Viceroy retained a monopoly in defence, treaties with States, minority rights and All India Services.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements The ‘Bande Mataram’ poem by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was published for the first time in the book Anandamath. Bande Mataram was first sung by Rabindranath Tagore. Bande Mataram inspired nationalists during the Swadeshi movement of Bengal. How of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution : C Bande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in sanskritised Bengali in 1870s. It was first published in 1882 as part of Bankim Chandra’s novel Anandamath. It’s spontaneously became theme song of the Swadeshi Movement. The first two verses of the poem has been adopted as the national song of India. It was first recited by Rabindranath Tagore at a congress session in 1896 By 1905 during the partition movement of Bengal it became popular among the political activists and freedom fighters as a marching song. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution : C Bande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in sanskritised Bengali in 1870s. It was first published in 1882 as part of Bankim Chandra’s novel Anandamath. It’s spontaneously became theme song of the Swadeshi Movement. The first two verses of the poem has been adopted as the national song of India. It was first recited by Rabindranath Tagore at a congress session in 1896 By 1905 during the partition movement of Bengal it became popular among the political activists and freedom fighters as a marching song. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements

• The ‘Bande Mataram’ poem by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was published for the first time in the book Anandamath.

• Bande Mataram was first sung by Rabindranath Tagore.

• Bande Mataram inspired nationalists during the Swadeshi movement of Bengal.

How of the statements given above is/ are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution : C

• Bande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in sanskritised Bengali in 1870s.

• It was first published in 1882 as part of Bankim Chandra’s novel Anandamath.

• It’s spontaneously became theme song of the Swadeshi Movement.

• The first two verses of the poem has been adopted as the national song of India.

• It was first recited by Rabindranath Tagore at a congress session in 1896

• By 1905 during the partition movement of Bengal it became popular among the political activists and freedom fighters as a marching song.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution : C

• Bande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in sanskritised Bengali in 1870s.

• It was first published in 1882 as part of Bankim Chandra’s novel Anandamath.

• It’s spontaneously became theme song of the Swadeshi Movement.

• The first two verses of the poem has been adopted as the national song of India.

• It was first recited by Rabindranath Tagore at a congress session in 1896

• By 1905 during the partition movement of Bengal it became popular among the political activists and freedom fighters as a marching song.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Annie Besant’s ‘home rule movement’ was inspired by Irish Home Rule League. Ganpati and Shivaji festivals were introduced for the first time during the Home Rule movement by Bal Gangadhar Tilak. All India Propaganda Fund was published by members of Annie Besant’s Home Rule League to publish pamphlets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Annie Besant decided to expand her political activities and build up Home Rule Movement in India on the lines of Irish Home Rule League. She announced the formation of her All India Home Rule League in September 1916 in Madras with George Arundale as the organising secretary. The League worked with the aim of achieving Home Rule or self government in India ; it carried out intense propaganda all over the country in favour of the demand for the grant of home rule. The followers of Annie Besant’s Home Rule League set up All India Propaganda Fund to publish pamphlets The pamphlets were published in English and Indian languages to explain the demand for home rule or self rule. Besant urged the members to promote political discussions and debates and persuade people to join the movement. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Ganapati and Shivaji festivals were initiated by Tilak in 1894 and 1895 respectively to promote National unity and propagate a sense of national identity to strengthen nationalist movement. However, these two festivals were used by Tilak during his Home Rule Movement in Maharashtra. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D Annie Besant decided to expand her political activities and build up Home Rule Movement in India on the lines of Irish Home Rule League. She announced the formation of her All India Home Rule League in September 1916 in Madras with George Arundale as the organising secretary. The League worked with the aim of achieving Home Rule or self government in India ; it carried out intense propaganda all over the country in favour of the demand for the grant of home rule. The followers of Annie Besant’s Home Rule League set up All India Propaganda Fund to publish pamphlets The pamphlets were published in English and Indian languages to explain the demand for home rule or self rule. Besant urged the members to promote political discussions and debates and persuade people to join the movement. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct Ganapati and Shivaji festivals were initiated by Tilak in 1894 and 1895 respectively to promote National unity and propagate a sense of national identity to strengthen nationalist movement. However, these two festivals were used by Tilak during his Home Rule Movement in Maharashtra. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Annie Besant’s ‘home rule movement’ was inspired by Irish Home Rule League.

• Ganpati and Shivaji festivals were introduced for the first time during the Home Rule movement by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

• All India Propaganda Fund was published by members of Annie Besant’s Home Rule League to publish pamphlets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Annie Besant decided to expand her political activities and build up Home Rule Movement in India on the lines of Irish Home Rule League.

• She announced the formation of her All India Home Rule League in September 1916 in Madras with George Arundale as the organising secretary.

• The League worked with the aim of achieving Home Rule or self government in India ; it carried out intense propaganda all over the country in favour of the demand for the grant of home rule.

• The followers of Annie Besant’s Home Rule League set up All India Propaganda Fund to publish pamphlets

• The pamphlets were published in English and Indian languages to explain the demand for home rule or self rule.

• Besant urged the members to promote political discussions and debates and persuade people to join the movement.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Ganapati and Shivaji festivals were initiated by Tilak in 1894 and 1895 respectively to promote National unity and propagate a sense of national identity to strengthen nationalist movement.

• However, these two festivals were used by Tilak during his Home Rule Movement in Maharashtra.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

• Annie Besant decided to expand her political activities and build up Home Rule Movement in India on the lines of Irish Home Rule League.

• She announced the formation of her All India Home Rule League in September 1916 in Madras with George Arundale as the organising secretary.

• The League worked with the aim of achieving Home Rule or self government in India ; it carried out intense propaganda all over the country in favour of the demand for the grant of home rule.

• The followers of Annie Besant’s Home Rule League set up All India Propaganda Fund to publish pamphlets

• The pamphlets were published in English and Indian languages to explain the demand for home rule or self rule.

• Besant urged the members to promote political discussions and debates and persuade people to join the movement.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Ganapati and Shivaji festivals were initiated by Tilak in 1894 and 1895 respectively to promote National unity and propagate a sense of national identity to strengthen nationalist movement.

• However, these two festivals were used by Tilak during his Home Rule Movement in Maharashtra.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Desai – Liaquat Plan: It was an effort to dilute deadlock between Congress and the Muslim League. It advocated for an Interim government at the Centre with directly elected representatives. It recommended reservation of 20% seats for minorities in the government. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Desai – Liaquat Plan (1945) was an effort to end the deadlock between Congress and the Muslim League. Most of the Congress leaders had been arrested during the Quit India Movement. Bhulabhai Desai was one of the Congress leaders who was free; The pact was concluded between Desai and Liaquat Ali Khan of the Muslim League. Hence statement 1 is correct It consisted of a draft proposal for formation of an interim government at the centre having an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the central legislature. Hence statement 2 is incorrect It also proposed for 20% reserved seats in the interim government for minorities Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Desai – Liaquat Plan (1945) was an effort to end the deadlock between Congress and the Muslim League. Most of the Congress leaders had been arrested during the Quit India Movement. Bhulabhai Desai was one of the Congress leaders who was free; The pact was concluded between Desai and Liaquat Ali Khan of the Muslim League. Hence statement 1 is correct It consisted of a draft proposal for formation of an interim government at the centre having an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the central legislature. Hence statement 2 is incorrect It also proposed for 20% reserved seats in the interim government for minorities Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Desai – Liaquat Plan:

• It was an effort to dilute deadlock between Congress and the Muslim League.

• It advocated for an Interim government at the Centre with directly elected representatives.

• It recommended reservation of 20% seats for minorities in the government.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Desai – Liaquat Plan (1945) was an effort to end the deadlock between Congress and the Muslim League.

• Most of the Congress leaders had been arrested during the Quit India Movement.

• Bhulabhai Desai was one of the Congress leaders who was free;

• The pact was concluded between Desai and Liaquat Ali Khan of the Muslim League.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• It consisted of a draft proposal for formation of an interim government at the centre having an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the central legislature.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• It also proposed for 20% reserved seats in the interim government for minorities

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The Desai – Liaquat Plan (1945) was an effort to end the deadlock between Congress and the Muslim League.

• Most of the Congress leaders had been arrested during the Quit India Movement.

• Bhulabhai Desai was one of the Congress leaders who was free;

• The pact was concluded between Desai and Liaquat Ali Khan of the Muslim League.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• It consisted of a draft proposal for formation of an interim government at the centre having an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the central legislature.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• It also proposed for 20% reserved seats in the interim government for minorities

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Swadeshi Movement: The social base of national movement extended to include zamindari section, urban lower middle class as well as women during it. The Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceutical Works was founded by Prafulla Chandra Ray to foster entrepreneurship during the movement. Swadesh Bandhav Samiti was the most famous volunteer organisation for mass mobilization during the movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D During the Swadeshi Movement the social base of the National Movement got extended to include the zamindari section, lower middle class in the cities and small towns and schools and college students on a massive scale Women came out of their homes for the first time and joined the procession and picketing this period for the first time witnessed an attempt to give political direction to the economic grievances of the working class. Hence statement 1 is correct The Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceutical Works, a precursor to the present day Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals Limited was established by Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray in 1901 during the Swadeshi Movement. It was the first Indian company dedicated to producing quality drugs, pharmaceuticals and Chemicals using indigenous Technology. It was established with an aim to foster self Reliance and entrepreneurship among the Indians during the Swadeshi Movement. Hence statement 2 is correct Corps of volunteers or Samitis, as they were called were another form of mass mobilization widely used by the Swadeshi Movement ; the Swadesh Bandhan Samiti was set up by Ashwini kumar Dutt in Barisal ; It was the most well known volunteer organisation of them all It had 159 branches spread out to the remotest corners of the district and generated an parallelled mass following . Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D During the Swadeshi Movement the social base of the National Movement got extended to include the zamindari section, lower middle class in the cities and small towns and schools and college students on a massive scale Women came out of their homes for the first time and joined the procession and picketing this period for the first time witnessed an attempt to give political direction to the economic grievances of the working class. Hence statement 1 is correct The Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceutical Works, a precursor to the present day Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals Limited was established by Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray in 1901 during the Swadeshi Movement. It was the first Indian company dedicated to producing quality drugs, pharmaceuticals and Chemicals using indigenous Technology. It was established with an aim to foster self Reliance and entrepreneurship among the Indians during the Swadeshi Movement. Hence statement 2 is correct Corps of volunteers or Samitis, as they were called were another form of mass mobilization widely used by the Swadeshi Movement ; the Swadesh Bandhan Samiti was set up by Ashwini kumar Dutt in Barisal ; It was the most well known volunteer organisation of them all It had 159 branches spread out to the remotest corners of the district and generated an parallelled mass following . Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Swadeshi Movement:

• The social base of national movement extended to include zamindari section, urban lower middle class as well as women during it.

• The Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceutical Works was founded by Prafulla Chandra Ray to foster entrepreneurship during the movement.

• Swadesh Bandhav Samiti was the most famous volunteer organisation for mass mobilization during the movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• During the Swadeshi Movement the social base of the National Movement got extended to include the zamindari section, lower middle class in the cities and small towns and schools and college students on a massive scale

• Women came out of their homes for the first time and joined the procession and picketing

• this period for the first time witnessed an attempt to give political direction to the economic grievances of the working class.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceutical Works, a precursor to the present day Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals Limited was established by Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray in 1901 during the Swadeshi Movement.

• It was the first Indian company dedicated to producing quality drugs, pharmaceuticals and Chemicals using indigenous Technology.

• It was established with an aim to foster self Reliance and entrepreneurship among the Indians during the Swadeshi Movement.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Corps of volunteers or Samitis, as they were called were another form of mass mobilization widely used by the Swadeshi Movement ;

• the Swadesh Bandhan Samiti was set up by Ashwini kumar Dutt in Barisal ; It was the most well known volunteer organisation of them all

• It had 159 branches spread out to the remotest corners of the district and generated an parallelled mass following .

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• Women came out of their homes for the first time and joined the procession and picketing

• this period for the first time witnessed an attempt to give political direction to the economic grievances of the working class.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• It was the first Indian company dedicated to producing quality drugs, pharmaceuticals and Chemicals using indigenous Technology.

• It was established with an aim to foster self Reliance and entrepreneurship among the Indians during the Swadeshi Movement.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Corps of volunteers or Samitis, as they were called were another form of mass mobilization widely used by the Swadeshi Movement ;

• the Swadesh Bandhan Samiti was set up by Ashwini kumar Dutt in Barisal ; It was the most well known volunteer organisation of them all

• It had 159 branches spread out to the remotest corners of the district and generated an parallelled mass following .

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The Individual Satyagraha movement demanded the right to freedom of speech and self-governance. The ‘ Congress Radio’ initiative was launched during the Civil Disobedience Movement to encourage public participation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The aim of launching individual Satyagraha by the Congress backed by Mahatma Gandhi was to show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness it aimed to express that Indians were not interested in the war The demand of the individual satyagrahi was freedom of speech against the war through anti-war declaration; the primary demands were independent along with self governance and end of exploitative policies of British administration. If the satyagrahi was not arrested he would repeat the act in the next village while moving in the direction of Delhi – thus initiating a movement called Delhi chalo movement. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first individual satyagrahi t; individual Satyagraha was started by him on October 17, 1940 by delivering an anti war speech near WardhaJa. Nehru became the second individual satyagrahi. Hence statement 1 is correct The ‘Congress Radio’ was launched during the Quit India Movement It was initiated by Usha Mehta and her associates to spread the message of National Congress and encourage public participation in the August revolution Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The aim of launching individual Satyagraha by the Congress backed by Mahatma Gandhi was to show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness it aimed to express that Indians were not interested in the war The demand of the individual satyagrahi was freedom of speech against the war through anti-war declaration; the primary demands were independent along with self governance and end of exploitative policies of British administration. If the satyagrahi was not arrested he would repeat the act in the next village while moving in the direction of Delhi – thus initiating a movement called Delhi chalo movement. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first individual satyagrahi t; individual Satyagraha was started by him on October 17, 1940 by delivering an anti war speech near WardhaJa. Nehru became the second individual satyagrahi. Hence statement 1 is correct The ‘Congress Radio’ was launched during the Quit India Movement It was initiated by Usha Mehta and her associates to spread the message of National Congress and encourage public participation in the August revolution Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The Individual Satyagraha movement demanded the right to freedom of speech and self-governance.

• The ‘ Congress Radio’ initiative was launched during the Civil Disobedience Movement to encourage public participation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The aim of launching individual Satyagraha by the Congress backed by Mahatma Gandhi was to show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness

• it aimed to express that Indians were not interested in the war

• The demand of the individual satyagrahi was freedom of speech against the war through anti-war declaration; the primary demands were independent along with self governance and end of exploitative policies of British administration.

• If the satyagrahi was not arrested he would repeat the act in the next village while moving in the direction of Delhi – thus initiating a movement called Delhi chalo movement.

• Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first individual satyagrahi t; individual Satyagraha was started by him on October 17, 1940 by delivering an anti war speech near WardhaJa.

• Nehru became the second individual satyagrahi.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The ‘Congress Radio’ was launched during the Quit India Movement

• It was initiated by Usha Mehta and her associates to spread the message of National Congress and encourage public participation in the August revolution

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The aim of launching individual Satyagraha by the Congress backed by Mahatma Gandhi was to show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness

• it aimed to express that Indians were not interested in the war

• If the satyagrahi was not arrested he would repeat the act in the next village while moving in the direction of Delhi – thus initiating a movement called Delhi chalo movement.

• Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first individual satyagrahi t; individual Satyagraha was started by him on October 17, 1940 by delivering an anti war speech near WardhaJa.

• Nehru became the second individual satyagrahi.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The ‘Congress Radio’ was launched during the Quit India Movement

• It was initiated by Usha Mehta and her associates to spread the message of National Congress and encourage public participation in the August revolution

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following places: Singapore Tokyo Yangon Berlin At how many of the places given above did Subhash Chandra Bose set up headquarters of Indian National Army? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution : B The Indian National Army was first conceived by captain Mohan Singh – an officer of British Indian Army who refused to join the retreating British army and instead turned to the Japanese for help In 1942 the first INA was formed comprising of Indian prisoners of war to with an aim to seek independence for India. Subhash Chandra Bose set up two headquarters of the INA, one each at Singapore and Rangoon or Yangon In October 1943 he set up provisional government of free India or Azad Hind Sarkar declaring himself as the prime minister and commander in chief of the government. Hence options 1 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution : B The Indian National Army was first conceived by captain Mohan Singh – an officer of British Indian Army who refused to join the retreating British army and instead turned to the Japanese for help In 1942 the first INA was formed comprising of Indian prisoners of war to with an aim to seek independence for India. Subhash Chandra Bose set up two headquarters of the INA, one each at Singapore and Rangoon or Yangon In October 1943 he set up provisional government of free India or Azad Hind Sarkar declaring himself as the prime minister and commander in chief of the government. Hence options 1 and 3 are correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following places:

At how many of the places given above did Subhash Chandra Bose set up headquarters of Indian National Army?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution : B

• The Indian National Army was first conceived by captain Mohan Singh – an officer of British Indian Army who refused to join the retreating British army and instead turned to the Japanese for help

• In 1942 the first INA was formed comprising of Indian prisoners of war to with an aim to seek independence for India.

• Subhash Chandra Bose set up two headquarters of the INA, one each at Singapore and Rangoon or Yangon

• In October 1943 he set up provisional government of free India or Azad Hind Sarkar declaring himself as the prime minister and commander in chief of the government.

Hence options 1 and 3 are correct

Solution : B

• In 1942 the first INA was formed comprising of Indian prisoners of war to with an aim to seek independence for India.

• Subhash Chandra Bose set up two headquarters of the INA, one each at Singapore and Rangoon or Yangon

• In October 1943 he set up provisional government of free India or Azad Hind Sarkar declaring himself as the prime minister and commander in chief of the government.

Hence options 1 and 3 are correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements : The proposal for discontinuation of plague bonus triggered the Ahmedabad Mill strike. The mill workers of Ahmedabad were organised under Majoor Mahajan Sangh by Gandhiji to participate in the Ahmedabad satyagraha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A In 1918, mill workers in Ahmedabad protested against the mill owners over the question of a plague bonus which the employers wanted to withdraw once the epidemic had passed; but the workers insisted it to stay since the enhancement hardly compensated for the rise in the cost of living during the First World War. Finally after intervention of Mahatma Gandhi, the mill owners agreed to submit the whole issue to a tribunal ; The strike was withdrawn and the tribunal later awarded 35% increase that the workers had a demanded. Hence statement 1 is correct The Majdoor Mahajan Sangh was not formed during Ahmedabad Mill strike (1918) but in the aftermath of it, particularly during 1920 following a hunger strike by Mahatma Gandhi The Majdoor Mahajan Sangh or the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association was established as a labour Union to protect rights of the workers including those involved in the 1918 Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A In 1918, mill workers in Ahmedabad protested against the mill owners over the question of a plague bonus which the employers wanted to withdraw once the epidemic had passed; but the workers insisted it to stay since the enhancement hardly compensated for the rise in the cost of living during the First World War. Finally after intervention of Mahatma Gandhi, the mill owners agreed to submit the whole issue to a tribunal ; The strike was withdrawn and the tribunal later awarded 35% increase that the workers had a demanded. Hence statement 1 is correct The Majdoor Mahajan Sangh was not formed during Ahmedabad Mill strike (1918) but in the aftermath of it, particularly during 1920 following a hunger strike by Mahatma Gandhi The Majdoor Mahajan Sangh or the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association was established as a labour Union to protect rights of the workers including those involved in the 1918 Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements :

• The proposal for discontinuation of plague bonus triggered the Ahmedabad Mill strike.

• The mill workers of Ahmedabad were organised under Majoor Mahajan Sangh by Gandhiji to participate in the Ahmedabad satyagraha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• In 1918, mill workers in Ahmedabad protested against the mill owners over the question of a plague bonus which the employers wanted to withdraw once the epidemic had passed; but the workers insisted it to stay since the enhancement hardly compensated for the rise in the cost of living during the First World War.

• Finally after intervention of Mahatma Gandhi, the mill owners agreed to submit the whole issue to a tribunal ;

• The strike was withdrawn and the tribunal later awarded 35% increase that the workers had a demanded.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Majdoor Mahajan Sangh was not formed during Ahmedabad Mill strike (1918) but in the aftermath of it, particularly during 1920 following a hunger strike by Mahatma Gandhi

• The Majdoor Mahajan Sangh or the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association was established as a labour Union to protect rights of the workers including those involved in the 1918

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Finally after intervention of Mahatma Gandhi, the mill owners agreed to submit the whole issue to a tribunal ;

• The strike was withdrawn and the tribunal later awarded 35% increase that the workers had a demanded.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Majdoor Mahajan Sangh was not formed during Ahmedabad Mill strike (1918) but in the aftermath of it, particularly during 1920 following a hunger strike by Mahatma Gandhi

• The Majdoor Mahajan Sangh or the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association was established as a labour Union to protect rights of the workers including those involved in the 1918

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Proposal for dominion status under the Cripps Mission was an immediate reason for acceptance of Quit India Resolution by the Congress. Manner of evacuation of Indians by the British from Malaya and Burma strengthened anti-colonial sentiment that popularized the Quit India Movement. The Muslim League condemned the Quit India Movement. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C There were certain reasons that resulted in Quit India Movement ; failure of the Cripps mission was one of them and the most important and immediate one; The mission offered only domain status which was not acceptable to the Indian representatives and it was boycotted by most of the Indian parties After rejection of the Cripps proposals it was cleared that government was unwilling to offer any honourable settlement to the Indian demands and was determined to continue with India’s unwilling participation in the war. Hence statement 1 is correct The manner of British evacuation from Malaya and Burma increased discontent among the Indians; the British residents were evacuated first while leaving the subject population to their fate. Indians from South East Asia provided detailed account of British apathy to their relatives and how they were left behind for the Japanese by the British Hence it was feared that the British might repeat the same betrayal in case of a Japanese invasion in India. Hence statement 2 is correct Sections of the people who did not participate in the Quit India Movement included – The Muslim League- it condemned the movement and supported the British in war efforts Hindu Mahasabha – they supported the British in their war efforts The Communist Party of India also did not support the movement following involvement of Russia in the World War in December 1941. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C There were certain reasons that resulted in Quit India Movement ; failure of the Cripps mission was one of them and the most important and immediate one; The mission offered only domain status which was not acceptable to the Indian representatives and it was boycotted by most of the Indian parties After rejection of the Cripps proposals it was cleared that government was unwilling to offer any honourable settlement to the Indian demands and was determined to continue with India’s unwilling participation in the war. Hence statement 1 is correct The manner of British evacuation from Malaya and Burma increased discontent among the Indians; the British residents were evacuated first while leaving the subject population to their fate. Indians from South East Asia provided detailed account of British apathy to their relatives and how they were left behind for the Japanese by the British Hence it was feared that the British might repeat the same betrayal in case of a Japanese invasion in India. Hence statement 2 is correct Sections of the people who did not participate in the Quit India Movement included – The Muslim League- it condemned the movement and supported the British in war efforts Hindu Mahasabha – they supported the British in their war efforts The Communist Party of India also did not support the movement following involvement of Russia in the World War in December 1941. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Proposal for dominion status under the Cripps Mission was an immediate reason for acceptance of Quit India Resolution by the Congress.

• Manner of evacuation of Indians by the British from Malaya and Burma strengthened anti-colonial sentiment that popularized the Quit India Movement.

• The Muslim League condemned the Quit India Movement.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• There were certain reasons that resulted in Quit India Movement ; failure of the Cripps mission was one of them and the most important and immediate one;

• The mission offered only domain status which was not acceptable to the Indian representatives and it was boycotted by most of the Indian parties

• After rejection of the Cripps proposals it was cleared that government was unwilling to offer any honourable settlement to the Indian demands and was determined to continue with India’s unwilling participation in the war.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The manner of British evacuation from Malaya and Burma increased discontent among the Indians; the British residents were evacuated first while leaving the subject population to their fate.

• Indians from South East Asia provided detailed account of British apathy to their relatives and how they were left behind for the Japanese by the British

• Hence it was feared that the British might repeat the same betrayal in case of a Japanese invasion in India.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Sections of the people who did not participate in the Quit India Movement included –

• The Muslim League- it condemned the movement and supported the British in war efforts

• Hindu Mahasabha – they supported the British in their war efforts

• The Communist Party of India also did not support the movement following involvement of Russia in the World War in December 1941.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• There were certain reasons that resulted in Quit India Movement ; failure of the Cripps mission was one of them and the most important and immediate one;

• The mission offered only domain status which was not acceptable to the Indian representatives and it was boycotted by most of the Indian parties

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The manner of British evacuation from Malaya and Burma increased discontent among the Indians; the British residents were evacuated first while leaving the subject population to their fate.

• Indians from South East Asia provided detailed account of British apathy to their relatives and how they were left behind for the Japanese by the British

• Hence it was feared that the British might repeat the same betrayal in case of a Japanese invasion in India.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Sections of the people who did not participate in the Quit India Movement included –

• The Muslim League- it condemned the movement and supported the British in war efforts

• Hindu Mahasabha – they supported the British in their war efforts

• The Communist Party of India also did not support the movement following involvement of Russia in the World War in December 1941.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: ADAS technologies are becoming increasingly important in modern vehicles due to their ability to reduce road accidents and assist drivers in critical situations. Statement-II: Active ADAS includes features like blind spot monitoring systems, which intervene automatically to prevent collisions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS) are integrated technologies that enhance road safety by assisting drivers with real-time data and automated responses. These systems reduce human error, which is a major cause of traffic accidents. Thus, Statement-I is correct. ADAS is broadly classified into active and passive types. Active ADAS directly intervenes — such as collision avoidance and lane-keeping assist, where the system may apply brakes or steer autonomously. On the other hand, blind spot monitoring systems are typically passive, as they only provide alerts to the driver without automatic intervention. Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect because it wrongly classifies a passive ADAS feature as active. Only Statement-I is correct, and Statement-II cannot be an explanation for it. Incorrect Solution: C Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS) are integrated technologies that enhance road safety by assisting drivers with real-time data and automated responses. These systems reduce human error, which is a major cause of traffic accidents. Thus, Statement-I is correct. ADAS is broadly classified into active and passive types. Active ADAS directly intervenes — such as collision avoidance and lane-keeping assist, where the system may apply brakes or steer autonomously. On the other hand, blind spot monitoring systems are typically passive, as they only provide alerts to the driver without automatic intervention. Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect because it wrongly classifies a passive ADAS feature as active. Only Statement-I is correct, and Statement-II cannot be an explanation for it.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: ADAS technologies are becoming increasingly important in modern vehicles due to their ability to reduce road accidents and assist drivers in critical situations.

Statement-II: Active ADAS includes features like blind spot monitoring systems, which intervene automatically to prevent collisions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS) are integrated technologies that enhance road safety by assisting drivers with real-time data and automated responses. These systems reduce human error, which is a major cause of traffic accidents. Thus, Statement-I is correct. ADAS is broadly classified into active and passive types. Active ADAS directly intervenes — such as collision avoidance and lane-keeping assist, where the system may apply brakes or steer autonomously. On the other hand, blind spot monitoring systems are typically passive, as they only provide alerts to the driver without automatic intervention. Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect because it wrongly classifies a passive ADAS feature as active. Only Statement-I is correct, and Statement-II cannot be an explanation for it.

Solution: C

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Satellite Internet: Satellite Internet requires installation of ground-based fibre cables to ensure two-way data transmission in remote areas. It provides global coverage and can function independently of terrestrial infrastructure, making it ideal for disaster-hit and remote regions. Satellites used in such services can communicate with each other using lasers, reducing dependence on ground stations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Satellite Internet refers to the provision of internet services via communication satellites orbiting the Earth. Unlike traditional broadband systems that rely heavily on terrestrial infrastructure like fiber-optic cables, satellite internet can function independently of ground infrastructure, making it especially valuable for remote areas, military zones, and during natural disasters. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. Recent advancements, especially in low-earth orbit (LEO) satellite constellations like Starlink, include inter-satellite laser communication, enabling data to be relayed from satellite to satellite without routing through earth stations, thereby reducing latency and improving redundancy. This makes Statement 3 correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because satellite internet does not require ground-based fibre installations for end-user access; it works via satellite terminals or dish antennas installed at the user’s premises. The significance lies in being location-independent, and it is ideal for bridging India’s digital divide. Incorrect Solution: C Satellite Internet refers to the provision of internet services via communication satellites orbiting the Earth. Unlike traditional broadband systems that rely heavily on terrestrial infrastructure like fiber-optic cables, satellite internet can function independently of ground infrastructure, making it especially valuable for remote areas, military zones, and during natural disasters. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. Recent advancements, especially in low-earth orbit (LEO) satellite constellations like Starlink, include inter-satellite laser communication, enabling data to be relayed from satellite to satellite without routing through earth stations, thereby reducing latency and improving redundancy. This makes Statement 3 correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because satellite internet does not require ground-based fibre installations for end-user access; it works via satellite terminals or dish antennas installed at the user’s premises. The significance lies in being location-independent, and it is ideal for bridging India’s digital divide.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Satellite Internet:

• Satellite Internet requires installation of ground-based fibre cables to ensure two-way data transmission in remote areas.

• It provides global coverage and can function independently of terrestrial infrastructure, making it ideal for disaster-hit and remote regions.

• Satellites used in such services can communicate with each other using lasers, reducing dependence on ground stations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Satellite Internet refers to the provision of internet services via communication satellites orbiting the Earth. Unlike traditional broadband systems that rely heavily on terrestrial infrastructure like fiber-optic cables, satellite internet can function independently of ground infrastructure, making it especially valuable for remote areas, military zones, and during natural disasters. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Recent advancements, especially in low-earth orbit (LEO) satellite constellations like Starlink, include inter-satellite laser communication, enabling data to be relayed from satellite to satellite without routing through earth stations, thereby reducing latency and improving redundancy. This makes Statement 3 correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect because satellite internet does not require ground-based fibre installations for end-user access; it works via satellite terminals or dish antennas installed at the user’s premises. The significance lies in being location-independent, and it is ideal for bridging India’s digital divide.

Solution: C

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The limestone caves of Kanger Valley National Park contribute to karst topography and have led to the evolution of endemic subterranean biodiversity. The park’s location in the Eastern Highlands serves as a biogeographic transition zone between the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Kanger Valley’s karst topography, developed from limestone formations, has led to unique caves like Dandak, Kutumbasar, and Kailash, containing stalactite-stalagmite structures and endemic invertebrate species, such as spiders found nowhere else. The presence of subterranean niches supports rare adaptations in species — a classical marker of evolution in isolated environments. Statement 2 is incorrect. The park is located in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh, which lies within the Eastern Highlands of the Deccan Plateau, but not at the interface of Eastern and Western Ghats. It forms a transition zone between Sal-dominated forests of Central India and teak-dominated forests of Peninsular India, not between the two Ghats. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Kanger Valley’s karst topography, developed from limestone formations, has led to unique caves like Dandak, Kutumbasar, and Kailash, containing stalactite-stalagmite structures and endemic invertebrate species, such as spiders found nowhere else. The presence of subterranean niches supports rare adaptations in species — a classical marker of evolution in isolated environments. Statement 2 is incorrect. The park is located in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh, which lies within the Eastern Highlands of the Deccan Plateau, but not at the interface of Eastern and Western Ghats. It forms a transition zone between Sal-dominated forests of Central India and teak-dominated forests of Peninsular India, not between the two Ghats.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The limestone caves of Kanger Valley National Park contribute to karst topography and have led to the evolution of endemic subterranean biodiversity.

• The park’s location in the Eastern Highlands serves as a biogeographic transition zone between the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct. Kanger Valley’s karst topography, developed from limestone formations, has led to unique caves like Dandak, Kutumbasar, and Kailash, containing stalactite-stalagmite structures and endemic invertebrate species, such as spiders found nowhere else. The presence of subterranean niches supports rare adaptations in species — a classical marker of evolution in isolated environments.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The park is located in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh, which lies within the Eastern Highlands of the Deccan Plateau, but not at the interface of Eastern and Western Ghats. It forms a transition zone between Sal-dominated forests of Central India and teak-dominated forests of Peninsular India, not between the two Ghats.

Solution: A

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Kannadippaya craft: Statement-I: Kannadippaya craft, awarded a GI tag, is an example of tribal innovation in sustainable and climate-responsive homeware. Statement-II: The mat’s insulating properties arise from chemical treatment of synthetic fibres and polymer resins used in the weaving process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. Kannadippaya, also known as “mirror mat”, is a traditional tribal mat made from the inner reeds of bamboo, which is biodegradable, sustainably sourced, and has thermoregulatory properties. It keeps interiors cool in summer and warm in winter, making it ideal for climate-resilient living. Statement-II is incorrect. The mat’s unique insulation is not derived from synthetic fibres or chemical resins, but from the natural microstructure of reed bamboo. The misstatement implies industrial material use, which contradicts the organic and indigenous methods at the core of its eco-friendly appeal. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. Kannadippaya, also known as “mirror mat”, is a traditional tribal mat made from the inner reeds of bamboo, which is biodegradable, sustainably sourced, and has thermoregulatory properties. It keeps interiors cool in summer and warm in winter, making it ideal for climate-resilient living. Statement-II is incorrect. The mat’s unique insulation is not derived from synthetic fibres or chemical resins, but from the natural microstructure of reed bamboo. The misstatement implies industrial material use, which contradicts the organic and indigenous methods at the core of its eco-friendly appeal.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Kannadippaya craft:

Statement-I: Kannadippaya craft, awarded a GI tag, is an example of tribal innovation in sustainable and climate-responsive homeware.

Statement-II: The mat’s insulating properties arise from chemical treatment of synthetic fibres and polymer resins used in the weaving process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Statement-I is correct. Kannadippaya, also known as “mirror mat”, is a traditional tribal mat made from the inner reeds of bamboo, which is biodegradable, sustainably sourced, and has thermoregulatory properties. It keeps interiors cool in summer and warm in winter, making it ideal for climate-resilient living.

Statement-II is incorrect. The mat’s unique insulation is not derived from synthetic fibres or chemical resins, but from the natural microstructure of reed bamboo. The misstatement implies industrial material use, which contradicts the organic and indigenous methods at the core of its eco-friendly appeal.

Solution: C

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Composition of the biography of the Buddha occupies a special place in Buddhist literature. Which one among the following is a full-fledged biography of the Buddha? (a) Lalitavistara (b) Milind Panho (c) Sariputra-prakarana (d) Avadanasataka Correct Solution: A Lalitavistara: This is a Sanskrit Mahayana Buddhist text that presents a comprehensive biography of the Buddha, from his descent from Tushita heaven to his enlightenment and the first sermon. Though it includes miraculous and legendary elements, it remains one of the most detailed and full-fledged accounts of the Buddha’s life in Buddhist literature. Milind Panho: This is not a biography but a dialogue between King Milinda (Menander) and the monk Nagasena, discussing Buddhist philosophy and doctrine. Sariputra-prakarana: Attributed to Ashvaghosha, this is more focused on Sariputra, one of the chief disciples of Buddha, rather than Buddha himself. Avadanasataka: This is a collection of avadanas (edifying tales), mostly illustrating the karmic consequences of actions rather than being a biography of the Buddha. Incorrect Solution: A Lalitavistara: This is a Sanskrit Mahayana Buddhist text that presents a comprehensive biography of the Buddha, from his descent from Tushita heaven to his enlightenment and the first sermon. Though it includes miraculous and legendary elements, it remains one of the most detailed and full-fledged accounts of the Buddha’s life in Buddhist literature. Milind Panho: This is not a biography but a dialogue between King Milinda (Menander) and the monk Nagasena, discussing Buddhist philosophy and doctrine. Sariputra-prakarana: Attributed to Ashvaghosha, this is more focused on Sariputra, one of the chief disciples of Buddha, rather than Buddha himself. Avadanasataka: This is a collection of avadanas (edifying tales), mostly illustrating the karmic consequences of actions rather than being a biography of the Buddha.

#### 25. Question

Composition of the biography of the Buddha occupies a special place in Buddhist literature. Which one among the following is a full-fledged biography of the Buddha?

• (a) Lalitavistara

• (b) Milind Panho

• (c) Sariputra-prakarana

• (d) Avadanasataka

Solution: A

Lalitavistara: This is a Sanskrit Mahayana Buddhist text that presents a comprehensive biography of the Buddha, from his descent from Tushita heaven to his enlightenment and the first sermon. Though it includes miraculous and legendary elements, it remains one of the most detailed and full-fledged accounts of the Buddha’s life in Buddhist literature.

Milind Panho: This is not a biography but a dialogue between King Milinda (Menander) and the monk Nagasena, discussing Buddhist philosophy and doctrine.

Sariputra-prakarana: Attributed to Ashvaghosha, this is more focused on Sariputra, one of the chief disciples of Buddha, rather than Buddha himself.

Avadanasataka: This is a collection of avadanas (edifying tales), mostly illustrating the karmic consequences of actions rather than being a biography of the Buddha.

Solution: A

Milind Panho: This is not a biography but a dialogue between King Milinda (Menander) and the monk Nagasena, discussing Buddhist philosophy and doctrine.

Sariputra-prakarana: Attributed to Ashvaghosha, this is more focused on Sariputra, one of the chief disciples of Buddha, rather than Buddha himself.

Avadanasataka: This is a collection of avadanas (edifying tales), mostly illustrating the karmic consequences of actions rather than being a biography of the Buddha.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Earthquakes are vibrations of the earth’s crust cause by the operations of the tectonic forces and volcanic activity. The volcanic activity is confined to three well-defined belts of the world. The occurrence of earthquakes is also closely connected with two of these belts. An earthquake is a motion of the ground surface of variable intensity ranging from a faint tremor to a harsh shaking motion. It is a form of energy of wave motion which is transmitted through the surface layer of the earth. The instrument used for recording earthquakes is known as seismograph, deriving its name from a Greek word ‘sesamos’ which means an earthquake. The point or origin of an earthquake is called the focus or seismic focus. Seismic focus usually lies within the depth of 60 km in the earth’s crust from where earthquake waves go in all directions. The point directly above the focus on the earth’s crust is called ‘epicentre’. Unsurprisingly, the intensity of earthquake is the highest at the epicentre, causing maximum destruction at the site. The intensity of vibrations and hence, the destruction decreases as one moves away from the epicentre in all directions. Earthquakes are sometimes caused by folding, faulting and displacement of rock strata such as was case with the Assam earthquakes of 1951 and the Bihar earthquakes of 1935. Sometimes localized earthquakes are also caused by volcanic eruption, which leads to vibrations in the earth’s crust. Such as the case was with Mauna Loa volcano of Hawaii Island in 1868. Landslides also cause minor earthquakes at times. Usually, it is the violent earthquakes caused by folding, faulting and displacement of rock strata which are the most destructive. They cause vertical and horizontal displacement of rock strata along fault line. Such high intensity violent earthquakes can, in fact, cause cracks and fissures in the earth’s crust resulting in landslides, tidal waves, tsunamis and floods. Though earthquake occurs in almost every part of the world, there are two well-defined belts where they occur more frequently. These belts are the Circum-Pacific belt and the Mid-world mountain belt. Circum-Pacific, which accounts for 68 per cent of earthquakes of the world comprises the western coast of North and South America, Aleutian Islands and island groups of eastern Asian countries such as Japan and Philippines. Mid-world mountain belt which accounts for 21 per cent of earthquakes of the world extends from Alps into Mediterranean and the Himalayan region until Indonesia. Remaining 11 per cent occur in other parts of the world. (417 words) Which of the following best describes the underlying tone of the passage about earthquakes? Informative and objective Biased and opinionated Neutral and matter-of-fact Humorous and satirical Select the correct option(s): a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 3 Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Option A is incorrect because the tone of the passage is not purely objective. While the passage provides information on earthquakes, it also includes descriptive language. For example, the passage describes earthquakes as “violent,” “destructive,” and causing “maximum destruction.” These are not purely objective terms and suggest a more emotional response to earthquakes. Additionally, the passage includes statements about the impact of earthquakes, such as landslides, tidal waves, tsunamis, and floods, which could be seen as an attempt to influence the reader’s perception of earthquakes. Option B is also incorrect as there is no indication of any particular bias or opinion. Option D is incorrect as the passage does not use any humorous or satirical language. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Option A is incorrect because the tone of the passage is not purely objective. While the passage provides information on earthquakes, it also includes descriptive language. For example, the passage describes earthquakes as “violent,” “destructive,” and causing “maximum destruction.” These are not purely objective terms and suggest a more emotional response to earthquakes. Additionally, the passage includes statements about the impact of earthquakes, such as landslides, tidal waves, tsunamis, and floods, which could be seen as an attempt to influence the reader’s perception of earthquakes. Option B is also incorrect as there is no indication of any particular bias or opinion. Option D is incorrect as the passage does not use any humorous or satirical language.

#### 26. Question

Earthquakes are vibrations of the earth’s crust cause by the operations of the tectonic forces and volcanic activity. The volcanic activity is confined to three well-defined belts of the world. The occurrence of earthquakes is also closely connected with two of these belts. An earthquake is a motion of the ground surface of variable intensity ranging from a faint tremor to a harsh shaking motion. It is a form of energy of wave motion which is transmitted through the surface layer of the earth. The instrument used for recording earthquakes is known as seismograph, deriving its name from a Greek word ‘sesamos’ which means an earthquake. The point or origin of an earthquake is called the focus or seismic focus. Seismic focus usually lies within the depth of 60 km in the earth’s crust from where earthquake waves go in all directions. The point directly above the focus on the earth’s crust is called ‘epicentre’. Unsurprisingly, the intensity of earthquake is the highest at

the epicentre, causing maximum destruction at the site. The intensity of vibrations and hence, the destruction decreases as one moves away from the epicentre in all directions.

Earthquakes are sometimes caused by folding, faulting and displacement of rock strata such as was case with the Assam earthquakes of 1951 and the Bihar earthquakes of 1935. Sometimes localized earthquakes are also caused by volcanic eruption, which leads to vibrations in the earth’s crust. Such as the case was with Mauna Loa volcano of Hawaii Island in 1868. Landslides also cause minor earthquakes at times.

Usually, it is the violent earthquakes caused by folding, faulting and displacement of rock strata which are the most destructive. They cause vertical and horizontal displacement of rock strata along fault line. Such high intensity violent earthquakes can, in fact, cause cracks and fissures in the earth’s crust resulting in landslides, tidal waves, tsunamis and floods.

Though earthquake occurs in almost every part of the world, there are two well-defined belts where they occur more frequently. These belts are the Circum-Pacific belt and the Mid-world mountain belt. Circum-Pacific, which accounts for 68 per cent of earthquakes of the world comprises the western coast of North and South America, Aleutian Islands and island groups of eastern Asian countries such as Japan and Philippines. Mid-world mountain belt which accounts for 21 per cent of earthquakes of the world extends from Alps into Mediterranean and the Himalayan region until Indonesia. Remaining 11 per cent occur in other parts of the world. (417 words)

Which of the following best describes the underlying tone of the passage about earthquakes?

• Informative and objective

• Biased and opinionated

• Neutral and matter-of-fact

• Humorous and satirical

Select the correct option(s):

• d. 1 and 3

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Option A is incorrect because the tone of the passage is not purely objective. While the passage provides information on earthquakes, it also includes descriptive language. For example, the passage describes earthquakes as “violent,” “destructive,” and causing “maximum destruction.” These are not purely objective terms and suggest a more emotional response to earthquakes. Additionally, the passage includes statements about the impact of earthquakes, such as landslides, tidal waves, tsunamis, and floods, which could be seen as an attempt to influence the reader’s perception of earthquakes.

Option B is also incorrect as there is no indication of any particular bias or opinion. Option D is incorrect as the passage does not use any humorous or satirical language.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Option B is also incorrect as there is no indication of any particular bias or opinion. Option D is incorrect as the passage does not use any humorous or satirical language.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points In a garden, two concentric circular ponds are constructed. The bigger pond has a diameter of 50 meters, and the smaller pond has a radius of 15 meters. What is the area of the ring-shaped region between the ponds? a. 325π b. 400π c. 275π d. 225π Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Radius of larger pond = 50/2 = 25 m Radius of smaller pond = 15 m Area of ring-shaped region = π(25² – 15²) = π (625 – 225) = 400π square meters. Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Radius of larger pond = 50/2 = 25 m Radius of smaller pond = 15 m Area of ring-shaped region = π(25² – 15²) = π (625 – 225) = 400π square meters.

#### 27. Question

In a garden, two concentric circular ponds are constructed. The bigger pond has a diameter of 50 meters, and the smaller pond has a radius of 15 meters. What is the area of the ring-shaped region between the ponds?

Correct Option : B

Justification :

• Radius of larger pond = 50/2 = 25 m

• Radius of smaller pond = 15 m

• Area of ring-shaped region = π(25² – 15²) = π (625 – 225) = 400π square meters.

Correct Option : B

Justification :

• Radius of larger pond = 50/2 = 25 m

• Radius of smaller pond = 15 m

• Area of ring-shaped region = π(25² – 15²) = π (625 – 225) = 400π square meters.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points What is the ratio of the total demand of motorcycles of companies Hero and Honda taken together to the Production of motorcycles of company TVS? a. 11 : 9 b. 7 : 5 c. 5 : 3 d. 8 : 7 Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Total demand of motorcycles of companies Hero and Honda = 100 + 125 = 225 lakhs The production of motorcycles of company TVS = 135 lakhs Required Ratio = 225 : 135 = 5 : 3 Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Total demand of motorcycles of companies Hero and Honda = 100 + 125 = 225 lakhs The production of motorcycles of company TVS = 135 lakhs Required Ratio = 225 : 135 = 5 : 3

#### 28. Question

What is the ratio of the total demand of motorcycles of companies Hero and Honda taken together to the Production of motorcycles of company TVS?

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Total demand of motorcycles of companies Hero and Honda = 100 + 125 = 225 lakhs

The production of motorcycles of company TVS = 135 lakhs

Required Ratio = 225 : 135 = 5 : 3

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Total demand of motorcycles of companies Hero and Honda = 100 + 125 = 225 lakhs

The production of motorcycles of company TVS = 135 lakhs

Required Ratio = 225 : 135 = 5 : 3

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A circular track has an area of 1540 m². If a man takes 60 seconds to complete one round, what is his speed? a. 2.3 m/s b. 4.4 m/s c. 5.5 m/s d. 6.2 m/s Correct Correct Option : A Justification : Solution: Step 1: Find the radius (r) of the track. Area=π r2=1540 ⟹ r2=1540/π≈1540/3.14≈490.45 R= √(490.45 = 22.14m Step 2: Calculate the circumference (distance per round). Circumference=2πr≈2×3.14×22.14≈139 m Step 3: Compute speed (distance/time). Speed=Distance/Time=139/60≈2.32 m/s Hence, option A is correct. Incorrect Correct Option : A Justification : Solution: Step 1: Find the radius (r) of the track. Area=π r2=1540 ⟹ r2=1540/π≈1540/3.14≈490.45 R= √(490.45 = 22.14m Step 2: Calculate the circumference (distance per round). Circumference=2πr≈2×3.14×22.14≈139 m Step 3: Compute speed (distance/time). Speed=Distance/Time=139/60≈2.32 m/s Hence, option A is correct.

#### 29. Question

A circular track has an area of 1540 m². If a man takes 60 seconds to complete one round, what is his speed?

• a. 2.3 m/s

• b. 4.4 m/s

• c. 5.5 m/s

• d. 6.2 m/s

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Step 1: Find the radius (r) of the track.

Area=π r2=1540 ⟹ r2=1540/π≈1540/3.14≈490.45

R= √(490.45 = 22.14m

Step 2: Calculate the circumference (distance per round).

Circumference=2πr≈2×3.14×22.14≈139 m

Step 3: Compute speed (distance/time).

Speed=Distance/Time=139/60≈2.32 m/s

Hence, option A is correct.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Step 1: Find the radius (r) of the track.

Area=π r2=1540 ⟹ r2=1540/π≈1540/3.14≈490.45

R= √(490.45 = 22.14m

Step 2: Calculate the circumference (distance per round).

Circumference=2πr≈2×3.14×22.14≈139 m

Step 3: Compute speed (distance/time).

Speed=Distance/Time=139/60≈2.32 m/s

Hence, option A is correct.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Two friends X and Y start running and they run together for 50 m in the same direction and reach a point. X turns right and runs 60 m, while Y turns left and runs 40m. Then X turns left and runs 50m and stops, while Y turns right and runs 50 m and then stops. How far are the two friends from each other now? (a) 100 m (b) 90 m (c) 60 m (d) 50 m Correct Correct Option: A Consider the turning point as starting point and both facing north, ignore initial 50m. X moves East 60 m and 50 m South Y moves West 40 m and 50 m South Distance is only horizontal and 60 m + 40 m (50 m South can be ignored as we did for the starting 50 m, for being common for both) Incorrect Correct Option: A Consider the turning point as starting point and both facing north, ignore initial 50m. X moves East 60 m and 50 m South Y moves West 40 m and 50 m South Distance is only horizontal and 60 m + 40 m (50 m South can be ignored as we did for the starting 50 m, for being common for both)

#### 30. Question

Two friends X and Y start running and they run together for 50 m in the same direction and reach a point. X turns right and runs 60 m, while Y turns left and runs 40m. Then X turns left and runs 50m and stops, while Y turns right and runs 50 m and then stops. How far are the two friends from each other now?

Correct Option: A

Consider the turning point as starting point and both facing north, ignore initial 50m.

X moves East 60 m and 50 m South

Y moves West 40 m and 50 m South

Distance is only horizontal and 60 m + 40 m (50 m South can be ignored as we did for the starting 50 m, for being common for both)

Correct Option: A

Consider the turning point as starting point and both facing north, ignore initial 50m.

X moves East 60 m and 50 m South

Y moves West 40 m and 50 m South

Distance is only horizontal and 60 m + 40 m (50 m South can be ignored as we did for the starting 50 m, for being common for both)

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