DAY – 63 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – MODERN INDIA , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2012 and Jan 2024 CA
Kartavya Desk Staff
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points The militant group *Majeed* *Brigade* belongs to (a) Iran (b) Pakistan (c) Syria (d) Nigeria Correct Solution: B The Majeed Brigade, part of the separatist group Baloch Liberation Army or BLA- the most prominent separatist group in restive Balochistan ( located in South Western Pakistan). The brigade which has been active since 2011, is the suicide squad of the BLA Balochistan is Pakistan’s largest and most sparsely populated province ; it has oil reserves and abundant natural resources but the ethnic Baloch are Pakistan’s poorest and most under represented people. Recently the Brigade has took responsibility of an attack on a complex outside Pakistan strategic Gwadar port. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Majeed Brigade, part of the separatist group Baloch Liberation Army or BLA- the most prominent separatist group in restive Balochistan ( located in South Western Pakistan). The brigade which has been active since 2011, is the suicide squad of the BLA Balochistan is Pakistan’s largest and most sparsely populated province ; it has oil reserves and abundant natural resources but the ethnic Baloch are Pakistan’s poorest and most under represented people. Recently the Brigade has took responsibility of an attack on a complex outside Pakistan strategic Gwadar port. Hence option B is correct
#### 1. Question
The militant group *Majeed* *Brigade* belongs to
• (b) Pakistan
• (d) Nigeria
Solution: B
• The Majeed Brigade, part of the separatist group Baloch Liberation Army or BLA- the most prominent separatist group in restive Balochistan ( located in South Western Pakistan).
• The brigade which has been active since 2011, is the suicide squad of the BLA
• Balochistan is Pakistan’s largest and most sparsely populated province ; it has oil reserves and abundant natural resources but the ethnic Baloch are Pakistan’s poorest and most under represented people.
• Recently the Brigade has took responsibility of an attack on a complex outside Pakistan strategic Gwadar port.
Hence option B is correct
Solution: B
• The Majeed Brigade, part of the separatist group Baloch Liberation Army or BLA- the most prominent separatist group in restive Balochistan ( located in South Western Pakistan).
• The brigade which has been active since 2011, is the suicide squad of the BLA
• Balochistan is Pakistan’s largest and most sparsely populated province ; it has oil reserves and abundant natural resources but the ethnic Baloch are Pakistan’s poorest and most under represented people.
• Recently the Brigade has took responsibility of an attack on a complex outside Pakistan strategic Gwadar port.
Hence option B is correct
• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Star dunes These are pyramid shaped short sand dunes formed due to action of wind blowing predominantly from a particular direction. These are exclusively found in the deserts of southern hemisphere as well as on Martian surface. Which of the above statements is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Start due or pyramid dunes are named after their distinctive shapes. These are the tallest dunes that can reach hundreds of metres in height. These dune surface other types of dune such as barchans, crescent shaped dunes and straight and lengthy linear dunes. These are formed in areas with complex winds regimes; in cases were winds blowing from different directions and net sand accumulation points within the deserts where big piles of sand can be blown around to form giant dunes. On the other hand, Barchans are produced by action of wind blowing from one direction. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Star dunes are found in Africa, Asia and North America. The largest star dunes are found in the Badain Jaran desert in China. These are also found in Namibia, Algeria, Saudi Arabia and North American deserts. They have also been spotted on Mars and Titan (moon of Saturn). Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D Start due or pyramid dunes are named after their distinctive shapes. These are the tallest dunes that can reach hundreds of metres in height. These dune surface other types of dune such as barchans, crescent shaped dunes and straight and lengthy linear dunes. These are formed in areas with complex winds regimes; in cases were winds blowing from different directions and net sand accumulation points within the deserts where big piles of sand can be blown around to form giant dunes. On the other hand, Barchans are produced by action of wind blowing from one direction. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Star dunes are found in Africa, Asia and North America. The largest star dunes are found in the Badain Jaran desert in China. These are also found in Namibia, Algeria, Saudi Arabia and North American deserts. They have also been spotted on Mars and Titan (moon of Saturn). Hence statement 2 is incorrect
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Star dunes
• These are pyramid shaped short sand dunes formed due to action of wind blowing predominantly from a particular direction.
• These are exclusively found in the deserts of southern hemisphere as well as on Martian surface.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
• Start due or pyramid dunes are named after their distinctive shapes.
• These are the tallest dunes that can reach hundreds of metres in height.
• These dune surface other types of dune such as barchans, crescent shaped dunes and straight and lengthy linear dunes.
• These are formed in areas with complex winds regimes; in cases were winds blowing from different directions and net sand accumulation points within the deserts where big piles of sand can be blown around to form giant dunes.
• On the other hand, Barchans are produced by action of wind blowing from one direction.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• Star dunes are found in Africa, Asia and North America.
• The largest star dunes are found in the Badain Jaran desert in China.
• These are also found in Namibia, Algeria, Saudi Arabia and North American deserts.
• They have also been spotted on Mars and Titan (moon of Saturn).
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
Solution: D
• Start due or pyramid dunes are named after their distinctive shapes.
• These are the tallest dunes that can reach hundreds of metres in height.
• These dune surface other types of dune such as barchans, crescent shaped dunes and straight and lengthy linear dunes.
• These are formed in areas with complex winds regimes; in cases were winds blowing from different directions and net sand accumulation points within the deserts where big piles of sand can be blown around to form giant dunes.
• On the other hand, Barchans are produced by action of wind blowing from one direction.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• Star dunes are found in Africa, Asia and North America.
• The largest star dunes are found in the Badain Jaran desert in China.
• These are also found in Namibia, Algeria, Saudi Arabia and North American deserts.
• They have also been spotted on Mars and Titan (moon of Saturn).
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Majuli Masks, that have recently received geographical indication tag, are from (a) West Bengal (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Assam (d) Tripura Correct Solution: C Majuli Masks are intricately crafted handmade masks from Assam. These masks are traditionally used to depict characters in Bhaona or theatrical performances with devotional messages under the Neo- Vaishnavite tradition introduced in 15th to 16th century by renowned reformer saint Srimanth Sankaradeva. The masks depict several gods and goddesses, demons, animals, etc. The most prominent characters include Ravana, Narasimha, Hanuman, Varaha and so on. These are made from a variety of materials including cloth, bamboo, clay, dung, cotton, wood and vary in size from covering just the face to encompassing the entire Head and body of the performer. These masks have recently been provided with the geographical indication tag by the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Bhaona It is the traditional form of entertainment of Assam created by Srimanth Sankaradeva. It involves songs, dances and dialogues, performed by 40 to 50 artists wearing costumes and ornaments including those playing heavy drums and cymbals. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C Majuli Masks are intricately crafted handmade masks from Assam. These masks are traditionally used to depict characters in Bhaona or theatrical performances with devotional messages under the Neo- Vaishnavite tradition introduced in 15th to 16th century by renowned reformer saint Srimanth Sankaradeva. The masks depict several gods and goddesses, demons, animals, etc. The most prominent characters include Ravana, Narasimha, Hanuman, Varaha and so on. These are made from a variety of materials including cloth, bamboo, clay, dung, cotton, wood and vary in size from covering just the face to encompassing the entire Head and body of the performer. These masks have recently been provided with the geographical indication tag by the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Bhaona It is the traditional form of entertainment of Assam created by Srimanth Sankaradeva. It involves songs, dances and dialogues, performed by 40 to 50 artists wearing costumes and ornaments including those playing heavy drums and cymbals. Hence option C is correct
#### 3. Question
Majuli Masks, that have recently received geographical indication tag, are from
• (a) West Bengal
• (b) Arunachal Pradesh
• (d) Tripura
Solution: C
• Majuli Masks are intricately crafted handmade masks from Assam.
• These masks are traditionally used to depict characters in Bhaona or theatrical performances with devotional messages under the Neo- Vaishnavite tradition introduced in 15th to 16th century by renowned reformer saint Srimanth Sankaradeva.
• The masks depict several gods and goddesses, demons, animals, etc. The most prominent characters include Ravana, Narasimha, Hanuman, Varaha and so on.
• These are made from a variety of materials including cloth, bamboo, clay, dung, cotton, wood and vary in size from covering just the face to encompassing the entire Head and body of the performer.
• These masks have recently been provided with the geographical indication tag by the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Bhaona
• It is the traditional form of entertainment of Assam created by Srimanth Sankaradeva.
• It involves songs, dances and dialogues, performed by 40 to 50 artists wearing costumes and ornaments including those playing heavy drums and cymbals.
Hence option C is correct
Solution: C
• Majuli Masks are intricately crafted handmade masks from Assam.
• These masks are traditionally used to depict characters in Bhaona or theatrical performances with devotional messages under the Neo- Vaishnavite tradition introduced in 15th to 16th century by renowned reformer saint Srimanth Sankaradeva.
• The masks depict several gods and goddesses, demons, animals, etc. The most prominent characters include Ravana, Narasimha, Hanuman, Varaha and so on.
• These are made from a variety of materials including cloth, bamboo, clay, dung, cotton, wood and vary in size from covering just the face to encompassing the entire Head and body of the performer.
• These masks have recently been provided with the geographical indication tag by the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Bhaona
• It is the traditional form of entertainment of Assam created by Srimanth Sankaradeva.
• It involves songs, dances and dialogues, performed by 40 to 50 artists wearing costumes and ornaments including those playing heavy drums and cymbals.
Hence option C is correct
• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Addu atoll, sometimes seen in news, are part of (a) Maldives (b) Singapore (b) Thailand (d) Indonesia Correct Solution: A Addu atoll is the southernmost atoll of the Maldives. It is also known as Seenu Atoll Addu, together with Fuvahmulah, extend the Maldives into the southern hemisphere. India and Maldives have already signed a contract for development of five eco- tourism zones in this atoll in 2022. The islands are protected from Storms and waves of Indian Ocean by barrier reef Here coconut palms are the national tree, that grow almost everywhere. Maldives have great strategic in significance for India India’s Maritime security and strategic imperatives in the Indian Ocean are linked to presence and increased activity of China in the region. Recently defence Ministry of Maldives said that the a team Indian civilians would take charge of operation of a helicopter in Addu. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A Addu atoll is the southernmost atoll of the Maldives. It is also known as Seenu Atoll Addu, together with Fuvahmulah, extend the Maldives into the southern hemisphere. India and Maldives have already signed a contract for development of five eco- tourism zones in this atoll in 2022. The islands are protected from Storms and waves of Indian Ocean by barrier reef Here coconut palms are the national tree, that grow almost everywhere. Maldives have great strategic in significance for India India’s Maritime security and strategic imperatives in the Indian Ocean are linked to presence and increased activity of China in the region. Recently defence Ministry of Maldives said that the a team Indian civilians would take charge of operation of a helicopter in Addu. Hence option A is correct
#### 4. Question
Addu atoll, sometimes seen in news, are part of
• (a) Maldives
• (b) Singapore
• (b) Thailand
• (d) Indonesia
Solution: A
• Addu atoll is the southernmost atoll of the Maldives.
• It is also known as Seenu Atoll
• Addu, together with Fuvahmulah, extend the Maldives into the southern hemisphere.
• India and Maldives have already signed a contract for development of five eco- tourism zones in this atoll in 2022.
• The islands are protected from Storms and waves of Indian Ocean by barrier reef
• Here coconut palms are the national tree, that grow almost everywhere.
• Maldives have great strategic in significance for India India’s Maritime security and strategic imperatives in the Indian Ocean are linked to presence and increased activity of China in the region.
• Recently defence Ministry of Maldives said that the a team Indian civilians would take charge of operation of a helicopter in Addu.
Hence option A is correct
Solution: A
• Addu atoll is the southernmost atoll of the Maldives.
• It is also known as Seenu Atoll
• Addu, together with Fuvahmulah, extend the Maldives into the southern hemisphere.
• India and Maldives have already signed a contract for development of five eco- tourism zones in this atoll in 2022.
• The islands are protected from Storms and waves of Indian Ocean by barrier reef
• Here coconut palms are the national tree, that grow almost everywhere.
• Maldives have great strategic in significance for India India’s Maritime security and strategic imperatives in the Indian Ocean are linked to presence and increased activity of China in the region.
• Recently defence Ministry of Maldives said that the a team Indian civilians would take charge of operation of a helicopter in Addu.
Hence option A is correct
• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements An Improvised Explosive Device (IED) is essentially a home-made bomb that can only cause small scale damages and injuries. An IED can be packed with radioactive substances to turn it into a ‘dirty bomb’. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B An Improvised Explosive Device is basically a homemade bomb According to the United States Department of Homeland Security, these can come in many forms – ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage they can be deployed using a vehicle, carried, placed or thrown by a person, delivered in a package or concealed in strategic locations while such explosive devices have been around for over a century, the IED was first used during the United States invasion of Iraq these are not only meant to kill or injure; they have often especially in active war zones, being used as distractions The extent of damage caused by such a device depends on a size, construction placement and whether it incorporates a high explosive or propellant. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Each IED comprises a few basic components which can come in various forms depending on resources available these include initiator or triggering mechanism, a switch, main charge, a power source and a container. These can also additionally be packed with additional materials such as nails, glass or metal fragments designed to increase the amount of sharpnel released by the explosion- and thus the damage it causes Enhancements may also include hazardous materials such as toxic Chemicals or radioactive circumstances An IED pact with depleted uranium could colloquially be called a dirty bomb. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B An Improvised Explosive Device is basically a homemade bomb According to the United States Department of Homeland Security, these can come in many forms – ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage they can be deployed using a vehicle, carried, placed or thrown by a person, delivered in a package or concealed in strategic locations while such explosive devices have been around for over a century, the IED was first used during the United States invasion of Iraq these are not only meant to kill or injure; they have often especially in active war zones, being used as distractions The extent of damage caused by such a device depends on a size, construction placement and whether it incorporates a high explosive or propellant. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Each IED comprises a few basic components which can come in various forms depending on resources available these include initiator or triggering mechanism, a switch, main charge, a power source and a container. These can also additionally be packed with additional materials such as nails, glass or metal fragments designed to increase the amount of sharpnel released by the explosion- and thus the damage it causes Enhancements may also include hazardous materials such as toxic Chemicals or radioactive circumstances An IED pact with depleted uranium could colloquially be called a dirty bomb. Hence statement 2 is correct
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements
• An Improvised Explosive Device (IED) is essentially a home-made bomb that can only cause small scale damages and injuries.
• An IED can be packed with radioactive substances to turn it into a ‘dirty bomb’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
• An Improvised Explosive Device is basically a homemade bomb
• According to the United States Department of Homeland Security, these can come in many forms – ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage
• they can be deployed using a vehicle, carried, placed or thrown by a person, delivered in a package or concealed in strategic locations
• while such explosive devices have been around for over a century, the IED was first used during the United States invasion of Iraq
• these are not only meant to kill or injure; they have often especially in active war zones, being used as distractions
• The extent of damage caused by such a device depends on a size, construction placement and whether it incorporates a high explosive or propellant.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• Each IED comprises a few basic components which can come in various forms depending on resources available
• these include initiator or triggering mechanism, a switch, main charge, a power source and a container.
• These can also additionally be packed with additional materials such as nails, glass or metal fragments designed to increase the amount of sharpnel released by the explosion- and thus the damage it causes
• Enhancements may also include hazardous materials such as toxic Chemicals or radioactive circumstances
• An IED pact with depleted uranium could colloquially be called a dirty bomb.
Hence statement 2 is correct
Solution: B
• An Improvised Explosive Device is basically a homemade bomb
• According to the United States Department of Homeland Security, these can come in many forms – ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage
• they can be deployed using a vehicle, carried, placed or thrown by a person, delivered in a package or concealed in strategic locations
• while such explosive devices have been around for over a century, the IED was first used during the United States invasion of Iraq
• these are not only meant to kill or injure; they have often especially in active war zones, being used as distractions
• The extent of damage caused by such a device depends on a size, construction placement and whether it incorporates a high explosive or propellant.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• Each IED comprises a few basic components which can come in various forms depending on resources available
• these include initiator or triggering mechanism, a switch, main charge, a power source and a container.
• These can also additionally be packed with additional materials such as nails, glass or metal fragments designed to increase the amount of sharpnel released by the explosion- and thus the damage it causes
• Enhancements may also include hazardous materials such as toxic Chemicals or radioactive circumstances
• An IED pact with depleted uranium could colloquially be called a dirty bomb.
Hence statement 2 is correct
• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Nehru Report of 1929 called for equal civic rights for both men and women. The Government of India Act 1935 expanded voting rights, enabling women to participate in public offices. In 1945-46, the All-India Women’s Conference adopted the Indian Woman’s Charter, demanding equality, women’s economic empowerment, and reforms in personal laws. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Feminist movements in pre-independent India: They played a crucial role in ensuring women’s rights were guaranteed in the Constitution. 1917 – Memorandum of Demands: Women activists presented a memorandum of demands to Montagu and Lord Chelmsford, urging enfranchisement. 1917 – Formation of IWA: The Women’s Indian Association (WIA) was established to address women’s socio-economic challenges, becoming the first national body advocating for female suffrage. 1918 – Travel for Support: WIA and others travelled to Britain in 1918 to garner international support for their causes. Congress Resolutions: Sarojini Naidu championed women’s rights within the Congress party, moving resolutions for women’s enfranchisement in Bijapur and Bombay. 1921 – First Victory: The Government of India Act, 1919 allowed provincial legislatures to enfranchise women, with Madras becoming the first province to grant women the right to vote in 1921. 1925 – Bengal Campaigns: The enfranchisement Bill faced defeat in the Bengal Legislative Council. Suffragists, led by the Bangiya Nari Samaj, organized extensive awareness campaigns, resulting in the Bill’s passage in 1925. Formation of All India Women’s Conference (AIWC): In 1927, women-led organizations formed the AIWC. Initially focused on women’s education, AIWC later advocated against child marriage, raised the age of consent, and opposed polygamy. Nehru Report & Beyond on Right to Vote: The Nehru Report of 1929 called for equal civic rights, but Britain resisted the expansion of this right. Government of India Act 1935: This Act expanded voting rights, enabling women to participate in public offices. In the 1936-37 elections, women leaders advocated for universal adult franchise. Adoption of Indian Woman’s Charter: In 1945-46, AIWC adopted this charter, demanding equality, women’s economic empowerment, and reforms in personal laws. Post-Partition Issue: After Partition, reservation of seats on religious grounds emerged as a key issue. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Feminist movements in pre-independent India: They played a crucial role in ensuring women’s rights were guaranteed in the Constitution. 1917 – Memorandum of Demands: Women activists presented a memorandum of demands to Montagu and Lord Chelmsford, urging enfranchisement. 1917 – Formation of IWA: The Women’s Indian Association (WIA) was established to address women’s socio-economic challenges, becoming the first national body advocating for female suffrage. 1918 – Travel for Support: WIA and others travelled to Britain in 1918 to garner international support for their causes. Congress Resolutions: Sarojini Naidu championed women’s rights within the Congress party, moving resolutions for women’s enfranchisement in Bijapur and Bombay. 1921 – First Victory: The Government of India Act, 1919 allowed provincial legislatures to enfranchise women, with Madras becoming the first province to grant women the right to vote in 1921. 1925 – Bengal Campaigns: The enfranchisement Bill faced defeat in the Bengal Legislative Council. Suffragists, led by the Bangiya Nari Samaj, organized extensive awareness campaigns, resulting in the Bill’s passage in 1925. Formation of All India Women’s Conference (AIWC): In 1927, women-led organizations formed the AIWC. Initially focused on women’s education, AIWC later advocated against child marriage, raised the age of consent, and opposed polygamy. Nehru Report & Beyond on Right to Vote: The Nehru Report of 1929 called for equal civic rights, but Britain resisted the expansion of this right. Government of India Act 1935: This Act expanded voting rights, enabling women to participate in public offices. In the 1936-37 elections, women leaders advocated for universal adult franchise. Adoption of Indian Woman’s Charter: In 1945-46, AIWC adopted this charter, demanding equality, women’s economic empowerment, and reforms in personal laws. Post-Partition Issue: After Partition, reservation of seats on religious grounds emerged as a key issue. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements.
• The Nehru Report of 1929 called for equal civic rights for both men and women.
• The Government of India Act 1935 expanded voting rights, enabling women to participate in public offices.
• In 1945-46, the All-India Women’s Conference adopted the Indian Woman’s Charter, demanding equality, women’s economic empowerment, and reforms in personal laws.
How many of the above is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: c)
Justification: Feminist movements in pre-independent India: They played a crucial role in ensuring women’s rights were guaranteed in the Constitution.
• 1917 – Memorandum of Demands: Women activists presented a memorandum of demands to Montagu and Lord Chelmsford, urging enfranchisement.
• 1917 – Formation of IWA: The Women’s Indian Association (WIA) was established to address women’s socio-economic challenges, becoming the first national body advocating for female suffrage.
• 1918 – Travel for Support: WIA and others travelled to Britain in 1918 to garner international support for their causes.
• Congress Resolutions: Sarojini Naidu championed women’s rights within the Congress party, moving resolutions for women’s enfranchisement in Bijapur and Bombay.
• 1921 – First Victory: The Government of India Act, 1919 allowed provincial legislatures to enfranchise women, with Madras becoming the first province to grant women the right to vote in 1921.
• 1925 – Bengal Campaigns: The enfranchisement Bill faced defeat in the Bengal Legislative Council. Suffragists, led by the Bangiya Nari Samaj, organized extensive awareness campaigns, resulting in the Bill’s passage in 1925.
• Formation of All India Women’s Conference (AIWC): In 1927, women-led organizations formed the AIWC. Initially focused on women’s education, AIWC later advocated against child marriage, raised the age of consent, and opposed polygamy.
• Nehru Report & Beyond on Right to Vote: The Nehru Report of 1929 called for equal civic rights, but Britain resisted the expansion of this right.
• Government of India Act 1935: This Act expanded voting rights, enabling women to participate in public offices. In the 1936-37 elections, women leaders advocated for universal adult franchise.
• Adoption of Indian Woman’s Charter: In 1945-46, AIWC adopted this charter, demanding equality, women’s economic empowerment, and reforms in personal laws.
• Post-Partition Issue: After Partition, reservation of seats on religious grounds emerged as a key issue.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/
Solution: c)
Justification: Feminist movements in pre-independent India: They played a crucial role in ensuring women’s rights were guaranteed in the Constitution.
• 1917 – Memorandum of Demands: Women activists presented a memorandum of demands to Montagu and Lord Chelmsford, urging enfranchisement.
• 1917 – Formation of IWA: The Women’s Indian Association (WIA) was established to address women’s socio-economic challenges, becoming the first national body advocating for female suffrage.
• 1918 – Travel for Support: WIA and others travelled to Britain in 1918 to garner international support for their causes.
• Congress Resolutions: Sarojini Naidu championed women’s rights within the Congress party, moving resolutions for women’s enfranchisement in Bijapur and Bombay.
• 1921 – First Victory: The Government of India Act, 1919 allowed provincial legislatures to enfranchise women, with Madras becoming the first province to grant women the right to vote in 1921.
• 1925 – Bengal Campaigns: The enfranchisement Bill faced defeat in the Bengal Legislative Council. Suffragists, led by the Bangiya Nari Samaj, organized extensive awareness campaigns, resulting in the Bill’s passage in 1925.
• Formation of All India Women’s Conference (AIWC): In 1927, women-led organizations formed the AIWC. Initially focused on women’s education, AIWC later advocated against child marriage, raised the age of consent, and opposed polygamy.
• Nehru Report & Beyond on Right to Vote: The Nehru Report of 1929 called for equal civic rights, but Britain resisted the expansion of this right.
• Government of India Act 1935: This Act expanded voting rights, enabling women to participate in public offices. In the 1936-37 elections, women leaders advocated for universal adult franchise.
• Adoption of Indian Woman’s Charter: In 1945-46, AIWC adopted this charter, demanding equality, women’s economic empowerment, and reforms in personal laws.
• Post-Partition Issue: After Partition, reservation of seats on religious grounds emerged as a key issue.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/
• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Article 226 of the Constitution of India gives High Courts the power to issue writs, orders, and directions to enforce fundamental rights to any person or a legal body like a university, but excluding the government. extraordinary jurisdiction to address legal injury, which allows the High Court to consider public interest and equity when making decisions. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Justification: Article 226 of the Constitution of India gives High Courts the power to issue writs, orders, and directions to enforce fundamental rights and other purposes. This includes the power to issue writs to any person or authority, including the government. Article 226 gives High Courts extraordinary jurisdiction to address legal injury. This allows the High Court to consider public interest and equity when making decisions. Context: The Delhi High Court has observed that the South Asian University (SAU) has the status of an “international organisation” and is entitled to “privilege and immunity” from the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. The university is characterized as an international institution, deriving its powers from a 2007 inter-governmental agreement. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Article 226 of the Constitution of India gives High Courts the power to issue writs, orders, and directions to enforce fundamental rights and other purposes. This includes the power to issue writs to any person or authority, including the government. Article 226 gives High Courts extraordinary jurisdiction to address legal injury. This allows the High Court to consider public interest and equity when making decisions. Context: The Delhi High Court has observed that the South Asian University (SAU) has the status of an “international organisation” and is entitled to “privilege and immunity” from the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. The university is characterized as an international institution, deriving its powers from a 2007 inter-governmental agreement. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/
#### 7. Question
Article 226 of the Constitution of India gives High Courts
• the power to issue writs, orders, and directions to enforce fundamental rights to any person or a legal body like a university, but excluding the government.
• extraordinary jurisdiction to address legal injury, which allows the High Court to consider public interest and equity when making decisions.
Which of the above is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Justification: Article 226 of the Constitution of India gives High Courts the power to issue writs, orders, and directions to enforce fundamental rights and other purposes. This includes the power to issue writs to any person or authority, including the government.
Article 226 gives High Courts extraordinary jurisdiction to address legal injury. This allows the High Court to consider public interest and equity when making decisions.
Context: The Delhi High Court has observed that the South Asian University (SAU) has the status of an “international organisation” and is entitled to “privilege and immunity” from the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
The university is characterized as an international institution, deriving its powers from a 2007 inter-governmental agreement.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/
Solution: b)
Justification: Article 226 of the Constitution of India gives High Courts the power to issue writs, orders, and directions to enforce fundamental rights and other purposes. This includes the power to issue writs to any person or authority, including the government.
Article 226 gives High Courts extraordinary jurisdiction to address legal injury. This allows the High Court to consider public interest and equity when making decisions.
Context: The Delhi High Court has observed that the South Asian University (SAU) has the status of an “international organisation” and is entitled to “privilege and immunity” from the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
The university is characterized as an international institution, deriving its powers from a 2007 inter-governmental agreement.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/
• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. In a primary security market, issuance of new securities by companies to raise capital may include mechanisms like the Initial Public Offerings. In a secondary security market, trading of existing securities can occur among investors but only with the involvement of the issuing or parent company. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: The stock market is a collection of exchanges where investors can buy and sell company shares and other securities. It also includes over-the-counter (OTC) marketplaces where investors can trade securities directly with each other. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-january-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The stock market is a collection of exchanges where investors can buy and sell company shares and other securities. It also includes over-the-counter (OTC) marketplaces where investors can trade securities directly with each other. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-january-2024/
#### 8. Question
Consider the following statements.
• In a primary security market, issuance of new securities by companies to raise capital may include mechanisms like the Initial Public Offerings.
• In a secondary security market, trading of existing securities can occur among investors but only with the involvement of the issuing or parent company.
Which of the above is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Justification: The stock market is a collection of exchanges where investors can buy and sell company shares and other securities. It also includes over-the-counter (OTC) marketplaces where investors can trade securities directly with each other.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-january-2024/
Solution: a)
Justification: The stock market is a collection of exchanges where investors can buy and sell company shares and other securities. It also includes over-the-counter (OTC) marketplaces where investors can trade securities directly with each other.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-january-2024/
• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The India-Myanmar border traverses which of these geographical features? Mishmi Hills Kassom Ranges Tiau River Teesta River How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Justification: The India-Myanmar border is a 1,643-kilometer international boundary running from the tripoint with China in the north to the tripoint with Bangladesh in the south. The trijunction between India, China, and Myanmar is yet to be agreed upon, with the de facto tripoint located just north of the Diphu Pass. The border traverses various geographical features, including the Mishmi Hills, Patkai, Kassom Ranges, Tiau River, and Chin Hills, before reaching the Bangladeshi tripoint through irregular lines. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-january-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The India-Myanmar border is a 1,643-kilometer international boundary running from the tripoint with China in the north to the tripoint with Bangladesh in the south. The trijunction between India, China, and Myanmar is yet to be agreed upon, with the de facto tripoint located just north of the Diphu Pass. The border traverses various geographical features, including the Mishmi Hills, Patkai, Kassom Ranges, Tiau River, and Chin Hills, before reaching the Bangladeshi tripoint through irregular lines. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-january-2024/
#### 9. Question
The India-Myanmar border traverses which of these geographical features?
• Mishmi Hills
• Kassom Ranges
• Tiau River
• Teesta River
How many of the above is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Solution: c)
Justification: The India-Myanmar border is a 1,643-kilometer international boundary running from the tripoint with China in the north to the tripoint with Bangladesh in the south. The trijunction between India, China, and Myanmar is yet to be agreed upon, with the de facto tripoint located just north of the Diphu Pass. The border traverses various geographical features, including the Mishmi Hills, Patkai, Kassom Ranges, Tiau River, and Chin Hills, before reaching the Bangladeshi tripoint through irregular lines.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-january-2024/
Solution: c)
Justification: The India-Myanmar border is a 1,643-kilometer international boundary running from the tripoint with China in the north to the tripoint with Bangladesh in the south. The trijunction between India, China, and Myanmar is yet to be agreed upon, with the de facto tripoint located just north of the Diphu Pass. The border traverses various geographical features, including the Mishmi Hills, Patkai, Kassom Ranges, Tiau River, and Chin Hills, before reaching the Bangladeshi tripoint through irregular lines.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-january-2024/
• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the benefits of the Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services (ACROSS) Scheme: The scheme aims to provide weather, climate and ocean forecast and services. The scheme ensures last-mile connectivity of the weather based services to the end-user, via a number of agencies such as the Krishi Vigyana Kendras, Universities and local municipalities. The scheme provides finance to grassroots initiatives that aim at climate change mitigation. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: ACROSS Scheme pertains to the atmospheric science programs of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). It addresses different aspects of weather and climate services, which includes warnings for cyclone, storm surges, heat waves, thunderstorms etc. Each of these aspects is incorporated as nine sub-schemes under the umbrella scheme “ACROSS” and is implemented in an integrated. The scheme will provide improved weather, climate and ocean forecast and services, thereby ensuring transfer of commensurate benefits to the various services. It will also provide a sizable number of scientific and technical staff along with requisite administrative support, thereby generating employment. To ensure last-mile connectivity of the weather based services to the end -user, a large number of agencies like the Krishi Vigyana Kendras of ICAR, Universities and local municipalities are roped in thus generating employment opportunities to many people. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-january-2024/ https://www.insightsonindia.com/social-justice/welfare-schemes/schemes-under-ministry-of-earth-sciences/atmosphere-climate-research-modelling-observing-systems-services-across-scheme/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: ACROSS Scheme pertains to the atmospheric science programs of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). It addresses different aspects of weather and climate services, which includes warnings for cyclone, storm surges, heat waves, thunderstorms etc. Each of these aspects is incorporated as nine sub-schemes under the umbrella scheme “ACROSS” and is implemented in an integrated. The scheme will provide improved weather, climate and ocean forecast and services, thereby ensuring transfer of commensurate benefits to the various services. It will also provide a sizable number of scientific and technical staff along with requisite administrative support, thereby generating employment. To ensure last-mile connectivity of the weather based services to the end -user, a large number of agencies like the Krishi Vigyana Kendras of ICAR, Universities and local municipalities are roped in thus generating employment opportunities to many people. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-january-2024/ https://www.insightsonindia.com/social-justice/welfare-schemes/schemes-under-ministry-of-earth-sciences/atmosphere-climate-research-modelling-observing-systems-services-across-scheme/
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements about the benefits of the Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services (ACROSS) Scheme:
• The scheme aims to provide weather, climate and ocean forecast and services.
• The scheme ensures last-mile connectivity of the weather based services to the end-user, via a number of agencies such as the Krishi Vigyana Kendras, Universities and local municipalities.
• The scheme provides finance to grassroots initiatives that aim at climate change mitigation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Justification: ACROSS Scheme pertains to the atmospheric science programs of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
It addresses different aspects of weather and climate services, which includes warnings for cyclone, storm surges, heat waves, thunderstorms etc.
Each of these aspects is incorporated as nine sub-schemes under the umbrella scheme “ACROSS” and is implemented in an integrated.
The scheme will provide improved weather, climate and ocean forecast and services, thereby ensuring transfer of commensurate benefits to the various services.
It will also provide a sizable number of scientific and technical staff along with requisite administrative support, thereby generating employment.
To ensure last-mile connectivity of the weather based services to the end -user, a large number of agencies like the Krishi Vigyana Kendras of ICAR, Universities and local municipalities are roped in thus generating employment opportunities to many people.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-january-2024/
https://www.insightsonindia.com/social-justice/welfare-schemes/schemes-under-ministry-of-earth-sciences/atmosphere-climate-research-modelling-observing-systems-services-across-scheme/
Solution: b)
Justification: ACROSS Scheme pertains to the atmospheric science programs of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
It addresses different aspects of weather and climate services, which includes warnings for cyclone, storm surges, heat waves, thunderstorms etc.
Each of these aspects is incorporated as nine sub-schemes under the umbrella scheme “ACROSS” and is implemented in an integrated.
The scheme will provide improved weather, climate and ocean forecast and services, thereby ensuring transfer of commensurate benefits to the various services.
It will also provide a sizable number of scientific and technical staff along with requisite administrative support, thereby generating employment.
To ensure last-mile connectivity of the weather based services to the end -user, a large number of agencies like the Krishi Vigyana Kendras of ICAR, Universities and local municipalities are roped in thus generating employment opportunities to many people.
Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/08/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-8-january-2024/
https://www.insightsonindia.com/social-justice/welfare-schemes/schemes-under-ministry-of-earth-sciences/atmosphere-climate-research-modelling-observing-systems-services-across-scheme/
• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the contributions of women during India’s freedom struggle: Sarala Devi organized the first major Indian women’s organization set up by a woman. Parvati Devi initiated the Kanchi Mahila Parishad in Madras presidency. Sarojini Naidu attended the Second Round Table Conference in 1931. How many of the above statements is/are *incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: d Explanation: Sarala Devi Chaudrani was an educationist and feminist, was daughter of Rabindranath Tagore’s older sister, Swarna Kumari Devi and Janakinath Ghoshal. Growing up in the Tagore household, she had the benefit of the cultural and political milieu of that environment. She played a significant role in organizing women’s movements during the freedom struggle. One of her notable contributions was the establishment of the Bharat Stri Maha Mandal (Indian Women’s Grand Assembly) in Lahore. In 1910 she convened the first meeting of the Bharat Stree Mahamandal, the first major Indian women’s organisation set up by a woman, and she did this because she felt that the men working for women’s emancipation lived ‘under the shade of Manu’. The Mahamandal identified purdah as the biggest stumbling block to women, and accordingly resolved to train teachers to go into the zenana and teach basic skills. In 1930 she opened a school, the Bharat Stree Shiksha Sadan, in Calcutta. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Parvati Devi, the headmistress of a Hindu girls’ school at Kanchi a small town in the Madras presidency started Kanchi Mahila Parishad to equip women of Kanchi with knowledge to create public opinion over burning issues of the nation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In 1931, Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women at the Second Round Table Conference held in London. As an official delegate, she eloquently presented the demands and aspirations of Indian women for greater participation in the political process and for the advancement of women’s rights. Her presence at the conference highlighted the role of women in India’s struggle for independence and brought international attention to their cause. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Sarala Devi Chaudrani was an educationist and feminist, was daughter of Rabindranath Tagore’s older sister, Swarna Kumari Devi and Janakinath Ghoshal. Growing up in the Tagore household, she had the benefit of the cultural and political milieu of that environment. She played a significant role in organizing women’s movements during the freedom struggle. One of her notable contributions was the establishment of the Bharat Stri Maha Mandal (Indian Women’s Grand Assembly) in Lahore. In 1910 she convened the first meeting of the Bharat Stree Mahamandal, the first major Indian women’s organisation set up by a woman, and she did this because she felt that the men working for women’s emancipation lived ‘under the shade of Manu’. The Mahamandal identified purdah as the biggest stumbling block to women, and accordingly resolved to train teachers to go into the zenana and teach basic skills. In 1930 she opened a school, the Bharat Stree Shiksha Sadan, in Calcutta. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Parvati Devi, the headmistress of a Hindu girls’ school at Kanchi a small town in the Madras presidency started Kanchi Mahila Parishad to equip women of Kanchi with knowledge to create public opinion over burning issues of the nation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In 1931, Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women at the Second Round Table Conference held in London. As an official delegate, she eloquently presented the demands and aspirations of Indian women for greater participation in the political process and for the advancement of women’s rights. Her presence at the conference highlighted the role of women in India’s struggle for independence and brought international attention to their cause. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.*
#### 11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the contributions of women during India’s freedom struggle:
• Sarala Devi organized the first major Indian women’s organization set up by a woman.
• Parvati Devi initiated the Kanchi Mahila Parishad in Madras presidency.
• Sarojini Naidu attended the Second Round Table Conference in 1931.
How many of the above statements is/are *incorrect*?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• Sarala Devi Chaudrani was an educationist and feminist, was daughter of Rabindranath Tagore’s older sister, Swarna Kumari Devi and Janakinath Ghoshal. Growing up in the Tagore household, she had the benefit of the cultural and political milieu of that environment.
• She played a significant role in organizing women’s movements during the freedom struggle. One of her notable contributions was the establishment of the Bharat Stri Maha Mandal (Indian Women’s Grand Assembly) in Lahore. In 1910 she convened the first meeting of the Bharat Stree Mahamandal, the first major Indian women’s organisation set up by a woman, and she did this because she felt that the men working for women’s emancipation lived ‘under the shade of Manu’. The Mahamandal identified purdah as the biggest stumbling block to women, and accordingly resolved to train teachers to go into the zenana and teach basic skills. In 1930 she opened a school, the Bharat Stree Shiksha Sadan, in Calcutta. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Parvati Devi, the headmistress of a Hindu girls’ school at Kanchi a small town in the Madras presidency started Kanchi Mahila Parishad to equip women of Kanchi with knowledge to create public opinion over burning issues of the nation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In 1931, Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women at the Second Round Table Conference held in London. As an official delegate, she eloquently presented the demands and aspirations of Indian women for greater participation in the political process and for the advancement of women’s rights. Her presence at the conference highlighted the role of women in India’s struggle for independence and brought international attention to their cause. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Explanation:
• Sarala Devi Chaudrani was an educationist and feminist, was daughter of Rabindranath Tagore’s older sister, Swarna Kumari Devi and Janakinath Ghoshal. Growing up in the Tagore household, she had the benefit of the cultural and political milieu of that environment.
• She played a significant role in organizing women’s movements during the freedom struggle. One of her notable contributions was the establishment of the Bharat Stri Maha Mandal (Indian Women’s Grand Assembly) in Lahore. In 1910 she convened the first meeting of the Bharat Stree Mahamandal, the first major Indian women’s organisation set up by a woman, and she did this because she felt that the men working for women’s emancipation lived ‘under the shade of Manu’. The Mahamandal identified purdah as the biggest stumbling block to women, and accordingly resolved to train teachers to go into the zenana and teach basic skills. In 1930 she opened a school, the Bharat Stree Shiksha Sadan, in Calcutta. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Parvati Devi, the headmistress of a Hindu girls’ school at Kanchi a small town in the Madras presidency started Kanchi Mahila Parishad to equip women of Kanchi with knowledge to create public opinion over burning issues of the nation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In 1931, Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women at the Second Round Table Conference held in London. As an official delegate, she eloquently presented the demands and aspirations of Indian women for greater participation in the political process and for the advancement of women’s rights. Her presence at the conference highlighted the role of women in India’s struggle for independence and brought international attention to their cause. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Who was the founder of the All India Women’s Conference (AIWC), which played a significant role in advocating for women’s rights during the national movement? a) Kamala Nehru b) Anastasia Beckman c) Annie Besant d) Margaret Cousins Correct Answer: d Explanation: Margaret Cousins, an Irish-Indian suffragist and social reformer, founded the All India Women’s Conference in 1927. The AIWC emerged as a platform for Indian women to voice their concerns, advocate for their rights, and work towards social and political reforms during the Indian national movement. Under Margaret Cousins’ leadership, the AIWC addressed issues such as women’s education, gender equality, child welfare, and political participation. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Margaret Cousins, an Irish-Indian suffragist and social reformer, founded the All India Women’s Conference in 1927. The AIWC emerged as a platform for Indian women to voice their concerns, advocate for their rights, and work towards social and political reforms during the Indian national movement. Under Margaret Cousins’ leadership, the AIWC addressed issues such as women’s education, gender equality, child welfare, and political participation. Hence, option (d) is correct.
#### 12. Question
Who was the founder of the All India Women’s Conference (AIWC), which played a significant role in advocating for women’s rights during the national movement?
• a) Kamala Nehru
• b) Anastasia Beckman
• c) Annie Besant
• d) Margaret Cousins
Explanation:
• Margaret Cousins, an Irish-Indian suffragist and social reformer, founded the All India Women’s Conference in 1927. The AIWC emerged as a platform for Indian women to voice their concerns, advocate for their rights, and work towards social and political reforms during the Indian national movement. Under Margaret Cousins’ leadership, the AIWC addressed issues such as women’s education, gender equality, child welfare, and political participation.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Explanation:
• Margaret Cousins, an Irish-Indian suffragist and social reformer, founded the All India Women’s Conference in 1927. The AIWC emerged as a platform for Indian women to voice their concerns, advocate for their rights, and work towards social and political reforms during the Indian national movement. Under Margaret Cousins’ leadership, the AIWC addressed issues such as women’s education, gender equality, child welfare, and political participation.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Which of the following revolutionaries was involved in the Chittagong Armoury Raid in 1930 and later served as a member of the Constituent Assembly of India? a) Pritilata Waddedar b) Kalpana Datta c) Ambika Chakraborty d) Bina Das Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Chittagong armory raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930 by armed Indian independence fighters led by Surya Sen to raid the armory of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armory in the Bengal Presidency of British India (now in Bangladesh). Apart from Surya Sen, these patriots included Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath Bal, Nirmal Sen, Ambika Chakraborty, Naresh Roy, Sasanka Datta, Ardhendu Dastidar, Harigopal Bal, Tarakeswar Dastidar, Ananta Singh, Jiban Ghoshal, Anand Gupta, Pritilata Waddedar, and Kalpana Dutta. Pritilata Waddedar died during a raid; Kalpana Datta, who was arrested and tried alongside Surya Sen and given a life sentence. After her involvement in the independence movement, Kalpana Datta continued her activism and political work. She later served as a member of the Constituent Assembly of India in 1946. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Chittagong armory raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930 by armed Indian independence fighters led by Surya Sen to raid the armory of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armory in the Bengal Presidency of British India (now in Bangladesh). Apart from Surya Sen, these patriots included Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath Bal, Nirmal Sen, Ambika Chakraborty, Naresh Roy, Sasanka Datta, Ardhendu Dastidar, Harigopal Bal, Tarakeswar Dastidar, Ananta Singh, Jiban Ghoshal, Anand Gupta, Pritilata Waddedar, and Kalpana Dutta. Pritilata Waddedar died during a raid; Kalpana Datta, who was arrested and tried alongside Surya Sen and given a life sentence. After her involvement in the independence movement, Kalpana Datta continued her activism and political work. She later served as a member of the Constituent Assembly of India in 1946. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 13. Question
Which of the following revolutionaries was involved in the Chittagong Armoury Raid in 1930 and later served as a member of the Constituent Assembly of India?
• a) Pritilata Waddedar
• b) Kalpana Datta
• c) Ambika Chakraborty
• d) Bina Das
Explanation:
• The Chittagong armory raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930 by armed Indian independence fighters led by Surya Sen to raid the armory of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armory in the Bengal Presidency of British India (now in Bangladesh).
• Apart from Surya Sen, these patriots included Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath Bal, Nirmal Sen, Ambika Chakraborty, Naresh Roy, Sasanka Datta, Ardhendu Dastidar, Harigopal Bal, Tarakeswar Dastidar, Ananta Singh, Jiban Ghoshal, Anand Gupta, Pritilata Waddedar, and Kalpana Dutta.
• Pritilata Waddedar died during a raid;
• Kalpana Datta, who was arrested and tried alongside Surya Sen and given a life sentence.
• After her involvement in the independence movement, Kalpana Datta continued her activism and political work. She later served as a member of the Constituent Assembly of India in 1946.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Chittagong armory raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930 by armed Indian independence fighters led by Surya Sen to raid the armory of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armory in the Bengal Presidency of British India (now in Bangladesh).
• Apart from Surya Sen, these patriots included Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath Bal, Nirmal Sen, Ambika Chakraborty, Naresh Roy, Sasanka Datta, Ardhendu Dastidar, Harigopal Bal, Tarakeswar Dastidar, Ananta Singh, Jiban Ghoshal, Anand Gupta, Pritilata Waddedar, and Kalpana Dutta.
• Pritilata Waddedar died during a raid;
• Kalpana Datta, who was arrested and tried alongside Surya Sen and given a life sentence.
• After her involvement in the independence movement, Kalpana Datta continued her activism and political work. She later served as a member of the Constituent Assembly of India in 1946.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points What strategy did Indian journalists adopt to avoid punishment under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code? a) Publishing anti-imperialist extracts from British newspapers b) Prefacing their writing with loyalty to the British government c) Launching underground newspapers d) Seeking asylum in foreign countries Correct Answer: b Explanation: Publishing anti-imperialist extracts from British newspapers strategy provided Indian journalists with examples or arguments to support their critiques of colonial policies, it does not directly address the legal risk posed by sedition laws in India. Quoting anti-imperialist content from British newspapers may offer rhetorical ammunition, but it doesn’t shield journalists from potential prosecution under Indian sedition laws. The strategy adopted by Indian journalists to avoid punishment under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code was prefacing their writing with loyalty to the British government. This strategy involved Indian journalists expressing effusive sentiments of loyalty to the British government and the Queen before engaging in any critical or anti-imperialist writing. By doing so, they attempted to circumvent the legal repercussions of Section 124A, which penalized attempts to excite feelings of disaffection towards the British government. This approach allowed journalists to critique British colonial policies and advocate for Indian rights while avoiding direct prosecution under sedition laws. While launching underground newspapers may provide a means of circumventing censorship and expressing dissenting views, it carries significant risks. Operating underground newspapers entails the constant threat of discovery by colonial authorities, leading to arrests, confiscation of materials, and potential imprisonment for journalists involved. While underground newspapers were indeed a form of resistance, they didn’t necessarily offer legal protection against sedition charges. While seeking asylum in foreign countries may offer a safe haven for journalists facing persecution in India, seeking asylum may not be a viable option for many journalists due to logistical, financial, or personal constraints. Furthermore, while asylum may protect journalists from immediate legal jeopardy, it doesn’t address the broader challenge of advocating for Indian rights and freedoms within the colonial context. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Publishing anti-imperialist extracts from British newspapers strategy provided Indian journalists with examples or arguments to support their critiques of colonial policies, it does not directly address the legal risk posed by sedition laws in India. Quoting anti-imperialist content from British newspapers may offer rhetorical ammunition, but it doesn’t shield journalists from potential prosecution under Indian sedition laws. The strategy adopted by Indian journalists to avoid punishment under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code was prefacing their writing with loyalty to the British government. This strategy involved Indian journalists expressing effusive sentiments of loyalty to the British government and the Queen before engaging in any critical or anti-imperialist writing. By doing so, they attempted to circumvent the legal repercussions of Section 124A, which penalized attempts to excite feelings of disaffection towards the British government. This approach allowed journalists to critique British colonial policies and advocate for Indian rights while avoiding direct prosecution under sedition laws. While launching underground newspapers may provide a means of circumventing censorship and expressing dissenting views, it carries significant risks. Operating underground newspapers entails the constant threat of discovery by colonial authorities, leading to arrests, confiscation of materials, and potential imprisonment for journalists involved. While underground newspapers were indeed a form of resistance, they didn’t necessarily offer legal protection against sedition charges. While seeking asylum in foreign countries may offer a safe haven for journalists facing persecution in India, seeking asylum may not be a viable option for many journalists due to logistical, financial, or personal constraints. Furthermore, while asylum may protect journalists from immediate legal jeopardy, it doesn’t address the broader challenge of advocating for Indian rights and freedoms within the colonial context. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 14. Question
What strategy did Indian journalists adopt to avoid punishment under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code?
• a) Publishing anti-imperialist extracts from British newspapers
• b) Prefacing their writing with loyalty to the British government
• c) Launching underground newspapers
• d) Seeking asylum in foreign countries
Explanation:
• Publishing anti-imperialist extracts from British newspapers strategy provided Indian journalists with examples or arguments to support their critiques of colonial policies, it does not directly address the legal risk posed by sedition laws in India. Quoting anti-imperialist content from British newspapers may offer rhetorical ammunition, but it doesn’t shield journalists from potential prosecution under Indian sedition laws.
• The strategy adopted by Indian journalists to avoid punishment under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code was prefacing their writing with loyalty to the British government.
• This strategy involved Indian journalists expressing effusive sentiments of loyalty to the British government and the Queen before engaging in any critical or anti-imperialist writing. By doing so, they attempted to circumvent the legal repercussions of Section 124A, which penalized attempts to excite feelings of disaffection towards the British government. This approach allowed journalists to critique British colonial policies and advocate for Indian rights while avoiding direct prosecution under sedition laws.
• While launching underground newspapers may provide a means of circumventing censorship and expressing dissenting views, it carries significant risks. Operating underground newspapers entails the constant threat of discovery by colonial authorities, leading to arrests, confiscation of materials, and potential imprisonment for journalists involved. While underground newspapers were indeed a form of resistance, they didn’t necessarily offer legal protection against sedition charges.
• While seeking asylum in foreign countries may offer a safe haven for journalists facing persecution in India, seeking asylum may not be a viable option for many journalists due to logistical, financial, or personal constraints. Furthermore, while asylum may protect journalists from immediate legal jeopardy, it doesn’t address the broader challenge of advocating for Indian rights and freedoms within the colonial context.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• Publishing anti-imperialist extracts from British newspapers strategy provided Indian journalists with examples or arguments to support their critiques of colonial policies, it does not directly address the legal risk posed by sedition laws in India. Quoting anti-imperialist content from British newspapers may offer rhetorical ammunition, but it doesn’t shield journalists from potential prosecution under Indian sedition laws.
• The strategy adopted by Indian journalists to avoid punishment under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code was prefacing their writing with loyalty to the British government.
• This strategy involved Indian journalists expressing effusive sentiments of loyalty to the British government and the Queen before engaging in any critical or anti-imperialist writing. By doing so, they attempted to circumvent the legal repercussions of Section 124A, which penalized attempts to excite feelings of disaffection towards the British government. This approach allowed journalists to critique British colonial policies and advocate for Indian rights while avoiding direct prosecution under sedition laws.
• While launching underground newspapers may provide a means of circumventing censorship and expressing dissenting views, it carries significant risks. Operating underground newspapers entails the constant threat of discovery by colonial authorities, leading to arrests, confiscation of materials, and potential imprisonment for journalists involved. While underground newspapers were indeed a form of resistance, they didn’t necessarily offer legal protection against sedition charges.
• While seeking asylum in foreign countries may offer a safe haven for journalists facing persecution in India, seeking asylum may not be a viable option for many journalists due to logistical, financial, or personal constraints. Furthermore, while asylum may protect journalists from immediate legal jeopardy, it doesn’t address the broader challenge of advocating for Indian rights and freedoms within the colonial context.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately describes the response of Indian capitalists during the period from Non-cooperation Movement to Simon Commission phase of the nationalist movement? a) Large business organizations actively supported the Congress during this period. b) Several eminent capitalists openly opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement. c) The Indian business community established the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) to organize India’s business interests. d) The industrialists and big business organizations actively supported the mass and agitation phase of nationalism. Correct Answer: b Explanation: During the period from the NCM to the Simon Commission, the responses of Indian capitalists were varied and complex. Large business organizations did not actively support the Congress during this phase. Instead, many of them maintained a cautious or even antagonistic stance towards the nationalist movement. They were concerned about potential disruptions to their businesses and often sought to maintain cordial relations with the colonial government to safeguard their interests. Prominent capitalists during this period including Purshottamdas Thakurdas, along with other influential industrialists, openly opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement initiated by Mahatma Gandhi. They were apprehensive about the disruptive effects of the movement on business and preferred a more conservative approach that aligned with colonial authorities. While the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) was indeed established in 1927, it was not specifically formed in response to the events during the Rowlatt Satyagraha to Simon Commission phase. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: During the period from the NCM to the Simon Commission, the responses of Indian capitalists were varied and complex. Large business organizations did not actively support the Congress during this phase. Instead, many of them maintained a cautious or even antagonistic stance towards the nationalist movement. They were concerned about potential disruptions to their businesses and often sought to maintain cordial relations with the colonial government to safeguard their interests. Prominent capitalists during this period including Purshottamdas Thakurdas, along with other influential industrialists, openly opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement initiated by Mahatma Gandhi. They were apprehensive about the disruptive effects of the movement on business and preferred a more conservative approach that aligned with colonial authorities. While the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) was indeed established in 1927, it was not specifically formed in response to the events during the Rowlatt Satyagraha to Simon Commission phase. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 15. Question
Which of the following statements accurately describes the response of Indian capitalists during the period from Non-cooperation Movement to Simon Commission phase of the nationalist movement?
• a) Large business organizations actively supported the Congress during this period.
• b) Several eminent capitalists openly opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• c) The Indian business community established the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) to organize India’s business interests.
• d) The industrialists and big business organizations actively supported the mass and agitation phase of nationalism.
Explanation:
• During the period from the NCM to the Simon Commission, the responses of Indian capitalists were varied and complex.
• Large business organizations did not actively support the Congress during this phase. Instead, many of them maintained a cautious or even antagonistic stance towards the nationalist movement. They were concerned about potential disruptions to their businesses and often sought to maintain cordial relations with the colonial government to safeguard their interests.
• Prominent capitalists during this period including Purshottamdas Thakurdas, along with other influential industrialists, openly opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement initiated by Mahatma Gandhi. They were apprehensive about the disruptive effects of the movement on business and preferred a more conservative approach that aligned with colonial authorities.
• While the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) was indeed established in 1927, it was not specifically formed in response to the events during the Rowlatt Satyagraha to Simon Commission phase.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• During the period from the NCM to the Simon Commission, the responses of Indian capitalists were varied and complex.
• Large business organizations did not actively support the Congress during this phase. Instead, many of them maintained a cautious or even antagonistic stance towards the nationalist movement. They were concerned about potential disruptions to their businesses and often sought to maintain cordial relations with the colonial government to safeguard their interests.
• Prominent capitalists during this period including Purshottamdas Thakurdas, along with other influential industrialists, openly opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement initiated by Mahatma Gandhi. They were apprehensive about the disruptive effects of the movement on business and preferred a more conservative approach that aligned with colonial authorities.
• While the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) was indeed established in 1927, it was not specifically formed in response to the events during the Rowlatt Satyagraha to Simon Commission phase.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points During which phase of the nationalist movement did Indian capitalists start lending their support to the struggle for independence? a) Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908) b) Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) c) Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-31) d) Quit India Movement (1942) Correct Answer: c Explanation: During the Civil Disobedience Movement, which unfolded from 1930 to 1931, many Indian capitalists began to extend their support to the struggle for independence. This movement was characterized by mass protests, boycotts of British goods, and acts of nonviolent resistance against British colonial rule, spearheaded by Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress. Indian capitalists were influenced by various factors during this period. The economic downturn of the 1930s, coupled with the failure of the colonial government to address the concerns of Indian businesses, led to a growing disillusionment with British rule among sections of the capitalist class. Additionally, the Congress’s demands for economic reforms and greater autonomy resonated with some capitalists who sought to safeguard their economic interests and promote indigenous industrial development. Furthermore, Gandhi’s emphasis on nonviolent resistance and mass mobilization appealed to certain segments of the capitalist class who recognized the potential for political change through peaceful means. As a result, many Indian capitalists provided financial support to the Civil Disobedience Movement and allied themselves with the Congress’s efforts to challenge British authority and push for greater self-governance. In contrast, during other phases such as the Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908) and the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22), Indian capitalists were more hesitant to openly support the nationalist cause, often due to concerns about disruptions to their businesses or a perceived reliance on British support for economic stability. Similarly, while some capitalists later threw their weight behind the Quit India Movement (1942), it was during the Civil Disobedience Movement that their support for the struggle for independence became more pronounced and widespread. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: During the Civil Disobedience Movement, which unfolded from 1930 to 1931, many Indian capitalists began to extend their support to the struggle for independence. This movement was characterized by mass protests, boycotts of British goods, and acts of nonviolent resistance against British colonial rule, spearheaded by Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress. Indian capitalists were influenced by various factors during this period. The economic downturn of the 1930s, coupled with the failure of the colonial government to address the concerns of Indian businesses, led to a growing disillusionment with British rule among sections of the capitalist class. Additionally, the Congress’s demands for economic reforms and greater autonomy resonated with some capitalists who sought to safeguard their economic interests and promote indigenous industrial development. Furthermore, Gandhi’s emphasis on nonviolent resistance and mass mobilization appealed to certain segments of the capitalist class who recognized the potential for political change through peaceful means. As a result, many Indian capitalists provided financial support to the Civil Disobedience Movement and allied themselves with the Congress’s efforts to challenge British authority and push for greater self-governance. In contrast, during other phases such as the Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908) and the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22), Indian capitalists were more hesitant to openly support the nationalist cause, often due to concerns about disruptions to their businesses or a perceived reliance on British support for economic stability. Similarly, while some capitalists later threw their weight behind the Quit India Movement (1942), it was during the Civil Disobedience Movement that their support for the struggle for independence became more pronounced and widespread. Hence, option (c) is correct.
#### 16. Question
During which phase of the nationalist movement did Indian capitalists start lending their support to the struggle for independence?
• a) Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908)
• b) Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22)
• c) Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-31)
• d) Quit India Movement (1942)
Explanation:
• During the Civil Disobedience Movement, which unfolded from 1930 to 1931, many Indian capitalists began to extend their support to the struggle for independence. This movement was characterized by mass protests, boycotts of British goods, and acts of nonviolent resistance against British colonial rule, spearheaded by Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress.
• Indian capitalists were influenced by various factors during this period. The economic downturn of the 1930s, coupled with the failure of the colonial government to address the concerns of Indian businesses, led to a growing disillusionment with British rule among sections of the capitalist class. Additionally, the Congress’s demands for economic reforms and greater autonomy resonated with some capitalists who sought to safeguard their economic interests and promote indigenous industrial development.
• Furthermore, Gandhi’s emphasis on nonviolent resistance and mass mobilization appealed to certain segments of the capitalist class who recognized the potential for political change through peaceful means. As a result, many Indian capitalists provided financial support to the Civil Disobedience Movement and allied themselves with the Congress’s efforts to challenge British authority and push for greater self-governance.
• In contrast, during other phases such as the Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908) and the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22), Indian capitalists were more hesitant to openly support the nationalist cause, often due to concerns about disruptions to their businesses or a perceived reliance on British support for economic stability. Similarly, while some capitalists later threw their weight behind the Quit India Movement (1942), it was during the Civil Disobedience Movement that their support for the struggle for independence became more pronounced and widespread.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
• During the Civil Disobedience Movement, which unfolded from 1930 to 1931, many Indian capitalists began to extend their support to the struggle for independence. This movement was characterized by mass protests, boycotts of British goods, and acts of nonviolent resistance against British colonial rule, spearheaded by Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress.
• Indian capitalists were influenced by various factors during this period. The economic downturn of the 1930s, coupled with the failure of the colonial government to address the concerns of Indian businesses, led to a growing disillusionment with British rule among sections of the capitalist class. Additionally, the Congress’s demands for economic reforms and greater autonomy resonated with some capitalists who sought to safeguard their economic interests and promote indigenous industrial development.
• Furthermore, Gandhi’s emphasis on nonviolent resistance and mass mobilization appealed to certain segments of the capitalist class who recognized the potential for political change through peaceful means. As a result, many Indian capitalists provided financial support to the Civil Disobedience Movement and allied themselves with the Congress’s efforts to challenge British authority and push for greater self-governance.
• In contrast, during other phases such as the Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908) and the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22), Indian capitalists were more hesitant to openly support the nationalist cause, often due to concerns about disruptions to their businesses or a perceived reliance on British support for economic stability. Similarly, while some capitalists later threw their weight behind the Quit India Movement (1942), it was during the Civil Disobedience Movement that their support for the struggle for independence became more pronounced and widespread.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Indian National Congress offered unconditional support to the British during World War II. Political parties like the Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha supported the British during World War II. Mahatma Gandhi vehemently opposed the Congress’s resolution for supporting the British during World War II. Jawaharlal Nehru advocated for Indian participation in the war to support democratic values. How many of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Indian National Congress offered conditional support, not unconditional support, to the British war effort during World War II. They demanded political concessions such as the convening of a constituent assembly after the war. The Congress Working Committee’s resolution condemned Fascist aggression and demanded that Britain prove its commitment to democracy by ending imperialism in its colonies and establishing full democracy in India after the war. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Both the Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha supported the British war effort during World War II. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Mahatma Gandhi reluctantly supported the Congress’s resolution for conditional support to the war effort, insisting that India’s freedom should be a part of the war aim. He stated “If the British are fighting for the freedom of all, then their representatives have to state in the clearest possible terms that the freedom of India is necessarily included in the war aim. The content of such freedom can only be decided by Indians and them alone’. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Jawaharlal Nehru advocated for no Indian participation in the war until India itself was free. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Indian National Congress offered conditional support, not unconditional support, to the British war effort during World War II. They demanded political concessions such as the convening of a constituent assembly after the war. The Congress Working Committee’s resolution condemned Fascist aggression and demanded that Britain prove its commitment to democracy by ending imperialism in its colonies and establishing full democracy in India after the war. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Both the Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha supported the British war effort during World War II. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Mahatma Gandhi reluctantly supported the Congress’s resolution for conditional support to the war effort, insisting that India’s freedom should be a part of the war aim. He stated “If the British are fighting for the freedom of all, then their representatives have to state in the clearest possible terms that the freedom of India is necessarily included in the war aim. The content of such freedom can only be decided by Indians and them alone’. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Jawaharlal Nehru advocated for no Indian participation in the war until India itself was free. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.
#### 17. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The Indian National Congress offered unconditional support to the British during World War II.
• Political parties like the Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha supported the British during World War II.
• Mahatma Gandhi vehemently opposed the Congress’s resolution for supporting the British during World War II.
• Jawaharlal Nehru advocated for Indian participation in the war to support democratic values.
How many of the above given statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Explanation:
• The Indian National Congress offered conditional support, not unconditional support, to the British war effort during World War II. They demanded political concessions such as the convening of a constituent assembly after the war. The Congress Working Committee’s resolution condemned Fascist aggression and demanded that Britain prove its commitment to democracy by ending imperialism in its colonies and establishing full democracy in India after the war. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Both the Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha supported the British war effort during World War II. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Mahatma Gandhi reluctantly supported the Congress’s resolution for conditional support to the war effort, insisting that India’s freedom should be a part of the war aim. He stated “If the British are fighting for the freedom of all, then their representatives have to state in the clearest possible terms that the freedom of India is necessarily included in the war aim. The content of such freedom can only be decided by Indians and them alone’. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Jawaharlal Nehru advocated for no Indian participation in the war until India itself was free. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Indian National Congress offered conditional support, not unconditional support, to the British war effort during World War II. They demanded political concessions such as the convening of a constituent assembly after the war. The Congress Working Committee’s resolution condemned Fascist aggression and demanded that Britain prove its commitment to democracy by ending imperialism in its colonies and establishing full democracy in India after the war. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Both the Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha supported the British war effort during World War II. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Mahatma Gandhi reluctantly supported the Congress’s resolution for conditional support to the war effort, insisting that India’s freedom should be a part of the war aim. He stated “If the British are fighting for the freedom of all, then their representatives have to state in the clearest possible terms that the freedom of India is necessarily included in the war aim. The content of such freedom can only be decided by Indians and them alone’. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Jawaharlal Nehru advocated for no Indian participation in the war until India itself was free. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points How did the outcome of the election for Congress President at the Tripuri session in 1939 impact the Congress ministries resignation? a) It led to the resignation of Subhas Chandra Bose from the presidency b) It resulted in a victory for the right-wing faction within the Congress c) It caused a major crisis within the Congress, leading to internal conflicts d) It strengthened the Congress's resolve to support the British war effort Correct Answer: c Explanation: After the 1937 elections, the congress had formed government in many provinces. But the congress ministries resigned in 1939. The main reason for resignation in November, 1939 was on the ground that the Viceroy on its own had made India a participant in the World War II without consulting the Congress. But, there were other reasons that impacted/contributed towards resignation of congress ministries. Some of them are; There was a malicious propaganda carried out against the Congress by the Communal parties. Opportunists took advantages to office: at this time, many opportunists joined the Congress during this period in order to seek advantages of office. Congress was aware of such characters, and Gandhi wrote frankly about corruption in the Congress in his paper Harijan. Issues related to the President ship of the Congress The election for Congress President at the Tripuri session in 1939 had significant repercussions within the Congress. Subhas Chandra Bose’s victory over Pattabhi Sitaramayya by 1580 to 1377 votes was perceived as a triumph for the left-wing faction within the Congress. This outcome led to internal conflicts and tensions within the party. The victory of the left-wing faction, represented by Bose, created a rift within the Congress leadership and caused a major crisis. This internal turmoil contributed to the decision to resign from office by the Congress Ministries, as the party struggled to maintain unity and coherence in its approach to governance and decision-making. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: After the 1937 elections, the congress had formed government in many provinces. But the congress ministries resigned in 1939. The main reason for resignation in November, 1939 was on the ground that the Viceroy on its own had made India a participant in the World War II without consulting the Congress. But, there were other reasons that impacted/contributed towards resignation of congress ministries. Some of them are; There was a malicious propaganda carried out against the Congress by the Communal parties. Opportunists took advantages to office: at this time, many opportunists joined the Congress during this period in order to seek advantages of office. Congress was aware of such characters, and Gandhi wrote frankly about corruption in the Congress in his paper Harijan. Issues related to the President ship of the Congress The election for Congress President at the Tripuri session in 1939 had significant repercussions within the Congress. Subhas Chandra Bose’s victory over Pattabhi Sitaramayya by 1580 to 1377 votes was perceived as a triumph for the left-wing faction within the Congress. This outcome led to internal conflicts and tensions within the party. The victory of the left-wing faction, represented by Bose, created a rift within the Congress leadership and caused a major crisis. This internal turmoil contributed to the decision to resign from office by the Congress Ministries, as the party struggled to maintain unity and coherence in its approach to governance and decision-making. Hence, option (c) is correct.
#### 18. Question
How did the outcome of the election for Congress President at the Tripuri session in 1939 impact the Congress ministries resignation?
• a) It led to the resignation of Subhas Chandra Bose from the presidency
• b) It resulted in a victory for the right-wing faction within the Congress
• c) It caused a major crisis within the Congress, leading to internal conflicts
• d) It strengthened the Congress's resolve to support the British war effort
Explanation:
• After the 1937 elections, the congress had formed government in many provinces. But the congress ministries resigned in 1939.
• The main reason for resignation in November, 1939 was on the ground that the Viceroy on its own had made India a participant in the World War II without consulting the Congress.
• But, there were other reasons that impacted/contributed towards resignation of congress ministries. Some of them are;
• There was a malicious propaganda carried out against the Congress by the Communal parties.
• Opportunists took advantages to office: at this time, many opportunists joined the Congress during this period in order to seek advantages of office. Congress was aware of such characters, and Gandhi wrote frankly about corruption in the Congress in his paper Harijan.
• Issues related to the President ship of the Congress
• The election for Congress President at the Tripuri session in 1939 had significant repercussions within the Congress. Subhas Chandra Bose’s victory over Pattabhi Sitaramayya by 1580 to 1377 votes was perceived as a triumph for the left-wing faction within the Congress. This outcome led to internal conflicts and tensions within the party. The victory of the left-wing faction, represented by Bose, created a rift within the Congress leadership and caused a major crisis.
• This internal turmoil contributed to the decision to resign from office by the Congress Ministries, as the party struggled to maintain unity and coherence in its approach to governance and decision-making.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
• After the 1937 elections, the congress had formed government in many provinces. But the congress ministries resigned in 1939.
• The main reason for resignation in November, 1939 was on the ground that the Viceroy on its own had made India a participant in the World War II without consulting the Congress.
• But, there were other reasons that impacted/contributed towards resignation of congress ministries. Some of them are;
• There was a malicious propaganda carried out against the Congress by the Communal parties.
• Opportunists took advantages to office: at this time, many opportunists joined the Congress during this period in order to seek advantages of office. Congress was aware of such characters, and Gandhi wrote frankly about corruption in the Congress in his paper Harijan.
• Issues related to the President ship of the Congress
• The election for Congress President at the Tripuri session in 1939 had significant repercussions within the Congress. Subhas Chandra Bose’s victory over Pattabhi Sitaramayya by 1580 to 1377 votes was perceived as a triumph for the left-wing faction within the Congress. This outcome led to internal conflicts and tensions within the party. The victory of the left-wing faction, represented by Bose, created a rift within the Congress leadership and caused a major crisis.
• This internal turmoil contributed to the decision to resign from office by the Congress Ministries, as the party struggled to maintain unity and coherence in its approach to governance and decision-making.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points What role did Vallabhbhai Patel and Jinnah play in the Royal Indian Navy mutiny? a) They actively supported the mutineers and encouraged them to continue their revolt. b) They persuaded the mutineers to surrender which led to the end of the mutiny. c) They led the mutiny and became the leaders of the naval revolt. d) They remained silent observers and did not intervene in the mutiny. Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Royal Indian Navy Mutiny of 1946, also known as the Naval Uprising, marked a significant chapter in India’s struggle for independence from British colonial rule. Beginning on February 18, 1946, the mutiny involved Indian naval ratings, soldiers, police personnel, and civilians rising up against the British government. The mutiny erupted as a culmination of various factors, including the aftermath of World War II, the discriminatory treatment of Indian servicemen by their British superiors, and growing nationalist sentiments among Indian soldiers. The simmering discontent among Indian sailors came to a head when the ratings of the RIN vessel “Talwar” in Bombay harbor initiated a hunger strike on February 18, 1946, protesting against poor living conditions and racial arrogance. This act of defiance quickly spread to other ships and naval barracks across the country, leading to a full-scale revolt involving 78 ships, 20 shore establishments, and around 20,000 ratings. The mutineers articulated their demands, which included the release of Indian National Army (INA) prisoners, better treatment, and equal pay for Indian sailors. The uprising garnered widespread public support, with students, workers, and political activists rallying behind the mutineers. However, the mutiny was short-lived as political leaders like Vallabhbhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah intervened to persuade the mutineers to surrender peacefully and assured them that they would not face persecution or victimization for their actions. This intervention helped bring an end to the mutiny without further escalation of violence. Despite the mutiny’s suppression, its impact was profound. It revealed the deep-seated resentment against British rule among Indian servicemen and contributed to the momentum of the independence movement. The mutiny also played a role in shaping British policy towards India, hastening the process of decolonization and eventual independence in 1947. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Royal Indian Navy Mutiny of 1946, also known as the Naval Uprising, marked a significant chapter in India’s struggle for independence from British colonial rule. Beginning on February 18, 1946, the mutiny involved Indian naval ratings, soldiers, police personnel, and civilians rising up against the British government. The mutiny erupted as a culmination of various factors, including the aftermath of World War II, the discriminatory treatment of Indian servicemen by their British superiors, and growing nationalist sentiments among Indian soldiers. The simmering discontent among Indian sailors came to a head when the ratings of the RIN vessel “Talwar” in Bombay harbor initiated a hunger strike on February 18, 1946, protesting against poor living conditions and racial arrogance. This act of defiance quickly spread to other ships and naval barracks across the country, leading to a full-scale revolt involving 78 ships, 20 shore establishments, and around 20,000 ratings. The mutineers articulated their demands, which included the release of Indian National Army (INA) prisoners, better treatment, and equal pay for Indian sailors. The uprising garnered widespread public support, with students, workers, and political activists rallying behind the mutineers. However, the mutiny was short-lived as political leaders like Vallabhbhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah intervened to persuade the mutineers to surrender peacefully and assured them that they would not face persecution or victimization for their actions. This intervention helped bring an end to the mutiny without further escalation of violence. Despite the mutiny’s suppression, its impact was profound. It revealed the deep-seated resentment against British rule among Indian servicemen and contributed to the momentum of the independence movement. The mutiny also played a role in shaping British policy towards India, hastening the process of decolonization and eventual independence in 1947. Hence, option (b) is correct.
#### 19. Question
What role did Vallabhbhai Patel and Jinnah play in the Royal Indian Navy mutiny?
• a) They actively supported the mutineers and encouraged them to continue their revolt.
• b) They persuaded the mutineers to surrender which led to the end of the mutiny.
• c) They led the mutiny and became the leaders of the naval revolt.
• d) They remained silent observers and did not intervene in the mutiny.
Explanation:
• The Royal Indian Navy Mutiny of 1946, also known as the Naval Uprising, marked a significant chapter in India’s struggle for independence from British colonial rule. Beginning on February 18, 1946, the mutiny involved Indian naval ratings, soldiers, police personnel, and civilians rising up against the British government. The mutiny erupted as a culmination of various factors, including the aftermath of World War II, the discriminatory treatment of Indian servicemen by their British superiors, and growing nationalist sentiments among Indian soldiers.
• The simmering discontent among Indian sailors came to a head when the ratings of the RIN vessel “Talwar” in Bombay harbor initiated a hunger strike on February 18, 1946, protesting against poor living conditions and racial arrogance. This act of defiance quickly spread to other ships and naval barracks across the country, leading to a full-scale revolt involving 78 ships, 20 shore establishments, and around 20,000 ratings.
• The mutineers articulated their demands, which included the release of Indian National Army (INA) prisoners, better treatment, and equal pay for Indian sailors. The uprising garnered widespread public support, with students, workers, and political activists rallying behind the mutineers.
• However, the mutiny was short-lived as political leaders like Vallabhbhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah intervened to persuade the mutineers to surrender peacefully and assured them that they would not face persecution or victimization for their actions. This intervention helped bring an end to the mutiny without further escalation of violence.
• Despite the mutiny’s suppression, its impact was profound. It revealed the deep-seated resentment against British rule among Indian servicemen and contributed to the momentum of the independence movement. The mutiny also played a role in shaping British policy towards India, hastening the process of decolonization and eventual independence in 1947.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Royal Indian Navy Mutiny of 1946, also known as the Naval Uprising, marked a significant chapter in India’s struggle for independence from British colonial rule. Beginning on February 18, 1946, the mutiny involved Indian naval ratings, soldiers, police personnel, and civilians rising up against the British government. The mutiny erupted as a culmination of various factors, including the aftermath of World War II, the discriminatory treatment of Indian servicemen by their British superiors, and growing nationalist sentiments among Indian soldiers.
• The simmering discontent among Indian sailors came to a head when the ratings of the RIN vessel “Talwar” in Bombay harbor initiated a hunger strike on February 18, 1946, protesting against poor living conditions and racial arrogance. This act of defiance quickly spread to other ships and naval barracks across the country, leading to a full-scale revolt involving 78 ships, 20 shore establishments, and around 20,000 ratings.
• The mutineers articulated their demands, which included the release of Indian National Army (INA) prisoners, better treatment, and equal pay for Indian sailors. The uprising garnered widespread public support, with students, workers, and political activists rallying behind the mutineers.
• However, the mutiny was short-lived as political leaders like Vallabhbhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah intervened to persuade the mutineers to surrender peacefully and assured them that they would not face persecution or victimization for their actions. This intervention helped bring an end to the mutiny without further escalation of violence.
• Despite the mutiny’s suppression, its impact was profound. It revealed the deep-seated resentment against British rule among Indian servicemen and contributed to the momentum of the independence movement. The mutiny also played a role in shaping British policy towards India, hastening the process of decolonization and eventual independence in 1947.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points What did the Resolution on Fundamental Rights adopted at the Karachi Congress guarantee? Free and compulsory primary education Right to universal adult franchise State ownership of key industries Protection of cultural rights of minorities Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 1,2 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Resolution on Fundamental Rights adopted at the Karachi Congress guaranteed several key rights and freedoms to the people of India. These included: Free speech and free press: Ensured individuals could express themselves freely and the press could operate without censorship. Right to form associations: Guaranteed the freedom to form organizations, unions, or groups without undue interference. Right to assemble: Ensured the right to peaceful assembly for expressing opinions or grievances. Universal adult franchise: Ensured all adults had the right to vote in elections, regardless of caste, creed, or sex. Equal legal rights irrespective of caste, creed, and sex: Ensured equality before the law for all citizens, regardless of social or demographic factors. Neutrality of the state in religious matters: Ensured that the government would not favor any particular religion and maintain secularism. Free and compulsory primary education: Guaranteed access to education for all children and made primary education mandatory. Protection of culture, language, script of minorities and linguistic groups: Ensured the preservation and promotion of the cultural heritage and languages of minority communities. State ownership of key industries was not a part of the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Karachi Congress. Instead, it was a part of the Resolution on National Economic Programme, which advocated for state control of certain industries for economic development. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Resolution on Fundamental Rights adopted at the Karachi Congress guaranteed several key rights and freedoms to the people of India. These included: Free speech and free press: Ensured individuals could express themselves freely and the press could operate without censorship. Right to form associations: Guaranteed the freedom to form organizations, unions, or groups without undue interference. Right to assemble: Ensured the right to peaceful assembly for expressing opinions or grievances. Universal adult franchise: Ensured all adults had the right to vote in elections, regardless of caste, creed, or sex. Equal legal rights irrespective of caste, creed, and sex: Ensured equality before the law for all citizens, regardless of social or demographic factors. Neutrality of the state in religious matters: Ensured that the government would not favor any particular religion and maintain secularism. Free and compulsory primary education: Guaranteed access to education for all children and made primary education mandatory. Protection of culture, language, script of minorities and linguistic groups: Ensured the preservation and promotion of the cultural heritage and languages of minority communities. State ownership of key industries was not a part of the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Karachi Congress. Instead, it was a part of the Resolution on National Economic Programme, which advocated for state control of certain industries for economic development. Hence, option (c) is correct.
#### 20. Question
What did the Resolution on Fundamental Rights adopted at the Karachi Congress guarantee?
• Free and compulsory primary education
• Right to universal adult franchise
• State ownership of key industries
• Protection of cultural rights of minorities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
• a) 1 and 2 only
• b) 1, 3 and 4 only
• c) 1,2 and 4 only
• d) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation:
• The Resolution on Fundamental Rights adopted at the Karachi Congress guaranteed several key rights and freedoms to the people of India. These included:
• Free speech and free press: Ensured individuals could express themselves freely and the press could operate without censorship.
• Right to form associations: Guaranteed the freedom to form organizations, unions, or groups without undue interference.
• Right to assemble: Ensured the right to peaceful assembly for expressing opinions or grievances.
• Universal adult franchise: Ensured all adults had the right to vote in elections, regardless of caste, creed, or sex.
• Equal legal rights irrespective of caste, creed, and sex: Ensured equality before the law for all citizens, regardless of social or demographic factors.
• Neutrality of the state in religious matters: Ensured that the government would not favor any particular religion and maintain secularism.
• Free and compulsory primary education: Guaranteed access to education for all children and made primary education mandatory.
• Protection of culture, language, script of minorities and linguistic groups: Ensured the preservation and promotion of the cultural heritage and languages of minority communities.
• State ownership of key industries was not a part of the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Karachi Congress. Instead, it was a part of the Resolution on National Economic Programme, which advocated for state control of certain industries for economic development.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
Explanation:
• The Resolution on Fundamental Rights adopted at the Karachi Congress guaranteed several key rights and freedoms to the people of India. These included:
• Free speech and free press: Ensured individuals could express themselves freely and the press could operate without censorship.
• Right to form associations: Guaranteed the freedom to form organizations, unions, or groups without undue interference.
• Right to assemble: Ensured the right to peaceful assembly for expressing opinions or grievances.
• Universal adult franchise: Ensured all adults had the right to vote in elections, regardless of caste, creed, or sex.
• Equal legal rights irrespective of caste, creed, and sex: Ensured equality before the law for all citizens, regardless of social or demographic factors.
• Neutrality of the state in religious matters: Ensured that the government would not favor any particular religion and maintain secularism.
• Free and compulsory primary education: Guaranteed access to education for all children and made primary education mandatory.
• Protection of culture, language, script of minorities and linguistic groups: Ensured the preservation and promotion of the cultural heritage and languages of minority communities.
• State ownership of key industries was not a part of the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Karachi Congress. Instead, it was a part of the Resolution on National Economic Programme, which advocated for state control of certain industries for economic development.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points There is a debate on emphasising dogma or conscience in our moral decision-making. Dogmas tend to stick and develop a life of their own well after their validity or usefulness have evaporated. Dogmas may be redundant but conscience is believed to be an impartial and honest guide. However, we should be wary of this reliance on conscience because it is so easy to confuse what we should believe with what we want to believe for reasons other than conscience. The distaste and suspicion of dogmas for their rigidity, universality and intolerance is meaningful. But if choices of good and evil are that subjective, what is left of objective moral values? Certainly two people of conscience can reach opposite conclusions. The critical message conveyed by author is, A. Like dogmas, conscience is not reliable if it tells what you like to B. Dogmas and conscience have a thin line of separation, former is forced later is voluntary, but both may be untrue C. Conscience cannot be useful for a real world life that works on objective structures and constructs D. Dogmas should listen to conscience and conscience should be built on dogmas Correct Answer: A The passage is mainly about reliability of conscience, not about differences. D is absurd and C cannot be best choice because A is best description, A tells that conscience may be telling what we like rather than what is right so it need not be trust worthy Incorrect Answer: A The passage is mainly about reliability of conscience, not about differences. D is absurd and C cannot be best choice because A is best description, A tells that conscience may be telling what we like rather than what is right so it need not be trust worthy
#### 21. Question
There is a debate on emphasising dogma or conscience in our moral decision-making. Dogmas tend to stick and develop a life of their own well after their validity or usefulness have evaporated. Dogmas may be redundant but conscience is believed to be an impartial and honest guide. However, we should be wary of this reliance on conscience because it is so easy to confuse what we should believe with what we want to believe for reasons other than conscience. The distaste and suspicion of dogmas for their rigidity, universality and intolerance is meaningful. But if choices of good and evil are that subjective, what is left of objective moral values? Certainly two people of conscience can reach opposite conclusions.
The critical message conveyed by author is,
• A. Like dogmas, conscience is not reliable if it tells what you like to
• B. Dogmas and conscience have a thin line of separation, former is forced later is voluntary, but both may be untrue
• C. Conscience cannot be useful for a real world life that works on objective structures and constructs
• D. Dogmas should listen to conscience and conscience should be built on dogmas
The passage is mainly about reliability of conscience, not about differences. D is absurd and C cannot be best choice because A is best description, A tells that conscience may be telling what we like rather than what is right so it need not be trust worthy
The passage is mainly about reliability of conscience, not about differences. D is absurd and C cannot be best choice because A is best description, A tells that conscience may be telling what we like rather than what is right so it need not be trust worthy
• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made: Conscience is reliable if it tells contrary to your own perceived self-interest Dogmas are better if they promote common good better than conscience Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A As said earlier, the author is suspicious of to what extent conscience rationally tells what is right instead of what we want, the conscience is right only when it is telling truth even if it is against out interest. So 1 is correct. Just because something can promote common good author does not accept it. He no where supports dogma in any form. 2 is wrong. Incorrect Answer: A As said earlier, the author is suspicious of to what extent conscience rationally tells what is right instead of what we want, the conscience is right only when it is telling truth even if it is against out interest. So 1 is correct. Just because something can promote common good author does not accept it. He no where supports dogma in any form. 2 is wrong.
#### 22. Question
On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made:
• Conscience is reliable if it tells contrary to your own perceived self-interest
• Dogmas are better if they promote common good better than conscience
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
• C. Both 1 & 2
• D. Neither 1 nor 2
As said earlier, the author is suspicious of to what extent conscience rationally tells what is right instead of what we want, the conscience is right only when it is telling truth even if it is against out interest. So 1 is correct. Just because something can promote common good author does not accept it. He no where supports dogma in any form. 2 is wrong.
As said earlier, the author is suspicious of to what extent conscience rationally tells what is right instead of what we want, the conscience is right only when it is telling truth even if it is against out interest. So 1 is correct. Just because something can promote common good author does not accept it. He no where supports dogma in any form. 2 is wrong.
• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Directions : Study the following information carefully to answer the given question: A family has 6 members – A, B, C, D, E and F among 3 generations. A is the son-in-law of B. E who is unmarried, has a sister and F has an uncle. D is the grandmother of F. Both the grandparents and parents of F are alive. Who among the following belongs to the first generation of the family? a) C b) B c) E d) Either (A) or (B) Correct Option B) B A is the son-in-law of B. D is the grandmother of F. As the family has three generations and both the grandparents and parents of F are alive so B is husband of D. Hence, B belongs to the first generation of the family. Incorrect Option B) B A is the son-in-law of B. D is the grandmother of F. As the family has three generations and both the grandparents and parents of F are alive so B is husband of D. Hence, B belongs to the first generation of the family.
#### 23. Question
Directions : Study the following information carefully to answer the given question:
A family has 6 members – A, B, C, D, E and F among 3 generations.
A is the son-in-law of B. E who is unmarried, has a sister and F has an uncle. D is the grandmother of F. Both the grandparents and parents of F are alive.
Who among the following belongs to the first generation of the family?
• d) Either (A) or (B)
Option B) B
A is the son-in-law of B. D is the grandmother of F.
As the family has three generations and both the grandparents and parents of F are alive so B is husband of D.
Hence, B belongs to the first generation of the family.
Option B) B
A is the son-in-law of B. D is the grandmother of F.
As the family has three generations and both the grandparents and parents of F are alive so B is husband of D.
Hence, B belongs to the first generation of the family.
• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below: There are five batsmen A, B, C, D and E who have scored the number of centuries and have taken the different number of innings while each batsman has a different total score. D has scored the highest number of centuries but has not taken the maximum number of innings among them. The person who scores least total runs takes the highest number of innings. The person who has taken least innings has also made least number of centuries but scores highest total runs. A takes less innings than C and E. E takes less innings than only B and D. C scores total runs more than D but scores less number of centuries than B and D. E sores total runs more than only B. E takes less innings than D and has scored more centuries than only A. Among the following persons who scores highest number of total runs? (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) A Correct Answer: (d) A Solution: TOTAL RUN :-A > C > D > E > B INNINGS :-B > D > E > C > A CENTURY 😀 > B > C > E > A Incorrect Answer: (d) A Solution: TOTAL RUN :-A > C > D > E > B INNINGS :-B > D > E > C > A CENTURY 😀 > B > C > E > A
#### 24. Question
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:
There are five batsmen A, B, C, D and E who have scored the number of centuries and have taken the different number of innings while each batsman has a different total score. D has scored the highest number of centuries but has not taken the maximum number of innings among them. The person who scores least total runs takes the highest number of innings. The person who has taken least innings has also made least number of centuries but scores highest total runs. A takes less innings than C and E. E takes less innings than only B and D. C scores total runs more than D but scores less number of centuries than B and D. E sores total runs more than only B. E takes less innings than D and has scored more centuries than only A.
Among the following persons who scores highest number of total runs?
Answer: (d) A
TOTAL RUN :-A > C > D > E > B
INNINGS :-B > D > E > C > A
CENTURY 😀 > B > C > E > A
Answer: (d) A
TOTAL RUN :-A > C > D > E > B
INNINGS :-B > D > E > C > A
CENTURY 😀 > B > C > E > A
• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points R is the son of A’s father’s sister. S is son of D, who is the mother of G and grandmother of A. H is the father of T and grandfather of R. D is wife of H. How is R related to D? a) Nephew b) Son c) Grandson d) Insufficient Data Correct Answer: c) Grandson Explanation: Since, H is the grandfather of R and D is the wife of H, it is clear that D is the grandmother of R. Hence the answer is Grandson. Incorrect Answer: c) Grandson Explanation: Since, H is the grandfather of R and D is the wife of H, it is clear that D is the grandmother of R. Hence the answer is Grandson.
#### 25. Question
R is the son of A’s father’s sister. S is son of D, who is the mother of G and grandmother of A. H is the father of T and grandfather of R. D is wife of H. How is R related to D?
• c) Grandson
• d) Insufficient Data
Answer: c) Grandson
Explanation: Since, H is the grandfather of R and D is the wife of H, it is clear that D is the grandmother of R.
Hence the answer is Grandson.
Answer: c) Grandson
Explanation: Since, H is the grandfather of R and D is the wife of H, it is clear that D is the grandmother of R.
Hence the answer is Grandson.
• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Amphipods and isopods are omnivores that feed on benthic organic matter and hence do not scavenge and prey on other animals. Statement-II: Amphipods are ‘keystone’ species of groundwater and spring-fed streams, where they are the most abundant macroinvertebrates. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect: Amphipods and isopods are mostly omnivores which feed on benthic organic matter, but they will scavenge and also prey on other animals when possible. Some species feed heavily on plants, including watercress, which is common in the spring habitats favored by some isopods. Statement-II is correct: Amphipods are ‘keystone’ species in many groundwaters, springs, and spring-fed streams, where they are often the most abundant macroinvertebrates. In these ecosystems, they play a major role in detritus processing, and through this activity provide large amounts of faeces and fine particulate organic matter that are used as food by other invertebrates. As abundant prey, competitors, and predators, they also have many other major impacts on the faunal assemblages of groundwater and springwater streams. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect: Amphipods and isopods are mostly omnivores which feed on benthic organic matter, but they will scavenge and also prey on other animals when possible. Some species feed heavily on plants, including watercress, which is common in the spring habitats favored by some isopods. Statement-II is correct: Amphipods are ‘keystone’ species in many groundwaters, springs, and spring-fed streams, where they are often the most abundant macroinvertebrates. In these ecosystems, they play a major role in detritus processing, and through this activity provide large amounts of faeces and fine particulate organic matter that are used as food by other invertebrates. As abundant prey, competitors, and predators, they also have many other major impacts on the faunal assemblages of groundwater and springwater streams.
#### 26. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Amphipods and isopods are omnivores that feed on benthic organic matter and hence do not scavenge and prey on other animals.
Statement-II:
Amphipods are ‘keystone’ species of groundwater and spring-fed streams, where they are the most abundant macroinvertebrates.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• (d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect: Amphipods and isopods are mostly omnivores which feed on benthic organic matter, but they will scavenge and also prey on other animals when possible.
Some species feed heavily on plants, including watercress, which is common in the spring habitats favored by some isopods.
Statement-II is correct: Amphipods are ‘keystone’ species in many groundwaters, springs, and spring-fed streams, where they are often the most abundant macroinvertebrates.
In these ecosystems, they play a major role in detritus processing, and through this activity provide large amounts of faeces and fine particulate organic matter that are used as food by other invertebrates.
As abundant prey, competitors, and predators, they also have many other major impacts on the faunal assemblages of groundwater and springwater streams.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect: Amphipods and isopods are mostly omnivores which feed on benthic organic matter, but they will scavenge and also prey on other animals when possible.
Some species feed heavily on plants, including watercress, which is common in the spring habitats favored by some isopods.
Statement-II is correct: Amphipods are ‘keystone’ species in many groundwaters, springs, and spring-fed streams, where they are often the most abundant macroinvertebrates.
In these ecosystems, they play a major role in detritus processing, and through this activity provide large amounts of faeces and fine particulate organic matter that are used as food by other invertebrates.
As abundant prey, competitors, and predators, they also have many other major impacts on the faunal assemblages of groundwater and springwater streams.
• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points With reference to Diptheria, consider the following statements: It is a contagious disease that is caused by toxin-producing virus. It produces a toxin that most prominently damages the cardiovascular system. It can be prevented by vaccines given in combination with tetanus and pertussis. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Diphtheria is a contagious disease that is caused by toxin producing bacteria. It can spread from person to person when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Diphtheria can affect anyone but was most common in unvaccinated children. Statement 2 is not correct: The diphtheria toxin causes damage to the respiratory tract and can spread throughout the body. Common symptoms include fever, sore throat and swelling of the neck glands. Statement 3 is correct: Diphtheria can be prevented by vaccines that are often given in combination with tetanus and pertussis and other diseases. WHO recommends a total of 6 diphtheria-containing vaccine doses be given starting at 6 weeks of age through adolescence to provide long term protection. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Diphtheria is a contagious disease that is caused by toxin producing bacteria. It can spread from person to person when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Diphtheria can affect anyone but was most common in unvaccinated children. Statement 2 is not correct: The diphtheria toxin causes damage to the respiratory tract and can spread throughout the body. Common symptoms include fever, sore throat and swelling of the neck glands. Statement 3 is correct: Diphtheria can be prevented by vaccines that are often given in combination with tetanus and pertussis and other diseases. WHO recommends a total of 6 diphtheria-containing vaccine doses be given starting at 6 weeks of age through adolescence to provide long term protection.
#### 27. Question
With reference to Diptheria, consider the following statements:
• It is a contagious disease that is caused by toxin-producing virus.
• It produces a toxin that most prominently damages the cardiovascular system.
• It can be prevented by vaccines given in combination with tetanus and pertussis.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Diphtheria is a contagious disease that is caused by toxin producing bacteria. It can spread from person to person when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
Diphtheria can affect anyone but was most common in unvaccinated children.
Statement 2 is not correct: The diphtheria toxin causes damage to the respiratory tract and can spread throughout the body. Common symptoms include fever, sore throat and swelling of the neck glands.
Statement 3 is correct: Diphtheria can be prevented by vaccines that are often given in combination with tetanus and pertussis and other diseases.
WHO recommends a total of 6 diphtheria-containing vaccine doses be given starting at 6 weeks of age through adolescence to provide long term protection.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Diphtheria is a contagious disease that is caused by toxin producing bacteria. It can spread from person to person when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
Diphtheria can affect anyone but was most common in unvaccinated children.
Statement 2 is not correct: The diphtheria toxin causes damage to the respiratory tract and can spread throughout the body. Common symptoms include fever, sore throat and swelling of the neck glands.
Statement 3 is correct: Diphtheria can be prevented by vaccines that are often given in combination with tetanus and pertussis and other diseases.
WHO recommends a total of 6 diphtheria-containing vaccine doses be given starting at 6 weeks of age through adolescence to provide long term protection.
• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Dry Ice refers to the solid carbon dioxide existing at extremely low temperatures used for freezing. When dry ice sublimates, it turns into carbon dioxide which can displace oxygen in enclosed spaces. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has categorized dry ice as a lethal substance. How of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide at extremely low temperatures, around -78.5 degrees Celsius (-109.3 degrees Fahrenheit). “Due to its sublimation property, which enables it to transition straight from a solid to a gas without going through a liquid phase unlike regular ice, it is frequently used for freezing and cooling. Statement 2 is correct: When dry ice sublimates, it turns into carbon dioxide, which can displace oxygen in enclosed spaces. In areas with inadequate ventilation, the accumulation of carbon dioxide can lead to oxygen deficiency, posing a risk of asphyxiation Statement 3 is correct: Dry ice is categorised as a lethal substance according to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), advises against the use of dry ice with bare hands. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide at extremely low temperatures, around -78.5 degrees Celsius (-109.3 degrees Fahrenheit). “Due to its sublimation property, which enables it to transition straight from a solid to a gas without going through a liquid phase unlike regular ice, it is frequently used for freezing and cooling. Statement 2 is correct: When dry ice sublimates, it turns into carbon dioxide, which can displace oxygen in enclosed spaces. In areas with inadequate ventilation, the accumulation of carbon dioxide can lead to oxygen deficiency, posing a risk of asphyxiation Statement 3 is correct: Dry ice is categorised as a lethal substance according to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), advises against the use of dry ice with bare hands.
#### 28. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Dry Ice refers to the solid carbon dioxide existing at extremely low temperatures used for freezing.
• When dry ice sublimates, it turns into carbon dioxide which can displace oxygen in enclosed spaces.
• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has categorized dry ice as a lethal substance.
How of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide at extremely low temperatures, around -78.5 degrees Celsius (-109.3 degrees Fahrenheit).
“Due to its sublimation property, which enables it to transition straight from a solid to a gas without going through a liquid phase unlike regular ice, it is frequently used for freezing and cooling.
Statement 2 is correct: When dry ice sublimates, it turns into carbon dioxide, which can displace oxygen in enclosed spaces. In areas with inadequate ventilation, the accumulation of carbon dioxide can lead to oxygen deficiency, posing a risk of asphyxiation
Statement 3 is correct: Dry ice is categorised as a lethal substance according to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), advises against the use of dry ice with bare hands.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide at extremely low temperatures, around -78.5 degrees Celsius (-109.3 degrees Fahrenheit).
“Due to its sublimation property, which enables it to transition straight from a solid to a gas without going through a liquid phase unlike regular ice, it is frequently used for freezing and cooling.
Statement 2 is correct: When dry ice sublimates, it turns into carbon dioxide, which can displace oxygen in enclosed spaces. In areas with inadequate ventilation, the accumulation of carbon dioxide can lead to oxygen deficiency, posing a risk of asphyxiation
Statement 3 is correct: Dry ice is categorised as a lethal substance according to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), advises against the use of dry ice with bare hands.
• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points The SIGHT Programme recently launched in India is associated with- (a) The National Supercomputing Mission (a) The National Supercomputing Mission (c) The National Rural Health Mission (d) The National Green Hydrogen Mission Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Cabinet has approved the National Green Hydrogen Mission. The Mission will have wide ranging benefits- creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives; Decarbonisation of industrial, mobility and energy sectors; reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock; development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities; creation of employment opportunities; and development of cutting-edge technologies. The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. SIGHT Programme- Under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), two distinct financial incentive mechanisms – targeting domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and production of Green Hydrogen – will be provided under the Mission. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: Cabinet has approved the National Green Hydrogen Mission. The Mission will have wide ranging benefits- creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives; Decarbonisation of industrial, mobility and energy sectors; reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock; development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities; creation of employment opportunities; and development of cutting-edge technologies. The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. SIGHT Programme- Under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), two distinct financial incentive mechanisms – targeting domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and production of Green Hydrogen – will be provided under the Mission.
#### 29. Question
The SIGHT Programme recently launched in India is associated with-
• (a) The National Supercomputing Mission
• (a) The National Supercomputing Mission
• (c) The National Rural Health Mission
• (d) The National Green Hydrogen Mission
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Cabinet has approved the National Green Hydrogen Mission. The Mission will have wide ranging benefits-
• creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives;
• Decarbonisation of industrial, mobility and energy sectors;
• reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock;
• development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities;
• creation of employment opportunities; and
• development of cutting-edge technologies.
The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen.
SIGHT Programme- Under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), two distinct financial incentive mechanisms – targeting domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and production of Green Hydrogen – will be provided under the Mission.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Cabinet has approved the National Green Hydrogen Mission. The Mission will have wide ranging benefits-
• creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives;
• Decarbonisation of industrial, mobility and energy sectors;
• reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock;
• development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities;
• creation of employment opportunities; and
• development of cutting-edge technologies.
The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen.
SIGHT Programme- Under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), two distinct financial incentive mechanisms – targeting domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and production of Green Hydrogen – will be provided under the Mission.
• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points With reference to the Son River, consider the following statements: It originates in the Amarkantak hills of the Maikal range. It flows through the Kaimur plateau of the Vindhya ranges. It drains through the Gondwana and Central Granitic Complex. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Son River originates in the Amarkantak hills of Maikal range at an elevation of ~600 m in Madhya Pradesh. Statement 2 is correct: It flows through the north of Kaimur plateau of Vindhya ranges. This river is an important tributary of the Ganga River, and after flowing through the parts of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and Bihar states, it joins the Ganga River on its southern bank near Patna. The major tributaries of the Son River emerge in the highlands and flow in a northward direction to join the main river. The major tributaries of the river are the Rihand, North Koel, Gopad, Banas and Kanhar rivers. Statement 3 is correct: The Son River drains through the Gondwana and Vindhyan Supergroups, Mahakoshal Group, Central Granitic Complex (CGC) and Quaternary alluvium. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Son River originates in the Amarkantak hills of Maikal range at an elevation of ~600 m in Madhya Pradesh. Statement 2 is correct: It flows through the north of Kaimur plateau of Vindhya ranges. This river is an important tributary of the Ganga River, and after flowing through the parts of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and Bihar states, it joins the Ganga River on its southern bank near Patna. The major tributaries of the Son River emerge in the highlands and flow in a northward direction to join the main river. The major tributaries of the river are the Rihand, North Koel, Gopad, Banas and Kanhar rivers. Statement 3 is correct:* The Son River drains through the Gondwana and Vindhyan Supergroups, Mahakoshal Group, Central Granitic Complex (CGC) and Quaternary alluvium.
#### 30. Question
With reference to the Son River, consider the following statements:
• It originates in the Amarkantak hills of the Maikal range.
• It flows through the Kaimur plateau of the Vindhya ranges.
• It drains through the Gondwana and Central Granitic Complex.
How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Son River originates in the Amarkantak hills of Maikal range at an elevation of ~600 m in Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 2 is correct: It flows through the north of Kaimur plateau of Vindhya ranges.
This river is an important tributary of the Ganga River, and after flowing through the parts of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and Bihar states, it joins the Ganga River on its southern bank near Patna.
The major tributaries of the Son River emerge in the highlands and flow in a northward direction to join the main river.
The major tributaries of the river are the Rihand, North Koel, Gopad, Banas and Kanhar rivers.
Statement 3 is correct: The Son River drains through the Gondwana and Vindhyan Supergroups, Mahakoshal Group, Central Granitic Complex (CGC) and Quaternary alluvium.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Son River originates in the Amarkantak hills of Maikal range at an elevation of ~600 m in Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 2 is correct: It flows through the north of Kaimur plateau of Vindhya ranges.
This river is an important tributary of the Ganga River, and after flowing through the parts of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and Bihar states, it joins the Ganga River on its southern bank near Patna.
The major tributaries of the Son River emerge in the highlands and flow in a northward direction to join the main river.
The major tributaries of the river are the Rihand, North Koel, Gopad, Banas and Kanhar rivers.
Statement 3 is correct: The Son River drains through the Gondwana and Vindhyan Supergroups, Mahakoshal Group, Central Granitic Complex (CGC) and Quaternary alluvium.
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