DAY – 62 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ART & CULTURE , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2011 and Jan 2024 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which Indian city was recently designated as the ‘City of Literature’ by UNESCO? a) Jaipur b) Varanasi c) Kozhikode d) Thiruvananthapuram Correct Answer: c Explanation: Recently, Kozhikode in Kerala has been added to the prestigious creative cities list of UNESCO for contributions in the fields of literature. The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development. Almost 300 cities around the world currently make up this network. Every year, UNESCO seeks applications from various cities across the globe to put them under its UCCN project. The applications in India are routed through the Ministry of Culture. Kozhikode is a permanent venue for the annual Kerala Literature Festival and hosts several other book festivals. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Recently, Kozhikode in Kerala has been added to the prestigious creative cities list of UNESCO for contributions in the fields of literature. The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development. Almost 300 cities around the world currently make up this network. Every year, UNESCO seeks applications from various cities across the globe to put them under its UCCN project. The applications in India are routed through the Ministry of Culture. Kozhikode is a permanent venue for the annual Kerala Literature Festival and hosts several other book festivals. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Which Indian city was recently designated as the ‘City of Literature’ by UNESCO?

• b) Varanasi

• c) Kozhikode

• d) Thiruvananthapuram

Explanation:

• Recently, Kozhikode in Kerala has been added to the prestigious creative cities list of UNESCO for contributions in the fields of literature.

• The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development.

• Almost 300 cities around the world currently make up this network.

• Every year, UNESCO seeks applications from various cities across the globe to put them under its UCCN project.

• The applications in India are routed through the Ministry of Culture.

• Kozhikode is a permanent venue for the annual Kerala Literature Festival and hosts several other book festivals.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Recently, Kozhikode in Kerala has been added to the prestigious creative cities list of UNESCO for contributions in the fields of literature.

• The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development.

• Almost 300 cities around the world currently make up this network.

• Every year, UNESCO seeks applications from various cities across the globe to put them under its UCCN project.

• The applications in India are routed through the Ministry of Culture.

• Kozhikode is a permanent venue for the annual Kerala Literature Festival and hosts several other book festivals.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The city is widely regarded as the birthplace of one of the greatest musicians and composers in Indian history. It is home to one of the oldest and most influential school of Hindustani classical music. It hosts one of the biggest annual music festivals in India. It has been designated as the ‘City of Music’ under UNESCO Creative Cities Network. Which of the following city is described correctly by the above given statements? a) Gwalior b) Jaipur c) Varanasi d) Chennai Correct Answer: a Explanation: Gwalior as the City of Music: The city is widely regarded as the birthplace of Tansen, one of the greatest musicians and composers in Indian history, who was also one of the ‘Navratnas’ (nine jewels) in the court of Emperor Akbar. The city is also the origin of the Gwalior Gharana, the oldest and most influential school of Hindustani classical music. The city hosts one of the biggest annual music festivals in India, the Tansen Sangeet Samaroh, which attracts thousands of music lovers and artists from across the country and abroad. In 2023, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) announced the addition of 55 new cities to its Creative Cities Network (UCCN). Among the new entrants, two Indian cities made their mark: Kozhikode in Kerala as the ‘City of Literature’ and Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh as the ‘City of Music’. Other Indian cities in the UCCN include Jaipur: Crafts and Folk Arts (2015), Varanasi: Creative City of Music (2015), Chennai: Creative City of Music (2017), Mumbai: Film (2019), Hyderabad: Gastronomy (2019), and Srinagar: Crafts and Folk Art (2021). Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Gwalior as the City of Music: The city is widely regarded as the birthplace of Tansen, one of the greatest musicians and composers in Indian history, who was also one of the ‘Navratnas’ (nine jewels) in the court of Emperor Akbar. The city is also the origin of the Gwalior Gharana, the oldest and most influential school of Hindustani classical music. The city hosts one of the biggest annual music festivals in India, the Tansen Sangeet Samaroh, which attracts thousands of music lovers and artists from across the country and abroad. In 2023, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) announced the addition of 55 new cities to its Creative Cities Network (UCCN). Among the new entrants, two Indian cities made their mark: Kozhikode in Kerala as the ‘City of Literature’ and Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh as the ‘City of Music’. Other Indian cities in the UCCN include Jaipur: Crafts and Folk Arts (2015), Varanasi: Creative City of Music (2015), Chennai: Creative City of Music (2017), Mumbai: Film (2019), Hyderabad: Gastronomy (2019), and Srinagar: Crafts and Folk Art (2021). Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The city is widely regarded as the birthplace of one of the greatest musicians and composers in Indian history.

• It is home to one of the oldest and most influential school of Hindustani classical music.

• It hosts one of the biggest annual music festivals in India.

• It has been designated as the ‘City of Music’ under UNESCO Creative Cities Network.

Which of the following city is described correctly by the above given statements?

• a) Gwalior

• c) Varanasi

• d) Chennai

Explanation:

• Gwalior as the City of Music:

• The city is widely regarded as the birthplace of Tansen, one of the greatest musicians and composers in Indian history, who was also one of the ‘Navratnas’ (nine jewels) in the court of Emperor Akbar.

• The city is also the origin of the Gwalior Gharana, the oldest and most influential school of Hindustani classical music.

• The city hosts one of the biggest annual music festivals in India, the Tansen Sangeet Samaroh, which attracts thousands of music lovers and artists from across the country and abroad.

• In 2023, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) announced the addition of 55 new cities to its Creative Cities Network (UCCN). Among the new entrants, two Indian cities made their mark: Kozhikode in Kerala as the ‘City of Literature’ and Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh as the ‘City of Music’.

• Other Indian cities in the UCCN include Jaipur: Crafts and Folk Arts (2015), Varanasi: Creative City of Music (2015), Chennai: Creative City of Music (2017), Mumbai: Film (2019), Hyderabad: Gastronomy (2019), and Srinagar: Crafts and Folk Art (2021).

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Gwalior as the City of Music:

• The city is also the origin of the Gwalior Gharana, the oldest and most influential school of Hindustani classical music.

• The city hosts one of the biggest annual music festivals in India, the Tansen Sangeet Samaroh, which attracts thousands of music lovers and artists from across the country and abroad.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which climatic factor heavily influences the architectural features of Dogra buildings? a) Tropical storms b) Heatwaves c) High humidity d) Frigidity Correct Answer: d Explanation: Srinagar Smart City Ltd. and the Kashmir chapter of the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) have joined hands to conserve vernacular elements of Dogra architecture in Kashmir. Dogra architecture refers to the traditional architectural style and building practices associated with the Dogra community. They primarily ruled over Jammu and Kashmir from 1846 to 1947. Examples of Dogra Architecture: Mubarak mandi, Jharokha style of balcony, Amar Mahal Palace. Dogra architecture primarily developed in the region of Jammu and Kashmir, which experiences extreme cold and snowfall due to its mountainous terrain and high altitude. As a result, the architectural features of Dogra buildings are specifically adapted to withstand these frigid conditions. For example, the use of sloping roofs allows for the shedding of snow, preventing the accumulation of heavy loads on the roof and ensuring structural integrity. Additionally, the emphasis on utilizing locally available materials such as wood, stone, and clay helps in providing insulation and maintaining a comfortable indoor temperature despite the cold exterior environment. Furthermore, the presence of intricate wood carvings and decorative elements not only serves an aesthetic purpose but also contributes to the functionality of the buildings by providing additional insulation and protection against the cold. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Srinagar Smart City Ltd. and the Kashmir chapter of the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) have joined hands to conserve vernacular elements of Dogra architecture in Kashmir. Dogra architecture refers to the traditional architectural style and building practices associated with the Dogra community. They primarily ruled over Jammu and Kashmir from 1846 to 1947. Examples of Dogra Architecture: Mubarak mandi, Jharokha style of balcony, Amar Mahal Palace. Dogra architecture primarily developed in the region of Jammu and Kashmir, which experiences extreme cold and snowfall due to its mountainous terrain and high altitude. As a result, the architectural features of Dogra buildings are specifically adapted to withstand these frigid conditions. For example, the use of sloping roofs allows for the shedding of snow, preventing the accumulation of heavy loads on the roof and ensuring structural integrity. Additionally, the emphasis on utilizing locally available materials such as wood, stone, and clay helps in providing insulation and maintaining a comfortable indoor temperature despite the cold exterior environment. Furthermore, the presence of intricate wood carvings and decorative elements not only serves an aesthetic purpose but also contributes to the functionality of the buildings by providing additional insulation and protection against the cold. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Which climatic factor heavily influences the architectural features of Dogra buildings?

• a) Tropical storms

• b) Heatwaves

• c) High humidity

• d) Frigidity

Explanation:

• Srinagar Smart City Ltd. and the Kashmir chapter of the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) have joined hands to conserve vernacular elements of Dogra architecture in Kashmir.

• Dogra architecture refers to the traditional architectural style and building practices associated with the Dogra community. They primarily ruled over Jammu and Kashmir from 1846 to 1947.

• Examples of Dogra Architecture: Mubarak mandi, Jharokha style of balcony, Amar Mahal Palace.

• Dogra architecture primarily developed in the region of Jammu and Kashmir, which experiences extreme cold and snowfall due to its mountainous terrain and high altitude. As a result, the architectural features of Dogra buildings are specifically adapted to withstand these frigid conditions.

• For example, the use of sloping roofs allows for the shedding of snow, preventing the accumulation of heavy loads on the roof and ensuring structural integrity. Additionally, the emphasis on utilizing locally available materials such as wood, stone, and clay helps in providing insulation and maintaining a comfortable indoor temperature despite the cold exterior environment.

• Furthermore, the presence of intricate wood carvings and decorative elements not only serves an aesthetic purpose but also contributes to the functionality of the buildings by providing additional insulation and protection against the cold.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• Dogra architecture refers to the traditional architectural style and building practices associated with the Dogra community. They primarily ruled over Jammu and Kashmir from 1846 to 1947.

• Examples of Dogra Architecture: Mubarak mandi, Jharokha style of balcony, Amar Mahal Palace.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to Salabhanjika in Hoysala sculpture, consider the following statements: Salabhanjika or madanika, is a mythical female figure often depicted near trees or engaged in artistic activities, such as music and dance. Salabhanjika figures are primarily found on the outer walls of Hoysala temples and are absent from the interior. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Salabhanjika, also known as madanika, is indeed a mythical female figure often depicted near trees or engaged in artistic activities like music and dance. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Salabhanjika figures are not exclusively found on the outer walls of Hoysala temples. They are commonly depicted both on the outer walls and on the interior surfaces, including pillars and lintels, of Hoysala temples. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Salabhanjika, also known as madanika, is indeed a mythical female figure often depicted near trees or engaged in artistic activities like music and dance. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Salabhanjika figures are not exclusively found on the outer walls of Hoysala temples. They are commonly depicted both on the outer walls and on the interior surfaces, including pillars and lintels, of Hoysala temples. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 4. Question

With reference to Salabhanjika in Hoysala sculpture, consider the following statements:

• Salabhanjika or madanika, is a mythical female figure often depicted near trees or engaged in artistic activities, such as music and dance.

• Salabhanjika figures are primarily found on the outer walls of Hoysala temples and are absent from the interior.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Salabhanjika, also known as madanika, is indeed a mythical female figure often depicted near trees or engaged in artistic activities like music and dance. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Salabhanjika figures are not exclusively found on the outer walls of Hoysala temples. They are commonly depicted both on the outer walls and on the interior surfaces, including pillars and lintels, of Hoysala temples. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Salabhanjika, also known as madanika, is indeed a mythical female figure often depicted near trees or engaged in artistic activities like music and dance. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding prehistoric rock paintings in India: The first discovery of rock paintings in India was made by archaeologist Archibold Carlleyle. Prehistoric paintings in India often depict geometric patterns in white, black, and red ochre colors. Animals depicted in these paintings are shown in a realistic style, while human figures are represented in abstract forms. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Archibold Carlleyle, made the initial discovery of prehistoric rock paintings in India. In 1867–68, Carlleyle stumbled upon these ancient artworks, marking a significant milestone in the understanding of India’s prehistoric past. His findings laid the foundation for further archaeological exploration and research into the rich cultural heritage of India’s ancient rock art. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Geometric patterns, such as circles, lines, dots, and spirals, are commonly found in prehistoric rock paintings across India. These patterns are often depicted using natural pigments like white, black, and red ochre. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In prehistoric rock paintings, animals are often portrayed in a stylized or symbolic manner rather than a strictly realistic style. Human figures may also be depicted in various styles, ranging from abstract and schematic representations to more detailed and naturalistic renderings. There is no consistent pattern where animals are depicted realistically while human figures are abstract. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Archibold Carlleyle, made the initial discovery of prehistoric rock paintings in India. In 1867–68, Carlleyle stumbled upon these ancient artworks, marking a significant milestone in the understanding of India’s prehistoric past. His findings laid the foundation for further archaeological exploration and research into the rich cultural heritage of India’s ancient rock art. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Geometric patterns, such as circles, lines, dots, and spirals, are commonly found in prehistoric rock paintings across India. These patterns are often depicted using natural pigments like white, black, and red ochre. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In prehistoric rock paintings, animals are often portrayed in a stylized or symbolic manner rather than a strictly realistic style. Human figures may also be depicted in various styles, ranging from abstract and schematic representations to more detailed and naturalistic renderings. There is no consistent pattern where animals are depicted realistically while human figures are abstract. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding prehistoric rock paintings in India:

• The first discovery of rock paintings in India was made by archaeologist Archibold Carlleyle.

• Prehistoric paintings in India often depict geometric patterns in white, black, and red ochre colors.

• Animals depicted in these paintings are shown in a realistic style, while human figures are represented in abstract forms.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Archibold Carlleyle, made the initial discovery of prehistoric rock paintings in India. In 1867–68, Carlleyle stumbled upon these ancient artworks, marking a significant milestone in the understanding of India’s prehistoric past. His findings laid the foundation for further archaeological exploration and research into the rich cultural heritage of India’s ancient rock art. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Geometric patterns, such as circles, lines, dots, and spirals, are commonly found in prehistoric rock paintings across India. These patterns are often depicted using natural pigments like white, black, and red ochre. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• In prehistoric rock paintings, animals are often portrayed in a stylized or symbolic manner rather than a strictly realistic style. Human figures may also be depicted in various styles, ranging from abstract and schematic representations to more detailed and naturalistic renderings. There is no consistent pattern where animals are depicted realistically while human figures are abstract. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which statement accurately describes the characteristics of Tanjore Paintings? a) Tanjore paintings are known for their flat compositions and emphasis on naturalistic landscapes. b) They originated in the Deccan region during the 16th and 17th centuries, heavily influenced by Persian artistic elements. c) Tanjore paintings typically feature Hindu gods and goddesses, with the main figure painted at the center of the composition. d) Tanjore Paintings are primarily known for depicting secular scenes from everyday life rather than focusing solely on Hindu deities. Correct Answer: c Explanation: Tanjore paintings are characterized by their richly detailed and embellished style, typically featuring intricate depictions of Hindu deities, mythological scenes, or religious narratives. They are not known for emphasizing naturalistic landscapes but rather for their stylized and symbolic representations. Tanjore paintings actually originated in South India, particularly in the Tanjore (Thanjavur) region of present-day Tamil Nadu, during the 16th century under the patronage of the Nayakas of Thanjavur. While they were influenced by various artistic traditions, including indigenous Indian styles, they were not heavily influenced by Persian artistic elements. Tanjore paintings are renowned for their depictions of Hindu deities, goddesses, and other religious themes. The main subject, usually a deity or a divine scene, is often prominently placed at the center of the composition, and surrounded by richly detailed ornamentation and symbolic elements. Tanjore paintings are predominantly associated with religious and mythological themes, such as depictions of Hindu gods, goddesses, and divine narratives. While they may occasionally include secular elements, their primary focus is on religious and spiritual subject matter. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Tanjore paintings are characterized by their richly detailed and embellished style, typically featuring intricate depictions of Hindu deities, mythological scenes, or religious narratives. They are not known for emphasizing naturalistic landscapes but rather for their stylized and symbolic representations. Tanjore paintings actually originated in South India, particularly in the Tanjore (Thanjavur) region of present-day Tamil Nadu, during the 16th century under the patronage of the Nayakas of Thanjavur. While they were influenced by various artistic traditions, including indigenous Indian styles, they were not heavily influenced by Persian artistic elements. Tanjore paintings are renowned for their depictions of Hindu deities, goddesses, and other religious themes. The main subject, usually a deity or a divine scene, is often prominently placed at the center of the composition, and surrounded by richly detailed ornamentation and symbolic elements. Tanjore paintings are predominantly associated with religious and mythological themes, such as depictions of Hindu gods, goddesses, and divine narratives. While they may occasionally include secular elements, their primary focus is on religious and spiritual subject matter. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Which statement accurately describes the characteristics of Tanjore Paintings?

• a) Tanjore paintings are known for their flat compositions and emphasis on naturalistic landscapes.

• b) They originated in the Deccan region during the 16th and 17th centuries, heavily influenced by Persian artistic elements.

• c) Tanjore paintings typically feature Hindu gods and goddesses, with the main figure painted at the center of the composition.

• d) Tanjore Paintings are primarily known for depicting secular scenes from everyday life rather than focusing solely on Hindu deities.

Explanation:

• Tanjore paintings are characterized by their richly detailed and embellished style, typically featuring intricate depictions of Hindu deities, mythological scenes, or religious narratives. They are not known for emphasizing naturalistic landscapes but rather for their stylized and symbolic representations.

• Tanjore paintings actually originated in South India, particularly in the Tanjore (Thanjavur) region of present-day Tamil Nadu, during the 16th century under the patronage of the Nayakas of Thanjavur. While they were influenced by various artistic traditions, including indigenous Indian styles, they were not heavily influenced by Persian artistic elements.

• Tanjore paintings are renowned for their depictions of Hindu deities, goddesses, and other religious themes. The main subject, usually a deity or a divine scene, is often prominently placed at the center of the composition, and surrounded by richly detailed ornamentation and symbolic elements.

• Tanjore paintings are predominantly associated with religious and mythological themes, such as depictions of Hindu gods, goddesses, and divine narratives. While they may occasionally include secular elements, their primary focus is on religious and spiritual subject matter.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points What artistic medium is typically used for creating Kalighat paintings? a) Oil on canvas b) Watercolor on paper c) Acrylic on wood d) Ink on silk Correct Answer: b Explanation: Kalighat paintings are traditionally created using watercolors on paper. This medium allows for the vibrant colors and intricate details characteristic of Kalighat art. While other artistic mediums like oil on canvas, acrylic on wood, and ink on silk are used in various art forms, they are not typically associated with Kalighat paintings. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Kalighat paintings are traditionally created using watercolors on paper. This medium allows for the vibrant colors and intricate details characteristic of Kalighat art. While other artistic mediums like oil on canvas, acrylic on wood, and ink on silk are used in various art forms, they are not typically associated with Kalighat paintings. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

What artistic medium is typically used for creating Kalighat paintings?

• a) Oil on canvas

• b) Watercolor on paper

• c) Acrylic on wood

• d) Ink on silk

Explanation:

• Kalighat paintings are traditionally created using watercolors on paper. This medium allows for the vibrant colors and intricate details characteristic of Kalighat art. While other artistic mediums like oil on canvas, acrylic on wood, and ink on silk are used in various art forms, they are not typically associated with Kalighat paintings.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Samkhya School of philosophy: It propounds that the universe consists of two independent realities: puruṣa (‘consciousnesses) and prakṛti (‘matter’). The founder of Samkhya is Sage Kapila. According to Samkhya, there are multiple superior purushas who control the universe. Advaita Vedanta derives its base from the Samkhya School. Which of the above given statements are true? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Samkhya School of philosophy postulates the existence of two independent realities: puruṣa (consciousness) and prakṛti (matter). These two entities are considered distinct and coexist. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Sage Kapila is traditionally regarded as the founder of the Samkhya School. His teachings are recorded in the philosophical text known as the Samkhya Sutras. Hence, statement 2 is correct. According to Samkhya philosophy, there are multiple purushas (individual consciousness), but none of them is considered superior or controls the universe. Each purusha is independent and experiences the effects of prakṛti based on its karma. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. While Samkhya philosophy has influenced various philosophical systems, including Yoga, it is not the basis for Advaita Vedanta. Advaita Vedanta, founded by Adi Shankaracharya, derives its principles primarily from the Upanishads and is based on the concept of non-dualism (advaita). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Samkhya School of philosophy postulates the existence of two independent realities: puruṣa (consciousness) and prakṛti (matter). These two entities are considered distinct and coexist. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Sage Kapila is traditionally regarded as the founder of the Samkhya School. His teachings are recorded in the philosophical text known as the Samkhya Sutras. Hence, statement 2 is correct. According to Samkhya philosophy, there are multiple purushas (individual consciousness), but none of them is considered superior or controls the universe. Each purusha is independent and experiences the effects of prakṛti based on its karma. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. While Samkhya philosophy has influenced various philosophical systems, including Yoga, it is not the basis for Advaita Vedanta. Advaita Vedanta, founded by Adi Shankaracharya, derives its principles primarily from the Upanishads and is based on the concept of non-dualism (advaita). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the Samkhya School of philosophy:

• It propounds that the universe consists of two independent realities: puruṣa (‘consciousnesses) and prakṛti (‘matter’).

• The founder of Samkhya is Sage Kapila.

• According to Samkhya, there are multiple superior purushas who control the universe.

• Advaita Vedanta derives its base from the Samkhya School.

Which of the above given statements are true?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

• The Samkhya School of philosophy postulates the existence of two independent realities: puruṣa (consciousness) and prakṛti (matter). These two entities are considered distinct and coexist. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Sage Kapila is traditionally regarded as the founder of the Samkhya School. His teachings are recorded in the philosophical text known as the Samkhya Sutras. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• According to Samkhya philosophy, there are multiple purushas (individual consciousness), but none of them is considered superior or controls the universe. Each purusha is independent and experiences the effects of prakṛti based on its karma. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• While Samkhya philosophy has influenced various philosophical systems, including Yoga, it is not the basis for Advaita Vedanta. Advaita Vedanta, founded by Adi Shankaracharya, derives its principles primarily from the Upanishads and is based on the concept of non-dualism (advaita). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Sage Kapila is traditionally regarded as the founder of the Samkhya School. His teachings are recorded in the philosophical text known as the Samkhya Sutras. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points According to the Nyaya School of philosophy, what are the four valid sources of knowledge? a) Perception, inference, comparison, and testimony b) Memory, doubt, error, and hypothetical argument c) Perception, inference, authority, and intuition d) Sense organs, intuition, testimony, and comparison Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Nyaya School of philosophy, one of the six orthodox (astika) schools of Indian philosophy, is known for its systematic approach to logic, epistemology, and metaphysics. Founded by Sage Gautama (also known as Akṣapāda Gautama), Nyaya emphasizes the importance of reasoning and critical thinking in the pursuit of knowledge. Perception (Pratyakṣa), inference (Anumāna), comparison (Upamāna), and testimony (Śabda) are considered the four pramāṇas or valid means of knowledge in Nyaya epistemology. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Nyaya School of philosophy, one of the six orthodox (astika) schools of Indian philosophy, is known for its systematic approach to logic, epistemology, and metaphysics. Founded by Sage Gautama (also known as Akṣapāda Gautama), Nyaya emphasizes the importance of reasoning and critical thinking in the pursuit of knowledge. Perception (Pratyakṣa), inference (Anumāna), comparison (Upamāna), and testimony (Śabda) are considered the four pramāṇas or valid means of knowledge in Nyaya epistemology. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

According to the Nyaya School of philosophy, what are the four valid sources of knowledge?

• a) Perception, inference, comparison, and testimony

• b) Memory, doubt, error, and hypothetical argument

• c) Perception, inference, authority, and intuition

• d) Sense organs, intuition, testimony, and comparison

Explanation:

• The Nyaya School of philosophy, one of the six orthodox (astika) schools of Indian philosophy, is known for its systematic approach to logic, epistemology, and metaphysics. Founded by Sage Gautama (also known as Akṣapāda Gautama), Nyaya emphasizes the importance of reasoning and critical thinking in the pursuit of knowledge.

• Perception (Pratyakṣa), inference (Anumāna), comparison (Upamāna), and testimony (Śabda) are considered the four pramāṇas or valid means of knowledge in Nyaya epistemology.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Perception (Pratyakṣa), inference (Anumāna), comparison (Upamāna), and testimony (Śabda) are considered the four pramāṇas or valid means of knowledge in Nyaya epistemology.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following martial arts and their place of origin: 1. Cheigi Gadd-ga Manipur 2. Inbuan Wrestling Mizoram 3. Saldu Himachal Pradesh 4. Kathi Samu Andhra Pradesh How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Cheigi Gadd-ga is a martial art from Manipur. It involves a fighting style that incorporates various techniques of hand-to-hand combat, including grappling, wrestling, and striking techniques. The name “Cheigi Gadd-ga” signifies its origin in Manipur, where it has been practiced for generations. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Inbuan Wrestling is a form of wrestling that originated in Mizoram. It is characterized by its grappling techniques, where opponents engage in bouts aiming to lift each other off the ground. Inbuan Wrestling has been a traditional sport among the Mizo people and is deeply rooted in their culture. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Saldu is actually a prominent sport of the Nicobarese tribe, an indigenous community residing in the Nicobar Islands. Saldu involves wrestling and is played on open grounds without any boundaries, making it a significant part of the Nicobarese tribal culture. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Kathi Samu is an ancient martial art from Andhra Pradesh. It is known for employing various kinds of swords and fighting techniques. The practice of Kathi Samu has been a tradition among the royal armies of Andhra Pradesh, reflecting its historical significance in the region. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Cheigi Gadd-ga is a martial art from Manipur. It involves a fighting style that incorporates various techniques of hand-to-hand combat, including grappling, wrestling, and striking techniques. The name “Cheigi Gadd-ga” signifies its origin in Manipur, where it has been practiced for generations. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Inbuan Wrestling is a form of wrestling that originated in Mizoram. It is characterized by its grappling techniques, where opponents engage in bouts aiming to lift each other off the ground. Inbuan Wrestling has been a traditional sport among the Mizo people and is deeply rooted in their culture. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Saldu is actually a prominent sport of the Nicobarese tribe, an indigenous community residing in the Nicobar Islands. Saldu involves wrestling and is played on open grounds without any boundaries, making it a significant part of the Nicobarese tribal culture. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Kathi Samu is an ancient martial art from Andhra Pradesh. It is known for employing various kinds of swords and fighting techniques. The practice of Kathi Samu has been a tradition among the royal armies of Andhra Pradesh, reflecting its historical significance in the region. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following martial arts and their place of origin:

1.Cheigi Gadd-ga | Manipur
2.Inbuan Wrestling | Mizoram
3.Saldu | Himachal Pradesh
4.Kathi Samu | Andhra Pradesh

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Cheigi Gadd-ga is a martial art from Manipur. It involves a fighting style that incorporates various techniques of hand-to-hand combat, including grappling, wrestling, and striking techniques. The name “Cheigi Gadd-ga” signifies its origin in Manipur, where it has been practiced for generations. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

• Inbuan Wrestling is a form of wrestling that originated in Mizoram. It is characterized by its grappling techniques, where opponents engage in bouts aiming to lift each other off the ground. Inbuan Wrestling has been a traditional sport among the Mizo people and is deeply rooted in their culture. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

• Saldu is actually a prominent sport of the Nicobarese tribe, an indigenous community residing in the Nicobar Islands. Saldu involves wrestling and is played on open grounds without any boundaries, making it a significant part of the Nicobarese tribal culture. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

• Kathi Samu is an ancient martial art from Andhra Pradesh. It is known for employing various kinds of swords and fighting techniques. The practice of Kathi Samu has been a tradition among the royal armies of Andhra Pradesh, reflecting its historical significance in the region. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding An Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API) is a chemical compound that produces the intended affects to cure a Health condition. Fixed Dose combination drugs use only one API. Penicillin G is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used as API in several drugs. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Every medicine is made up of two main ingredients the chemically active API and the chemically inactive excipient- which is a substance that delivers the effect of API to one’s system. An Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient is a chemical compound that is the most important raw material to produce a finished medicine in medicine is produces the intended affects to cure that disease. Hence statement 1 is correct Fixed Dose combination drugs use multiple active Pharmaceutical ingredients while single dose drugs use just one API. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Penicillin G is the active Pharmaceutical ingredient used in several common antibiotics. It is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for the treatment of several serious bacterial infections such as pneumonia, meningitis , syphilis due to poor oral absorption it is generally administered intravenously or intramuscularly it may have side effects in certain patients. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Every medicine is made up of two main ingredients the chemically active API and the chemically inactive excipient- which is a substance that delivers the effect of API to one’s system. An Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient is a chemical compound that is the most important raw material to produce a finished medicine in medicine is produces the intended affects to cure that disease. Hence statement 1 is correct Fixed Dose combination drugs use multiple active Pharmaceutical ingredients while single dose drugs use just one API. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Penicillin G is the active Pharmaceutical ingredient used in several common antibiotics. It is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for the treatment of several serious bacterial infections such as pneumonia, meningitis , syphilis due to poor oral absorption it is generally administered intravenously or intramuscularly it may have side effects in certain patients. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding

• An Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API) is a chemical compound that produces the intended affects to cure a Health condition.

• Fixed Dose combination drugs use only one API.

• Penicillin G is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used as API in several drugs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

•Every medicine is made up of two main ingredients the chemically active API and the chemically inactive excipient- which is a substance that delivers the effect of API to one’s system.

•An Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient is a chemical compound that is the most important raw material to produce a finished medicine

•in medicine is produces the intended affects to cure that disease.

Hence statement 1 is correct

•Fixed Dose combination drugs use multiple active Pharmaceutical ingredients while single dose drugs use just one API.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

•Penicillin G is the active Pharmaceutical ingredient used in several common antibiotics.

•It is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for the treatment of several serious bacterial infections such as pneumonia, meningitis , syphilis

•due to poor oral absorption it is generally administered intravenously or intramuscularly

•it may have side effects in certain patients.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

•Every medicine is made up of two main ingredients the chemically active API and the chemically inactive excipient- which is a substance that delivers the effect of API to one’s system.

•An Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient is a chemical compound that is the most important raw material to produce a finished medicine

•in medicine is produces the intended affects to cure that disease.

Hence statement 1 is correct

•Fixed Dose combination drugs use multiple active Pharmaceutical ingredients while single dose drugs use just one API.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

•Penicillin G is the active Pharmaceutical ingredient used in several common antibiotics.

•It is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for the treatment of several serious bacterial infections such as pneumonia, meningitis , syphilis

•due to poor oral absorption it is generally administered intravenously or intramuscularly

•it may have side effects in certain patients.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) This technology has been indigenously developed by DRDO. MIRV equipped missiles can strike multiple targets with multiple warheads. It is capable of penetrating missile defence systems of enemies. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle technology was developed in 1960 and first deployed in 1970 by the United States and then Soviet Union. Over the years France, the United Kingdom and eventually China have developed this technology; Pakistan to has claimed to have tested an MIRV equipped missile called Ababeel in 2017 and then in 2023. Recently India has announced that it had successfully tested Agni V missile capable of carrying multiple war heads and strike multiple targets and is integrated with MIRV technology Hence statement 1 is incorrect Traditional missiles carry a single warhead or weapon that goes and hits the intended target. But MIRV equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target ; they can all be made to hit the same location too, one after the other, thus ensuring a complete destruction of the target. Hence statement 2 is correct A missile defence system is a network of Technology aimed at detecting, tracking, intercepting and destroying an incoming missile It involves deployment of sophisticated radars, communication system and interceptor missiles A part from the advantage of inflicting multiple damages with a single strike, MIRV Technology has ability to penetrate missile defence systems- an advantage for which it is widely sort after by military worldwide. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle technology was developed in 1960 and first deployed in 1970 by the United States and then Soviet Union. Over the years France, the United Kingdom and eventually China have developed this technology; Pakistan to has claimed to have tested an MIRV equipped missile called Ababeel in 2017 and then in 2023. Recently India has announced that it had successfully tested Agni V missile capable of carrying multiple war heads and strike multiple targets and is integrated with MIRV technology Hence statement 1 is incorrect Traditional missiles carry a single warhead or weapon that goes and hits the intended target. But MIRV equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target ; they can all be made to hit the same location too, one after the other, thus ensuring a complete destruction of the target. Hence statement 2 is correct A missile defence system is a network of Technology aimed at detecting, tracking, intercepting and destroying an incoming missile It involves deployment of sophisticated radars, communication system and interceptor missiles A part from the advantage of inflicting multiple damages with a single strike, MIRV Technology has ability to penetrate missile defence systems- an advantage for which it is widely sort after by military worldwide. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV)

• This technology has been indigenously developed by DRDO.

• MIRV equipped missiles can strike multiple targets with multiple warheads.

• It is capable of penetrating missile defence systems of enemies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

•The Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle technology was developed in 1960 and first deployed in 1970 by the United States and then Soviet Union.

•Over the years France, the United Kingdom and eventually China have developed this technology; Pakistan to has claimed to have tested an MIRV equipped missile called Ababeel in 2017 and then in 2023.

•Recently India has announced that it had successfully tested Agni V missile capable of carrying multiple war heads and strike multiple targets and is integrated with MIRV technology

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

•Traditional missiles carry a single warhead or weapon that goes and hits the intended target.

•But MIRV equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target ; they can all be made to hit the same location too, one after the other, thus ensuring a complete destruction of the target.

Hence statement 2 is correct

•A missile defence system is a network of Technology aimed at detecting, tracking, intercepting and destroying an incoming missile

•It involves deployment of sophisticated radars, communication system and interceptor missiles

•A part from the advantage of inflicting multiple damages with a single strike, MIRV Technology has ability to penetrate missile defence systems- an advantage for which it is widely sort after by military worldwide.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

•The Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle technology was developed in 1960 and first deployed in 1970 by the United States and then Soviet Union.

•Over the years France, the United Kingdom and eventually China have developed this technology; Pakistan to has claimed to have tested an MIRV equipped missile called Ababeel in 2017 and then in 2023.

•Recently India has announced that it had successfully tested Agni V missile capable of carrying multiple war heads and strike multiple targets and is integrated with MIRV technology

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

•Traditional missiles carry a single warhead or weapon that goes and hits the intended target.

•But MIRV equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed to strike a separate target ; they can all be made to hit the same location too, one after the other, thus ensuring a complete destruction of the target.

Hence statement 2 is correct

•A missile defence system is a network of Technology aimed at detecting, tracking, intercepting and destroying an incoming missile

•It involves deployment of sophisticated radars, communication system and interceptor missiles

•A part from the advantage of inflicting multiple damages with a single strike, MIRV Technology has ability to penetrate missile defence systems- an advantage for which it is widely sort after by military worldwide.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric Research Testbed: It is an observation and analytical research program developed by the Central Pollution Control Board. It has been designed to conduct ground based observations of temperature and wind speed. It will be helpful in rainfall forecasts, useful for agriculture. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Atmospheric Research Testbed is an open field focused observation and analytical research program. It has been developed by the Ministry of Earth Sciences at a cost of Rs 125 crore the Indian Institute of Tropical Metrology, Pune is in charge of its operation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The first phase of India’s ART in Central India was inaugurated in Madhya Pradesh the 100 acre facility houses 25 high end meteorological instruments for studying vital cloud processes associated with India’s Monsoon Core Zone The facility aims to conduct ground based observations of weather parameters like temperature and wind speeds and on-site observations of the transient synoptic systems like low pressure areas and depression forming in the Bay of Bengal during the southwest monsoon season from June to September. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Atmospheric Research Testbed is an open field focused observation and analytical research program. It has been developed by the Ministry of Earth Sciences at a cost of Rs 125 crore the Indian Institute of Tropical Metrology, Pune is in charge of its operation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The first phase of India’s ART in Central India was inaugurated in Madhya Pradesh the 100 acre facility houses 25 high end meteorological instruments for studying vital cloud processes associated with India’s Monsoon Core Zone The facility aims to conduct ground based observations of weather parameters like temperature and wind speeds and on-site observations of the transient synoptic systems like low pressure areas and depression forming in the Bay of Bengal during the southwest monsoon season from June to September. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric Research Testbed:

• It is an observation and analytical research program developed by the Central Pollution Control Board.

• It has been designed to conduct ground based observations of temperature and wind speed.

• It will be helpful in rainfall forecasts, useful for agriculture.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

•The Atmospheric Research Testbed is an open field focused observation and analytical research program.

•It has been developed by the Ministry of Earth Sciences at a cost of Rs 125 crore

•the Indian Institute of Tropical Metrology, Pune is in charge of its operation.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

•The first phase of India’s ART in Central India was inaugurated in Madhya Pradesh

•the 100 acre facility houses 25 high end meteorological instruments for studying vital cloud processes associated with India’s Monsoon Core Zone

•The facility aims to conduct ground based observations of weather parameters like temperature and wind speeds and on-site observations of the transient synoptic systems like low pressure areas and depression forming in the Bay of Bengal during the southwest monsoon season from June to September.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

•The Atmospheric Research Testbed is an open field focused observation and analytical research program.

•It has been developed by the Ministry of Earth Sciences at a cost of Rs 125 crore

•the Indian Institute of Tropical Metrology, Pune is in charge of its operation.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

•The first phase of India’s ART in Central India was inaugurated in Madhya Pradesh

•the 100 acre facility houses 25 high end meteorological instruments for studying vital cloud processes associated with India’s Monsoon Core Zone

•The facility aims to conduct ground based observations of weather parameters like temperature and wind speeds and on-site observations of the transient synoptic systems like low pressure areas and depression forming in the Bay of Bengal during the southwest monsoon season from June to September.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Inflection 2.5, recently seen in news, is a (a) Large Language Model (b) Solar powered telescope (c) Li-Ion battery operated drone (d) Industrial robot Correct Solution: A Inflection 2.5 is an upgrade to a Large Language Model created by Inflection AI (a California based company). Recently the world’s friendliest chat box Pi, powered by the new Inflection 2.5 has emerged as a breakthrough in conversational AI Technology offering Deep and meaningful interactions Pi offers empathetic, helpful and safe conversations setting it apart from other chatbots Infection 2.5 allows Pi to access and process information from real time web, providing users with up to date answers to questions Inflection 2.5 competes with leading LLM like GPT 4 while using only 40% of its computational power for training. Large Language Model These are specific class of generative AI models that are trained to understand and generate human like text these are built using deep learning techniques particularly using neural network they can generate coherent and contextually relevant text given a prompt or input. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A Inflection 2.5 is an upgrade to a Large Language Model created by Inflection AI (a California based company). Recently the world’s friendliest chat box Pi, powered by the new Inflection 2.5 has emerged as a breakthrough in conversational AI Technology offering Deep and meaningful interactions Pi offers empathetic, helpful and safe conversations setting it apart from other chatbots Infection 2.5 allows Pi to access and process information from real time web, providing users with up to date answers to questions Inflection 2.5 competes with leading LLM like GPT 4 while using only 40% of its computational power for training. Large Language Model These are specific class of generative AI models that are trained to understand and generate human like text these are built using deep learning techniques particularly using neural network they can generate coherent and contextually relevant text given a prompt or input. Hence option A is correct

#### 14. Question

Inflection 2.5, recently seen in news, is a

• (a) Large Language Model

• (b) Solar powered telescope

• (c) Li-Ion battery operated drone

• (d) Industrial robot

Solution: A

•Inflection 2.5 is an upgrade to a Large Language Model created by Inflection AI (a California based company).

•Recently the world’s friendliest chat box Pi, powered by the new Inflection 2.5 has emerged as a breakthrough in conversational AI Technology offering Deep and meaningful interactions

•Pi offers empathetic, helpful and safe conversations setting it apart from other chatbots

•Infection 2.5 allows Pi to access and process information from real time web, providing users with up to date answers to questions

•Inflection 2.5 competes with leading LLM like GPT 4 while using only 40% of its computational power for training.

Large Language Model

•These are specific class of generative AI models that are trained to understand and generate human like text

•these are built using deep learning techniques particularly using neural network

•they can generate coherent and contextually relevant text given a prompt or input.

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

•Inflection 2.5 is an upgrade to a Large Language Model created by Inflection AI (a California based company).

•Recently the world’s friendliest chat box Pi, powered by the new Inflection 2.5 has emerged as a breakthrough in conversational AI Technology offering Deep and meaningful interactions

•Pi offers empathetic, helpful and safe conversations setting it apart from other chatbots

•Infection 2.5 allows Pi to access and process information from real time web, providing users with up to date answers to questions

•Inflection 2.5 competes with leading LLM like GPT 4 while using only 40% of its computational power for training.

Large Language Model

•These are specific class of generative AI models that are trained to understand and generate human like text

•these are built using deep learning techniques particularly using neural network

•they can generate coherent and contextually relevant text given a prompt or input.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) It is a Fifth generation multi-role fighter jet to be designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency. It is powered by indigenously developed Kaveri jet engine. It will have a low electromagnetic signature allowing it to remain undetected by enemy radar. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Recently the cabinet committee on security cleared a Rs.15000 crore project to design and developed the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft- India’s 5th generation fighter multi role fighter jet. The Aeronautical Development Agency under the Defence Research and Development Organisation, Ministry of Defence will be the nodal agency for executing the program and designing the aircraft. Hence statement 1 is correct The AMCA Mk1 variant will have the US built GE14 engine of the 90 kilonewton class, while the advanced AMCA Mk2 will fly on the more powerful 110 kilo Newton engine which will be developed by DRDO’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE) in collaboration with a foreign defence major. GTRE has been working on the development of Kaveri engine to power India’s indigenously developed combat aircraft. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The 25 tonne Twin engine aircraft bigger than other fighters in the Indian Air Force inventory will have advanced stealth features to avoid detection by enemy radar The feature that sets this aircraft apart is primarily the stealth feature the aircraft will have a low electromagnetic signature which will make it difficult for enemy radars to detect it at the same time it will have powerful sensors and new weapons so it is able to register the signature of enemy aircraft and take them out. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Recently the cabinet committee on security cleared a Rs.15000 crore project to design and developed the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft- India’s 5th generation fighter multi role fighter jet. The Aeronautical Development Agency under the Defence Research and Development Organisation, Ministry of Defence will be the nodal agency for executing the program and designing the aircraft. Hence statement 1 is correct The AMCA Mk1 variant will have the US built GE14 engine of the 90 kilonewton class, while the advanced AMCA Mk2 will fly on the more powerful 110 kilo Newton engine which will be developed by DRDO’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE) in collaboration with a foreign defence major. GTRE has been working on the development of Kaveri engine to power India’s indigenously developed combat aircraft. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The 25 tonne Twin engine aircraft bigger than other fighters in the Indian Air Force inventory will have advanced stealth features to avoid detection by enemy radar The feature that sets this aircraft apart is primarily the stealth feature the aircraft will have a low electromagnetic signature which will make it difficult for enemy radars to detect it at the same time it will have powerful sensors and new weapons so it is able to register the signature of enemy aircraft and take them out. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA)

• It is a Fifth generation multi-role fighter jet to be designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency.

• It is powered by indigenously developed Kaveri jet engine.

• It will have a low electromagnetic signature allowing it to remain undetected by enemy radar.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

•Recently the cabinet committee on security cleared a Rs.15000 crore project to design and developed the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft- India’s 5th generation fighter multi role fighter jet.

•The Aeronautical Development Agency under the Defence Research and Development Organisation, Ministry of Defence will be the nodal agency for executing the program and designing the aircraft.

Hence statement 1 is correct

•The AMCA Mk1 variant will have the US built GE14 engine of the 90 kilonewton class, while the advanced AMCA Mk2 will fly on the more powerful 110 kilo Newton engine which will be developed by DRDO’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE) in collaboration with a foreign defence major.

•GTRE has been working on the development of Kaveri engine to power India’s indigenously developed combat aircraft.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

•The 25 tonne Twin engine aircraft bigger than other fighters in the Indian Air Force inventory will have advanced stealth features to avoid detection by enemy radar

•The feature that sets this aircraft apart is primarily the stealth feature

•the aircraft will have a low electromagnetic signature which will make it difficult for enemy radars to detect it

•at the same time it will have powerful sensors and new weapons so it is able to register the signature of enemy aircraft and take them out.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

•Recently the cabinet committee on security cleared a Rs.15000 crore project to design and developed the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft- India’s 5th generation fighter multi role fighter jet.

•The Aeronautical Development Agency under the Defence Research and Development Organisation, Ministry of Defence will be the nodal agency for executing the program and designing the aircraft.

Hence statement 1 is correct

•The AMCA Mk1 variant will have the US built GE14 engine of the 90 kilonewton class, while the advanced AMCA Mk2 will fly on the more powerful 110 kilo Newton engine which will be developed by DRDO’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE) in collaboration with a foreign defence major.

•GTRE has been working on the development of Kaveri engine to power India’s indigenously developed combat aircraft.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

•The 25 tonne Twin engine aircraft bigger than other fighters in the Indian Air Force inventory will have advanced stealth features to avoid detection by enemy radar

•The feature that sets this aircraft apart is primarily the stealth feature

•the aircraft will have a low electromagnetic signature which will make it difficult for enemy radars to detect it

•at the same time it will have powerful sensors and new weapons so it is able to register the signature of enemy aircraft and take them out.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Foreign Portfolio Investors typically invest in stocks of a company bonds of a company or the government physical assets of a company How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-january-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-january-2024/

#### 16. Question

Foreign Portfolio Investors typically invest in

• stocks of a company

• bonds of a company or the government

• physical assets of a company

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-january-2024/

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-january-2024/

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Ibex species can be found in India, China and some Central Asian and European countries. Himalayan Ibex is a sub-species of Siberian Ibex. All species of ibex are currently critically endangered. How many of the above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: An ibex is any of several species of wild goat, distinguished by the male’s large recurved horns, which are transversely ridged in front. Ibex are found in Europe (Alpine Ibexes), Russia (Siberian Ibexes), India (Himalayan Ibexes), North Africa and East Africa. Across Asia, Ibex inhabits elevations from 500 m to 6,700 m in countries like India, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Mongolia, Pakistan, Southern Siberia, and China, with the least concern about IUCN status. The Himalayan Ibex (a distinct species and NOT part of Siberian Ibex) is primarily found in the trans-Himalayan ranges of the Union Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir, as well as Himachal Pradesh. Climate change is impacting Alpine ibexes (IUCN: Least Concern), a species of mountain goats in the European Alps. Warmer temperatures are forcing these goats to shift from diurnal to nocturnal (from daytime to nighttime) habits to escape excess heat, making them vulnerable to predators like wolves. This shift may have negative consequences on foraging efficiency, antipredator behaviours, and overall reproduction and survival rates. It also presents challenges for conservation planning and population estimates, as animals become less detectable during nocturnal hours. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-january-2024/ Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: An ibex is any of several species of wild goat, distinguished by the male’s large recurved horns, which are transversely ridged in front. Ibex are found in Europe (Alpine Ibexes), Russia (Siberian Ibexes), India (Himalayan Ibexes), North Africa and East Africa. Across Asia, Ibex inhabits elevations from 500 m to 6,700 m in countries like India, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Mongolia, Pakistan, Southern Siberia, and China, with the least concern about IUCN status. The Himalayan Ibex (a distinct species and NOT part of Siberian Ibex) is primarily found in the trans-Himalayan ranges of the Union Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir, as well as Himachal Pradesh. Climate change is impacting Alpine ibexes (IUCN: Least Concern), a species of mountain goats in the European Alps. Warmer temperatures are forcing these goats to shift from diurnal to nocturnal (from daytime to nighttime) habits to escape excess heat, making them vulnerable to predators like wolves. This shift may have negative consequences on foraging efficiency, antipredator behaviours, and overall reproduction and survival rates. It also presents challenges for conservation planning and population estimates, as animals become less detectable during nocturnal hours. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-january-2024/

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Ibex species can be found in India, China and some Central Asian and European countries.

• Himalayan Ibex is a sub-species of Siberian Ibex.

• All species of ibex are currently critically endangered.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Justification: An ibex is any of several species of wild goat, distinguished by the male’s large recurved horns, which are transversely ridged in front. Ibex are found in Europe (Alpine Ibexes), Russia (Siberian Ibexes), India (Himalayan Ibexes), North Africa and East Africa.

Across Asia, Ibex inhabits elevations from 500 m to 6,700 m in countries like India, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Mongolia, Pakistan, Southern Siberia, and China, with the least concern about IUCN status. The Himalayan Ibex (a distinct species and NOT part of Siberian Ibex) is primarily found in the trans-Himalayan ranges of the Union Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir, as well as Himachal Pradesh.

Climate change is impacting Alpine ibexes (IUCN: Least Concern), a species of mountain goats in the European Alps. Warmer temperatures are forcing these goats to shift from diurnal to nocturnal (from daytime to nighttime) habits to escape excess heat, making them vulnerable to predators like wolves.

This shift may have negative consequences on foraging efficiency, antipredator behaviours, and overall reproduction and survival rates. It also presents challenges for conservation planning and population estimates, as animals become less detectable during nocturnal hours.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-january-2024/

Solution: a)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-january-2024/

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Lake Victoria in Africa holds great significance as Africa’s largest lake by area world’s largest tropical lake largest freshwater lake globally How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Lake Victoria, Africa’s largest lake and the world’s second-largest freshwater lake, spans approximately 59,947 km² and is shared by Kenya (6%), Uganda (43%), and Tanzania (51%). Fed by rivers like Kagera, Katonga, Sio, Yala, Nyando, Sondu Miriu, and Mara, it contributes to the River Nile’s water. As one of the African Great Lakes, Lake Victoria holds significance as Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the second-largest freshwater lake globally after Lake Superior in North America. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/26/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-january-2024/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Lake Victoria, Africa’s largest lake and the world’s second-largest freshwater lake, spans approximately 59,947 km² and is shared by Kenya (6%), Uganda (43%), and Tanzania (51%). Fed by rivers like Kagera, Katonga, Sio, Yala, Nyando, Sondu Miriu, and Mara, it contributes to the River Nile’s water. As one of the African Great Lakes, Lake Victoria holds significance as Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the second-largest freshwater lake globally after Lake Superior in North America. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/26/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-january-2024/

#### 18. Question

Lake Victoria in Africa holds great significance as

• Africa’s largest lake by area

• world’s largest tropical lake

• largest freshwater lake globally

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: Lake Victoria, Africa’s largest lake and the world’s second-largest freshwater lake, spans approximately 59,947 km² and is shared by Kenya (6%), Uganda (43%), and Tanzania (51%). Fed by rivers like Kagera, Katonga, Sio, Yala, Nyando, Sondu Miriu, and Mara, it contributes to the River Nile’s water. As one of the African Great Lakes, Lake Victoria holds significance as Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the second-largest freshwater lake globally after Lake Superior in North America.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/26/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-january-2024/

Solution: b)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/26/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-january-2024/

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Tax Buoyancy measures the efficiency of tax collection in response to a country’s economic growth. The Direct Tax to GDP ratio gives an estimate of a country’s ability to mobilise resources to fuel its development. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: The Direct Tax to GDP ratio is a financial metric that represents the percentage of a country’s gross domestic product (GDP) contributed by direct taxes. A higher ratio implies a larger share of tax revenue relative to the overall economic activity. It gives an estimate of a country’s ability to mobilise resources to fuel its development. Direct taxes contributed over 54% to the overall tax collection during FY23. The Tax Buoyancy decreased from 2.52 to 1.18 compared to the previous year. Tax buoyancy measures the efficiency of tax collection in response to GDP growth. It signifies buoyancy when tax revenues increase more than proportionately with GDP growth, even if tax rates remain constant. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/26/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-january-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The Direct Tax to GDP ratio is a financial metric that represents the percentage of a country’s gross domestic product (GDP) contributed by direct taxes. A higher ratio implies a larger share of tax revenue relative to the overall economic activity. It gives an estimate of a country’s ability to mobilise resources to fuel its development. Direct taxes contributed over 54% to the overall tax collection during FY23. The Tax Buoyancy decreased from 2.52 to 1.18 compared to the previous year. Tax buoyancy measures the efficiency of tax collection in response to GDP growth. It signifies buoyancy when tax revenues increase more than proportionately with GDP growth, even if tax rates remain constant. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/26/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-january-2024/

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Tax Buoyancy measures the efficiency of tax collection in response to a country’s economic growth.

• The Direct Tax to GDP ratio gives an estimate of a country’s ability to mobilise resources to fuel its development.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: The Direct Tax to GDP ratio is a financial metric that represents the percentage of a country’s gross domestic product (GDP) contributed by direct taxes. A higher ratio implies a larger share of tax revenue relative to the overall economic activity. It gives an estimate of a country’s ability to mobilise resources to fuel its development. Direct taxes contributed over 54% to the overall tax collection during FY23.

The Tax Buoyancy decreased from 2.52 to 1.18 compared to the previous year. Tax buoyancy measures the efficiency of tax collection in response to GDP growth. It signifies buoyancy when tax revenues increase more than proportionately with GDP growth, even if tax rates remain constant.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/26/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-january-2024/

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/26/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-january-2024/

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. World Bank Group provides financial support and technical assistance for Climate-Smart Agriculture Initiatives (CSA) projects in developing countries. The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) is a voluntary platform fostering collaboration among governments, civil society, farmers, research institutions, and the private sector to promote knowledge sharing, policy dialogue, and investment in CSA. The Climate-Smart Agriculture Youth Network (CSAYN) comprises young individuals from various countries dedicated to raising awareness and taking action on CSA among youth and other stakeholders. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Climate-Smart Agriculture Initiatives: Government Initiatives in India: National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change, National Innovation on Climate Resilient Agriculture, Soil Health Mission, Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana, Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana, Biotech-KISAN, and Climate Smart Village. Public and Private Sector Involvement: Farmer-producer organizations, NGOs, and various entities are actively contributing to CSA adoption. Research Programs: The CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS) addresses challenges of food security, poverty, and climate change on a global scale, National Innovations in Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA) World Bank Group: Provides financial support and technical assistance for CSA projects in developing countries. Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA): A voluntary platform fostering collaboration among governments, civil society, farmers, research institutions, and the private sector to promote knowledge sharing, policy dialogue, and investment in CSA. Climate-Smart Agriculture Youth Network (CSAYN): Comprises young individuals from various countries dedicated to raising awareness and taking action on CSA among youth and other stakeholders. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) One of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/24/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-january-2024/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Climate-Smart Agriculture Initiatives: Government Initiatives in India: National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change, National Innovation on Climate Resilient Agriculture, Soil Health Mission, Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana, Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana, Biotech-KISAN, and Climate Smart Village. Public and Private Sector Involvement: Farmer-producer organizations, NGOs, and various entities are actively contributing to CSA adoption. Research Programs: The CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS) addresses challenges of food security, poverty, and climate change on a global scale, National Innovations in Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA) World Bank Group: Provides financial support and technical assistance for CSA projects in developing countries. Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA): A voluntary platform fostering collaboration among governments, civil society, farmers, research institutions, and the private sector to promote knowledge sharing, policy dialogue, and investment in CSA. Climate-Smart Agriculture Youth Network (CSAYN): Comprises young individuals from various countries dedicated to raising awareness and taking action on CSA among youth and other stakeholders. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) One of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/24/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-january-2024/

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements.

• World Bank Group provides financial support and technical assistance for Climate-Smart Agriculture Initiatives (CSA) projects in developing countries.

• The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) is a voluntary platform fostering collaboration among governments, civil society, farmers, research institutions, and the private sector to promote knowledge sharing, policy dialogue, and investment in CSA.

• The Climate-Smart Agriculture Youth Network (CSAYN) comprises young individuals from various countries dedicated to raising awareness and taking action on CSA among youth and other stakeholders.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Climate-Smart Agriculture Initiatives:

Government Initiatives in India: National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change, National Innovation on Climate Resilient Agriculture, Soil Health Mission, Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana, Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana, Biotech-KISAN, and Climate Smart Village.

Public and Private Sector Involvement: Farmer-producer organizations, NGOs, and various entities are actively contributing to CSA adoption.

Research Programs: The CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS) addresses challenges of food security, poverty, and climate change on a global scale, National Innovations in Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA)

World Bank Group: Provides financial support and technical assistance for CSA projects in developing countries.

Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA): A voluntary platform fostering collaboration among governments, civil society, farmers, research institutions, and the private sector to promote knowledge sharing, policy dialogue, and investment in CSA.

Climate-Smart Agriculture Youth Network (CSAYN): Comprises young individuals from various countries dedicated to raising awareness and taking action on CSA among youth and other stakeholders.

National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) One of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/24/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-january-2024/

Solution: c)

Justification: Climate-Smart Agriculture Initiatives:

Public and Private Sector Involvement: Farmer-producer organizations, NGOs, and various entities are actively contributing to CSA adoption.

World Bank Group: Provides financial support and technical assistance for CSA projects in developing countries.

Climate-Smart Agriculture Youth Network (CSAYN): Comprises young individuals from various countries dedicated to raising awareness and taking action on CSA among youth and other stakeholders.

National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) One of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/24/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-january-2024/

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: They can reduce the greenhouse gas emissions. They improve the efficiency of the livestock population. They limit the loss of nitrogen from cultivated fields. How many of the statements given above is/are correct about the Environmental Inhibitors? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Environmental inhibitors are one of the approaches used to minimize the harmful effects of agri-food systems on the environment. Not only can they reduce greenhouse gas emissions, such as methane from ruminants or limit the loss of nitrogen from cultivated fields and pastures, but also improve the efficiency of livestock and crop production.” However, an inadvertent presence of environmental inhibitors in food commodities can raise health concerns as well as trade disruption if standards or appropriate measures are not established. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Environmental inhibitors are one of the approaches used to minimize the harmful effects of agri-food systems on the environment. Not only can they reduce greenhouse gas emissions, such as methane from ruminants or limit the loss of nitrogen from cultivated fields and pastures, but also improve the efficiency of livestock and crop production.” However, an inadvertent presence of environmental inhibitors in food commodities can raise health concerns as well as trade disruption if standards or appropriate measures are not established.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements:

• They can reduce the greenhouse gas emissions.

• They improve the efficiency of the livestock population.

• They limit the loss of nitrogen from cultivated fields.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct about the Environmental Inhibitors?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Environmental inhibitors are one of the approaches used to minimize the harmful effects of agri-food systems on the environment.

Not only can they reduce greenhouse gas emissions, such as methane from ruminants or limit the loss of nitrogen from cultivated fields and pastures, but also improve the efficiency of livestock and crop production.”

However, an inadvertent presence of environmental inhibitors in food commodities can raise health concerns as well as trade disruption if standards or appropriate measures are not established.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Environmental inhibitors are one of the approaches used to minimize the harmful effects of agri-food systems on the environment.

However, an inadvertent presence of environmental inhibitors in food commodities can raise health concerns as well as trade disruption if standards or appropriate measures are not established.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following: The Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) recently mentioned in the news is a collaborative initiative between the International Organisation of Migration and (a) The World Bank Group (b) The World Economic Forum (c) The International Monetary Fund (d) The Indian Council of World Affairs Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The launch of Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals). The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA). Project PRAYAS not only aligns with Government of India’s priorities for the promotion of safe and orderly migration, but also aligns with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to facilitate orderly, safe, regular, and responsible migration and mobility of people. Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The launch of Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals). The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA). Project PRAYAS not only aligns with Government of India’s priorities for the promotion of safe and orderly migration, but also aligns with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to facilitate orderly, safe, regular, and responsible migration and mobility of people.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following:

The Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) recently mentioned in the news is a collaborative initiative between the International Organisation of Migration and

• (a) The World Bank Group

• (b) The World Economic Forum

• (c) The International Monetary Fund

• (d) The Indian Council of World Affairs

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The launch of Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals).

• The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA).

• Project PRAYAS not only aligns with Government of India’s priorities for the promotion of safe and orderly migration, but also aligns with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to facilitate orderly, safe, regular, and responsible migration and mobility of people.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The launch of Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals).

• The project is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA).

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Fly ash is the finest of coal ash particles transported from the combustion chamber by exhaust gases. The pozzolanic properties make fly ash useful for cement replacement in concrete and building applications. Fly ash is formed from the mineral matter in coal consisting of only combustible form of coal. How many the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Fly ash is the finest of coal ash particles. It is called fly ash because it is transported from the combustion chamber by exhaust gases. Statement 2 is correct: The cementations and pozzolanic properties make some fly ashes useful for cement replacement in concrete and many other building applications. Properties of fly ash vary significantly with coal composition and plant operating conditions. Fly ash is referred to as either cementations or pozzolanic. A cementations material is one that hardens when mixed with water. A pozzolanic material will also harden with water but only after activation with an alkaline substance such as lime. Statement 3 is not correct: Fly ash is the fine powder formed from the mineral matter in coal, consisting of the non-combustible matter in coal and a small amount of carbon that remains from incomplete combustion. Fly ash is used in concrete and cement products, road base, oil stabilizer, clean fill, filler in asphalt, metal recovery, and mineral filler. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Fly ash is the finest of coal ash particles. It is called fly ash because it is transported from the combustion chamber by exhaust gases. Statement 2 is correct: The cementations and pozzolanic properties make some fly ashes useful for cement replacement in concrete and many other building applications. Properties of fly ash vary significantly with coal composition and plant operating conditions. Fly ash is referred to as either cementations or pozzolanic. A cementations material is one that hardens when mixed with water. A pozzolanic material will also harden with water but only after activation with an alkaline substance such as lime. Statement 3 is not correct: *Fly ash is the fine powder formed from the mineral matter in coal, consisting of the non-combustible matter in coal and a small amount of carbon that remains from incomplete combustion. Fly ash is used in concrete and cement products, road base, oil stabilizer, clean fill, filler in asphalt, metal recovery, and mineral filler.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Fly ash is the finest of coal ash particles transported from the combustion chamber by exhaust gases.

• The pozzolanic properties make fly ash useful for cement replacement in concrete and building applications.

• Fly ash is formed from the mineral matter in coal consisting of only combustible form of coal.

How many the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Fly ash is the finest of coal ash particles. It is called fly ash because it is transported from the combustion chamber by exhaust gases.

Statement 2 is correct: The cementations and pozzolanic properties make some fly ashes useful for cement replacement in concrete and many other building applications.

Properties of fly ash vary significantly with coal composition and plant operating conditions. Fly ash is referred to as either cementations or pozzolanic.

A cementations material is one that hardens when mixed with water. A pozzolanic material will also harden with water but only after activation with an alkaline substance such as lime.

Statement 3 is not correct: Fly ash is the fine powder formed from the mineral matter in coal, consisting of the non-combustible matter in coal and a small amount of carbon that remains from incomplete combustion.

Fly ash is used in concrete and cement products, road base, oil stabilizer, clean fill, filler in asphalt, metal recovery, and mineral filler.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Fly ash is the finest of coal ash particles. It is called fly ash because it is transported from the combustion chamber by exhaust gases.

Statement 2 is correct: The cementations and pozzolanic properties make some fly ashes useful for cement replacement in concrete and many other building applications.

Properties of fly ash vary significantly with coal composition and plant operating conditions. Fly ash is referred to as either cementations or pozzolanic.

A cementations material is one that hardens when mixed with water. A pozzolanic material will also harden with water but only after activation with an alkaline substance such as lime.

Fly ash is used in concrete and cement products, road base, oil stabilizer, clean fill, filler in asphalt, metal recovery, and mineral filler.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following: Private equity Stocks and Bonds Crypto currency Hedge Funds Real Estate How many of the assets given above *can be included under the category of Alternate Investments? (a) Only one (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: An alternative investment is a financial asset that does not fit into the conventional equity/income/cash categories. Conventional categories include stocks, bonds, and cash. Common forms of alternative investments include real estate, commodities, cryptocurrency, and collectibles. Private Equity or venture capital, hedge funds, real property, commodities, and tangible assets are all examples of alternative investments. Alternative assets have high initial minimums and upfront investment fees. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct:* An alternative investment is a financial asset that does not fit into the conventional equity/income/cash categories. Conventional categories include stocks, bonds, and cash. Common forms of alternative investments include real estate, commodities, cryptocurrency, and collectibles. Private Equity or venture capital, hedge funds, real property, commodities, and tangible assets are all examples of alternative investments. Alternative assets have high initial minimums and upfront investment fees.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following:

• Private equity

• Stocks and Bonds

• Crypto currency

• Hedge Funds

• Real Estate

How many of the assets given above *can *be included under the category of Alternate Investments?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: An alternative investment is a financial asset that does not fit into the conventional equity/income/cash categories.

• Conventional categories include stocks, bonds, and cash.

• Common forms of alternative investments include real estate, commodities, cryptocurrency, and collectibles.

• Private Equity or venture capital, hedge funds, real property, commodities, and tangible assets are all examples of alternative investments.

• Alternative assets have high initial minimums and upfront investment fees.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: An alternative investment is a financial asset that does not fit into the conventional equity/income/cash categories.

• Conventional categories include stocks, bonds, and cash.

• Common forms of alternative investments include real estate, commodities, cryptocurrency, and collectibles.

• Private Equity or venture capital, hedge funds, real property, commodities, and tangible assets are all examples of alternative investments.

• Alternative assets have high initial minimums and upfront investment fees.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Terms of Trade- Denote the ratio between a country’s export and import prices. Indexes are the value of a country’s total exports minus total imports. Are dependent on exchange and inflation rates and prices. Do not require the implicit price deflators for its calculation. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Terms of trade (TOT) represent the ratio between a country’s export prices and its import prices. Statement 2 is correct: TOT indexes are defined as the value of a country’s total exports minus total imports. Statement 3 is correct: A TOT is dependent to some extent on exchange and inflation rates and prices. A variety of other factors influence the TOT as well, and some are unique to specific sectors and industries. Statement 4 is not correct: A TOT can be calculated using so-called implicit price deflators. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Terms of trade (TOT) represent the ratio between a country’s export prices and its import prices. Statement 2 is correct: TOT indexes are defined as the value of a country’s total exports minus total imports. Statement 3 is correct: A TOT is dependent to some extent on exchange and inflation rates and prices. A variety of other factors influence the TOT as well, and some are unique to specific sectors and industries. Statement 4 is not correct:* A TOT can be calculated using so-called implicit price deflators.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements:

The Terms of Trade-

• Denote the ratio between a country’s export and import prices.

• Indexes are the value of a country’s total exports minus total imports.

• Are dependent on exchange and inflation rates and prices.

• Do not require the implicit price deflators for its calculation.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Terms of trade (TOT) represent the ratio between a country’s export prices and its import prices.

Statement 2 is correct: TOT indexes are defined as the value of a country’s total exports minus total imports.

Statement 3 is correct: A TOT is dependent to some extent on exchange and inflation rates and prices. A variety of other factors influence the TOT as well, and some are unique to specific sectors and industries.

Statement 4 is not correct: A TOT can be calculated using so-called implicit price deflators.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Terms of trade (TOT) represent the ratio between a country’s export prices and its import prices.

Statement 2 is correct: TOT indexes are defined as the value of a country’s total exports minus total imports.

Statement 4 is not correct: A TOT can be calculated using so-called implicit price deflators.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points We often hear statements such as “knowledge is power” and “an investment in knowledge always pays the best interest”, but, in reality, we cannot conclude that all contribution bestowed by knowledge is automatically beneficial for the betterment of the populace as a whole. Although, it is true that the lack of knowledge within a person can act as a deterrence throughout his existence, keeping him from reaching his potential greatness in life, its acquisition without the possession of upright human principles can arguably do more harm than good. With reference to the above passage, which of the following is/are the most rational and practical implication/implications? Human values are essential part of any purposeful education Two pillars of human existence are, values and knowledge Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C For survival and achieving success humans need knowledge. But knowledge alone will do more harm than good—therefore statement 2 is correct. Knowledge should be coupled with principles—hence statement 1 is correct. Investment in education will not give automatic common good—thus statement 1 is correct. Incorrect Answer: C For survival and achieving success humans need knowledge. But knowledge alone will do more harm than good—therefore statement 2 is correct. Knowledge should be coupled with principles—hence statement 1 is correct. Investment in education will not give automatic common good—thus statement 1 is correct.

#### 26. Question

We often hear statements such as “knowledge is power” and “an investment in knowledge always pays the best interest”, but, in reality, we cannot conclude that all contribution bestowed by knowledge is automatically beneficial for the betterment of the populace as a whole. Although, it is true that the lack of knowledge within a person can act as a deterrence throughout his existence, keeping him from reaching his potential greatness in life, its acquisition without the possession of upright human principles can arguably do more harm than good.

With reference to the above passage, which of the following is/are the most rational and practical implication/implications?

• Human values are essential part of any purposeful education

• Two pillars of human existence are, values and knowledge

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

For survival and achieving success humans need knowledge. But knowledge alone will do more harm than good—therefore statement 2 is correct. Knowledge should be coupled with principles—hence statement 1 is correct. Investment in education will not give automatic common good—thus statement 1 is correct.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Without values intellectual people can do rather monumentally ill-advised things for society Principles only have social utility Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Answer: A The passage obviously tells people without values are not good for populace so 1 is correct. Yet passage also tells if one wants to reach greatness then also principles are needed, so even for personal growth principles have utility so 2 is wrong. Incorrect Answer: A The passage obviously tells people without values are not good for populace so 1 is correct. Yet passage also tells if one wants to reach greatness then also principles are needed, so even for personal growth principles have utility so 2 is wrong.

#### 27. Question

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Without values intellectual people can do rather monumentally ill-advised things for society

• Principles only have social utility

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• c) Both 1 and 2

The passage obviously tells people without values are not good for populace so 1 is correct. Yet passage also tells if one wants to reach greatness then also principles are needed, so even for personal growth principles have utility so 2 is wrong.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Study the information given below and answer the question based on it. Q is the son of A and grandson of H. G has one daughter and one son. E is the sister of Q and niece of I, who is the daughter of G. M is the sister-in-law of I. H is not a female. Which of the following is couple? A. G, H B. M, E C. Q, I D. G, A Correct Answer A) G, H The couples in the family are – G & H, M & A Incorrect Answer A) G, H The couples in the family are – G & H, M & A

#### 28. Question

Study the information given below and answer the question based on it.

Q is the son of A and grandson of H. G has one daughter and one son. E is the sister of Q and niece of I, who is the daughter of G. M is the sister-in-law of I. H is not a female.

Which of the following is couple?

Answer A) G, H

The couples in the family are –

G & H, M & A

Answer A) G, H

The couples in the family are –

G & H, M & A

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Study the following information and answer the question: Seven persons Akansha, Diksha, Ilma, Himani, Lokesh, Manisha, Riya are sitting around a circular table facing the centre and likes different mobiles viz. Apple , Samsung , Lenovo , Mi , Acer , Motorola and Sony, but not necessarily in same order. Lokesh sits third to the left of Manisha. The one who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who likes Samsung. The one who likes Mi is an immediate neighbour of Manisha. Manisha neither likes Apple nor Samsung. Only one person sits between the one who likes Sony and Lokesh. Diksha sits fourth to the right of the one who likes Sony. Akansha likes Lenovo and sits at immediate left of Himani. Himani sits second to the left of the one who likes Mi. Diksha does not like Acer and Riya does not like Samsung. How many persons sit between Manisha and Ilma when counted in clockwise direction with respect to Ilma? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Correct Option A) 1 Incorrect Option A) 1

#### 29. Question

Study the following information and answer the question:

Seven persons Akansha, Diksha, Ilma, Himani, Lokesh, Manisha, Riya are sitting around a circular table facing the centre and likes different mobiles viz. Apple , Samsung , Lenovo , Mi , Acer , Motorola and Sony, but not necessarily in same order. Lokesh sits third to the left of Manisha. The one who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who likes Samsung. The one who likes Mi is an immediate neighbour of Manisha. Manisha neither likes Apple nor Samsung. Only one person sits between the one who likes Sony and Lokesh. Diksha sits fourth to the right of the one who likes Sony. Akansha likes Lenovo and sits at immediate left of Himani. Himani sits second to the left of the one who likes Mi. Diksha does not like Acer and Riya does not like Samsung.

How many persons sit between Manisha and Ilma when counted in clockwise direction with respect to Ilma?

Option A) 1

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Study the following information and answer the question: Eight people Aarushi, Bindu, Cheenu, Divya, Etti, Pratik, Gopal and Hari live in an eight storey building, but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the topmost floor is numbered 8. Aarushi lives on an even-numbered floor but not on the floor numbered second or fourth. Only three floors are there between Aarushi and Bindu. Only two people live between Cheenu and Etti. Pratik lives on a floor above Divya. There are equal numbers of floors between the floors on which Etti and Bindu live and between the floors on which Aarushi and Etti live. Hari lives immediately below Divya’s floor. Gopal lives immediately below Aarushi’s floor. Pratik lives on which of the following floors? A) Third B) Fifth C) Fourth D) first Correct Option B) Fifth FLOOR NUMBER PERSON 8 Aarushi 7 Gopal 6 Etti 5 Pratik 4 Bindu 3 Cheenu 2 Divya 1 Hari Incorrect Option B) Fifth FLOOR NUMBER PERSON 8 Aarushi 7 Gopal 6 Etti 5 Pratik 4 Bindu 3 Cheenu 2 Divya 1 Hari

#### 30. Question

Study the following information and answer the question:

Eight people Aarushi, Bindu, Cheenu, Divya, Etti, Pratik, Gopal and Hari live in an eight storey building, but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the topmost floor is numbered 8.

Aarushi lives on an even-numbered floor but not on the floor numbered second or fourth. Only three floors are there between Aarushi and Bindu. Only two people live between Cheenu and Etti. Pratik lives on a floor above Divya. There are equal numbers of floors between the floors on which Etti and Bindu live and between the floors on which Aarushi and Etti live. Hari lives immediately below Divya’s floor. Gopal lives immediately below Aarushi’s floor.

Pratik lives on which of the following floors?

Option B) Fifth

FLOOR | NUMBER PERSON

8 | Aarushi

7 | Gopal

6 | Etti

5 | Pratik

4 | Bindu

3 | Cheenu

2 | Divya

1 | Hari

Option B) Fifth

FLOOR | NUMBER PERSON

8 | Aarushi

7 | Gopal

6 | Etti

5 | Pratik

4 | Bindu

3 | Cheenu

2 | Divya

1 | Hari

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