DAY – 61 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ART & CULTURE , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2010 and Dec 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the tradition of puppetry in India: Indian puppetry has its origins dating back to around 500 BC, with evidence of puppets found at excavation sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro. String puppetry, also known as marionettes, involves carved wooden figures controlled by strings, with examples like Kundhei from Odisha and Kathputli from Rajasthan. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Indian puppetry indeed has its origins dating back to around 500 BC, with evidence of puppets found at excavation sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro. These archaeological findings suggest that puppetry was a well-established art form during ancient times in the Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 1 is correct. String puppetry, also known as marionettes, is a form of puppetry in which carved wooden figures are controlled by strings. Examples include Kundhei from Odisha and Kathputli from Rajasthan. These string puppets are intricately designed and manipulated by puppeteers to depict various characters and stories in traditional puppet shows. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Indian puppetry indeed has its origins dating back to around 500 BC, with evidence of puppets found at excavation sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro. These archaeological findings suggest that puppetry was a well-established art form during ancient times in the Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 1 is correct. String puppetry, also known as marionettes, is a form of puppetry in which carved wooden figures are controlled by strings. Examples include Kundhei from Odisha and Kathputli from Rajasthan. These string puppets are intricately designed and manipulated by puppeteers to depict various characters and stories in traditional puppet shows. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the tradition of puppetry in India:

• Indian puppetry has its origins dating back to around 500 BC, with evidence of puppets found at excavation sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro.

• String puppetry, also known as marionettes, involves carved wooden figures controlled by strings, with examples like Kundhei from Odisha and Kathputli from Rajasthan.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Indian puppetry indeed has its origins dating back to around 500 BC, with evidence of puppets found at excavation sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro. These archaeological findings suggest that puppetry was a well-established art form during ancient times in the Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• String puppetry, also known as marionettes, is a form of puppetry in which carved wooden figures are controlled by strings. Examples include Kundhei from Odisha and Kathputli from Rajasthan. These string puppets are intricately designed and manipulated by puppeteers to depict various characters and stories in traditional puppet shows. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points What distinguishes “Tholu Bommalata” from other forms of puppetry in India? a) It involves the use of small figurines manipulated by the puppeteer's hand. b) It utilizes carved wooden figures controlled by strings. c) It features flat leather figures positioned against a white screen to create shadows. d) It is characterized by puppets made of deer skin posed in dramatic and bold postures. Correct Answer: c Explanation: Tholu Bommalata is a traditional form of shadow puppetry that originated in Andhra Pradesh, Unlike other forms of puppetry, Tholu Bommalata involves the use of flat leather figures that are intricately cut and painted to depict various characters. These leather figures are then positioned against a white screen, and light is shone from behind to create shadows, which tell stories and enact performances. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Tholu Bommalata is a traditional form of shadow puppetry that originated in Andhra Pradesh, Unlike other forms of puppetry, Tholu Bommalata involves the use of flat leather figures that are intricately cut and painted to depict various characters. These leather figures are then positioned against a white screen, and light is shone from behind to create shadows, which tell stories and enact performances. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 2. Question

What distinguishes “Tholu Bommalata” from other forms of puppetry in India?

• a) It involves the use of small figurines manipulated by the puppeteer's hand.

• b) It utilizes carved wooden figures controlled by strings.

• c) It features flat leather figures positioned against a white screen to create shadows.

• d) It is characterized by puppets made of deer skin posed in dramatic and bold postures.

Explanation:

• Tholu Bommalata is a traditional form of shadow puppetry that originated in Andhra Pradesh, Unlike other forms of puppetry, Tholu Bommalata involves the use of flat leather figures that are intricately cut and painted to depict various characters. These leather figures are then positioned against a white screen, and light is shone from behind to create shadows, which tell stories and enact performances.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points What cultural significance does the Garba dance hold during Navratri? a) It commemorates the defeat of demons by Lord Shiva. b) It celebrates the birth of Lord Krishna. c) It signifies the onset of the monsoon season. d) It honours mother goddesses and fertility. Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Garba dance form is the 15th cultural item from India to make it to the UNESCO intangible cultural heritage list in 2023. The term Garba originates from the Sanskrit word for womb, symbolizing life and creation. During Navratri, the Garba dance holds cultural significance as it honors various mother goddesses and fertility. Navratri is a Hindu festival dedicated to the worship of Goddess Durga and her various forms. The Garba dance is performed as a form of devotion to these goddesses, symbolizing the celebration of feminine energy, fertility, and the power of creation. Participants pay homage to the divine feminine through rhythmic movements, music, and singing, creating a vibrant and joyful atmosphere. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Garba dance form is the 15th cultural item from India to make it to the UNESCO intangible cultural heritage list in 2023. The term Garba originates from the Sanskrit word for womb, symbolizing life and creation. During Navratri, the Garba dance holds cultural significance as it honors various mother goddesses and fertility. Navratri is a Hindu festival dedicated to the worship of Goddess Durga and her various forms. The Garba dance is performed as a form of devotion to these goddesses, symbolizing the celebration of feminine energy, fertility, and the power of creation. Participants pay homage to the divine feminine through rhythmic movements, music, and singing, creating a vibrant and joyful atmosphere. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 3. Question

What cultural significance does the Garba dance hold during Navratri?

• a) It commemorates the defeat of demons by Lord Shiva.

• b) It celebrates the birth of Lord Krishna.

• c) It signifies the onset of the monsoon season.

• d) It honours mother goddesses and fertility.

Explanation:

• The Garba dance form is the 15th cultural item from India to make it to the UNESCO intangible cultural heritage list in 2023.

• The term Garba originates from the Sanskrit word for womb, symbolizing life and creation.

• During Navratri, the Garba dance holds cultural significance as it honors various mother goddesses and fertility. Navratri is a Hindu festival dedicated to the worship of Goddess Durga and her various forms. The Garba dance is performed as a form of devotion to these goddesses, symbolizing the celebration of feminine energy, fertility, and the power of creation. Participants pay homage to the divine feminine through rhythmic movements, music, and singing, creating a vibrant and joyful atmosphere.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The Garba dance form is the 15th cultural item from India to make it to the UNESCO intangible cultural heritage list in 2023.

• The term Garba originates from the Sanskrit word for womb, symbolizing life and creation.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following: Mudiyettu Sankirthana Kumbh Mela Yakshaghana How many of the above given art forms is/are included in the List of UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritages? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: There are a total of 15 Indian elements included in the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. The tradition of Vedic chanting (2008) Ramlila, the traditional performance of the Ramayana (2008) Kudiyattam, Sanskrit theatre (2008) Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India (2009) Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala (2010) Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan (2010) Chhau dance (2010) Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India (2012) Sankirtana, ritual singing, drumming, and dancing of Manipur (2013) Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab, India (2014) Yoga (2016) Nawrouz, Novruz, Nowrouz, Nowrouz, Nawrouz, Nauryz, Nooruz, Nowruz, Navruz, Nevruz, Nowruz, Navruz (2016) Kumbh Mela (2017) Durga Puja of Kolkata (2021) Garba of Gujarat (2023) Yakshagana is not included in the list. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: There are a total of 15 Indian elements included in the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. The tradition of Vedic chanting (2008) Ramlila, the traditional performance of the Ramayana (2008) Kudiyattam, Sanskrit theatre (2008) Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India (2009) Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala (2010) Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan (2010) Chhau dance (2010) Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India (2012) Sankirtana, ritual singing, drumming, and dancing of Manipur (2013) Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab, India (2014) Yoga (2016) Nawrouz, Novruz, Nowrouz, Nowrouz, Nawrouz, Nauryz, Nooruz, Nowruz, Navruz, Nevruz, Nowruz, Navruz (2016) Kumbh Mela (2017) Durga Puja of Kolkata (2021) Garba of Gujarat (2023) Yakshagana is not included in the list. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following:

• Sankirthana

• Kumbh Mela

• Yakshaghana

How many of the above given art forms is/are included in the List of UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritages?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• There are a total of 15 Indian elements included in the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

• The tradition of Vedic chanting (2008)

• Ramlila, the traditional performance of the Ramayana (2008)

• Kudiyattam, Sanskrit theatre (2008)

• Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India (2009)

• Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala (2010)

• Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan (2010)

• Chhau dance (2010)

• Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India (2012)

• Sankirtana, ritual singing, drumming, and dancing of Manipur (2013)

• Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab, India (2014)

• Yoga (2016)

• Nawrouz, Novruz, Nowrouz, Nowrouz, Nawrouz, Nauryz, Nooruz, Nowruz, Navruz, Nevruz, Nowruz, Navruz (2016)

• Kumbh Mela (2017)

• Durga Puja of Kolkata (2021)

• Garba of Gujarat (2023)

• Yakshagana is not included in the list.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

• There are a total of 15 Indian elements included in the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

• The tradition of Vedic chanting (2008)

• Ramlila, the traditional performance of the Ramayana (2008)

• Kudiyattam, Sanskrit theatre (2008)

• Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India (2009)

• Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala (2010)

• Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan (2010)

• Chhau dance (2010)

• Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India (2012)

• Sankirtana, ritual singing, drumming, and dancing of Manipur (2013)

• Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab, India (2014)

• Yoga (2016)

• Nawrouz, Novruz, Nowrouz, Nowrouz, Nawrouz, Nauryz, Nooruz, Nowruz, Navruz, Nevruz, Nowruz, Navruz (2016)

• Kumbh Mela (2017)

• Durga Puja of Kolkata (2021)

• Garba of Gujarat (2023)

• Yakshagana is not included in the list.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Apart from its graceful movements, what contributes to making the Kalbeliya dance one of the most sensuous forms of folk dance in India? a) Elaborate costumes b) Rapid footwork c) Martial arts elements d) Tribal chants Correct Answer: a Explanation: Kalbeliya dances are an expression of the Kalbelia community’s traditional way of life. It was included in the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organizations (UNESCO) list of Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) in 2010. Elaborate costumes worn by Kalbeliya dancers, including flowing black skirts and garments richly embroidered with small mirrors and silver thread, contribute to making the dance one of the most sensuous forms of folk dance in India. The costumes enhance the visual appeal of the performance and add to the overall aesthetic experience. While rapid footwork can enhance the dynamism of a dance, it is not a characteristic typically associated with the Kalbeliya dance. Kalbeliya dance focuses more on graceful, swirling movements rather than rapid footwork. There are no martial arts elements incorporated into the Kalbeliya dance. It is primarily a dance form that celebrates fertility and womanhood through graceful movements inspired by the movements of a serpent. While music and chants play an essential role in the Kalbeliya dance, they are not specifically tribal chants. The music accompanying the dance is typically provided by men playing traditional instruments like the khanjari and poongi, rather than vocal chants. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Kalbeliya dances are an expression of the Kalbelia community’s traditional way of life. It was included in the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organizations (UNESCO) list of Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) in 2010. Elaborate costumes worn by Kalbeliya dancers, including flowing black skirts and garments richly embroidered with small mirrors and silver thread, contribute to making the dance one of the most sensuous forms of folk dance in India. The costumes enhance the visual appeal of the performance and add to the overall aesthetic experience. While rapid footwork can enhance the dynamism of a dance, it is not a characteristic typically associated with the Kalbeliya dance. Kalbeliya dance focuses more on graceful, swirling movements rather than rapid footwork. There are no martial arts elements incorporated into the Kalbeliya dance. It is primarily a dance form that celebrates fertility and womanhood through graceful movements inspired by the movements of a serpent. While music and chants play an essential role in the Kalbeliya dance, they are not specifically tribal chants. The music accompanying the dance is typically provided by men playing traditional instruments like the khanjari and poongi, rather than vocal chants. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 5. Question

Apart from its graceful movements, what contributes to making the Kalbeliya dance one of the most sensuous forms of folk dance in India?

• a) Elaborate costumes

• b) Rapid footwork

• c) Martial arts elements

• d) Tribal chants

Explanation:

• Kalbeliya dances are an expression of the Kalbelia community’s traditional way of life.

• It was included in the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organizations (UNESCO) list of Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) in 2010.

• Elaborate costumes worn by Kalbeliya dancers, including flowing black skirts and garments richly embroidered with small mirrors and silver thread, contribute to making the dance one of the most sensuous forms of folk dance in India. The costumes enhance the visual appeal of the performance and add to the overall aesthetic experience.

• While rapid footwork can enhance the dynamism of a dance, it is not a characteristic typically associated with the Kalbeliya dance. Kalbeliya dance focuses more on graceful, swirling movements rather than rapid footwork.

• There are no martial arts elements incorporated into the Kalbeliya dance. It is primarily a dance form that celebrates fertility and womanhood through graceful movements inspired by the movements of a serpent.

• While music and chants play an essential role in the Kalbeliya dance, they are not specifically tribal chants. The music accompanying the dance is typically provided by men playing traditional instruments like the khanjari and poongi, rather than vocal chants.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Kalbeliya dances are an expression of the Kalbelia community’s traditional way of life.

• It was included in the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organizations (UNESCO) list of Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) in 2010.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Pichwai Painting: It originated in the state of Gujarat. It mainly features the various stages of Lord Rama’s life. The artists use stone pigments, especially for gold and silver tones, in Pichwai Painting. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: Recently, artists in Chennai hosted an art exhibit showcasing Pichwai, some dating back 350 years. Pichwai Painting is a traditional style of painting that originated in the state of Rajasthan, India. The history of this art form can be traced back to the 17th century. It is believed to have originated in the town of Nathdwara in Rajasthan, which is famous for its temple of Lord Krishna, known as the Shrinathji Temple. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Pichwai Paintings mainly feature the various stages of Lord Krishna’s life. These paintings often depict scenes from Krishna’s childhood, his playful interactions with Radha and the gopis (cowherd girls), and his divine activities such as the Ras Leela (dance) and lifting of the Govardhan mountain. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The artists use stone pigments, especially for gold and silver tones. The brighter orange, red, chrome yellow and kesari colours come from vegetable dyes. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Recently, artists in Chennai hosted an art exhibit showcasing Pichwai, some dating back 350 years. Pichwai Painting is a traditional style of painting that originated in the state of Rajasthan, India. The history of this art form can be traced back to the 17th century. It is believed to have originated in the town of Nathdwara in Rajasthan, which is famous for its temple of Lord Krishna, known as the Shrinathji Temple. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Pichwai Paintings mainly feature the various stages of Lord Krishna’s life. These paintings often depict scenes from Krishna’s childhood, his playful interactions with Radha and the gopis (cowherd girls), and his divine activities such as the Ras Leela (dance) and lifting of the Govardhan mountain. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The artists use stone pigments, especially for gold and silver tones. The brighter orange, red, chrome yellow and kesari colours come from vegetable dyes. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Pichwai Painting:

• It originated in the state of Gujarat.

• It mainly features the various stages of Lord Rama’s life.

• The artists use stone pigments, especially for gold and silver tones, in Pichwai Painting.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Recently, artists in Chennai hosted an art exhibit showcasing Pichwai, some dating back 350 years.

• Pichwai Painting is a traditional style of painting that originated in the state of Rajasthan, India. The history of this art form can be traced back to the 17th century. It is believed to have originated in the town of Nathdwara in Rajasthan, which is famous for its temple of Lord Krishna, known as the Shrinathji Temple. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Pichwai Paintings mainly feature the various stages of Lord Krishna’s life. These paintings often depict scenes from Krishna’s childhood, his playful interactions with Radha and the gopis (cowherd girls), and his divine activities such as the Ras Leela (dance) and lifting of the Govardhan mountain. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The artists use stone pigments, especially for gold and silver tones. The brighter orange, red, chrome yellow and kesari colours come from vegetable dyes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• Recently, artists in Chennai hosted an art exhibit showcasing Pichwai, some dating back 350 years.

• The artists use stone pigments, especially for gold and silver tones. The brighter orange, red, chrome yellow and kesari colours come from vegetable dyes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately describe Seethakali dance of Kerala? The performance of Seethakali is closely associated with the harvest festival of Onam. Props and instruments used in Seethakali are crafted from natural materials like bamboo and palm leaves. Seethakali is performed by professional artists from all communities in Kerala. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Seethakali, a traditional folk art form, has strong ties to the harvest festival of Onam celebrated in Kerala. During the Onam festival, which marks the return of the mythical King Mahabali, Seethakali performers from communities like Vedar and Pulayar go from house to house, presenting their art as a part of the festive celebrations. This tradition has been practiced for generations and adds to the cultural richness of the Onam festivities. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Seethakali performances maintain a connection with nature by utilizing props and instruments crafted from eco-friendly materials like bamboo and palm leaves. These materials are readily available in the local environment and are skilfully fashioned into various tools and accessories required for the performance. This practice not only aligns with sustainable principles but also adds authenticity to the traditional art form. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Seethakali is traditionally performed by members of specific communities, particularly dalit artists from Vedar and Pulayar communities, who have preserved and passed down this art form through generations. While there may be variations and adaptations of Seethakali, the core practitioners often belong to these communities, and the art form holds significant cultural and social relevance within their traditions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Seethakali, a traditional folk art form, has strong ties to the harvest festival of Onam celebrated in Kerala. During the Onam festival, which marks the return of the mythical King Mahabali, Seethakali performers from communities like Vedar and Pulayar go from house to house, presenting their art as a part of the festive celebrations. This tradition has been practiced for generations and adds to the cultural richness of the Onam festivities. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Seethakali performances maintain a connection with nature by utilizing props and instruments crafted from eco-friendly materials like bamboo and palm leaves. These materials are readily available in the local environment and are skilfully fashioned into various tools and accessories required for the performance. This practice not only aligns with sustainable principles but also adds authenticity to the traditional art form. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Seethakali is traditionally performed by members of specific communities, particularly dalit artists from Vedar and Pulayar communities, who have preserved and passed down this art form through generations. While there may be variations and adaptations of Seethakali, the core practitioners often belong to these communities, and the art form holds significant cultural and social relevance within their traditions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following statements accurately describe Seethakali dance of Kerala?

• The performance of Seethakali is closely associated with the harvest festival of Onam.

• Props and instruments used in Seethakali are crafted from natural materials like bamboo and palm leaves.

• Seethakali is performed by professional artists from all communities in Kerala.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• Seethakali, a traditional folk art form, has strong ties to the harvest festival of Onam celebrated in Kerala. During the Onam festival, which marks the return of the mythical King Mahabali, Seethakali performers from communities like Vedar and Pulayar go from house to house, presenting their art as a part of the festive celebrations. This tradition has been practiced for generations and adds to the cultural richness of the Onam festivities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Seethakali performances maintain a connection with nature by utilizing props and instruments crafted from eco-friendly materials like bamboo and palm leaves. These materials are readily available in the local environment and are skilfully fashioned into various tools and accessories required for the performance. This practice not only aligns with sustainable principles but also adds authenticity to the traditional art form. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Seethakali is traditionally performed by members of specific communities, particularly dalit artists from Vedar and Pulayar communities, who have preserved and passed down this art form through generations. While there may be variations and adaptations of Seethakali, the core practitioners often belong to these communities, and the art form holds significant cultural and social relevance within their traditions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points What environmental concern is addressed by the Chandubi Festival celebrated in Assam? a) Soil erosion b) Water depletion c) Deforestation d) Air pollution Correct Answer: b Explanation: Chandubi Festival is organised every year for five days starting from the first day of the New Year along the Chandubi Lake, which is situated in the state of Assam. The major aim of the Chandubi Festival is to promote eco-tourism in this biodiversity hotspot of Assam. Preserving the waterbody, the water level of which has rapidly been lowering over the years, has been the motive for organising the festival every year. The main attractions of the Chandubi festival are the local folk culture, ethnic cuisine, local handloom and dresses, boating, etc. The festival has been providing an opportunity to generate livelihood to different tribes – Rabhas, Garos, Gorkhas and tea tribes – living in the area by selling different food items and homemade beverages, and traditionally woven attire. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Chandubi Festival is organised every year for five days starting from the first day of the New Year along the Chandubi Lake, which is situated in the state of Assam. The major aim of the Chandubi Festival is to promote eco-tourism in this biodiversity hotspot of Assam. Preserving the waterbody, the water level of which has rapidly been lowering over the years, has been the motive for organising the festival every year. The main attractions of the Chandubi festival are the local folk culture, ethnic cuisine, local handloom and dresses, boating, etc. The festival has been providing an opportunity to generate livelihood to different tribes – Rabhas, Garos, Gorkhas and tea tribes – living in the area by selling different food items and homemade beverages, and traditionally woven attire. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 8. Question

What environmental concern is addressed by the Chandubi Festival celebrated in Assam?

• a) Soil erosion

• b) Water depletion

• c) Deforestation

• d) Air pollution

Explanation:

• Chandubi Festival is organised every year for five days starting from the first day of the New Year along the Chandubi Lake, which is situated in the state of Assam.

• The major aim of the Chandubi Festival is to promote eco-tourism in this biodiversity hotspot of Assam.

• Preserving the waterbody, the water level of which has rapidly been lowering over the years, has been the motive for organising the festival every year.

• The main attractions of the Chandubi festival are the local folk culture, ethnic cuisine, local handloom and dresses, boating, etc.

• The festival has been providing an opportunity to generate livelihood to different tribes – Rabhas, Garos, Gorkhas and tea tribes – living in the area by selling different food items and homemade beverages, and traditionally woven attire.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• Chandubi Festival is organised every year for five days starting from the first day of the New Year along the Chandubi Lake, which is situated in the state of Assam.

• The major aim of the Chandubi Festival is to promote eco-tourism in this biodiversity hotspot of Assam.

• Preserving the waterbody, the water level of which has rapidly been lowering over the years, has been the motive for organising the festival every year.

• The main attractions of the Chandubi festival are the local folk culture, ethnic cuisine, local handloom and dresses, boating, etc.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following correctly describes ‘Moh-Juj’, recently seen in news? a) It is a traditional bull fight of North-Eastern India. b) It is a village sport conducted during Hindu New Year in North-western India. c) It is an indigenous musical genre of Central India d) It is a seasonal agricultural ritual of Andaman and Nicobar islands. Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Assam Government has recently ( Jan 2024) revived the traditional buffalo fight (Moh-Juj), which had been halted for nine years following the Supreme Court’s ban on Tamil Nadu’s Jallikattu and bullock cart races in Maharashtra. It was introduced to Assamese culture by 30th Ahom king Swargadeo Rudra Singha about 200 years ago. It is celebrated as a sport in Ahatguri town during Assam’s Magh Bihu, a key harvest festival in January–February. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Assam Government has recently ( Jan 2024) revived the traditional buffalo fight (Moh-Juj), which had been halted for nine years following the Supreme Court’s ban on Tamil Nadu’s Jallikattu and bullock cart races in Maharashtra. It was introduced to Assamese culture by 30th Ahom king Swargadeo Rudra Singha about 200 years ago. It is celebrated as a sport in Ahatguri town during Assam’s Magh Bihu, a key harvest festival in January–February. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following correctly describes ‘Moh-Juj’, recently seen in news?

• a) It is a traditional bull fight of North-Eastern India.

• b) It is a village sport conducted during Hindu New Year in North-western India.

• c) It is an indigenous musical genre of Central India

• d) It is a seasonal agricultural ritual of Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Explanation:

• The Assam Government has recently ( Jan 2024) revived the traditional buffalo fight (Moh-Juj), which had been halted for nine years following the Supreme Court’s ban on Tamil Nadu’s Jallikattu and bullock cart races in Maharashtra.

• It was introduced to Assamese culture by 30th Ahom king Swargadeo Rudra Singha about 200 years ago.

• It is celebrated as a sport in Ahatguri town during Assam’s Magh Bihu, a key harvest festival in January–February.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

• It was introduced to Assamese culture by 30th Ahom king Swargadeo Rudra Singha about 200 years ago.

• It is celebrated as a sport in Ahatguri town during Assam’s Magh Bihu, a key harvest festival in January–February.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points What is the primary aim of the Kashi Tamil Sangamam inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Namo Ghat, Varanasi? a) To encourage regional cooperation between North and South India b) To celebrate the cultural and historical ties between Tamil Nadu and Varanasi c) To highlight the multilingual heritage of India d) To facilitate artistic collaboration between North India and South India Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Prime Minister of India in Decmber, 2023, inaugurated the Kashi Tamil Sangamam at Namo Ghat, Varanasi, which aims to celebrate the historical and civilizational connections between North and South India. The event is a month-long celebration of art, music, handloom, handicrafts, cuisines, and other distinctive products from Tamil Nadu and Varanasi. The ancient connection between Kashi (Uttar Pradesh) and Tamil Nadu dates back to the 15th century when King Parakrama Pandya, ruler of the region around Madurai, travelled to Kashi to bring back the lingam for his temple. While returning, he stopped to rest under a tree. When he tried to continue his journey, the cow carrying the lingam refused to budge from its spot. Parakrama Pandya understood this to be the Lord’s wish and installed the lingam there, a place that today is known as Sivakasi. The Pandyas also built the Kasi Viswanathan Temple which is known as Tenkasi in southwestern Tamil Nadu. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Prime Minister of India in Decmber, 2023, inaugurated the Kashi Tamil Sangamam at Namo Ghat, Varanasi, which aims to celebrate the historical and civilizational connections between North and South India. The event is a month-long celebration of art, music, handloom, handicrafts, cuisines, and other distinctive products from Tamil Nadu and Varanasi. The ancient connection between Kashi (Uttar Pradesh) and Tamil Nadu dates back to the 15th century when King Parakrama Pandya, ruler of the region around Madurai, travelled to Kashi to bring back the lingam for his temple. While returning, he stopped to rest under a tree. When he tried to continue his journey, the cow carrying the lingam refused to budge from its spot. Parakrama Pandya understood this to be the Lord’s wish and installed the lingam there, a place that today is known as Sivakasi. The Pandyas also built the Kasi Viswanathan Temple which is known as Tenkasi in southwestern Tamil Nadu. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 10. Question

What is the primary aim of the Kashi Tamil Sangamam inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Namo Ghat, Varanasi?

• a) To encourage regional cooperation between North and South India

• b) To celebrate the cultural and historical ties between Tamil Nadu and Varanasi

• c) To highlight the multilingual heritage of India

• d) To facilitate artistic collaboration between North India and South India

Explanation:

• The Prime Minister of India in Decmber, 2023, inaugurated the Kashi Tamil Sangamam at Namo Ghat, Varanasi, which aims to celebrate the historical and civilizational connections between North and South India.

• The event is a month-long celebration of art, music, handloom, handicrafts, cuisines, and other distinctive products from Tamil Nadu and Varanasi.

• The ancient connection between Kashi (Uttar Pradesh) and Tamil Nadu dates back to the 15th century when King Parakrama Pandya, ruler of the region around Madurai, travelled to Kashi to bring back the lingam for his temple.

• While returning, he stopped to rest under a tree. When he tried to continue his journey, the cow carrying the lingam refused to budge from its spot.

• Parakrama Pandya understood this to be the Lord’s wish and installed the lingam there, a place that today is known as Sivakasi.

• The Pandyas also built the Kasi Viswanathan Temple which is known as Tenkasi in southwestern Tamil Nadu.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

• The event is a month-long celebration of art, music, handloom, handicrafts, cuisines, and other distinctive products from Tamil Nadu and Varanasi.

• While returning, he stopped to rest under a tree. When he tried to continue his journey, the cow carrying the lingam refused to budge from its spot.

• Parakrama Pandya understood this to be the Lord’s wish and installed the lingam there, a place that today is known as Sivakasi.

• The Pandyas also built the Kasi Viswanathan Temple which is known as Tenkasi in southwestern Tamil Nadu.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Eurasian Otter: It is distributed throughout the three continents including Asia and Africa. It lives in habitats including highland and lowland lakes and swamp forests. It is found in the Southern part of India and cannot survive in mountain regions. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Eurasian otter has one of the widest distributions of all Palaearctic mammals. It is distributed throughout three continents i.e., Europe, Asia and Africa. Statement 2 is correct: The Eurasian otter lives in a wide variety of aquatic habitats, including highland and lowland lakes, rivers, streams, marshes, swamp forests and coastal areas independent of their size, origin or latitude (Mason and Macdonald, 1986). In the Indian sub-continent, The Eurasian otter has sleek brown fur, which is often paler on the underside and a long lithe body with a thick tail and short legs. Statement 3 is not correct: In India, it occurs in northern, northeast and southern India. Formerly widely distributed in Japan, it is now believed to be extinct there. Adaptations for an aquatic lifestyle include webbed feet, the ability to close the small ears and the nose when under water, and very dense, short fur that traps a layer of air to insulate the animal. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Eurasian otter has one of the widest distributions of all Palaearctic mammals. It is distributed throughout three continents i.e., Europe, Asia and Africa. Statement 2 is correct: The Eurasian otter lives in a wide variety of aquatic habitats, including highland and lowland lakes, rivers, streams, marshes, swamp forests and coastal areas independent of their size, origin or latitude (Mason and Macdonald, 1986). In the Indian sub-continent, The Eurasian otter has sleek brown fur, which is often paler on the underside and a long lithe body with a thick tail and short legs. Statement 3 is not correct: In India, it occurs in northern, northeast and southern India. Formerly widely distributed in Japan, it is now believed to be extinct there. Adaptations for an aquatic lifestyle include webbed feet, the ability to close the small ears and the nose when under water, and very dense, short fur that traps a layer of air to insulate the animal.

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Eurasian Otter:

• It is distributed throughout the three continents including Asia and Africa.

• It lives in habitats including highland and lowland lakes and swamp forests.

• It is found in the Southern part of India and cannot survive in mountain regions.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Eurasian otter has one of the widest distributions of all Palaearctic mammals. It is distributed throughout three continents i.e., Europe, Asia and Africa.

Statement 2 is correct: The Eurasian otter lives in a wide variety of aquatic habitats, including highland and lowland lakes, rivers, streams, marshes, swamp forests and coastal areas independent of their size, origin or latitude (Mason and Macdonald, 1986). In the Indian sub-continent,

The Eurasian otter has sleek brown fur, which is often paler on the underside and a long lithe body with a thick tail and short legs.

Statement 3 is not correct: In India, it occurs in northern, northeast and southern India. Formerly widely distributed in Japan, it is now believed to be extinct there.

Adaptations for an aquatic lifestyle include webbed feet, the ability to close the small ears and the nose when under water, and very dense, short fur that traps a layer of air to insulate the animal.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Eurasian otter has one of the widest distributions of all Palaearctic mammals. It is distributed throughout three continents i.e., Europe, Asia and Africa.

The Eurasian otter has sleek brown fur, which is often paler on the underside and a long lithe body with a thick tail and short legs.

Statement 3 is not correct: In India, it occurs in northern, northeast and southern India. Formerly widely distributed in Japan, it is now believed to be extinct there.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Green Deposits: Banks earmark the money towards environment-friendly projects that they receive as green deposits. Banks essentially use these deposits to invest in fossil fuel projects to protect the environment. Banks in India do not have enlisted sectors classified as sustainable and eligible to receive green deposits. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Green deposits are not very different from the regular deposits that banks accept from their customers. Statement 1 is correct: The only major difference is that banks promise to earmark the money that they receive as green deposits towards environment-friendly projects. For example, a bank may promise that green deposits will be used towards financing renewable energy projects that fight climate change. Statement 2 is not correct: A bank may avoid using green deposits to invest in fossil fuel projects that are considered harmful to the climate. Statement 3 is not correct: The RBI has come up with a list of sectors that can be classified as sustainable and thus eligible to receive green deposits. These include renewable energy, waste management, clean transportation, energy efficiency, and afforestation. Banks will be barred from investing green deposits in business projects involving fossil fuels, nuclear power, tobacco, etc. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Green deposits are not very different from the regular deposits that banks accept from their customers. Statement 1 is correct: The only major difference is that banks promise to earmark the money that they receive as green deposits towards environment-friendly projects. For example, a bank may promise that green deposits will be used towards financing renewable energy projects that fight climate change. Statement 2 is not correct: A bank may avoid using green deposits to invest in fossil fuel projects that are considered harmful to the climate. Statement 3 is not correct: The RBI has come up with a list of sectors that can be classified as sustainable and thus eligible to receive green deposits. These include renewable energy, waste management, clean transportation, energy efficiency, and afforestation. Banks will be barred from investing green deposits in business projects involving fossil fuels, nuclear power, tobacco, etc.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Green Deposits:

• Banks earmark the money towards environment-friendly projects that they receive as green deposits.

• Banks essentially use these deposits to invest in fossil fuel projects to protect the environment.

• Banks in India do not have enlisted sectors classified as sustainable and eligible to receive green deposits.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Green deposits are not very different from the regular deposits that banks accept from their customers.

Statement 1 is correct: The only major difference is that banks promise to earmark the money that they receive as green deposits towards environment-friendly projects.

For example, a bank may promise that green deposits will be used towards financing renewable energy projects that fight climate change.

Statement 2 is not correct: A bank may avoid using green deposits to invest in fossil fuel projects that are considered harmful to the climate.

Statement 3 is not correct: The RBI has come up with a list of sectors that can be classified as sustainable and thus eligible to receive green deposits.

These include renewable energy, waste management, clean transportation, energy efficiency, and afforestation.

Banks will be barred from investing green deposits in business projects involving fossil fuels, nuclear power, tobacco, etc.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Green deposits are not very different from the regular deposits that banks accept from their customers.

Statement 1 is correct: The only major difference is that banks promise to earmark the money that they receive as green deposits towards environment-friendly projects.

For example, a bank may promise that green deposits will be used towards financing renewable energy projects that fight climate change.

Statement 2 is not correct: A bank may avoid using green deposits to invest in fossil fuel projects that are considered harmful to the climate.

Statement 3 is not correct: The RBI has come up with a list of sectors that can be classified as sustainable and thus eligible to receive green deposits.

These include renewable energy, waste management, clean transportation, energy efficiency, and afforestation.

Banks will be barred from investing green deposits in business projects involving fossil fuels, nuclear power, tobacco, etc.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Stratospheric Clouds: These high-altitude clouds form only at low temperatures and remove nitrogen compounds that moderate the destructive impact of chlorine. These clouds provide a surface that converts benign forms of chlorine into reactive and ozone-destroying forms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The polar stratospheric clouds are high altitude clouds form only at very low temperatures help destroy ozone. They remove nitrogen compounds that moderate the destructive impact of chlorine. Polar stratospheric clouds, long known to play an important role in Antarctic ozone destruction, are occurring with increasing frequency in the Arctic. Statement 2 is correct: They provide a surface which converts benign forms of chlorine into reactive, ozone-destroying forms, In recent years, the atmosphere above the Arctic has been colder than usual, and polar stratospheric clouds have lasted into the spring. Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The polar stratospheric clouds are high altitude clouds form only at very low temperatures help destroy ozone. They remove nitrogen compounds that moderate the destructive impact of chlorine. Polar stratospheric clouds, long known to play an important role in Antarctic ozone destruction, are occurring with increasing frequency in the Arctic. Statement 2 is correct: They provide a surface which converts benign forms of chlorine into reactive, ozone-destroying forms, In recent years, the atmosphere above the Arctic has been colder than usual, and polar stratospheric clouds have lasted into the spring.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Stratospheric Clouds:

• These high-altitude clouds form only at low temperatures and remove nitrogen compounds that moderate the destructive impact of chlorine.

• These clouds provide a surface that converts benign forms of chlorine into reactive and ozone-destroying forms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The polar stratospheric clouds are high altitude clouds form only at very low temperatures help destroy ozone. They remove nitrogen compounds that moderate the destructive impact of chlorine.

Polar stratospheric clouds, long known to play an important role in Antarctic ozone destruction, are occurring with increasing frequency in the Arctic.

Statement 2 is correct: They provide a surface which converts benign forms of chlorine into reactive, ozone-destroying forms,

In recent years, the atmosphere above the Arctic has been colder than usual, and polar stratospheric clouds have lasted into the spring.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Polar stratospheric clouds, long known to play an important role in Antarctic ozone destruction, are occurring with increasing frequency in the Arctic.

Statement 2 is correct: They provide a surface which converts benign forms of chlorine into reactive, ozone-destroying forms,

In recent years, the atmosphere above the Arctic has been colder than usual, and polar stratospheric clouds have lasted into the spring.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Huntington’s disease: It is an inherited disorder passed from parent to child through a mutation in a particular gene. It attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary movement as well as other areas. It causes to develop uncontrollable dance-like movements or chorea and abnormal body postures. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Huntington’s disease (HD) is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die. Statement 2 is correct: The disease attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary (intentional) movement, as well as other areas. Statement 3 is correct: People living with HD develop uncontrollable dance-like movements (chorea) and abnormal body postures, as well as problems with behaviour, emotion, thinking, and personality. For example, uncontrolled movements in the person’s fingers, feet, face, or torso. These movements are signs of chorea. No treatment can stop or reverse HD, but some of the symptoms can be treated. The drugs tetrabenazine and deuterabenazine can treat chorea associated with HD Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Huntington’s disease (HD) is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die. Statement 2 is correct: The disease attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary (intentional) movement, as well as other areas. Statement 3 is correct:* People living with HD develop uncontrollable dance-like movements (chorea) and abnormal body postures, as well as problems with behaviour, emotion, thinking, and personality. For example, uncontrolled movements in the person’s fingers, feet, face, or torso. These movements are signs of chorea. No treatment can stop or reverse HD, but some of the symptoms can be treated. The drugs tetrabenazine and deuterabenazine can treat chorea associated with HD

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Huntington’s disease:

• It is an inherited disorder passed from parent to child through a mutation in a particular gene.

• It attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary movement as well as other areas.

• It causes to develop uncontrollable dance-like movements or chorea and abnormal body postures.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Huntington’s disease (HD) is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die.

Statement 2 is correct: The disease attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary (intentional) movement, as well as other areas.

Statement 3 is correct: People living with HD develop uncontrollable dance-like movements (chorea) and abnormal body postures, as well as problems with behaviour, emotion, thinking, and personality.

For example, uncontrolled movements in the person’s fingers, feet, face, or torso. These movements are signs of chorea.

No treatment can stop or reverse HD, but some of the symptoms can be treated. The drugs tetrabenazine and deuterabenazine can treat chorea associated with HD

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Huntington’s disease (HD) is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die.

Statement 2 is correct: The disease attacks areas of the brain that help to control voluntary (intentional) movement, as well as other areas.

For example, uncontrolled movements in the person’s fingers, feet, face, or torso. These movements are signs of chorea.

No treatment can stop or reverse HD, but some of the symptoms can be treated. The drugs tetrabenazine and deuterabenazine can treat chorea associated with HD

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following: It is a notified National Park contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary and the Toorsa Strict Reserve. It is an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape. It is- (a) The Neora National Park (b) The Bhitarkanika National Park (c) The Similipal National Park (d) The Mouling National Park Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Neora Valley National Park (NVNP) is a compact patch of virgin forest, rich in biodiversity located in the Eastern Himalayas, a global ‘biodiversity hotspot’. It was notified as a National Park based on the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 in the year 1992. It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan. It is an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape. The southern boundaries of the Park are adjoining to the forests of Jalpaiguri district which have connectivity with the Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gorumara National Park. NVNP is one of the three PAs in Darjeeling district of West Bengal and the most undisturbed patch of forest of the State. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Neora Valley National Park (NVNP) is a compact patch of virgin forest, rich in biodiversity located in the Eastern Himalayas, a global ‘biodiversity hotspot’. It was notified as a National Park based on the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 in the year 1992. It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan. It is an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape. The southern boundaries of the Park are adjoining to the forests of Jalpaiguri district which have connectivity with the Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gorumara National Park. NVNP is one of the three PAs in Darjeeling district of West Bengal and the most undisturbed patch of forest of the State.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following:

It is a notified National Park contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary and the Toorsa Strict Reserve. It is an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape. It is-

• (a) The Neora National Park

• (b) The Bhitarkanika National Park

• (c) The Similipal National Park

• (d) The Mouling National Park

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Neora Valley National Park (NVNP) is a compact patch of virgin forest, rich in biodiversity located in the Eastern Himalayas, a global ‘biodiversity hotspot’.

• It was notified as a National Park based on the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 in the year 1992.

• It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan.

• It is an integral part of the Kanchenjunga Landscape. The southern boundaries of the Park are adjoining to the forests of Jalpaiguri district which have connectivity with the Chapramari Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gorumara National Park.

• NVNP is one of the three PAs in Darjeeling district of West Bengal and the most undisturbed patch of forest of the State.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Neora Valley National Park (NVNP) is a compact patch of virgin forest, rich in biodiversity located in the Eastern Himalayas, a global ‘biodiversity hotspot’.

• It was notified as a National Park based on the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 in the year 1992.

• It is contiguous with Sikkim and Bhutan at its northern and north-eastern boundaries respectively and links the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim and the Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan.

• NVNP is one of the three PAs in Darjeeling district of West Bengal and the most undisturbed patch of forest of the State.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Agalega Islands, recently in news, is under administrative control of (a) Iran (b) Mauritius (c) Turkey (d) Ukraine Correct Solution: B Agalega Islands are to a group of two Islands located approximately 1050 km north of Mauritius the islands are under administrative control of Mauritius. The islands with the total area of 26 square kilometre have a native population of about 300 people The development of the islands is in the socio economic and national security interest of Mauritius and also aligns with India’s Maritime interests the sustainability and wellbeing of inhabitants of the region presents a challenge as the most basic needs required to be brought from Mauritius. Recently Prime Minister of India and Mauritius Prime Minister virtually inaugurated an air strip and a jetty to ensure Maritime security and connectivity to these islands. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B Agalega Islands are to a group of two Islands located approximately 1050 km north of Mauritius the islands are under administrative control of Mauritius. The islands with the total area of 26 square kilometre have a native population of about 300 people The development of the islands is in the socio economic and national security interest of Mauritius and also aligns with India’s Maritime interests the sustainability and wellbeing of inhabitants of the region presents a challenge as the most basic needs required to be brought from Mauritius. Recently Prime Minister of India and Mauritius Prime Minister virtually inaugurated an air strip and a jetty to ensure Maritime security and connectivity to these islands. Hence option B is correct

#### 16. Question

Agalega Islands, recently in news, is under administrative control of

• (b) Mauritius

• (c) Turkey

• (d) Ukraine

Solution: B

•Agalega Islands are to a group of two Islands located approximately 1050 km north of Mauritius

•the islands are under administrative control of Mauritius.

•The islands with the total area of 26 square kilometre have a native population of about 300 people

•The development of the islands is in the socio economic and national security interest of Mauritius and also aligns with India’s Maritime interests

•the sustainability and wellbeing of inhabitants of the region presents a challenge as the most basic needs required to be brought from Mauritius.

•Recently Prime Minister of India and Mauritius Prime Minister virtually inaugurated an air strip and a jetty to ensure Maritime security and connectivity to these islands.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

•Agalega Islands are to a group of two Islands located approximately 1050 km north of Mauritius

•the islands are under administrative control of Mauritius.

•The islands with the total area of 26 square kilometre have a native population of about 300 people

•The development of the islands is in the socio economic and national security interest of Mauritius and also aligns with India’s Maritime interests

•the sustainability and wellbeing of inhabitants of the region presents a challenge as the most basic needs required to be brought from Mauritius.

•Recently Prime Minister of India and Mauritius Prime Minister virtually inaugurated an air strip and a jetty to ensure Maritime security and connectivity to these islands.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogen fuel cell: If utilises reaction between hydrogen and oxygen in the air to generate electricity. Only pure water is released from hydrogen fuel cells. These cells work continuously without recharging in presence of oxygen. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C A hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity by utilising chemical energy contained in hydrogen. The energy within the hydrogen is converted into electricity and heat which is then used to power propulsion system of the vessel in which it is being used In the fuel cell the hydrogen reacts with oxygen in the air to produce electricity the cells release only pure water and do not disturb any pollutants harmful for the environment or humans. Unlike batteries hydrogen fuel cells do not require recharging Provided interrupted supply of fuel and oxygen, the cells could work continuously. Hence all the statements are correct Incorrect Solution: C A hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity by utilising chemical energy contained in hydrogen. The energy within the hydrogen is converted into electricity and heat which is then used to power propulsion system of the vessel in which it is being used In the fuel cell the hydrogen reacts with oxygen in the air to produce electricity the cells release only pure water and do not disturb any pollutants harmful for the environment or humans. Unlike batteries hydrogen fuel cells do not require recharging Provided interrupted supply of fuel and oxygen, the cells could work continuously. Hence all the statements are correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogen fuel cell:

• If utilises reaction between hydrogen and oxygen in the air to generate electricity.

• Only pure water is released from hydrogen fuel cells.

• These cells work continuously without recharging in presence of oxygen.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

•A hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity by utilising chemical energy contained in hydrogen.

•The energy within the hydrogen is converted into electricity and heat which is then used to power propulsion system of the vessel in which it is being used

•In the fuel cell the hydrogen reacts with oxygen in the air to produce electricity

•the cells release only pure water and do not disturb any pollutants harmful for the environment or humans.

•Unlike batteries hydrogen fuel cells do not require recharging

•Provided interrupted supply of fuel and oxygen, the cells could work continuously.

Hence all the statements are correct

Solution: C

•A hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity by utilising chemical energy contained in hydrogen.

•The energy within the hydrogen is converted into electricity and heat which is then used to power propulsion system of the vessel in which it is being used

•In the fuel cell the hydrogen reacts with oxygen in the air to produce electricity

•the cells release only pure water and do not disturb any pollutants harmful for the environment or humans.

•Unlike batteries hydrogen fuel cells do not require recharging

•Provided interrupted supply of fuel and oxygen, the cells could work continuously.

Hence all the statements are correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements An MLA cannot be questioned in any court in respect of any vote given by him in the state legislature. Parliamentary members can be punished for charge of contempt only by the Supreme Court. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A According to article 194 (2) of the Constitution of India, no member of the legislature of a state shall be label to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the legislature or any Committee thereof. It also provides that no person shall be so liable in respect of publication under the authority of a house of such a legislature of any report, paper, votes or proceedings. Under article 105 (2) of the Constitution, the same powers have been provided to the members of the Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct The Parliament has the power to punish it’s members for Contempt. The punishment could be suspension from the house and even sentence into jail term -but the supreme court had to decide whether this meant courts had no role to play. The Parliament can punish members as well as outsiders for its contempt by reprimand, admonition or imprisonment (also suspension or expansion in case of members). The supreme court held that both the court and the Parliament can exercise jurisdiction on the actions of law makers in parallel ; this is because the purpose of punishment by the house is different from purpose of a criminal trial. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A According to article 194 (2) of the Constitution of India, no member of the legislature of a state shall be label to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the legislature or any Committee thereof. It also provides that no person shall be so liable in respect of publication under the authority of a house of such a legislature of any report, paper, votes or proceedings. Under article 105 (2) of the Constitution, the same powers have been provided to the members of the Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct The Parliament has the power to punish it’s members for Contempt. The punishment could be suspension from the house and even sentence into jail term -but the supreme court had to decide whether this meant courts had no role to play. The Parliament can punish members as well as outsiders for its contempt by reprimand, admonition or imprisonment (also suspension or expansion in case of members). The supreme court held that both the court and the Parliament can exercise jurisdiction on the actions of law makers in parallel ; this is because the purpose of punishment by the house is different from purpose of a criminal trial. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements

• An MLA cannot be questioned in any court in respect of any vote given by him in the state legislature.

• Parliamentary members can be punished for charge of contempt only by the Supreme Court.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

•According to article 194 (2) of the Constitution of India, no member of the legislature of a state shall be label to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the legislature or any Committee thereof.

•It also provides that no person shall be so liable in respect of publication under the authority of a house of such a legislature of any report, paper, votes or proceedings.

•Under article 105 (2) of the Constitution, the same powers have been provided to the members of the Parliament.

Hence statement 1 is correct

•The Parliament has the power to punish it’s members for Contempt.

•The punishment could be suspension from the house and even sentence into jail term -but the supreme court had to decide whether this meant courts had no role to play.

•The Parliament can punish members as well as outsiders for its contempt by reprimand, admonition or imprisonment (also suspension or expansion in case of members).

•The supreme court held that both the court and the Parliament can exercise jurisdiction on the actions of law makers in parallel ; this is because the purpose of punishment by the house is different from purpose of a criminal trial.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

•According to article 194 (2) of the Constitution of India, no member of the legislature of a state shall be label to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the legislature or any Committee thereof.

•It also provides that no person shall be so liable in respect of publication under the authority of a house of such a legislature of any report, paper, votes or proceedings.

•Under article 105 (2) of the Constitution, the same powers have been provided to the members of the Parliament.

Hence statement 1 is correct

•The Parliament has the power to punish it’s members for Contempt.

•The punishment could be suspension from the house and even sentence into jail term -but the supreme court had to decide whether this meant courts had no role to play.

•The Parliament can punish members as well as outsiders for its contempt by reprimand, admonition or imprisonment (also suspension or expansion in case of members).

•The supreme court held that both the court and the Parliament can exercise jurisdiction on the actions of law makers in parallel ; this is because the purpose of punishment by the house is different from purpose of a criminal trial.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Kulasekarapattinam, the new launch port founded by the government recently is located in the state of (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh Correct Solution: B Kulasekarapattinam is in Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu. Recently the government has laid the Foundation stone of the second rocket launch port of the Indian Space Research Organisation (the first one is the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Once Operational, the launch port will be used for commercial on demand and small satellite launches. The centre has recently decided opening up the space sector to private players which will result in a sharp rise in the number of commercial launches; to ensure that this does not overburden the Sriharikota launch port the space agency has decided to build another facility. While Sriharikota launch port will be used only for launching bigger and heavy lift of missions, the new launch port will be used for launching smaller payloads using small satellite launch vehicles Private players may also develop space qualified subsystems , built satellite and even launch vehicles at the new launch port It will also facilitate a dedicated launch infrastructure for all the on demand commercial launches. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B Kulasekarapattinam is in Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu. Recently the government has laid the Foundation stone of the second rocket launch port of the Indian Space Research Organisation (the first one is the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Once Operational, the launch port will be used for commercial on demand and small satellite launches. The centre has recently decided opening up the space sector to private players which will result in a sharp rise in the number of commercial launches; to ensure that this does not overburden the Sriharikota launch port the space agency has decided to build another facility. While Sriharikota launch port will be used only for launching bigger and heavy lift of missions, the new launch port will be used for launching smaller payloads using small satellite launch vehicles Private players may also develop space qualified subsystems , built satellite and even launch vehicles at the new launch port It will also facilitate a dedicated launch infrastructure for all the on demand commercial launches. Hence option B is correct

#### 19. Question

Kulasekarapattinam, the new launch port founded by the government recently is located in the state of

• (a) Kerala

• (b) Tamil Nadu

• (c) Karnataka

• (d) Andhra Pradesh

Solution: B

•Kulasekarapattinam is in Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu.

•Recently the government has laid the Foundation stone of the second rocket launch port of the Indian Space Research Organisation (the first one is the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.

•Once Operational, the launch port will be used for commercial on demand and small satellite launches.

•The centre has recently decided opening up the space sector to private players which will result in a sharp rise in the number of commercial launches; to ensure that this does not overburden the Sriharikota launch port the space agency has decided to build another facility.

•While Sriharikota launch port will be used only for launching bigger and heavy lift of missions, the new launch port will be used for launching smaller payloads using small satellite launch vehicles

•Private players may also develop space qualified subsystems , built satellite and even launch vehicles at the new launch port

•It will also facilitate a dedicated launch infrastructure for all the on demand commercial launches.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

•Kulasekarapattinam is in Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu.

•Recently the government has laid the Foundation stone of the second rocket launch port of the Indian Space Research Organisation (the first one is the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.

•Once Operational, the launch port will be used for commercial on demand and small satellite launches.

•The centre has recently decided opening up the space sector to private players which will result in a sharp rise in the number of commercial launches; to ensure that this does not overburden the Sriharikota launch port the space agency has decided to build another facility.

•While Sriharikota launch port will be used only for launching bigger and heavy lift of missions, the new launch port will be used for launching smaller payloads using small satellite launch vehicles

•Private players may also develop space qualified subsystems , built satellite and even launch vehicles at the new launch port

•It will also facilitate a dedicated launch infrastructure for all the on demand commercial launches.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Autonomous District Council (ADC) These are constituted under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution with members nominated by the state legislature. ADCs are empowered to collect land revenue and levy specific taxes. Courts constituted by ADC can try only civil cases involving scheduled tribes in the concerned state. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The constitution under the Sixth Schedule contains special provisions for administration of tribal areas in the country in specific states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Inclusion of a region into this schedule provides governor of that consent state to organise and reorganise the tribal areas as autonomous districts. Also, each autonomous district has a Autonomous District Council consisting of 30 members of whom 4 are nominated by the Governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise the elected members hold office for a term of 5 years and nominated members hold office during pleasure of the Governor. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Within their territorial jurisdictions, the district councils can constitute village councils or trial courts. they can establish, construct, manage primary schools, markets, Fisheries, Road etc. in the district These councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and impose certain specified taxes. Hence statement 2 is correct ADCs are empowered to constitute village Council or courts to decide disputes between parties from Scheduled Tribes and appoint officers to oversee administration of the laws they enact. However in cases where the offences at punishable with death or more than 5 years of imprisonment, the governor of the state can confer upon the ADCs, the power to try them under the country’s criminal and civil laws. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The constitution under the Sixth Schedule contains special provisions for administration of tribal areas in the country in specific states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Inclusion of a region into this schedule provides governor of that consent state to organise and reorganise the tribal areas as autonomous districts. Also, each autonomous district has a Autonomous District Council consisting of 30 members of whom 4 are nominated by the Governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise the elected members hold office for a term of 5 years and nominated members hold office during pleasure of the Governor. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Within their territorial jurisdictions, the district councils can constitute village councils or trial courts. they can establish, construct, manage primary schools, markets, Fisheries, Road etc. in the district These councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and impose certain specified taxes. Hence statement 2 is correct ADCs are empowered to constitute village Council or courts to decide disputes between parties from Scheduled Tribes and appoint officers to oversee administration of the laws they enact. However in cases where the offences at punishable with death or more than 5 years of imprisonment, the governor of the state can confer upon the ADCs, the power to try them under the country’s criminal and civil laws. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Autonomous District Council (ADC)

• These are constituted under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution with members nominated by the state legislature.

• ADCs are empowered to collect land revenue and levy specific taxes.

• Courts constituted by ADC can try only civil cases involving scheduled tribes in the concerned state.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

•The constitution under the Sixth Schedule contains special provisions for administration of tribal areas in the country in specific states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

•Inclusion of a region into this schedule provides governor of that consent state to organise and reorganise the tribal areas as autonomous districts.

•Also, each autonomous district has a Autonomous District Council consisting of 30 members of whom 4 are nominated by the Governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise

•the elected members hold office for a term of 5 years and nominated members hold office during pleasure of the Governor.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

•Within their territorial jurisdictions, the district councils can constitute village councils or trial courts.

•they can establish, construct, manage primary schools, markets, Fisheries, Road etc. in the district

•These councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and impose certain specified taxes.

Hence statement 2 is correct

•ADCs are empowered to constitute village Council or courts to decide disputes between parties from Scheduled Tribes and appoint officers to oversee administration of the laws they enact.

•However in cases where the offences at punishable with death or more than 5 years of imprisonment, the governor of the state can confer upon the ADCs, the power to try them under the country’s criminal and civil laws.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

•The constitution under the Sixth Schedule contains special provisions for administration of tribal areas in the country in specific states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

•Inclusion of a region into this schedule provides governor of that consent state to organise and reorganise the tribal areas as autonomous districts.

•Also, each autonomous district has a Autonomous District Council consisting of 30 members of whom 4 are nominated by the Governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise

•the elected members hold office for a term of 5 years and nominated members hold office during pleasure of the Governor.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

•Within their territorial jurisdictions, the district councils can constitute village councils or trial courts.

•they can establish, construct, manage primary schools, markets, Fisheries, Road etc. in the district

•These councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and impose certain specified taxes.

Hence statement 2 is correct

•ADCs are empowered to constitute village Council or courts to decide disputes between parties from Scheduled Tribes and appoint officers to oversee administration of the laws they enact.

•However in cases where the offences at punishable with death or more than 5 years of imprisonment, the governor of the state can confer upon the ADCs, the power to try them under the country’s criminal and civil laws.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian dimension. This is revealed when one asks questions such as ‘what is the purpose of education?’. The answers, too often, are ‘to acquire qualifications for employment/ upward mobility’, ‘wider/higher (in terms of income) opportunities’, and ‘to meet the needs for trained human power in diverse fields for national development’. But in its deepest sense education is not an instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social attributes. It must be respected in itself. What do you understand by the ‘instrumentalist’ view of education? (a) Education is functional and utilitarian in its purposes. (b) Education is meant to fulfill human needs. (c) The purpose of education is to train the human intellect. (d) Education is meant to achieve moral development. Correct Correct Answer: A Explanation: The passage clearly suggests that education is not an instrumentalist in its deepest sense. But the opening sentence calls it to be functional, instrumental and utilitarian. Thus the instrumentalist view of education is the functional and utilitarian dimension in its purposes. Incorrect Correct Answer: A Explanation: The passage clearly suggests that education is not an instrumentalist in its deepest sense. But the opening sentence calls it to be functional, instrumental and utilitarian. Thus the instrumentalist view of education is the functional and utilitarian dimension in its purposes.

#### 21. Question

Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian dimension. This is revealed when one asks questions such as ‘what is the purpose of education?’. The answers, too often, are ‘to acquire qualifications for employment/ upward mobility’, ‘wider/higher (in terms of income) opportunities’, and ‘to meet the needs for trained human power in diverse fields for national development’. But in its deepest sense education is not an instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social attributes. It must be respected in itself.

What do you understand by the ‘instrumentalist’ view of education?

• (a) Education is functional and utilitarian in its purposes.

• (b) Education is meant to fulfill human needs.

• (c) The purpose of education is to train the human intellect.

• (d) Education is meant to achieve moral development.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The passage clearly suggests that education is not an instrumentalist in its deepest sense. But the opening sentence calls it to be functional, instrumental and utilitarian. Thus the instrumentalist view of education is the functional and utilitarian dimension in its purposes.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need to rethink the role of the State. The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. India is too large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption. The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver. Why is the State unable to deliver “all that is needed”? It does not have sufficient bureaucracy. It does not promote inclusive growth. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Correct Answer: B Explanation: State does not promote inclusive growth as stated in 2nd paragraph, ‘‘the aim … realistically deliver.’’ Incorrect Correct Answer: B Explanation: State does not promote inclusive growth as stated in 2nd paragraph, ‘‘the aim … realistically deliver.’’

#### 22. Question

For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need to rethink the role of the State. The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. India is too large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption.

The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver.

Why is the State unable to deliver “all that is needed”?

• It does not have sufficient bureaucracy.

• It does not promote inclusive growth.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

State does not promote inclusive growth as stated in 2nd paragraph, ‘‘the aim … realistically deliver.’’

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

State does not promote inclusive growth as stated in 2nd paragraph, ‘‘the aim … realistically deliver.’’

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Study the following information and answer the question: Eight students are sitting around a square table. All of them have different number of novels. Persons who sits at corner have even number of novels and faces inside while persons who sits middle of the side have odd number of novels and faces outside. The person who has highest number of novels is 44.Unnati sits third to the right of Taruna. Rishi sits third to the right of Srikant who has second heights number of novels. Rishi is not an immediate neighbor of Unnati. Vaibhav sits second to the right of the one who sits third to the left of Weom. Queen sits second right of the one who has square of an odd number of novels. Weom has 11 novels less than Unnati. Priya has even number of novels but 6 more than Rishi. Queen has 5 novels. Varsha has 5 novels more than Srikant. Priya has just half number of novels than Varsha who sits second to the right of Priya. Unnati has number of novels which is square of an even number. Taruna has only one novel more than Rishi and he is not an immediate neighbor of Vaibhav. Who among the following has 39 novels? a) Srikant b) Rishi c) Unnati d) Priya Correct Option A) Srikant Incorrect Option A) Srikant

#### 23. Question

• Study the following information and answer the question:

Eight students are sitting around a square table. All of them have different number of novels. Persons who sits at corner have even number of novels and faces inside while persons who sits middle of the side have odd number of novels and faces outside. The person who has highest number of novels is 44.Unnati sits third to the right of Taruna. Rishi sits third to the right of Srikant who has second heights number of novels. Rishi is not an immediate neighbor of Unnati. Vaibhav sits second to the right of the one who sits third to the left of Weom. Queen sits second right of the one who has square of an odd number of novels. Weom has 11 novels less than Unnati. Priya has even number of novels but 6 more than Rishi. Queen has 5 novels. Varsha has 5 novels more than Srikant. Priya has just half number of novels than Varsha who sits second to the right of Priya. Unnati has number of novels which is square of an even number. Taruna has only one novel more than Rishi and he is not an immediate neighbor of Vaibhav.

Who among the following has 39 novels?

• a) Srikant

Option A) Srikant

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Read the given information carefully and answer the question given below: Nine friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are organizing a party in three different months among January, March and April but not necessarily in the same order. The party held on three different dates like 15th, 16th and 17th of each month. No two friends organize the party on the same date of the same month. Only two friends organizing the party before W. Three friends organize the party between Q and X. U organizes the party on 16th of the month which has less than 31 days. Q’s party is after W and not on an odd date. R and X organize the party in the same month. Only two friends organizing the party between R and S. T does not organize the party on an odd date but organizes the party after P. How many person are organizing the party between Q and U? (a) One (b) Two c) three (d) Four Correct Answer b) two Incorrect Answer b) two

#### 24. Question

• Read the given information carefully and answer the question given below:

Nine friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are organizing a party in three different months among January, March and April but not necessarily in the same order. The party held on three different dates like 15th, 16th and 17th of each month. No two friends organize the party on the same date of the same month.

Only two friends organizing the party before W.

Three friends organize the party between Q and X.

U organizes the party on 16th of the month which has less than 31 days. Q’s party is after W and not on an odd date.

R and X organize the party in the same month.

Only two friends organizing the party between R and S.

T does not organize the party on an odd date but organizes the party after P.

How many person are organizing the party between Q and U?

Answer b) two

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman? (a) Brother (b) Uncle (c) Nephew (d) Cousin Correct Answer: (c) Nephew Explanation: The woman’s mother is the man’s grandmother. The man’s father is the woman’s uncle. Therefore, the man is the woman’s nephew. Incorrect Answer: (c) Nephew Explanation: The woman’s mother is the man’s grandmother. The man’s father is the woman’s uncle. Therefore, the man is the woman’s nephew.

#### 25. Question

A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?

• (a) Brother

• (c) Nephew

• (d) Cousin

Answer: (c) Nephew

Explanation:

The woman’s mother is the man’s grandmother. The man’s father is the woman’s uncle. Therefore, the man is the woman’s nephew.

Answer: (c) Nephew

Explanation:

The woman’s mother is the man’s grandmother. The man’s father is the woman’s uncle. Therefore, the man is the woman’s nephew.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points What was the role of the press in the Indian National Movement? The press was able to mobilise awareness in even the remotest of villages. Newspaper articles and editorials were read and discussed in local libraries. The press acted as an institution of opposition to the government. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: It was realized by nationalists that the Press is a good medium through which they can reach the masses, generate opinion and mobilize them. The Hindu, The Bengalee, Voice of India, and Amrita Bazaar Patrika among others are some examples of Indian publications. Their role or contribution can be summarized as follows: Raised the political consciousness of the masses. The impact was so widespread that it reached even the remotest of villages. Newspaper articles and editorials were read and discussed in local libraries. The press acted as an institution of opposition to the government. They helped the masses understand the true nature of British Rule. Indian Press adopted innovative methods to circumvent the restrictions such as becoming English newspapers overnight to not attract Vernacular Press Laws or publishing artists printed by Irish nationalists etc. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: It was realized by nationalists that the Press is a good medium through which they can reach the masses, generate opinion and mobilize them. The Hindu, The Bengalee, Voice of India, and Amrita Bazaar Patrika among others are some examples of Indian publications. Their role or contribution can be summarized as follows: Raised the political consciousness of the masses. The impact was so widespread that it reached even the remotest of villages. Newspaper articles and editorials were read and discussed in local libraries. The press acted as an institution of opposition to the government. They helped the masses understand the true nature of British Rule. Indian Press adopted innovative methods to circumvent the restrictions such as becoming English newspapers overnight to not attract Vernacular Press Laws or publishing artists printed by Irish nationalists etc. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/

#### 26. Question

What was the role of the press in the Indian National Movement?

• The press was able to mobilise awareness in even the remotest of villages.

• Newspaper articles and editorials were read and discussed in local libraries.

• The press acted as an institution of opposition to the government.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: It was realized by nationalists that the Press is a good medium through which they can reach the masses, generate opinion and mobilize them. The Hindu, The Bengalee, Voice of India, and Amrita Bazaar Patrika among others are some examples of Indian publications. Their role or contribution can be summarized as follows:

• Raised the political consciousness of the masses.

• The impact was so widespread that it reached even the remotest of villages.

• Newspaper articles and editorials were read and discussed in local libraries.

• The press acted as an institution of opposition to the government.

• They helped the masses understand the true nature of British Rule.

• Indian Press adopted innovative methods to circumvent the restrictions such as becoming English newspapers overnight to not attract Vernacular Press Laws or publishing artists printed by Irish nationalists etc.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/

Solution: c)

• Raised the political consciousness of the masses.

• The impact was so widespread that it reached even the remotest of villages.

• Newspaper articles and editorials were read and discussed in local libraries.

• The press acted as an institution of opposition to the government.

• They helped the masses understand the true nature of British Rule.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are the characteristic of peninsular rivers? They follow largely straight courses due to flowing on hard rocky terrain. They flow in mature stages on old plateaus. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/

#### 27. Question

Which of the following is/are the characteristic of peninsular rivers?

• They follow largely straight courses due to flowing on hard rocky terrain.

• They flow in mature stages on old plateaus.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points The National Mineral Exploration Policy (NMEP) 2016 seeks to boost exploration in India by encouraging private-sector involvement via auctioning exploration blocks for private sector involvement with revenue sharing creating public geoscientific data by mapping the entire country using low-altitude and close space flights for precise location of minerals Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: National Mineral Exploration Policy (NMEP) 2016 seeks to boost exploration in India by encouraging private-sector involvement. Key features include auctioning exploration blocks for private sector involvement with revenue sharing, creating public geoscientific data, and mapping the entire country using low-altitude and close space flights for precise location of minerals like gold, silver, copper, etc. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) (HQ: Kolkata) is a scientific agency founded in 1851 under the Ministry of Mines. It conducts geological surveys and studies, providing essential earth science information to government, industry, and the public. As one of the world’s oldest organizations of its kind, GSI actively participates in various industries and international geoscientific forums. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-december-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: National Mineral Exploration Policy (NMEP) 2016 seeks to boost exploration in India by encouraging private-sector involvement. Key features include auctioning exploration blocks for private sector involvement with revenue sharing, creating public geoscientific data, and mapping the entire country using low-altitude and close space flights for precise location of minerals like gold, silver, copper, etc. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) (HQ: Kolkata) is a scientific agency founded in 1851 under the Ministry of Mines. It conducts geological surveys and studies, providing essential earth science information to government, industry, and the public. As one of the world’s oldest organizations of its kind, GSI actively participates in various industries and international geoscientific forums. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-december-2023/

#### 28. Question

The National Mineral Exploration Policy (NMEP) 2016 seeks to boost exploration in India by

• encouraging private-sector involvement via auctioning exploration blocks for private sector involvement with revenue sharing

• creating public geoscientific data by mapping the entire country using low-altitude and close space flights for precise location of minerals

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: c)

Justification: National Mineral Exploration Policy (NMEP) 2016 seeks to boost exploration in India by encouraging private-sector involvement. Key features include auctioning exploration blocks for private sector involvement with revenue sharing, creating public geoscientific data, and mapping the entire country using low-altitude and close space flights for precise location of minerals like gold, silver, copper, etc.

The Geological Survey of India (GSI) (HQ: Kolkata) is a scientific agency founded in 1851 under the Ministry of Mines. It conducts geological surveys and studies, providing essential earth science information to government, industry, and the public. As one of the world’s oldest organizations of its kind, GSI actively participates in various industries and international geoscientific forums.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-december-2023/

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-december-2023/

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The International Organization for Migration is the principal United Nations agency working in the field of migration. The Project PRAYAS involves studying migration trends, understanding migrants’ needs, and launching initiatives to raise awareness about safe migration processes, with the goal of strengthening international migration governance. Project PRAYAS was recently launched in collaboration with the Ministry of Home Affairs. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: International Organization for Migration (founded 1951; HQ: Grand-Saconnex, Switzerland) is the principal United Nations agency working in the field of migration. The organization implements operational assistance programmes for migrants, including internally displaced persons, refugees, and migrant workers. The International Organization for Migration (IOM) has launched Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs. The project aims to facilitate safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian workers and students. It consolidates state-level initiatives and focuses on improving coordination between state and central governments. The project involves studying migration trends, understanding migrants’ needs, and launching initiatives to raise awareness about safe migration processes, with the goal of strengthening international migration governance. India has a vast diaspora exceeding 32 million globally as of December 2021. It is the world’s top recipient of remittances. India ensures the welfare of its diaspora through initiatives like pre-departure orientation training, the Indian Community Welfare Fund (ICWF) for assistance in distress, the MADAD Portal for grievance redressal, and the Know India Programme, exposing the young diaspora to contemporary India. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/ Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: International Organization for Migration (founded 1951; HQ: Grand-Saconnex, Switzerland) is the principal United Nations agency working in the field of migration. The organization implements operational assistance programmes for migrants, including internally displaced persons, refugees, and migrant workers. The International Organization for Migration (IOM) has launched Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs. The project aims to facilitate safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian workers and students. It consolidates state-level initiatives and focuses on improving coordination between state and central governments. The project involves studying migration trends, understanding migrants’ needs, and launching initiatives to raise awareness about safe migration processes, with the goal of strengthening international migration governance. India has a vast diaspora exceeding 32 million globally as of December 2021. It is the world’s top recipient of remittances. India ensures the welfare of its diaspora through initiatives like pre-departure orientation training, the Indian Community Welfare Fund (ICWF) for assistance in distress, the MADAD Portal for grievance redressal, and the Know India Programme, exposing the young diaspora to contemporary India. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/

#### 29. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The International Organization for Migration is the principal United Nations agency working in the field of migration.

• The Project PRAYAS involves studying migration trends, understanding migrants’ needs, and launching initiatives to raise awareness about safe migration processes, with the goal of strengthening international migration governance.

• Project PRAYAS was recently launched in collaboration with the Ministry of Home Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: International Organization for Migration (founded 1951; HQ: Grand-Saconnex, Switzerland) is the principal United Nations agency working in the field of migration. The organization implements operational assistance programmes for migrants, including internally displaced persons, refugees, and migrant workers.

The International Organization for Migration (IOM) has launched Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs.

The project aims to facilitate safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian workers and students.

It consolidates state-level initiatives and focuses on improving coordination between state and central governments.

The project involves studying migration trends, understanding migrants’ needs, and launching initiatives to raise awareness about safe migration processes, with the goal of strengthening international migration governance.

India has a vast diaspora exceeding 32 million globally as of December 2021. It is the world’s top recipient of remittances. India ensures the welfare of its diaspora through initiatives like pre-departure orientation training, the Indian Community Welfare Fund (ICWF) for assistance in distress, the MADAD Portal for grievance redressal, and the Know India Programme, exposing the young diaspora to contemporary India.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/

Solution: b)

The project aims to facilitate safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian workers and students.

It consolidates state-level initiatives and focuses on improving coordination between state and central governments.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/23/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-december-2023/

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, as amended in 2016 banned the employment of children below 14 years. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976: Prohibits systems of labour where individuals, including children, work in servitude to pay off debt. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 governs laws related to children in conflict with the law. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Government Schemes related to Child Labour are: The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986: Amendment in 2016 banned the employment of children below 14 years. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976: Prohibits systems of labour where individuals, including children, work in servitude to pay off debt. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015: Governs laws related to children in conflict with the law. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012: Aims to prevent commercial sexual exploitation of children. The Trafficking in Persons (Prevention, Care and Rehabilitation) Bill: Draft published in 2021 detailing measures for prevention, protection, and rehabilitation. Specifies penalties for “trafficking” and “aggravated trafficking.” Broadens the scope of “victims” to include transgender persons. National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme: Implemented by the Union Ministry of Labour & Employment. Rehabilitation of child labourers through District Project Societies under the District Magistrate. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-december-2023/ Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Government Schemes related to Child Labour are: The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986: Amendment in 2016 banned the employment of children below 14 years. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976: Prohibits systems of labour where individuals, including children, work in servitude to pay off debt. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015: Governs laws related to children in conflict with the law. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012: Aims to prevent commercial sexual exploitation of children. The Trafficking in Persons (Prevention, Care and Rehabilitation) Bill: Draft published in 2021 detailing measures for prevention, protection, and rehabilitation. Specifies penalties for “trafficking” and “aggravated trafficking.” Broadens the scope of “victims” to include transgender persons. National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme: Implemented by the Union Ministry of Labour & Employment. Rehabilitation of child labourers through District Project Societies under the District Magistrate. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-december-2023/

#### 30. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, as amended in 2016 banned the employment of children below 14 years.

• The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976: Prohibits systems of labour where individuals, including children, work in servitude to pay off debt.

• The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 governs laws related to children in conflict with the law.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Government Schemes related to Child Labour are:

• The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986: Amendment in 2016 banned the employment of children below 14 years.

• The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976: Prohibits systems of labour where individuals, including children, work in servitude to pay off debt.

• The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015: Governs laws related to children in conflict with the law.

• Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012: Aims to prevent commercial sexual exploitation of children.

• The Trafficking in Persons (Prevention, Care and Rehabilitation) Bill: Draft published in 2021 detailing measures for prevention, protection, and rehabilitation. Specifies penalties for “trafficking” and “aggravated trafficking.”

• Broadens the scope of “victims” to include transgender persons.

• National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme: Implemented by the Union Ministry of Labour & Employment. Rehabilitation of child labourers through District Project Societies under the District Magistrate.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-december-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification: Government Schemes related to Child Labour are:

• The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986: Amendment in 2016 banned the employment of children below 14 years.

• The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976: Prohibits systems of labour where individuals, including children, work in servitude to pay off debt.

• The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015: Governs laws related to children in conflict with the law.

• Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012: Aims to prevent commercial sexual exploitation of children.

• Broadens the scope of “victims” to include transgender persons.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-december-2023/

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